MCQs RELATED TO BASIC AND ADVANCED CIVIL ENGINEERING

1. Which of the following is the first principle of surveying?

a) Whole to whole
b) Part to part
c) Part to whole
d) Whole to part
2. In which of the following type of surveying only linear measurements are made?
a) Dumpy level
b) Theodolite surveying
c) Chain surveying
d) Contouring
3. Which of the following classification in surveying is based on the instrument used?
a) Traverse surveying
b) Cadastral surveying
c) Topographic surveying
d) Hydrographic surveying
4. Which of the method of contouring is suitable for Hilly terrain
a) Direct Method
b) Square Method
c) Tachometric Method
d) Traverse Method
5. In which of the following areas does compass surveying is not recommended?
a) Large areas
b) Local attraction suspected areas
c) Crowded with many details
d) Undulating areas
6. The intercept of a staff
a) is maximum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight.
b) is minimum if the staff is held truly normal to the line of sight.
c) decreases if the staff is tilted away from normal
d) increases if the staff is tilted towards normal.
7. In chain surveying tie lines are primarily provided
a) to check the accuracy of the survey
b) to take offsets for detail survey
c) to avoid long offsets from chain lines
d) to increase the number of chain lines.
8. The accuracy of measurement in chain surveying, does not depend upon
a) length of the offset
b) scale of the plotting
c) importance of the features
d) general layout of the chain lines
9. Closed contours of decreasing values towards their centre, represent
a) hill
b) depression
c) saddle or pass
d) river bed

10. The Polaris remain below horizon at

a) 10 N
b) 50 N latitude
c) Equator
d) 5 S latitude
11. The zenith is the point on the celestial sphere
a) East of observer
b) West of observer
c) North of observer
d) South of observer
12. Which of the following is the last step in chain surveying?
a) Fixing
b) Reconnaissance
c) Running survey lines
d) Marking
13. Which of the following branch of surveying is used to find the elevations of given
points with respect to given or assumed datum?
a) Plane table surveying
b) Traversing
c) Contouring
d) Levelling
14. An imaginary line joining the points of equal elevation on the surface of the earth,
represents
a) contour surface
b) contour gradient
c) contour line
d) level line
15. The 'fix' of a plane table station with three known points, is bad if the plane table
station lies
a) in the great triangle
b) outside the great triangle
c) on the circumference of the circumscribing circle
d) none of these.
16. The plane at right angle to zenith-nadir line and passing through center line of
earth is called
a) Rotational horizon
b) True horizon
c) Celestial horizon
d) All of the above
17. Which of the following type of ranging is done if both ends of surveying lines are
visible?
a) Indirect
b) Reciprocal
c) Unable to do
d) Direct
18. In chain surveying field work is limited to
a) linear measurements only
b) angular measurements only
c) both linear and angular measurements
d) all the above.
19. One of the tachometric constants is additive, the other constant, is
a) subtractive constant
b) multiplying constant
c) dividing constant
d) indicative constant.
20. While taking Observations for the height and distances, which of the following
method of surveying is used?
a) Plane surveying
b) Geodic surveying
 c) Chain surveying
d) Compass surveying
21. Which of the following is not a natural error in compass surveying?
a) Local attraction due to the proximity of local attraction forces
b) Pivot being bent
c) Magnetic changes in the atmosphere due to clouds and Strom’s
d) Variation in declination
22. The direction of a survey line can either be established with relation to _______
a) each other
b) main station
c) arrows
d) tie station
23. Which meridians are used to determine the relative positions of the lines in a small
area?
a) True Meridian
b) Magnetic Meridian
c) Arbitrary Meridian
d) All meridians
24. What is the horizontal angle which it makes with the true meridian through one of
the extremities of the line?
a) True bearing
b) Magnetic bearing
c) Arbitrary bearing
d) Dip
25. In quadrantal bearing system, back bearing of a line may be obtained from its
forward bearing, by
a) adding 180°, if the given bearing is less than 180°
b) subtracting 180°, if the given bearing, is more than 180°
c) changing the cardinal points, i.e. substituting N for S and E for W and vice-
versa
d) none of these.
26. Pick up the method of surveying in which field observations and plotting proceed
simultaneously from the following
a) chain surveying
b) compass surveying
c) plan table surveying
d) tacheometric surveying
27. While viewing through a level telescope and moving the eye slightly, a relative
movement occurs between the image of the levelling staff and the cross hairs.
The instrument is
a) correctly focussed
b) not correctly focussed
c) said to have parallax
d) free from parallax.
28. Convert 22°30′ whole circle bearings to quadrant bearings?
a) 180 – 22°30
b) 22°30
c) 360 – 22°30
d) 270 – 22°30
29. A bearing of a line is also known as
a) magnetic bearing
b) true bearing
c) azimuth
d) reduced bearing
 30. True meridians are generally preferred to magnetic meridians because
a) these converge to a point
b) these change due to change in time
c) these remain constant.
d) None of these.
31. In which direction latitude of the line is positive?
a) North
b) South
c) East
d) West
32. Which among the following is a procedure for computation of traverse area?
a) Calculation and adjustment of latitudes and departures
b) Adjustment of instrument
c) Calculation of consecutive co-ordinates
d) Determination of R.L
33. Which of the following is the first step for determining the azimuth or bearing?
a) Determination of angles or bearings
b) To determine the true direction
c) The direction of at least one line within the traverse must be known or assumed
d) Determining the latitudes and departures
34. Which of the following methods will give the accurate result while traversing?
a) Loose needle method
b) Fast needle method
c) Chain traversing
d) Compass traversing
35. Which of the following is a method of adjusting a closed traverse?
a) Departure method
b) Axis method
c) Tangential method
d) Latitude method
36. From the following observations, calculate closing error.

