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1. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has performed a partial CCNP ROUTE - Chapter 5
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3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has issued the commands shown
on a boundary router. What are two results of the network engineer issuing
this command? (Choose two.)

The internal administrative distance for EIGRP AS 66 has been changed to

66.
The internal administrative distance has changed to 66 and the external
administrative distance has changed to 90 for routes sourced from the router
with IP [Link].
The router has created the EIGRP autonomous system of 66.
The network [Link] has a modified internal metric of 66.
The internal administrative distance has been changed to 66 for routes
sourced from the router with IP [Link] and matching ACL 90.

Explanation: The EIGRP command distance 66 [Link] [Link] 90
changes the AD to 66 for all EIGRP routes learned from neighbor
[Link] that match the specific network prefix of ACL 90.

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4. What type of BGP message precedes the successful formation of a BGP

peering session?

keepalive
established
withdraw
open
update

Explanation: A BGP open message is used to establish a BGP adjacency.

Both peer sides negotiate session capabilities before BGP peering is
established.

5. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring BGP on a

router. Which configuration step is needed in order to establish the BGP
session with the neighbor router?

Configure the keepalive timer.

Initialize and activate the address family.
Advertise the networks attached to the router.
Restart the BGP process.
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Explanation: For a BGP session to initiate, one address family for a

neighbor must be activated. On Cisco routers the IPv4 address family is
activated by default; however, it may cause confusion when working with
other address families. The BGP router configuration command no bgp
default ip4-unicast disables the automatic activation of the IPv4 AFI.

6. Which two statements describe the BGP weight attribute? (Choose two.)

It is advertised to neighbor routers.

It correlates to the AS hop count.
It is an 8-bit value.
It is the first step in selecting the BGP best path.
It is a Cisco-defined attribute.

Explanation: BGP weight is a Cisco-defined attribute and the first step in

selecting the BGP best path. Weight is a 16-bit value (0 through 65,535)
assigned locally on the router; it is not advertised to other routers

7. Match the preference, that is used by the BGP origin attribute in best path
calculation, to the order.


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Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

Categories: Options:

IGP origin first preference

incomplete origin third preference

Exterior Gateway Protocol origin second preference

8. A network administrator is configuring BGP multipathing for paths

learned from iBGP advertisement. What is a condition for additional paths
to be considered equal to the best path?

The AIGP attribute must match.

The neighbor IP address must match.
The originated attribute must match.
The IGP cost must match for IBGP and EBGP.

Explanation: When you configure BGP multipathing, the additional paths

need to match the following best-path BGP path attributes: 
– Weight
– Local preference
– AS_Path length
– AS_Path content (although confederations can contain a different
AS_CONFED_SEQ path)

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– Origin
– MED
– Advertisement method (iBGP or eBGP) (If the prefix is learned from an
iBGP advertisement, the IGP cost must match for iBGP and eBGP to be
considered equal.)

9. A network administrator is troubleshooting an issue with a DMVPN

tunnel. From the output of the show dmvpn command, the administrator
notes that the tunnel is in the IPsec state. What problem does this state
indicate?

The line protocol of the DMVPN tunnel is down.

The DMVPN spoke router has not registered.
IPsec tunnels have not established IKE sessions.
IPsec security associations are not established.

Explanation: The command show dmvpn [detail] provides the tunnel

interface, tunnel role, tunnel state, and tunnel peers with uptime. When the
DMVPN tunnel interfaceis administratively shut down, there are no entries
associated to that tunnel interface. The tunnel states are, in order of
establishment:
– INTF: The line protocol of the DMVPN tunnel is down. 
– IKE: DMVPN tunnels configured with IPsec have not yet successfully
established an Internet key exchange (IKE) session.
– IPsec: An IKE session is established but an IPsec security association (SA)
has not yet been established.
– NHRP: The DMVPN spoke router has not yet successfully registered.
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– Up: The DMVPN spoke router has registered with the DMVPN hub and
received an ACK (positive registration reply) from the hub.

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring Phase 1

DMVPN. The hub router RH1 and the spoke router RS2 are already
configured and the administrator is finalizing configurations on spoke
router RS3 by mapping the NHRP and NHS addresses for the DMVPN hub.
Which configuration should the administrator use for the ip nhrp map
command?


ip nhrp map [Link] [Link]
ip nhrp map [Link] [Link]
ip nhrp map [Link] [Link]
ip nhrp map [Link] [Link]

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11. Which NHRP message type notifies routers of routes used by NHRP that
are no longer available?

purge
registration
redirect
resolution

Explanation: Purge messages are sent to remove a cached NHRP entry.

Purge messages notify routers of the loss of a route used by NHRP. Purges
are typically sent by an NHS to NHCs (which it answered) to indicate that the
mapping for an address/network that it answered is not valid anymore (for
example, if the network is unreachable from the original station or has
moved). Purge messages take the most direct path (spoke-to-spoke tunnel) if
feasible. If a spoke-to-spoke tunnel is not established, purge messages are
forwarded via the hub.

12. What information is maintained in the CEF adjacency table?

MAC address to IPv4 address mappings

the IP addresses of all neighboring routers
IP address to interface mappings 
Layer 2 next hops

13. Refer to the exhibit. All networks are active in the same EIGRP routing
domain. When the auto-summary command is issued on R3, which two
summary networks will be calculated on R3? (Choose two.)

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[Link]/16
[Link]/24
[Link]/30
[Link]/30
[Link]/24

Explanation: As a result of implementing EIGRP automatic summarization,

router R3 uses a classful network addressing scheme to group networks
together based on their classful network mask. [Link]/30 and 
[Link]/30 are shortened to [Link]/24 and [Link]/24 is
summarized to [Link]/16. [Link]/24 is already using its classful
mask and is not summarized.

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14. Refer to the exhibit. Which two routes will be advertised to the router ISP
if autosummarization is disabled? (Choose two.)

[Link]/1
[Link]/24
[Link]/24
[Link]/28 
[Link]/30

Explanation: If the no auto-summary command was issued disabling the

autosummarization, all subnetworks will be advertised, without

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summarization.

15. Which is a characteristic of policy based routing (PBR)?

Packets originating from a router can be identified through local PBR

policies.
PBR examines packets as they exit a router interface.
PBR policies are universal for all packets and modify the RIB.
Next-hop addresses defined in set statements are automatically placed in the
routing table.

16. Which two statements are true of policy-based routing (PBR) as a path
control tool? (Choose two.)

It can be applied only to link-state routing protocols.

It is applied only in the inbound direction.
Configured route map entries will have default sequence number increments
of 5.
Packets that do not match any match statements will be dropped.
It provides a mechanism to specify one or more next hops for packets
that match criteria.

17. A network administrator is writing a standard ACL that will deny any
traffic from the [Link]/16 network, but permit all other traffic. Which two
commands should be used? (Choose two.) 
Router(config)# access-list 95 deny [Link] [Link]
Router(config)# access-list 95 permit any
Router(config)# access-list 95 host [Link]
Router(config)# access-list 95 deny [Link] [Link]
Router(config)# access-list 95 [Link] [Link]
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Router(config)# access-list 95 deny any

Explanation: To deny traffic from the [Link]/16 network, the access-list

95 deny [Link] [Link] command is used. To permit all other traffic,
the access-list 95 permit any statement is added.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Considering that R2, R3, and R4 are correctly
configured, why did R1 not establish an adjacency with R2, R3, and R4?

because the automatic summarization is enabled on R1

because the IPv4 address on Fa0/0 interface of R1 is incorrect
because the Fa0/0 interface of R1 is declared as passive for EIGRP

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because there is no network command for the network [Link]/24 on R1

Explanation: The missing routes are the result of there not being an EIGRP
adjacency between R1 and R2, R3, and [Link] establish adjacency, a router
must send and receive hello packets over an interface to and from its
neighbors. The interface Fa0/ of the router R1 is declared as passive, so R1
will not send hello packets over its interface Fa0/0.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 were configured with EIGRP
message authentication, but the routers cannot exchange EIGRP messages.
Which two problems are causing the EIGRP authentication failure between
R1 and R2 in this configuration? (Choose two.)

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The key ID is invalid, because its value has to be in the range from 1 to
2147483647.
The EIGRP message authentication is being configured on the wrong
interface on R2.
The key chain name must be in upper case.
The routers have a different value for the key-string.
At least two keys had to be created for each key chain.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish an adjacency?