Line Length (m) Latitude Departure

AB 92.96 +92.57 -217.92

BC 157.63 -317.39 +24.62

CA 131.24 +226.19 +192.36

a) 1.66
b) 1.55
c) 1.44
d) 1.99
37. Calculate the direction of closing error for the following data.
Line Length (m) Latitude Departure

AB 24.29 -102.31 -119.22

BC 130.32 +360.24 -204.92

CA 249.11 -257.43 +323.26

a) 50023ꞌ
b) 60029ꞌ
c) 60023ꞌ
d) 62023ꞌ
38. For a traverse containing 10 sides, what would be the correction applied for the first
side, if it consists a closing error of +1.92?
a) 19.0
b) 19.2
c) 1.902
d) 0.192
39. In which of the following cases, two instrument stations are used?
a) Base of the object is at infinity
b) Base of the object is at accurate position
c) Base of the object is accessible
d) Base of the object is inaccessible
40. For calculating latitude and departure they must be converted into__________
a) Whole Circle Bearing system
b) Reduced Bearing system
c) True bearing system
d) Assumed bearing system
41. The work in running a survey line is ____________ fold.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
42. The most reliable method of plotting a theodolite traverse, is
a) by consecutive co-ordinates of each station
b) by independent co-ordinates of each station
c) by plotting included angles and scaling off each traverse leg
d) by the tangent method of plotting.
43. The bearings of the lines AB and BC are 146° 30' and 68° 30'. The included
angle ABC is
a) 102°
b) 78°
c) 45°
d) none of these.
44. In an adjusted level, when the bubble is central, the axis of the bubble tube
becomes parallel to
a) line of sight
b) line of collimation
c) axis of the telescope
d) None of these.
45. Profile levelling is usually done for determining
a) contours of an area
b) capacity of a reservoir
c) elevations along a straight line
d) boundaries of property
46. For indirect ranging, number of ranging rods required, is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
47. A sewer is laid from a manhole A to a manhole B, 250 m away along a gradient of 1
in 125. If the reduced level of the invert at A is 205.75 m and the height of the boning
rod is 3 m, the reduced level of the sight rail at B, is
a) 208.75 m
b) 202.75 m
c) 206.75 m
d) 211.75 m
48. The first reading from a level station is
a) foresight
b) intermediate sight
c) back-sight
d) any sight.
49. Diaphragm of a surveying telescope is held inside
a) eye-piece
b) objective
c) telescope tube at its mid point
d) telescope at the end nearer the eye-piece
50. Whole circle bearing of a line is preferred to a quadrantal bearing merely because
a) bearing is not completely specified by an angle
b) bearing is completely specified by an angle
c) Sign of the correction of magnetic declination is different in different quadrants
d) its trigonometrical values may be extracted from ordinary tables easily.
MCQs RELATED TO PUBLIC HEALTH ENGINEERING
1. Surge tanks are used
a) for storage water
b) to increase the velocity in a pipeline
c) as overflow valves
d) to guard against water hammer.
2. In slow sland filters, the turbidity of raw water can be removed only up to
a) 60 mg/litre
b) 75 mg/litre
c) 100 gm/litre
d) 150 mg/litre.
3. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (B.O.D.) of safe drinking water must be
a) nil
b) 5
c) 10
d) 15
4. Acidity in water is caused due to
a) Mineral acids
b) Free CO2
c) Iron sulphate
d) Aluminium sulphate
e) All the above.
5. The specific retention is least in case of
a) Clay
b) Sand
c) Silt
d) Coarse gravel.
6. B.O.D. of treated water should be
a) Nil
b) 25 ppm
c) 20 ppm
d) 30 ppm
7. Most commonly used pump for lifting water in water supply mains, is
a) Axial flow pump
b) reciprocating pump
c) rotary type pump
d) centrifugal pumps
8. Distribution mains of any water supply, is normally designed for its average daily
requirement
a) 100%
b) 150%
c) 200%
d) 225%.
9. In distribution pipes, drain valves are provided at
a) lower point
b) higher point
c) junction points
d) any where.
10. Turbidity of raw water is a measure of
a) suspended solids
b) acidity of water
c) B.O.D.
d) none of these.
11. The maximum depth of sedimentation tanks is limited to
a) 2 m
b) 3 m
c) 4 m
d) 6 m
12. By boiling water, hardness can be removed if it is due to
a) calcium sulphate
b) magnesium sulphate
c) calcium nitrate
d) calcium bicarbonate
13. For determining the velocity of flow of underground water, the most commonly
used non-empirical formula is
a) Darcy's formula
b) Slichter's formula
c) Hazen's formula
d) Lacy's formula.
14. The R.L. of ground water table on the sides of a valley is 1505 m whereas R.L. of
the stream water is 1475 m. If 60° slope consists of pervious soil between R.L.
1485 m to 1500 m, the gravity spring may be expected at the point of reduced
level
a) 1500 m
b) 1505 m
c) 1475 m
d) 1485 m.
15. Disinfection of drinking water, is done to remove
a) odour
b) bacterias
c) turbidity
d) colour.
16. Time of concentration
a) is the time taken, for precipitation
b) duration of rainfall.
c) time taken for all the ran off to reach the drain
d) time taken for the storm water to travel from the most remote point to the drain.
17. Aeration of water is done to remove
a) odour
b) colour
c) bacterias
d) hardness
18. The bottom of sewage inlet chamber of septic tank in provided on outward slope
a) 1 in 5
b) 1 in 10
c) 1 in 15
d) 1 in 20
19. Drop manholes are the manholes
a) Without entry ladder
b) Without manhole covers
c) Having drains at different levels
d) With entry ladder
20. The recommended detention period in grit is
a) 1 minute
b) 2 minute
c) 3 minute
d) 5 minute
21. Flocculated particles do not change their
a) Size
b) Shape
c) Weight
d) None of the above
22. In sewers designed with self-cleansing velocity
a) The bottom is silted
b) The bottom is scoured
c) Both silting and scouring occur at bottom
d) Neither silting nor scouring occur at bottom
23. The sewer that unloads sewage into treatment is called
a) Main sewer
b) Outfall sewer
c) Branch sewer
d) House sewer
24. While considering the design period, which must be given more priority?
a) Area of land
b) Population
c) Usage of water
d) Arrangement of pipes
25. The design period of storage reservoir can be given as _________
a) 50 yr
b) 20 yr
c) 30 yr
d) 10 yr
26. While determining the yield of open wells by the pumping test
a) velocity of recharging water, increases with depression head
b) depression head resulting at critical velocity, is called critical depression head

c) working head is generally limited to rd of the critical depression head

d) maximum safe yield of an open well, is expected at critical depression head.
27. The standard B.O.D. at 20&Deg;C, is taken for the consumption in
a) one day
b) 2 days
c) 3 days
d) 5 days
28. An earth formation which, although porous and capable of absoring water does
not provide an appreciable supply to wells, is known as
a) acquifer
b) aquiclude
c) aquifuge
d) none of these.
29. What is the minimum diameter of pipes used for drainage of waste water?
a) 105 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 100 mm
d) 75 mm
30. Which of the following type of waste water treatment process is used for treating
waste water or industrial waste water using aeration and biological flocs?
a) Biological aeration
b) Anaerobic digestion
c) Active sludge process
d) Aeration
31. What percentage of solids does waste water contain?
a) 0.1%
b) 1%
c) 0.5%
d) 5%
32. When alum is added to the waste water containing calcium ions which compound is
formed as a precipitate?
a) Al2 (SO4)3
b) CaCO3
c) Al(OH)3
d) Ca(OH)2
33. What is the maximum concentration of total solids present in waste water?
a) 850 mg/L
b) 1200 mg/ L
c) 720 mg/L
d) 350 mg/L
34. Which of the following is the common indicator organism used in the evaluation of
waste water?
a) Total coliform
b) Fecal coliform
c) Algae
d) E. coli
35. What is the waste water from kitchen sinks called?
a) Brown water
b) Yellow water
c) Black water
d) Grey water
36. Normal values of overflow rate for plain sedimentation tank, is
a) 250 to 500 litres/hr/m2
b) 500 to 750 litres/hr/m2
c) 750 to 1000 litres/hr/m2
d) 1000 to 1250 litres/hr/m2.
37. Mostly used coagulant, is
a) chlorine
b) alum
c) lime
d) bleaching powder.
38. The most commonly used chemical for dechlorination of water, is
a) sodium thiosulphate
b) sodium bisulphate
c) sodium sulphite
d) sulphur-dioxide
39. For centrifugal pumps
a) initial cost is low
b) limited space is required
c) the discharge obtained is steady and non-pulsating
d) all the above.
40. For plain chlorination of water, the quantity of chlorine used, is
a. mg/litre
b. mg/litre
c. mg/litre
d. mg/litre
41. Sluice valves are fitted in a distribution system
a) along straight length of pipes at suitable intervals
b) at the junctions of the pipes
c) at the branching off points of sub-mains
d) all the above.
42. The maximum permitted loss of head in a rapid sand filter, is
a) 1 m
b) 2 m
c) 3 m
d) 4 m
43. The wastewater which does not contain sewage is known as _______
a) Sullage
b) Sewage
c) Sewerage
d) Grey water
44. If the average daily demand of a city of 50, 000 population, is 20 m.l.d., the
maximum daily demand is
a) 24 mld
b) 30 mld
c) 36 mld
d) 54 mld.
45. is constructed outside the building to carry wastewater discharge.
a) Gully trap
b) P. trap
c) S. trap
d) Floor trap
46. What is P. trap made of?
a) Polymer
b) Cast iron
c) Wrought iron
d) Plastic
47. The ratio of the maximum daily consumption to the average daily demand, is
a) 1.0
b) 1.2
c) 1.4
d) 1.8
48. Aerobic bacterias
b) flourish in the presence of free oxygen
c) consume organic matter as their food
d) oxidise organic matter in sewage
e) All the above.
49. Removal of oil and grease from sewage, is known
a) screening
b) skimming
c) filtration
d) none of these.
a) Sewer pipes need be checked for
50. minimum flow
51. maximum flow
52. both (a) and (b)
53. none of these.