The IPv4 address of Fa0/0 interface of R1 has a wrong IP address.
The AS number does not match on R1 and R2.
The automatic summarization is enabled on R1 and R2.
There is no network command for the network [Link]/24 on R1.

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Explanation: To establish adjacency, both routers must be configured with

the same AS number. The network [Link] .[Link] command
issued on R1 includes all networks from [Link] to [Link].
Therefore, the network [Link]/24 is also included.

21. Match the IPsec function with its description. (Not all options are used.)

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Explanation: – Data integrity: Hashing algorithms ensure that packets are

not modified in transit.
– Replay detection: This provides protection against hackers trying to capture
and insert network traffic.
– Perfect forward secrecy: Each session key isderived independently of the
previous key. A compromise of one key does not compromise future keys.

22. Match the IPsec function with the description.

Match the IPsec function with the description



Explanation: Place the options in the following order:

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Categories: Options:

IPsec packet adds a unique sequence number to each encrypted

replay protection packet to prevent the packet from being duplicated
by a malicious intruder

IPsec tunnel ensures encrypted and decrypted traffic aligns with

protection correct DMVPN tunnel when multiple tunnels share
the same interface

IKEv2 protection limits the number of sessions a router can establish

to minimize CPU resources

dead peer configured only on spoke routers to detect loss of

detection connectivity with remote peer

23. Which three statements describe the IPsec protocol framework?

(Choose three.)

AH provides integrity and authentication.

ESP provides encryption, authentication, and integrity.
AH uses IP protocol 51. 
AH provides encryption and integrity.
ESP uses UDP protocol 50.
ESP requires both authentication and encryption.

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Explanation: The two primary protocols used with IPsec are AH and ESP.
AH is protocol number 51 and provides data authentication and integrity for
IP packets that are exchanged between the peers. ESP, which is protocol
number 50, performs packet encryption.

24. A network administrator is configuring an ACL to match networks for

BGP route filtering. The administrator creates an ACE permit ip [Link]
[Link] [Link] [Link]. Which network matches the ACE?

[Link]/27
[Link]/24
[Link]/25
[Link]/26

Explanation: One method for conditional matching of routes in BGP is

through extended ACLs. When extended ACLs are used for this purpose, the
source fields match against the network portion of the route, and the
destination fields match against the network mask. The network portion of
the matching networks is [Link] through [Link]. The network mask
portion is /24 through /26.

25. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting BGP
configuration and wants to display only routes that originated in AS 40.
Which regular expression should the administrator use in the command
show bgp ipv4 unicast regex regex-pattern ?

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show bgp ipv4 unicast regex ^40_

show bgp ipv4 unicast regex *40_
show bgp ipv4 unicast regex _40$
show bgp ipv4 unicast regex .40.

Explanation: In troubleshooting BGP, regular expressions (regex) can be

used to parse through the large number of available ASNs. Regular
expressions are based on query modifiers used to select the appropriate
content. The regex pattern 100_ indicates to only include the lines that
contain the exact phrase of 100. Some regex query modifiers are as follows:
(underscore) – Matches a space
^ (caret) – Indicates the start of a string
$ (dollar sign) – Indicates the end of a string 
. (period) – Matches a single character, including a space

26. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show bgp
ipv4 unicast [Link] command to check the route information in

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the BGP table. Which statement describes the characteristic of the

advertisement of this route?

The route is advertised for networks directly connected to the BGP router
[Link].
The route is advertised with the aggregate-address [Link]
[Link] summary-only command.
The route is advertised through an IGP.
The route is advertised through a static route.

27. What OSPF LSA type is used to advertise routes redistributed into an
OSPF domain?

type 3
type 4
type 5
type 7 

Explanation: OSPF uses six LSA types for IPv4 routing:

– Type 1, router: LSAs that advertise network prefixes within an area
– Type 2, network: LSAs that indicate the routers attached to broadcast
segment within an area

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– Type 3, summary: LSAs that advertises network prefixes that originate from
a different area
– Type 4, ASBR summary: LSA used to locate the ASBR from a different
area
– Type 5, AS external: LSA that advertises network prefixes that were
redistributed in to OSPF
– Type 7, NSSA external: LSA for external network prefixes that were
redistributed in a local NSSA area

28. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured two-way

redistribution on router R1. What metrics will be used for redistributed
routes?

EIGRP routes will have a metric of 1 and OSPF routes will have a metric of
infinity.

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EIGRP routes will have a metric of infinity and OSPF routes will have a
metric of 20.
EIGRP routes will have a metric of 170 and OSPF routes will have a metric of
20.
EIGRP routes will have a metric of infinity and OSPF routes will have a metric
of 1.

29. Refer to the exhibit. Which route will appear in the routing table of R3 as
a result of the redistribution configuration issued on R2?

O E2 [Link]/24 [110/20] via [Link], [Link], Serial0/0/1

O IA [Link]/30 [110/20] via [Link], [Link], Serial0/0/1
O E1 [Link]/24 [110/86] via [Link], [Link], Serial0/0/1 
D EX [Link]/30 [170/3072] via [Link], [Link], Serial0/0/1

30. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on

the two Cisco routers. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency.

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What should be done to fix the problem on router R2?

Implement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.

Implement the command network [Link] [Link] area 0 on router R2.
Change the router-id of router R2 to [Link].
Implement the command network [Link] [Link] area 0 on router R2.

31. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting a recent

OSPF stub configuration between R3 and R4. The only routes that should
appear on the routing table for R4 are intra-area routes and the default
route. However, interarea routes are also appearing. What must the
administrator do to fix this problem?


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Issue the keyword nssa on R3.

Issue the keyword nssa on R4.
Issue the keyword stub on R4.
Issue the keyword no-summary on R4.
Issue the keyword no-summary on R3.
Issue the keyword stub on R3. 
32. Refer to the exhibit. Router R0-A is not learning all of the OSPF routes
from the remote sites that connect to router R0-B and R0-C. What are two
issues the network engineer should consider? (Choose two.)

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routes not going from the LSDB to the routing table because of ACL
DR selection
missing default route(s)
neighbor adjacency
SSH misconfiguration

33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown.

However, the show ipv6 ospf neighbor command reveals that there
are no OSPFv3 neighbors established. What error in the configuration is
preventing neighbor relationship from forming between the two routers?

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OSPFv3 is not enabled on the interfaces.

The IPv6 routing process is not enabled.
There is a link-local address conflict between the serial and gigabit interfaces
on R1.
The IPv6 address family is not initialized on either router.

Explanation: The routers are unable to form an OSPFv3 adjacency because

OSPFv3 has not been enabled on the interfaces with the ospfv3 1 ipv6
area 0 command.

34. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has entered the command default-
information originate in OSPFv3 global configuration mode on R1, but R2 is
not receiving a default route. What is the problem?

The default-information originate command is only used for OSPFv2.

R1 and R2 are on different subnets.
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OSPFv3 is not running on R2.

R1 does not have a default route configured.

35. An administrator is troubleshooting an OSPFv3 network. Router A and

router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities
using OSPFv3. While debugging the routing process, the administrator
discovers that the networks that are advertised from router A do not show
in the routing table of router B. Why is the routing information not being
learned by router B?

Router A has a stub interface.

IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router B.
The OSPFv3 timers on both routers were adjusted for fast convergence.
An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from entering the interface on
router B that is connected.

36. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 enable EIGRP on all of their
interfaces. Which two conclusions can the field engineer draw from the
outputs of the show ip route eigrp command on each router? (Choose two.)

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Both routers are using the same path metric calculation method.
The path metric calculation used in R2 addresses the scalability with
higher-capacity interfaces.
R1 and R2 are using the same K factors to calculate the path metric.
An adjacency will be allowed between the routers, as long as all the K
factors in both routers are set to default values.
The EIGRP configuration mode of R1 uses wide metrics calculation.

R2 is using EIGRP classic configuration mode.