MCQs RELATED TO QUANTITY SURVEY

50. The most reliable estimate is
1. Detailed estimate
2. Preliminary estimate
3. Plinth area estimate
4. Cube rate estimate
51. The main factor to be considered while preparing a detailed estimate, is
a) Quantity of the materials
b) Availability of materials
c) Transportation of materials
d) All the above.
52. The rate of payment is made for 100 cu m (per % cu m) in case of
a) Earth work in excavation
b) Plastering work
c) Brick work
d) D.P.C. Work
53. The following item of earth work is not measured separately.
a) Brick work
b) Site clearance
c) Plastering work
d) concrete work
54. The expected out turn of 12 mm plastering with cement mortar is
a) 2.5 sq m
b) 4.0 sq m
c) 6.0 sq m
d) 8.0 sq m
6. For 100 sq. m cement concrete (1 : 2: 4) 4 cm thick floor, the quantity of cement
required, is
(A) 0.90 m3
(B) 0.94 m3
(C) 0.98 m3
(D) 1.00 m3
7. The 'centre line method' is specially adopted for estimating
(A) Bridge buildings
(B) Rectangular buildings
(C) steel buildings
(D) earthen Building
8. What is the Standard Lead distance
(a) 30m
(b) 20m
(c) 10m
(d) 40m
9. What is Lift
(a) Horizontal Distance
(b) Vertical distance
(c) Oblique Distance
(d) Angular distance
10. What is Standard Distance of Lift
(a) 1.5 m
(b) 2m
(c) 3m
(d) 4m
11. If the formation level of a highway has a uniform gradient for a particular length,
and the ground is
also having a longitudinal slope, the earthwork may be calculated by
(A) Mid-section formula
(B) Center Line Methods
(C) Long wall short wall methods
(D) Rate Analysis Methods
12. The correct Prismoidal formula for volume is
(A) D [first area + last area + Ʃ Even area + 2 Ʃ odd areas]
(B) D/3 [first area + last area + 4 Ʃ Even area + 2 Ʃ odd areas]
(C) D/3 [first area + last area + 2 Ʃ Even area + 4 Ʃ odd areas]
(D) D/6 [first area + last area + 2 ∑ Even area + 4 ∑ odd areas]
13. Trapezoidal formula for Earthwork
(a) L/3(First Area + Last Area +2( Remaining Area )
(b) L/2(First Area + Last Area +2( Remaining Area )
(c) L/4(First Area + Last Area +4( Remaining Area )
(d) L/6(First Area + Last Area +2( Remaining Area )
14. The order of booking dimensions is
A. Length, breadth, height
B. Breadth, length, height
C. Height, breadth, length
D. None of these.
15. The brick work is not measured in cu m in case of
A. One or more than one brick wall
B. Brick work in arches
C. Reinforced brick work
D. Half brick wall.
16. In long and short wall method of estimation, the length of long wall is the centre
to centre distance between the walls and
A. breadth of the wall
B. half breadth of wall on each side
C. one fourth breadth of wall on each side
D. None of these.
17. The total length of a cranked bar through a distance (d) at 45? in case of a beam
of effective length L, is
A. L + 0.42 d
B. L + 2 x 0.42 d
C. L - 0.42 d
D. L - 2 x 0.4 d.
18. The expected out turn of brick work in cement mortar in foundation and plinth per
mason per day, is
A. 1.00 m3
B. 1.25 m3'
C. 1.50 m3
D. 1.75 m3.
19. In case of laying gullies, siphons, intercepting traps, the cost includes
A. Setting and laying
B. Bed concreting
C. Connection to drains
D. All of these.
20. The area of a sloping surface of a protective embankment of mean height d, side
slopes S : 1 and len h L is
A. dxdxs
B. d2 x (ds)2
C. L.D '11 + s2
D. 2 Ld
21. The ground surface slopes 1 in 50 along a proposed railway embankment 150 m
in length. The height of the embankment at zero chainage is 0.5 m, the width is 11 m
and side slopes 2: 1. If the falling gradient of the embankment is 1 in 150, the
quantity of the earthwork calculated by prismoidal formula, is
A. 3250 m3
B. 3225 m3
C. 3275 m3
D. 3300 m3.
22. A portion of an embankment having a uniform up-gradient 1 in 500 is circular
with radius 1000 m of the centre line. It subtends 180? at the centre. If the height of
the bank is 1 m at the lower end, and side slopes 2: 1, the earth work involved.
A. 26,000 M3
B. 26,500 m3
C. 27,900 m3
D. 27,500 m3.
23. A cement concrete road is 1000 m long, 8 m wide and 15 cm thick over the sub-
base of 10 cm thick gravel. The box cutting in road crust is
A. 500 m3
B. 1000 m3
C. 1500 m3
D. 2000 m3.
24. Berms are provided in canals if these are
A. fully in excavation
B. partly in excavtion and partly in embankment
C. fully in embankment
D. All the above.
25. The cross-sectional area of the embankment of a canal fully in embankment
A. 1 (b1 + b2) h
B. (b1 + b2) h + Sb2
C. (b1 + b2) + 2 Sh2
D. 2[(b1 b 2) (b + Sh2).
26. The concrete work for the following part of the building of specified thickness is
measured in square metres
A. Root slabs
B. Floors
 C. D.P.C.
D. All the above.
27. The item of steel work which is measured in sq. m, is
A. Collapsible gates
B. Rolling shutters
C. Steel doors
D. All the above.
28. Pick up the correct statement from the following?
A. In a gully trap, a water seal of 6 to 7.5 cm is provided
B. The gully trap collects waste water from the kitchen, sink, wash basins, etc.
C. The gully trap disconnects the sullage drain from the main drainage system
D. The grating provided over gully traps is 23 cm square
29. Pick up the item of work not included in the plinth area estimate
a) Wall thickness
b) Room area
c) Verandah area
d) W.C. area
e) Courtyard area.
30. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
a) The estimated value of the work excluding the amount for contigencies, work