Explanation: The metrics for R2 routes are different from the metrics from
R1 routes. This is because R1 is using EIGRP classic configuration mode
that uses classic metrics, and R2 is using EIGRP named mode configuration

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that uses wide metrics by default. The EIGRP classic metric calculation uses
5 K values (K1 to K5) to calculate the metric, whereas the EIGRP wide metric
calculation uses 6 K values (K1 to K6). The two metric styles will allow
adjacency between the two routers, as long as K1 through K5 are the same,
and K6 is not set. The wide metrics calculation addresses the issues of
scalability with higher-capacity interfaces.

37. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants EIGRP on Router1 to load

balance traffic to network [Link]/64 across two interfaces.
Currently traffic is using only interface GigabitEthernet0/1. A second route,
not in the routing table, is available with a metric of 264000. What value is
needed in the variance command to make EIGRP put the second route into
the routing table?

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4
10
1
11

Explanation: A variance of 11 is needed to load balance across the second

route. The metric of the existing successor route is 25000. The metric of the
second route is 264000. The first metric needs to be multiplied by 11, which
is 275000, in order for the route to be put into the routing table.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 has recently been configured and
connected via interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0 to router R1. R1 is configured
correctly, but fails to establish a neighbor relationship with R2. What is the
problem?

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The EIGRPv6 process has not been activated on interface Gigabit Ethernet
0/0.
The passive-interface command is preventing hello packets from being
sent.
The command ipv6 unicast-routing should be implemented in the router
configuration mode.
The command ipv6 unicast-routing has not been implemented.

39. An administrator wants to configure EIGRPv6 in an IPv6 network. Which
three statements are valid for the configuration of EIGRPv6? (Choose
three.)

Split horizon needs to be enabled on all EIGRPv6 hub routers.

The network statement must be configured for the EIGRPv6 process.
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EIGRPv6 has to be directly configured on the interfaces over which it

runs.
There is no network statement configuration for EIGRPv6.
When using a passive-interface configuration, EIGRPv6 does not have
to be configured for that interface.
EIGRPv6 needs to be directly configured on an interface that has been made
passive.

40. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured a class map as

shown, but the traffic is not being classified as desired. Which conclusion
can be drawn from this configuration?


The traffic would be subject to the implicit default class.
The ACL-EIGRP is permitting the wrong IP multicast address.
The traffic would never match the CoPP-CLASS class map.
The ACL-ICMP access-list should be in a separate class map because it is
not a routing protocol.

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Explanation: A class map may contain one of two instructions: match-any

or match-all . If you have multiple match commands in a single class map
and match-any is used, it means the traffic must match one of the match
commands to be classified as part of the traffic class. If you use match-all ,
the traffic must match all the match commands to be part of the traffic class.
Considering the exhibit, it is not possible for a packet to be ICMP, BGP, and
EIGRP at the same time. Therefore, the traffic would never match the CoPP-
CLASS class map and would never be subject to the implicit default class.

41. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA

authentication on router R1. The ACS servers are configured and running.
The administrator tests the configuration by telneting to R1. What will
happen if the administrator attempts to authenticate through the RADIUS
server using incorrect credentials?

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The enable secret password and a random username could be used in the
next login attempt.
The authentication process stops.
The enable secret password could be used in the next login attempt.
The username and password of the local user database could be used in the
next login attempt.

Explanation: The authentication for Telnet connections is defined by AAA

method list AUTHEN. The AUTHEN list defines that the first authentication
method is through an ACS server using the RADIUS protocol (or RADIUS
server), the second authentication method is to use the local user database,
and the third method is to use the enable password. In this scenario,
however, because the administrator fails to pass the authentication by the
first method, the authentication process stops and no other authentication
methods are allowed.

42. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show run |
section username|aaa|line|radius command to verify an AAA configuration
on a Cisco router. Which two conclusions can be drawn from the command
output? (Choose two.)


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The router must use Cisco default ports for authentication and accounting to
connect to a RADIUS server.
Authentication for the vty lines is using the default authentication method.
Authentication for the console line will use local authentication as a
fallback method if the RADIUS server is not available.
A missing ip radius source-interface command on RADIUS server
settings may prevent the router from using the services of the server.
The Cisco router can use the radiuspassword pre-shared key to connect to a
RADIUS server.

Explanation: The conclusions that can be drawn from the command output 
are:
According to the aaa authentication login VTY_ACCESS group
RADIUSMETHOD local command the first method to be used is the group of
servers in the RADIUSMETHOD group.
According to the aaa authentication login CONSOLE_ACCESS group

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RADIUSMETHOD local command, the first method to be used is the group

of servers in the RADIUSMETHOD group, and the second method to be
used if the servers are not available is the local username and password
database.
RADIUS server is using ports 1812 and 1813 for authentication and
accounting, so the port numbers on the Cisco router should be the same, not
the Cisco default ports (1645 and 1646).
The router needs to be configured with the same pre-shared key for the
RADIUS server, RADIUSPASSWORD .
When a router sources packets, it uses the exit interface as the source of the
packet. If the exit interface is not configured with the IP address that the AAA
server is expecting, the client cannot use the AAA server and the services it
provides. It is recommended that the IP address of a loopback interface be
used for the source of packets and as the client IP address that is configured
on the AAA server. Therefore, the router should be configured with the ip
radius source-interface [ loopback ] [ number ].

43. From the routing tables shown from routers within a multiarea OSPF
network, which routing table would be from an internal router that is within
a totally stub area?

A. 

Gateway of last resort is [Link] to network [Link]

[Link]/8 is variably subnetted, 8 subnets, 4 masks

O IA [Link]/30 [110/4] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEth
O IA [Link]/30 [110/3] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEth
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O IA [Link]/30 [110/66] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEt

O [Link]/24 [110/2] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEthern
C [Link]/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
L [Link]/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
O IA [Link]/25 [110/5] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEth
O IA [Link]/25 [110/6] via [Link], [Link], GigabitE
O*IA [Link]/0 [110/3] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEther

B.

Gateway of last resort is [Link] to network [Link]

[Link]/8 is variably subnetted, 3 subnets, 2 masks

O [Link]/24 [110/2] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEthern
C [Link]/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
L [Link]/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
O*IA [Link]/0 [110/3] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEther

C.

Gateway of last resort is [Link] to network [Link]

[Link]/8 is variably subnetted, 10 subnets, 4 masks

O [Link]/30 [110/2] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEthern 
C [Link]/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
L [Link]/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/1
C [Link]/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
L [Link]/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
C [Link]/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0
L [Link]/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet0/0
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O [Link]/24 [110/2] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEthern

O IA [Link]/25 [110/3] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEth
O IA [Link]/25 [110/4] via [Link], [Link], GigabitE
[Link]/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
O E2 [Link]/30 [110/20] via [Link], [Link], Gigabi
O E2 [Link]/26 [110/20] via [Link], [Link], Gigab
O*E2 [Link]/0 [110/1] via [Link], [Link], GigabitEther

D.

Gateway of last resort is not set

[Link]/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets

C [Link]/32 is directly connected, Loopback0
S [Link]/8 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
[Link]/24 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks
C [Link]/30 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0
L [Link]/32 is directly connected, Serial0/0/0

44. How does Cisco implement interarea OSPF summarization?

It must be configured manually on ASBRs.

The summarized route metric is equal to the lowest cost of all subnets

within the summary address range.​
Multiple routes inside the area are summarized by more than one LSA.​
It is performed automatically by OSPF.​

45. What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.)

to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain

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to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router

to enable the SPF algorithm to determine the lowest cost path to remote
networks
to facilitate the establishment of network convergence
to facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to Full

Explanation: OSPF router ID does not contribute to SPF algorithm

calculations, nor does it facilitate the transition of the OSPF neighbor state to
Full. Although the router ID is contained within OSPF messages when router
adjacencies are being established, it has no bearing on the actual
convergence process.

46. How is the flooding scope of link state advertisements denoted within
OSPFv3 LSAs?

The outer IPv6 OSPFv3 header uses three bits to determine LSA scope.
Three bits of the 16-bit LS type field of OSPFv3 LSAs set the scope.
ABR LSAs include scope information as part of the routing information
payload.
LSA scope is specified by the area area-ID range prefix-length command.