charged establishment, tool and plants, is called work value
b) The actual expenditure involved to complete a work including incidental,
establishment and travelling charges, is called actual cost
c) The formal acceptance by the administrative department for incurring an
expenditure on the work, is called administrative approval
d) The order of a competent authority sanctioning a properly detailed estimate of
the cost of a work of construction or repair is called technical sanction
e) All the above.
31. The plinth area of a building not includes
a) area of the walls at the floor level
b) area of stair cover
c) internal shaft for sanitary installations up to 2 sq m. in area
d) lift and wall including landing
e) area of cantilevered porch.
32. The minimum width of a septic tank is taken
a) 70 cm
b) 75 cm
c) 80 cm
d) 90 cm
33. Cost of fittings and their fixing is specified for the following sanitary fittings
a) Water closets
b) Flushing pipes
c) Lavatary basins
d) Sinks
e) All the above.
34. Pick up the item whose weight is added to the weight of respective item, is
a) Cleats
b) Brackets
c) Bolts
d) Distance separators
e) All the above.
35. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following?
A. Lead is the average horizontal straight distance between the borrow pit and the
place of spreading soil
B. The lead is calculated for each block of the excavated area
C. The unit of lead is 50 m for a distance upto 500 m
D. The unit of lead is 1 km where the lead exceeds 2 km
36. The floor area includes the area of the balcony up to_________________?
A. 100 %
B. 75 %
C. 50 %
D. 25 %
37. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
a) Pointing is measured in sq.m
b) Plastering is measured in sq.m
c) Glazing is measured in sq.m
d) Striking is measured in sq.m
e) All the above.
38. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
a) No deduction is made for the volume occupied by reinforement
b) No deduction is made for the openings upto 0.1 sq.m
c) No deduction is made for volumes occupied by pipes, not exceeding 100
[Link] in cross-section
d) No deductions are made for the ends of dissimilar structures up to 500 [Link]
cross-sectional area
e) None of these.
39. The unit of measurement is per quintal for the following?
A. Collapsible gates with rails
B. Rolling shutters
C. Expanded metal wire netting
D. M.S. reinforcement of R.C.C. works
40. Due to change in price level a revise estimate prepared if price exceeds
a) 1%
b) 3%
c) 5%
d) 7%
41. The weight of an item is measured correct to nearest
a) 0.25 kg
b) 0.50 kg
c) 0.75 kg
d) 5 kg
42. Due to change in price level, a revised estimate is prepared if the sanctioned
estimate exceeds
a) 2.0%
b) 2.5%
c) 4.0%
d) 5.0%
43. The expected out turn of brick work in cement mortar in foundation and plinth per
mason per day, is
a) 1.00 m3
b) 1.25 m3
c) 1.50 m3
d) 1.75 m3
44. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
a) If the bed level is above N.S.L. the canal is called fully in baking and the berms
are designed as 3 d where d is full supply depth of water (F.S.D.)
b) Area of canal in cutting = BD + Sd2 where B = bed width, d = depth of cutting
and S is the side slope
c) Area of the bank of canal = B1d1 + Sd2 where B1, d1 and S are the width of
bank, height of the bank above N.S.L. and side slope respectively
d) If F.S.L. is above N.S.L the canal is called partly in cutting and partly in filling
and berms are designed as 2d where d is full supply depth
e) All the above.
45. The deduction for one side plastering around a door frame is:
A) Full area
B) No deduction
C) Half area
D) Twice the area
46. The standard size of modular brick as per IS is:
A) 190 mm × 90 mm × 90 mm
B) 200 mm × 100 mm × 100 mm
C) 230 mm × 110 mm × 75 mm
D) 250 mm × 120 mm × 75 mm
47. Which of the following is not included in the plinth area?
A) Area of walls
B) Verandah
C) Open balcony
D) Kitchen
48. Contingencies are usually taken as:
A) 1%
B) 2% to 5%
C) 10%
D) 20%
49. The cost of scaffolding in a building project is generally taken as:
A) 2% of total cost
B) 5% of total cost
C) 8% of total cost
D) Lump sum
50. 8. For painting work, the unit of measurement is:
A) Cubic meter
B) Square meter
C) Meter
D) Number
MCQs RELATED TO CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY AND RCC DESIGN
1. What is Concrete Technology?
a) Concrete Technology deals with the study of bricks
b) Concrete Technology is the study of building materials
c) Concrete Technology deals with the study of properties of concrete
d) None of the mentioned
2. What is concrete?
a) A mixture of homogenous materials
b) A mixture of material and hydrogen
c) A mixture of cement and hydrogen sulphide
d) A mixture of cement, water, and aggregates
3. What is the importance of the Standard Consistency Test?
a) It is used to determine the quality of water
b) It is used to determine the quality of aggregates
c) It is used to determine the quality of cement
d) None of the above
4. Hydration of cement is chemical reaction of cement with __________
a) base
b) acid
 c) salt and acid
d) water
5. How many layers of concrete are needed to fill a slump cone?
a) 5 layers by volume
b) 3 equal layers by height
c) 3 equal layers by volume
d) 5 layers
6. What is the relation between the Coefficient of thermal expansion of concrete and
the coefficient of thermal expansion in aggregates?