47. A network technician is verifying the OPSFv3 address families

configuration on a Cisco router. What would the technician expect to see
displayed when the show ospfv3 database router adv-router [Link]

command is issued?

the LSAs created by the router on which the command is executed and sent
to the router with RID [Link]

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all area LSAs in the LSDB of the DR router on which the command is
executed with RID [Link]
all LSAs in the LSDB of the router with RID [Link]
the LSAs received from the router with RID [Link] that exist in the
LSDB of the local router

48. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers R1 and R2 are configured for OSPFv3
and are routing for both IPv4 and IPv6 address families. Which two
destination addresses will R1 use to establish a full adjacency with R2?
(Choose two.)

ff02::5
fe80::2

[Link]
[Link]
[Link]

49. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 was configured by a network

administrator to use SNMP version 2. The following commands were

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issued:

R1(config)# snmp-server community batonaug ro SNMP_ACL

R1(config)# snmp-server contact Wayne World
R1(config)# snmp-server host [Link] version 2c batonaug
R1(config)# ip access-list standard SNMP_ACL
R1(config-std-nacl)# permit [Link]

Why is the administrator not able to get any information from R1?

The snmp-server enable traps command is missing.

There is a problem with the ACL configuration.

The snmp-server community command needs to include the rw keyword.
The snmp-server location command is missing.

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Explanation: The permit statement with the incorrect IP address is the

reason why the administrator is not able to access router R1. The correct
statement should be permit [Link]. The snmp-server location and
snmp-server enable traps commands are optional commands and have no
relation to the access restriction to router R1. The rw keyword does not need
to be included in this case because the administrator just wants to obtain
information, not change any configuration.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The total number of packet flows is not consistent
with what is expected by the network administrator. The results show only
half of the flows that are typically captured for the interface. Pings between
the router and the collector are successful. What is the reason for the
unexpected results?

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Interface Fa0/0 is not configured as the source of the packets sent to the
collector.
The interface is shutdown.
The Netflow collector IP address and UDP port number are not configured on
the router.
The router is not configured to monitor outgoing packets on the
interface.

Explanation: NetFlow flows are unidirectional. One user connection exists
as two flows. The flow in each direction must be captured. This is done by
using both the ip flow ingress and ip flow egress command on the interface.

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51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the syslog

service on a Cisco router. Which command should be used to configure an
IPv4 address of [Link] as the source address on the syslog packets
as they exit the router R1?

R1(config)#​logging host [Link]

R1(config)#​logging origin-id ip
R1(config)#​logging source-interface fa0/0
R1(config)# logging [Link]

52. Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to
the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)

deny ip any any 

deny ipv6 any any
permit ipv6 any any
deny icmp any any
permit icmp any any nd-ns
permit icmp any any nd-na
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Explanation: All IPv6 ACLs automatically include two implicit permit

statements; permit icmp any any nd-ns and permit icmp any any nd-na.
These statements allow the router interface to perform neighbor discovery
operations. An implicit deny ipv6 any any is also automatically included at the
end of any IPv6 ACL that blocks all IPv6 packets not otherwise permitted.

53. Which two networks would match the following prefix list? (Choose
two.)

ip prefix-list MATCHTHIS seq 5 deny [Link]/16 ge 24 le 30

[Link]/16
[Link]/30
[Link]/24
[Link]/16
[Link]/24

54. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator has configured the IPv6 ACL that is
in the exhibit to permit outbound Telnet traffic to any destination, and block
TCP connections from [Link] to any destination. All other packets
should be denied and logged. After implementing the ACL, all IPv6 traffic,
including Telnet from the [Link]/32 subnet is denied. What is the 
problem?

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The deny ipv6 any any log ACE is preventing NDP from functioning.
The eq telnet parameter should appear immediately after the IPv6 address in
the first ACE.
The ACEs are in the wrong order.
The wildcard mask is missing from the first ACE.

55. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the command show
bgp ipv6 unicast | begin Network to check the BGP table. Which
statement describes the routes with an unspecified address (::) in the Next
Hop column?

They are learned through an IGP.

They are locally generated network prefixes.
They indicate routes created by static route configuration.
They are learned through BGP advertisements from the next neighbor.

Explanation: An unspecified address in the BGP table indicates that the
local router is generating the prefix for the BGP table. The weight value
32,768 also indicates that the prefix is locally originated by the router.

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56. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show bgp ipv4
unicast [Link] command on router R2 to verify the network [Link] in
the BGP table. The administrator notices that there are two paths to reach
the network. Which BGP factor is used to determine the best-path?

the value of the BGP RID

the value of the lowest multi-exit discriminator attribute
whether the path is being learned via IBGP or EBGP
the value of the weight attribute

57. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring BGP route


advertisement on router R1. The network [Link]/24 is subnetted into four
[Link]/26 subnets that are attached to the 4 interfaces of R1 respectively.
The administrator issues the show ip route command and notices that the
network [Link]/24 is not advertised by BGP. What is a possible cause for
this issue?

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Not all four interfaces are up/up.

The network mask command does not match the network/prefix in the
routing table.
The BGP slit-horizon rule prevents the network from being advertised.
The network command is missing the summary-only keyword. 
58. Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol is used by R2 and R5 to exchange
Layer 3 routes?

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EIGRP
MP-BGP
LDP
OSPF

59. When an unlabeled packet arrives at an MPLS-enabled router interface,

which database is used to make a forwarding decision on the packet?

IP routing table (RIB)

IP forwarding table (FIB)
label information base (LIB)
label forwarding table (LFIB)
60. Match the MPLS router type to its characteristic.

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61. What is the order in determining the BGP router ID?

statically defined, the highest IP address of any active interfaces, and the
highest IP address of any active loopback interfaces
statically defined, the highest IP address of any active loopback
interfaces, and the highest IP address of any active interfaces
the highest IP address of any active interfaces, statically defined, and the
highest IP address of any active loopback interfaces
the highest IP address of any active loopback interfaces, statically defined,
and the highest IP address of any active interfaces 

Explanation: Statically configuring the BGP router ID (RID) is a best practice

to ensure RID stability. If the RID is not statically configured, the dynamic RID
allocation logic uses the highest IP address of any active loopback
interfaces. If there is not an active loopback interface, then the highest IP
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address of any active interfaces becomes the RID when the BGP process
initializes.

62. A network engineer is troubleshooting OSPFv2 routing issues on two

connected routers. Which two requirements to form an adjacency need to
be verified? (Choose two.)

Verify that one of the interfaces that connects the two routers is active and
the other passive.
Verify that one of the routers is the DR or BDR and the other router a
DRother.
Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same
subnet.
Verify that the interfaces that connect the two routers are in the same
area.
Verify that both routers are using the same OSPFv2 process ID.

Explanation: The OSPFv2 process ID is local to each router and does not
have to be common. Neither interface on the link connecting the two routers
can be passive. Both must be participating in the OSPF area. The DR, BDR,
and DROTHER status of the router has no bearing on the adjacency
relationship.

63. Router RTRA is adjacent to RTRB through a WAN link. RTRB can be
seen in the output of the show cdp neighbors command issued on RTRA,
can be pinged from RTRA, but is not showing OSPF routes from RTRA.
What are two potential issues? (Choose two.)

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There are duplicate IP addresses on the interfaces that connect RTRA and
RTRB.
One or both routers are missing or have a misconfigured network
statement.
Each interface that connects the routers has been set to priority 0.
A clock rate has not been installed on the DCE side of the link.
A distribute list is denying routes from being installed in the routing
table.

Explanation: The fact that RTRB can be pinged from RTRA indicates that
there is connectivity between the two routers. However, the absence of
OSPF routes from RTRA suggests that there is a configuration issue.
One potential issue is that one or both routers are missing or have a
misconfigured network statement for the OSPF process. OSPF relies on
routers to advertise the networks they are connected to by including them in
the OSPF domain through the use of network statements. If these
statements are missing or misconfigured, the routers will not advertise their
networks and OSPF routes will not be available.
Another potential issue is that a distribute list is denying routes from being
installed in the routing table. Distribute lists can be used to filter incoming and
outgoing OSPF routes based on certain criteria such as prefix, access list, or

prefix list. If a distribute list is configured to deny routes from being installed
in the routing table, OSPF routes from RTRB may not be available on RTRA.

64. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a GRE tunnel

between two corporate sites terminating on routers CE1 and CE2. The

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router CE2 is already configured. What set of commands should the

administrator configure on router CE1?

interface tunnel 0
ip address [Link] [Link]
tunnel source S0/1/0
tunnel destination [Link]
interface tunnel 0
ip address [Link] [Link]
tunnel source [Link]
tunnel destination [Link]
interface tunnel 0
ip address [Link] [Link]
tunnel source S0/1/0
tunnel destination [Link]
interface tunnel 0 
ip address [Link] [Link]
tunnel source S0/1/0
tunnel destination [Link]

65. Refer to the exhibit. What is the function of the Null0 route in the outputs
displayed for R1 and R2?
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to advertise the local /48 summary route

to force advertisements of only the /64 route entries to the neighbor routers
to force advertisements of only the /128 route entries to the neighbor routers
to invoke the split horizon rule to prevent routing loops

Explanation: In EIGRPv6, a Null0 route with an administrative distance of 5

is added to the routing table as a loop-prevention mechanism. Only the /48
summary prefix is received from the neighbor router and any of the more
specific /64 and /128 route entries are suppressed. In this instance a Null0 
route is populated on the router for the local /48 summary route
advertisement.

66. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp
neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?
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Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the sh

The link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured

manually.
R1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1
interfaces.
The neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor
that is learned by R1.
If R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local
address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.

67. Which ACE will permit a packet that originates from any network and is
destined for a web server at [Link]?

access-list 101 permit tcp any host [Link] eq 80

access-list 101 permit tcp host [Link] eq 80 any

access-list 101 permit tcp host [Link] any eq 80
access-list 101 permit tcp any eq 80 host [Link]
68. An administrator is troubleshooting two routers in an OSPFv3 network.
They are trying to establish an OSPFv3 adjacency over an Ethernet link, but

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the adjacency is not forming. What are two possible reasons for this issue?
(Choose two.)

mismatched Area IDs

mismatched network types
mismatched global OSPV3 PID and the PID configured on the Ethernet
interface
mismatched link-local addresses
mismatched global unicast addresses
mismatched subnet masks

Explanation: When troubleshooting OSPFv3 adjacency issues between two

routers over an Ethernet link, the following issues could be the possible
reasons for adjacency failure:
Mismatched network types: OSPFv3 supports different network types
such as broadcast, non-broadcast, point-to-point, and point-to-multipoint.
Both routers should have the same OSPFv3 network type configured on
the Ethernet interface for adjacency to form.
Mismatched link-local addresses: OSPFv3 uses link-local addresses to
establish an adjacency between two routers over an Ethernet link. If the
link-local addresses on both routers are not configured correctly, the
adjacency will not form. 
Therefore, both mismatched network types and mismatched link-local
addresses could be possible reasons for the OSPFv3 adjacency not forming
over an Ethernet link. The other options listed in the question such as
mismatched Area IDs, mismatched global OSPv3 PID and the PID

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configured on the Ethernet interface, mismatched global unicast addresses,

and mismatched subnet masks are not relevant to this issue.

69. Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are connected to the same LAN segment
and are configured to run OSPFv3. They are not forming a neighbor
adjacency. What is the cause of the problem?

The IPv6 addresses of R1 and R2 are not in the same subnet.


The priority value of both R1 and R2 is 1.
The timer intervals of R1 and R2 do not match.
The OSPFv3 process IDs of R1 and R2 are different.

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Explanation: There is a mismatch between the timer intervals of R1 and R2.

In OSPF the timers must match on two routers before they will become
neighbors. The IPv6 addresses that are used by OSPFv3 are link-local, and
are in the same subnet. The OSPFv3 process ID is locally significant, and
does not have to match between routers. The default OSPF interface priority
value is 1, and does not prevent neighbor relationships from forming.

70. Refer to the exhibit. A SNMP manager is using the community string of
snmpenable and is configured with the IP address [Link]. The SNMP
manager is unable to read configuration variables on the R1 SNMP agent.
What could be the problem?​


The incorrect community string is configured on the SNMP manager.
The community of snmpenable2 is incorrectly configured on the SNMP agent.
The ACL is not permitting access by the SNMP manager.
The SNMP agent is not configured for read-only access.

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Explanation: ACLs are used to prevent SNMP messages from going beyond
the required devices. The ACL_SNMP is permitting only the host IP of
[Link] to access the SNMP agent. The actual IP of the SNMP
manager is [Link]. The SNMP agent is configured for read-write
access for reading and setting variables. The community string
of snmpenable2 is only affecting connectivity for trap messages.​

71. In which two situations would a company consider using an OSPF

virtual link? (Choose two.)

when merging with another company and needing to connect the two
backbone areas
when connecting discontiguous areas
when allowing corporate telecommuters to connect to corporate OSPF
network resources
when importing a non-OSPF routing protocol into an ABR or backbone OSPF
router
when importing a non-OSPF routing protocol into an internal OSPF router

Explanation: An OSPF virtual link is used to connect two areas through a

non-backbone area. The virtual link is used to overcome the discontiguity of
the OSPF domain caused by the non-backbone area. Therefore, it would be 
appropriate to use an OSPF virtual link in the following two situations:
When connecting discontiguous areas: If there are two OSPF areas that
are not physically connected to each other, a virtual link can be created
to connect them. The virtual link passes through a non-backbone area to
reach the destination area.

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When merging with another company and needing to connect the two
backbone areas: If two companies merge, and each has its own OSPF
backbone area, a virtual link can be created to connect the two
backbone areas. This allows for a seamless integration of the two OSPF
domains.

The other options listed in the question such as allowing corporate

telecommuters to connect to corporate OSPF network resources, importing a
non-OSPF routing protocol into an ABR or backbone OSPF router, and
importing a non-OSPF routing protocol into an internal OSPF router are not
relevant to the use case for OSPF virtual links.

72. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator verifies on an enterprise

network that EIGRP query packets are delayed because of packet loss. The
administrator issues the show ip protocols | include Active command to see
the EIGRP active timer on a router. What can the administrator conclude
from this output?


EIGRP waits 120 seconds before sending a SIA query to neighbors that did
not respond.
The SIA state is declared for a neighbor without receiving an SIA reply after 4
minutes.
Upon receipt of an SIA query from a neighbor router, the router needs to
respond within 60 seconds to avoid being SIA state.
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This is the default value of the active timer.

Explanation: Occasionally, an EIGRP query is delayed because of packet

loss, slow neighbors, or a large hop count. EIGRP maintains an active timer,
which has a default value of 3 minutes (180 seconds). According to the
output, the active timer was set to 2 minutes (120 seconds). EIGRP then
waits half of the active timer value that was set (60 seconds) for a reply. If the
router does not receive a response within 60 seconds, the originating router
sends a SIA query to EIGRP neighbors that did not respond.

73. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting a

configuration for EIGRP and OSPF mutual redistribution. Why is the OSPF
process not receiving all of the redistributed EIGRP routes?

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The route map REDIS_EIGRP_TO_OSPF does not reference a correct

prefix-list.
The [Link] network is the only network receiving a tag during the
redistribution process.
Because of the deny keyword on sequence 20, only the [Link]
network is being allowed in the redistribution process.

The match command is referencing an ip keyword and should be referencing
an ipv6 keyword.

74. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has attempted to implement

a default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the default route to EIGRP
neighbors. Remote connectivity from the EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP

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connected to R1 is failing. Based on the output from the exhibit, what is the
most likely cause of the problem?

The ip route command must specify a next-hop IP address instead of an exit

interface when creating a default route. 
The command redistribute static has not been issued on R1.
The network statement for the ISP connection has not been issued.
The command default-information originate has not been issued on R1.
There are no EIGRP neighbor relationships on R1.

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75. Which two network prefixes match the prefix match pattern [Link]/12
ge 16? (Choose two.)

[Link]/15
[Link]/12
[Link]/24
[Link]/30
[Link]/12

76. What is the purpose of the BGP maximum prefix feature?

to restrict the number of routes received from a peer

to restrict the bandwidth used for a specific set of routes
to restrict the number of peers that will advertise the same route
to restrict the number of routes sent to a peer with low bandwidth

Explanation: The BGP maximum prefix feature restricts the number of

routes that are received from a BGP peer.