a) Equal
b) More than
c) Inversely proportional
d) Directly proportional
7. The form work is usually removed after ________ for walls, columns, and the vertical
faces of all structural components.
a) 24 to 48 hours
b) 72 hours
c) 56 hours
d) 24 hours
8. Which of the following stress can Plain cement concrete endure?
a) Shear stress
b) Tensile stress
c) Compressive stress
d) Tensile, compressive, and shear stresses
9. . Which of the following is not a type of Non-destructive testing?
a) Ultrasonic test
b) Eddy current testing
c) Compression testing
d) Visual testing
10. For a compressive strength of 4000 psi, the light weight cement content is ________
pounds per cubic yard.
a) 630-750
b) 440-560
c) 740-840
d) 530-660
11. Which of the following is used to test the Standard consistency of cement?
a) Duff Abrams apparatus
b) Soundness meter
c) Vicat apparatus
d) Le Chatalier apparatus
12. What are Plasticizers?
a) Which reduces water for workability
b) Which oxidizes water for workability
c) Which decreases workability at the same water content
d) Which adds water for workability
13. What is prestress concrete?
a) Strengthening a material by the application of stress during packaging
b) Strengthening a material by the application of stress during manufacture
c) Smoothening a material by the application of stress during manufacture
d) None of the above
14. What is loss of stress in prestress?
a) Slow lowering of the induced compressive stress in a prestressed part
b) Slow lowering of the induced compressive strain in a prestressed part
c) Slow lowering of the induced compressive tension in a prestressed part
d) Slow lowering of the friction in a prestressed part
15. The necessity of high strength concrete in prestressed concrete is due to
a) Loading and Unloading
b) Cracking
c) Bending
d) Shear and Bonding
16. In case of continuous prestressed concrete members to gain continuity, splicing is
done by ___________
a) Tendons
b) Concrete
c) Steel
d) Reinforcement
17. What is the moisture content in slurry for wet process?
a) 35-50%
b) 12%
c) 40-45%
d) 100%
18. The rate of creep rapidly ___________ with time.
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Doesn’t affect
d) Depends on the temperature
19. Which of the following method is best for the design of steel structure?
a) Working Stress Method
b) Earthquake Load Method
c) Limit State Method
d) Ultimate Load Method
20. Which of the following is added to steel to increase resistance to corrosion?
a) Copper
b) Carbon
c) Manganese
d) Sulphur
21. High carbon steel is used in ______________
a) structural buildings
b) fire resistant buildings
c) for waterproofing
d) transmission lines and microwave towers High carbon steel is used in
22. Which of the following factors does not influence earthquake resistance design?
a) strength of structure
b) site soil
c) geographical location of structure
d) wind of location
23. Which of the following load combination is not possible?
a) Dead load + imposed load
b) Dead load + wind load + earthquake load
c) Dead load + imposed load + wind load
d) Dead load + imposed load + earthquake load
24. Which of the following is not a compression member?
a) tie
b) strut
c) rafter
d) boom
25. The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed
a) 0.15%
b) 1.5%
c) 4%
d) 1%
26. The minimum number of main steel bars provided in R.C.C.
a) rectangular columns is 4
b) circular columns is 6
c) octagonal columns is 8
d) all the above.
27. Post tensioning system
a) was widely used in earlier days
b) is not economical and hence not generally used
c) is economical for large spans and is adopted now a days
d) none of these.
28. When vibrators are used for compaction, the consistency of concrete depends upon
the ___________
a) Type of mix
b) Efficiency of vibrator
c) Placing conditions
d) Type of mix, efficiency of vibrator, pacing conditions
29. The levelling operation that removes humps and hollows and give a true, uniform
concrete surface is called ____________
a) Screeding
b) Floating
c) Troweling
d) Compacting
30. The final operation of finishing the concrete surface is called _____________
a) Screeding
b) Floating
c) Troweling
d) Compacting
31. The process of hardening the concrete mixes by keeping its surface moist for a
certain period is called ____________
a) Curing
b) Floating
c) Troweling
d) Compacting
32. After the curing of 28 days, the concrete gains strength upto _____________
a) 40%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 100%
33. The construction joints in cement concrete ___________
a) Should be located where bending moment is large
b) Should be located where shear force is large
c) Should not be provided at the corners
d) Should be spaced at a distance of 3 m apart in case of huge structures
34. Air entrainment in concrete increases ____________
a) Strength
b) Workability
c) The effect of temp variations
d) The unit weight
35. Concrete placed in cold weather will take ____________ time to gain strength.
a) No
b) Less
c) More
d) Equal to hot weather
36. An R.C.C. column is treated as long if its slenderness ratio is greater than
a) 30
b) 35
c) 40
d) 50
37. The width of the flange of a T-beam should be less than
a) one-third of the effective span of the T-beam
b) distance between the centres of T-beam
c) breadth of the rib plus twelve times the thickness of the slab