77. What is the purpose of the BGP maximum prefix feature?

to restrict the bandwidth used for a specific set of routes

to preserve the router memory for a set of important routes

to restrict the number of peers that will advertise the same route
to ensure that the BGP table does not overwhelm the router

Explanation: The BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) maximum prefix feature

is used to limit the number of BGP prefixes that a router will accept from a

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specific peer. The purpose of this feature is to prevent the router from being
overwhelmed with too many prefixes, which could cause the router to run out
of memory or processing resources.
By setting a maximum prefix limit, the router can protect itself from receiving
an excessive number of BGP routes, which can be particularly important in
cases where a misconfiguration or a routing loop can cause an uncontrolled
growth in the number of prefixes being advertised.

78. Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured for 2-way redistribution

between OSPF and EIGRP. When the network administrator views the EIGRP
topology table on R1, no redistributed routes from OSPF are present. What
corrective action on R2 should the administrator take to resolve this issue?

Remove the subnets keyword from the OSPF configuration.

Apply a seed metric to OSPF routes.

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Change the OSPF metric type to 1.

Change the EIGRP process to 1.

79. Which three statements describe the default operation of route

redistribution? (Choose three.)

Routes redistributed into EIGRP have an AD of 190.

Routes redistributed into OSPF have an AD of 20.
OSPF external routes are not included in OSPF to BGP redistribution.
BGP only redistributes EBGP routes into IGP protocols.
BGP weight for redistributed routes is set to 4096.
Routes redistributed into OSPF from BGP have a seed metric of 1.

Explanation: Default redistribution behavior is as follows:

BGP only redistributes EBGP routes into IGP protocols.
Routes redistributed into OSPF from BGP have a seed metric of 1.
Routes redistributed into EIGRP have an AD of 170.
Routes redistributed into OSPF have an AD of 110.
The default BGP weight for redistributed routes is 32,768.

80. Which two elements of security are ensured by data integrity? (Choose
two.) 
Data is available wherever it it needed.
Data is accurate and has not been changed in transit.
Data is always available to users.
Data is viewable to only authorized users.
Data can only be modified by authorized users.
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Explanation: Data integrity ensures that data has not been modified or
tampered with in transit or storage, and that it is accurate and consistent.
This is typically achieved through the use of cryptographic techniques, such
as digital signatures or hash functions. The following statements describe the
elements of security that are ensured by data integrity:
Data is accurate and has not been changed in transit. By ensuring that
data has not been modified or tampered with, data integrity ensures that
data is accurate and that it has not been changed in transit.
Data can only be modified by authorized users. Data integrity also
ensures that data can only be modified by authorized users, who have
the necessary permissions to modify the data. This helps to prevent
unauthorized changes to data and helps to maintain the accuracy and
consistency of data.

81. Which feature of IPsec validates the source of data transmitted through
the Internet?

authentication
confidentiality
anti-replay protection
data integrity

Explanation: Authentication is the process of verifying the identity of a
sender or receiver of data, and ensuring that the data has not been tampered
with in transit. IPsec provides authentication through the use of digital

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certificates or pre-shared keys, which allow the receiver to verify the identity
of the sender.

82. What is used on PE routers in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN deployment to

isolate the routes of multiple customers?

BGP communities
MP-BGP address families
VRF instances
DMVPN tunnels

83. Refer to the exhibit. While configuring a multiarea OSPF topology, a

network administrator implements the network [Link] [Link] area
99 command. Which type of OSPF router is being configured?

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ASBR
internal backbone
internal

ABR

84. A network administrator is configuring IPv6 route summarization on a

BGP router with the command aggregate-address [Link]/60 summary-
only. Which two component networks match the aggregated route? (Choose
two.)

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[Link]/64
[Link]/64
[Link]/64
[Link]/64
[Link]/64

85. In addition to no shutdown, which two commands must a network

technician issue on the interface of a Cisco router to enable OSPFv3
address families for IPv6 on that interface? (Choose two.)

ipv6 address [Link]/64

router ospfv3 1
ipv6 unicast-routing
ospfv3 1 area 0 ipv6
ipv6 router ospf 1
ipv6 ospf 1 area 0

86. Which forwarding address is used by OSPFv3 address families learned

routes to forward data packets to the next hop router?

the IPv6 link-local address of the neighboring router

FF02::5
the outgoing interface IPv6 link-local address
FF02::6 
87. Which two classes of BGP path attributes are advertised between
autonomous systems? (Choose two.)

well-known mandatory
optional transitive

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well-known non-transitive
well-known discretionary
optional nontransitive

88. Multiple paths exist in the BGP table. Assuming the weights are the
same, what will the next determining factor be?

lowest origin type

highest local preference
locally originated
lowest MED
shortest AS_Path

89. A network administrator issues the show bgp ipv4 unicast summary
command on a router to check the adjacency state with a neighbor router.
The value under the State/PfxRcd field shows Idle. Which statement
describes the status of adjacency between the two routers?

A three-way TCP handshake is complete but the adjacency has not formed
because the neighbor router has not responded to the open message.
Because there is no Layer 3 connectivity between the two routers, the
adjacency is not formed.
The adjacency is successfully formed and the router is waiting for messages
from the neighbor router.
The adjacency is formed, but no prefix has been received from the neighbor 
router.
90. Refer to the exhibit. A user has configured a NIC on the PC as shown but
finds that the PC is unable to access the Internet. What is the problem?

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There should not be an alternate DNS server.

The preferred DNS address is incorrect. 
The default gateway address is incorrect.
The settings were not validated upon exit.

Explanation: In order for a computer to communicate outside its network, it

must have a valid default gateway [Link] address cannot be the
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same as the IP address of the computer.

91. Refer to the exhibit. For the given topology, what are three results of the
OSPF DR and BDR elections ? (Choose three.)

R1 is BDR for segment A.

R4 is DR for segment B.
R2 is DR for segment A.
R5 is BDR for segment B.

R3 is DR for segment B.
R3 is DR for segment A.

Explanation: R3 will be elected DR for segment A because it has the highest

router-ID of [Link].

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R3 will be elected DR for segment B because it has the highest router-ID of

[Link].
R5 will be elected BDR because it has the numerically highest router-ID of
[Link].

92. Consider the following access list that allows IP phone configuration file
transfers from a particular host to a TFTP server:

R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host [Link] host

R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out

Which method would allow the network administrator to modify the ACL and
include FTP transfers from any source IP address?

R1(config)# interface gi0/0

R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host [Link] eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host [Link] eq 21
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out 
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host [Link] eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host [Link] eq 21
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# no access-list 105
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R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host [Link] host [Link]

range 1024 5000
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host [Link] eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host [Link] eq 21
R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host [Link] host [Link] range
1024 5000
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host [Link] eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host [Link] eq 21
R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any

93. What is the reason for a network engineer to alter the default reference
bandwidth parameter when configuring OSPF?

to force that specific link to be used in the destination route

to more accurately reflect the cost of links greater than 100 Mb/s
to enable the link for OSPF routing
to increase the speed of the link

Explanation: By default, Fast Ethernet, Gigabit, and 10 Gigabit Ethernet

interfaces all have a cost of 1. Altering the default reference bandwidth alters
the cost calculation, allowing each speed to be more accurately reflected in 
the cost.

94. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician issues the show bgp ipv4
unicast summary command on router R1 to verify the BGP state with the
neighbor. Which scenario would cause a neighbor relationship to fail?
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There is no route in the routing table to reach the neighbor on one or

both routers.
The path to the neighbor at [Link] is through the default route.
The BGP table has not been exchanged.
The AS number used in the neighbor configuration is wrong.
95. Which capability is supported by all three DMVPN phase models?

direct spoke-to-hub communication

spoke-to-spoke between DMVPN networks
direct spoke-to-spoke communication
on-demand VPN tunnels between spokes

Explanation: There are three DMVPN phase models: Phase 1, Phase 2,

and Phase 3. The first DMVPN implementation is Phase 1. Phase 1 only
supports spoke-to-hub tunnels. Traffic between spokes must traverse the
hub. Phases 2 and 3 support not only spoke-to-hub tunnels, but also direct

spoke-to-spoke tunnels.

96. What characterizes an EIGRP stub site feature?

The stub functionality can be passed to a branch site that has multiple
edge routers.
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It prevents downstream routers from receiving and advertising network

prefixes across the WAN.
It works by identifying the Ethernet interfaces and then setting an EIGRP stub
site identifier.
EIGRP neighbors on WAN links send EIGRP queries to the remote site when
a route becomes active.