d) least of the above.
38. Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than
a) 3 m
b) 4 m
c) 5 m
d) 6 m
39. Bottom bars under the columns are extended into the interior of the footing slab
to a distance greater than
a) 42 diameters from the centre of the column
b) 42 diameters from the inner edge of the column
c) 42 diameters from the outer edge of the column
d) 24 diameter from the centre of the column
40. For a circular slab carrying a uniformly distributed load, the ratio of the maximum
negative to maximum positive radial moment, is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
41. An R.C.C. beam not provided with shear reinforcement may develop cracks in its
bottom inclined roughly to the horizontal at
a) 25°
b) 35°
c) 45°
d) 55°
42. The effective span of a simply supported slab, is
a) distance between the centres of the bearings
b) clear distance between the inner faces of the walls plus twice the thickness of
the wall
c) clear span plus effective depth of the slab
d) none of these.
43. Thickened part of a flat slab over its supporting column, is technically known as
a) drop panel
b) capital
c) column head
d) none of these.
44. A foundation rests on
a) base of the foundation
b) subgrade
c) foundation soil
d) both (b) and (c)
45. The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain within elastic limit, is known as
a) modulus of elasticity
b) shear modulus of elasticity
c) bulk modulus of elasticity
d) tangent modulus of elasticity
46. The diameter of the column head support a flat slab, is generally kept
a) 0.25 times the span length
b) 0.25 times the diameter of the column
c) 4.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
d) 5.0 cm larger than the diameter of the column
47. The steel generally used in R.C.C. work, is
a) stainless
b) mild steel
c) high carbon steel
d) high tension steel.
48. A very comfortable type of stairs is
a) straight
b) dog legged
c) geometrical
d) open newel.
49. Design of R.C.C. cantilever beams, is based on the resultant force at
a) fixed end
b) free end
c) mid span
d) mid span and fixed support.
50. According to the steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beams
a) tension is resisted by tension steel
b) compression is resisted by compression steel
c) stress in tension steel equals the stress in compression steel
d) no stress is developed in compression concrete as well as in tension concrete
e) All the above.
MCQs RELATED TO SOIL MECHANICS
1. In a liquid limit test, the moisture content at 10 blows was 70% and that at 100
blows was 20%. The liquid limit of the soil, is
a) 35%
b) 50%
c) 65%
d) none of these.
2. The minimum water content at which the soil just begins to crumble when rolled
into threads 3 mm in diameter, is known
a) liquid limit
b) plastic limit
c) shrinkage limit
d) permeability limit.
3. Which one of the following statements is true ?
a) Clays are more porous than sands
b) Pressure of organic matter in a soil decreases the bearing capacity of the soil
c) Aluminous cement is used for foundations in soils with chemical deposits
d) All the above.
4. For engineering purposes, how can soil be classified?
a) Unified soil
b) Particle size
c) Textural
d) All of the mentioned
5. Which of the following factors affects the permeability of soil?
a) Void ratio of soils
b) Properties of pore fluid
c) Grain size
d) All of the mentioned
6. When is a soil sample considered well graded?
a) Excess of certain particles
 b) Good representation of particles of all size
c) If it has most number of particles of same size
d) None of the mentioned
7. What property of soil allows it to be deformed rapidly without rupture?
a) Plasticity
b) Tenacity
c) Elasticity
d) None of the mentioned
8. Which of the following is exhibited by collapsible soil?
a) Loose bulky grains hold together by capillary stresses
b) Silts where cementing agent is soluble
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
9. A soil is considered as coarse grained, if it retains more than ___________ in a
sieve.
a) 50% of the soil
b) 70% of the soil
c) 90% of the soil
d) 20% of the soil
10. Who developed the Unified Soil Classification System (USCS)?
a) Rankine
b) Casagrande
c) Atterberg
d) Kozney
11. What type of soil water is impossible to remove from the soil?
a) Solvate water
b) Capillary water
c) Structural water
d) Pore water
12. The lateral earth pressure on a retaining wall
a) is equal to mass of the soil retained
b) proportional to the depth of the soil
c) proportional to the square of the depth of the soil
13. proportional to the internal friction of the soil
a) The internal molecular attraction of a soil, the cohesion
b) decreases as the moisture content increases
c) increases as the moisture content decreases
d) is more in well compacted clays
e) depends upon the external applied load.
14. The quantity of seepage of water through soils is proportional to
a) coefficient of permeability of soil
b) total head loss through the soil
c) neither (a) nor (b)
d) both (a) and (b).
15. The minimum water content at which the soil retains its liquid state and also
possesses a small shearing strength against flowing, is known
a) liquid limit
b) plastic limit
c) shrinkage limit
d) permeability limit.
16. Minimum size of the particles of silt soil, is
17. 0.002 mm
a) 0.04 mm
b) 0.06 mm.
c) 0.08 mm
18. The maximum value of effective stress in the past divided by the present value, is
defined as over consolidation ratio (OCR). The O.C.R. of an over consolidated
clay is
a) less than 1
b) 1
c) more than 1
d) None of these.
19. Dry density of soil is increased by _________
a) compaction
b) swelling
c) bulking
d) addition of excess of water
20. Which of the following does not causes compaction?
a) vibration
b) tamping
c) rolling
d) adding excess water
21. At Optimum water content, soil has _____
a) minimum density
b) maximum density
c) no weight
d) no density
22. To test the compaction characteristics, the method are based on ______
a) dynamic loading only
b) kneading only
c) vibration loads only
d) dynamic, static, kneading
23. In Standard Proctor test, the inside diameter of the mould is ________ inches.
a) 1
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6
24. In Standard Proctor test, the weight of rammer is ________
a) 4.5 kg
b) 18 lb
c) 2.5kg
d) 20 lb
25. What will be the porosity of a soil sample whose void ratio is 0.35?
a) 19.5%
b) 40.65%
c) 25.9%
d) 30%
26. Void ratio is the ratio of _____
a) volume of voids to total volume
b) volume of voids to volume of solids
c) volume of solids to volume of voids
d) volume of soil mass to volume of voids
27. If the porosity of a soil sample is 22%, then what will be its void ratio?
a) 0.3
b) 0.27
c) 0.28
d) 0.25
28. For a soil sample, the ratio of saturated unit weight to dry unit weight is equal to 1.2
and specific gravity of solids G is 2.65, then its void ratio will be _____
a) 0.58
b) 0.66
 c) 0.53
d) 0.94
29. For a fully saturated soil sample, the degree of saturation is ______
a) 0
b) 0.5
c) 0.8
d) 1
30. The degree of saturation is defined as the ratio of _____
a) volume of water to total volume of voids
b) volume of air voids to volume of total voids
c) volume of air voids to volume of water
d) volume of voids to total volume of the soil mass
31. In wet soil mass, air occupies one-seventh of its volume and water occupies one-
eighth of its volume. The void ratio of the soil is ______
a) 0.25
b) 0.36
c) 0.43
d) 1
32. The vane shear test is used for the in-situ determination of the undrained
strength of the intact fully saturated
a) sands
b) clays
c) gravels
d) highly organic soils.
33. The specific gravity of quartz, is
a) 2.65
b) 2.72
c) 2.85
d) 2.90
34. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
35. The phenomenon of quicksand generally occurs in the cohesionless soil
a) At critical hydraulic gradient, the saturated sand becomes quick
b) The critical gradient depends on the void ratio and the specific gravity
c) The quick sand occurs more in fine sand and silt than coarse material
d) All the above.
36. Flow net is used for the determination of
a) quantity of seepage
b) hydrostatic pressure
c) seepage pressure
d) exit gradient
e) all the above.
37. If a soil A has coefficient of volume change as 0.536m2/MN and the ratio of
coefficient of volume change of A and B soils is 1.845, then find mv for soil B.
a) 0.255 m2/MN
b) 0.291 m2/MN
c) 0.234 m2/MN
d) 0.345 m2/MN
38. The filed density of a natural soil deposit cannot be determined by_____ method.
a) sand replacement
b) oven-dry
c) core cutter
d) water displacement
39. For calibration of cylinder _______ is used.
a) Gravel
b) Sand
 c) Soil
d) Silt
40. The inner diameter of the core cutter is_____ cm.
a) 5
b) 10
c) 13
d) 15
41. The field density of a natural soil deposit cannot be determined by_____ method.
a) sand replacement
b) oven-dry
c) core cutter
d) water displacement
42. Through a point in a loaded soil, the principal stress is maximum on
a) minor principal plane
b) intermediate principal plane
c) major principal plane
d) none of these.
43. The capillary rise of water
a) depends upon the force responsible
b) increases as the size of the soil particles increases
c) decreases as the size of the soil particles decreases
d) is less in wet soil than in dry soil.
44. If dry density, water density and specific gravity of solids of a given soil sample
are 1.6 g/cc, 1.84 g/cc and 2.56 respectively, the porosity of the soil sample, is
a) 0.375
b) 0.370
c) 0.380
d) 0.390
45. Terzaghi's analysis assumes :
a) soil is homogeneous and isotropic
b) elastic zone has straight boundaries inclined at ψ = φ to the horizontal and
plastic zones fully developed
c) failure zones do not extend above the horizontal plane through the base of the
footing
d) all the above.
46. A soil sample has passing 0.075 mm sieve = 60% liquid limit = 65% and plastic
limit = 40%. The group index of the soil, is
a) 5
b) 20
c) 40
d) none of these.
47. The plasticity index is the numerical difference between
a) liquid limit and plastic limit
b) plastic limit and shrinkage limit
c) liquid limit and shrinkage limit
d) none of these.
48. Negative skin friction on piles
a) is caused due to relative settlement of the soil
b) is caused in soft clays
c) decreases the pile capacity
d) all of the above.
49. The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil, is
a) total load on the bearing area
b) safe load on the bearing area
c) load at which soil fails
d) load at which soil consolidates.
50. The maximum water content at which a reduction in water content does not
cause a decrease in volume of a soil mass, is known
a) liquid limit
b) plastic limit
c) shrinkage limit
d) Permeability limit.