97. Refer to the exhibit. Why did R1 and R2 not establish an adjacency?

The no shutdown command is misapplied on both routers.​

The AS number must be the same on R1 and R2.

The router ID must be the same on both routers.
R1 S0/0/0 and R2 S0/0/0 are on different networks.​
The link-local address must be the same on both routers.

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Explanation: To establish adjacency, both routers must be configured with

the same AS number. The network [Link] .[Link] command
issued on R1 includes all networks from [Link] to [Link].
Therefore, the network [Link]/24 is also included.

98. An administrator needs to configure a router to perform conditional

forwarding of packets based on packet characteristics in addition to the
destination IP address. Which technology does the administrator need to
configure?

Multiprotocol Label Switching

route redistribution
policy based routing
virtual routing and forwarding

99. What is a requirement for member routers in a BGP peer group?

They must use a loopback interface to establish a BGP session.

They must be of the same model.
They must form a fully meshed connection.
They must be of the same BGP session type.

100. In order to limit spoofed packets on a network, a network administrator 

is configuring uRPF on a Cisco router interface with the ip verify unicast
source reachable-via rx command. After the configuration is completed, the
administrator observes that valid packets are being dropped. What may be
causing this packet discard?

The uRPF is configured with loose mode and asymmetric routing occurs.
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The uRPF is configured with strict mode and symmetric routing occurs.
The return traffic used a different path to that used by the source traffic.
The same path is used for the source traffic and the return traffic.

Explanation: When uRPF is configured on an interface, the uRPF mode

should be chosen according to the type of routing. With symmetric routing,
the same path is used for the source and the return traffic. With asymmetric
routing, a different path ends up being used for return traffic. The ip verify
unicast reachable-via rx command configures uRPF in strict mode. If strict
mode is used when asymmetric routing occurs, the legitimate traffic is
dropped. Where symmetric routing is guaranteed to occur, uRPF should be
configured in strict mode.

101. A device has been assigned the IPv6 address of

[Link]/64. Which is the network
identifier of the device?

[Link]
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]
2001

Explanation: The address has a prefix length of /64. Thus the first 64 bits
represent the network portion, whereas the last 64 bits represent the host
portion of the IPv6 address.

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102. A network administrator is teaching a junior network engineer about

EIGRP stub routers. Which two explanations can be given to the junior
engineer about the subject? (Choose two.)

An EIGRP stub router advertises only connected routes by default.

An EIGRP stub router receives queries from EIGRP when a route goes
active.
An EIGRP stub router does not advertise routes that it learns from other
EIGRP peers.
An EIGRP stub router announces that it is a stub router within the EIGRP
query packet.
An EIGRP stub router can be configured only to receive routes.

Explanation: An EIGRP stub router does not advertise routes that it learns
from other EIGRP peers. By default, EIGRP stubs advertise only connected
and summary routes, but they can be configured only to receive routes or
advertise any combination of redistributed routes, connected routes, or
summary routes. The EIGRP stub router announces that it is a stub router
within the EIGRP hello packet. If a route goes active, EIGRP does not send
EIGRP queries to an EIGRP stub router.

103. Which is the correct order of the four steps to configure CoPP on a 
Cisco router?

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1) Configure extended ACLs to identify specific granular traffic.

2) Configure the class map to define interesting traffic.
3) Configure a policy map to apply actions to the identified traffic.
4) Configure a service policy to identify which interface should be activated
for the service.

1) Configure a service policy to identify which interface should be activated for the
service.
2) Configure extended ACLs to identify specific granular traffic.
3) Configure the class map to define interesting traffic.
4) Configure a policy map to apply actions to the identified traffic.

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1) Configure extended ACLs to identify specific granular traffic.

2) Configure the class map to define interesting traffic.
3) Configure a service policy to identify which interface should be activated for the
service.
4) Configure a policy map to apply actions to the identified traffic.

1) Configure a policy map to apply actions to the identified traffic.

2) Configure a service policy to identify which interface should be activated for the
service.
3) Configure extended ACLs to identify specific granular traffic.
4) Configure the class map to define interesting traffic. 

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Explanation: Control Plane Policing (CoPP) varies based on IOS version

and platform version. Therefore, there are general elements that apply to all
versions. When configuring CoPP, the steps are as follows:
Create ACLs to identify the traffic.
Create class maps to define a traffic class.
Create policy maps to define a service policy.
Apply the service policy to the control plane.

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104. Which are two characteristics of the stub feature in EIGRP ? (Choose
two.)

It stops the hub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP prefixes
to the stub routers.
It stops the hub router from sending queries to the stub router.
It prevents routing loops by using the split-horizon rule.
It stops the stub router from sending queries to IPv6 peers.
It stops the stub router from propagating dynamically learned EIGRP
prefixes to the hub routers.

Explanation: When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to
configure the distribution and remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure
only the remote router as a stub. Only specified routes are propagated from
the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for summaries,
connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal
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routes with the message “inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub

will send a special peer information packet to all neighboring routers to report
its status as a stub router.
Without the stub feature, even after the routes that are sent from the
distribution router to the remote router have been filtered or summarized, a
problem might occur. If a route is lost somewhere in the corporate network,
EIGRP could send a query to the distribution router, which in turn will send a
query to the remote router even if routes are being summarized. If there is a
problem communicating over the WAN link between the distribution router
and the remote router, an
EIGRP stuck in active (SIA) condition could occur and cause instability
elsewhere in the network. The EIGRP Stub Routing feature allows a network
administrator to prevent queries from being sent to the remote router.

105. Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to
form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.

The link interface subnet masks must match.
The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2
network command.
The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf 
process area-id command.
The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

Explanation: The OSPFv2 process ID does not have to be the same on

each router, and it is enabled globally, not separately on each interface.

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OSPFv3 (IPv6) uses link-local addresses to form an adjacency with a

neighbor router, and requires the OSPF process to be enabled on the
interface.

106. When creating an IPv6 static route, when must a next-hop IPv6 address
and an exit interface both be specified?

when the static route is a default route

when the next hop is a link-local address
when the exit interface is a point-to-point interface
when CEF is enabled

Explanation: Link-local addresses are only unique on a given link, and the
same address could exist out multiple interfaces. For that reason, any time a
static route specifies a link-local address as the next hop, it must also specify
the exit interface. This is called a fully specified static route.

107. Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the
output? (Choose two.)

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There is one feasible successor to network [Link]/30.

The network [Link]/30 can be reached through [Link].
The reported distance to network [Link]/24 is 41024256.
The neighbor [Link] meets the feasibility condition to reach the
[Link]/24 network.
Router R1 has two successors to the [Link]/24 network.

Explanation: The second entry in the table indicates that there is one
feasible successor (“1 successors”) for network [Link]/30. The last
entry in the table shows that network [Link]/30 is directly connected,
so it is not reachable through network [Link]. The third entry indicates

that the reported distances for network [Link] are 28116 and 2170112,
not 41024256. This same entry shows that neighbor [Link] is a feasible
successor for network [Link]. The first entry indicates that R1 has only
one successor, not two to network [Link]/24.

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108. A network engineer has manually configured the Hello interval to 15

seconds on an interface of a router that is running OSPFv2. By default, how
will the Dead interval on the interface be affected?

The Dead interval will not change from the default value.
The Dead interval will now be 15 seconds.
The Dead interval will now be 30 seconds.
The Dead interval will now be 60 seconds.

Explanation: Cisco IOS automatically modifies the Dead interval to four

times the Hello interval.

109. What command specifies a BGP neighbor that has an IP address of

[Link]/24 and that is in AS 500?

(config-router)# neighbor [Link] remote-as 500

(config-router)# network [Link] [Link]
(config-router)# router bgp 500
(config-router)# neighbor 500 remote-as [Link]

110. In a mulitarea OSPF internetwork, which route source descriptor is

used to denote the best paths within the internetwork that are as a result of
processing type 3 and type 4 LSAs? 
O E1
O IA
O
O E2

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111. Refer to the exhibit. Which two networks contain feasible successors?
(Choose two.)

[Link]
[Link]

[Link]
[Link]
[Link]

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Explanation: Feasible successors are installed in the EIGRP routing table

when the successor becomes unavailable. Feasible successors are backup
routes that are have a metric higher than that of successors.

112. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has issued the verification
command while troubleshooting a routing loop on the network. What is the
error in the configuration?

The redistribute command is issued to filter routes using the route map
instead of the prefix list.
The route map is dropping all other routes that do not match the prefix list 
TAG_172.16.0.0.
The match ip address command refers to the incorrect network prefix.
The prefix list of TAG_172.16.0.0 is configured with an invalid sequence
number.

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113. How is a DHCPDISCOVER transmitted on a network to reach a DHCP

server?

A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the broadcast IP address as

the destination address.
A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with a multicast IP address that all
DHCP servers listen to as the destination address.
A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the default
gateway as the destination address.
A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the DHCP server
as the destination address.

Explanation: The DHCPDISCOVER message is sent by a DHCPv4 client

and targets a broadcast IP along with the destination port 67. The DHCPv4
server or servers respond to the DHCPv4 clients by targeting port 68.

114. Refer to the exhibit. What can the field engineer conclude about the
EIGRP authentication between RouterA and RouterB?

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Authentication will succeed and EIGRP updates can be exchanged.

Authentication will fail because the key chain names do not match.
Authentication will fail because the key chain names must match the router
names.
Authentication will fail because only one key is configured.

Explanation: Authentication ensures that only authorized routers are eligible

to become EIGRP neighbors. A precomputed password hash is encrypted by
using a MD5 authentication and it is included with all EIGRP packets. The
hash is computed using the key number and the key string. The receiving
router decrypts the hash. If the passwords do not match for a packet, the
routers will not become neighbors. In this scenario, the key number and the
key string are the same on both routers. Therefore, they will become
neighbors.

115. What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose
two.)

Route summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.

Routes within an area are summarized by the ABR.
Type 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes by
default. 
ASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.
ABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.

116. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of OSPF authentication has been
configured on this interface?

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simple
null
plain text
MD5
117. A network administrator needs to learn information about EIGRP load
balancing to configure an EIGRP network. Which piece of information is
accurate about this subject?

The variance multiplier is obtained by dividing the successor route metric by

the feasible successor metric.

Any feasible distance of a feasible successor with a metric above the EIGRP
variance value is installed into the RIB.
The maximum equal-cost multipathing routing for EIGRP is four routes.
The EIGRP variance value is the feasible distance for a route multiplied
by the EIGRP variance multiplier.
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Explanation: EIGRP allows multiple successor routes (with the same metric)
to be installed into the EIGRP RIB. This is called equal-cost multipathing
(ECMP) routing. The actual default maximum ECMP is four routes, but this
value can be changed with the maximum-paths maximum-paths command.
EIGRP also supports unequal-cost load balancing changing the EIGRP
variance multiplier. The EIGRP variance value is the feasible distance (FD)
for a route multiplied by the EIGRP variance multiplier. Any FD of a feasible
successor with a metric below the EIGRP variance value is installed into the
RIB. Dividing the feasible successor metric by the successor route metric
provides the variance multiplier.

← Previous Article Next Article →

2.2.1 Packet Tracer – Configure CCNP Enterprise ENARSI v8 Exam
Basic EIGRP with IPv4 (Answers) Answers (Advanced Routing)

Discover more Router Routers route authenticate VPN authentication

Virtual private network configuration Computer configuration Authentication

Discover more IPsec protocol server computer route Communication

configuration routing Computer configuration communication servers



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43 COMMENTS

Ben  7 months ago

Has anyone read question 68, or only i think its very confusing? They explain
exactly the opposite what the answer is.

Reply

Jvenus  7 months ago

I took the new exam and got over 90.

Reply


Pablo  10 months ago

Heelo ,
Are the ENCOR questions still relevant:? Someone helped:?

Thank you

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Reply

Alex  10 months ago

Hi,Is this questions still valid?

Reply

Nnmn  1 year ago

Is this questions still valid?

Reply

Nnzte  1 year ago

 Reply to Nnmn
??

Reply

Robert  8 months ago


 Reply to Nnmn
Hey man could you update me ?
Did you take the exam ? What were the differences ? if any ?

Reply

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Anon  1 year ago

Still valid?

Reply

cariz  1 year ago

 Reply to Anon
is this still valid mate. How was your exam?

Reply

Salma  2 years ago

Is it still valid?

Reply

IT Administrator  2 years ago

 Reply to Salma
Author
Yes, still valid, you will get high score

Reply

cariz  1 year ago


 Reply to IT Administrator
is this still valid plz reply me
Reply

IT Administrator  1 year ago

 Reply to cariz
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Author
Yes, still valid

Reply

Cariz  1 year ago

 Reply to IT Administrator
sadly the question pattern has changed now they will asked
different question we have to do a bit lab as well and the
new question are bit tough as well hope you will update it,
Wish i can help you to update the question bank.

Reply

Smith  2 years ago

Are there new questions on the exam that are not covered in this specific
section?
Admin thank you for your great job!

Reply

Nick  2 years ago


Are the specific questions also valid for the exam?

Reply

IT Administrator  2 years ago

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Author  Reply to Nick
Yes, still valid.

Reply

Anon  2 years ago

show bgp ipv4 unicast regex _40$ ????

This is the correct option for Q25

Reply

Anon  2 years ago

“IPsec: An IKE session is established but …”

the literal explanation proves the answer is wrong for Question 9

Reply

Anon  2 years ago

New questions are very available, when can you put in the effort and upload
them? 
Reply

Anon  2 years ago

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Surely new questions can be uploaded???

Reply

santi  2 years ago

There are new questions, when will it be updated?

Reply

deni  2 years ago

are these still valid? which file do you guys study to prepare for the enarsi
test? please guide

Reply

wts  3 years ago

25
*40$ – originated in AS 40 / was born in
^40* – directly connected AS / received from

…bad question.

Reply

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john  3 years ago

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is troubleshooting a configuration for

EIGRP and OSPF mutual redistribution. Why is the OSPF process not
receiving all of the redistributed EIGRP routes?

Reply

NVL  3 years ago

is this valid for final exam or there are more questions? does anyone know?

Reply

Ruben  3 years ago

where are all

Reply


tttt  3 years ago

plz post all quiz

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Reply

Terrence  3 years ago

When are more questions coming?

Reply

John K  3 years ago

Where are The rest of The questions. There should be like 200?

Reply

Charles Wilberforce  3 years ago

Does anyone have some latest dumps to share..these are very old and not
valid.

Reply

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Nate  3 years ago

Q38 is The passive-interface command is preventing hello packets from

being sent.

Reply

Nate  3 years ago

What is the order in determining the BGP router ID?

statically defined, the highest IP address of any active interfaces, and the
highest IP address of any active loopback interfaces
statically defined, the highest IP address of any active loopback
interfaces, and the highest IP address of any active interfaces
the highest IP address of any active interfaces, statically defined, and the
highest IP address of any active loopback interfaces
the highest IP address of any active loopback interfaces, statically defined,
and the highest IP address of any active interfaces

Explanation: Statically configuring the BGP router ID (RID) is a best

practice to ensure RID stability. If the RID is not statically configured, the
dynamic RID allocation logic uses the highest IP address of any active
loopback interfaces. If there is not an active loopback interface, then the
highest IP address of any active interfaces becomes the RID when the BGP
process initializes.

Reply

kenya  4 years ago

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24

[Link]-[Link]
/24-/26

[Link]/25

Reply

kenya  4 years ago

 Reply to kenya
Is this right?

Reply

Phibs  4 years ago

Is there a valid dump for the ENARSI exam?

Reply

Fran Gómez Fernández  4 years ago


can’t wait! :-)

Reply

IT Administrator  4 years ago

 Reply to Fran Gómez Fernández

Author

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Sorry, hope you can share :(

Reply

Franduco  4 years ago

 Reply to IT Administrator
A friend sent me something…give me mail….I’ll sent you and u
publish?

Reply

IT Administrator  4 years ago

 Reply to Franduco
Author
itexamanswers@[Link]
Thank you!

Reply

Dung Dang  4 years ago

 Reply to IT Administrator
PDFs sent.
Reply

Leonardo  3 years ago 

 Reply to Dung Dang
This link goes to an unavailable page. Can you please
double check?

Reply

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Anon  2 years ago

 Reply to Franduco
Please can you share here

Reply

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