[Link].

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Contents
Module 11 A. Aeroplane Aerodynamics .................................................................................................................................................... 3
11A.01.1. Theory of Flight - Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls. ............................................................................................. 3
11A.01.2. Theory of Flight - High Speed Flight. ....................................................................................................................................... 13
11A.02a. Airframe Structures - General Concepts. ................................................................................................................................ 23
11A.02b. Airframe Structures - General Concepts .................................................................................................................................. 34
11A.03.1. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Fuselage (ATA 52/53/56). ................................................................................................ 41
11A.03.2. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Wings (ATA 57). ............................................................................................................. 49
11A.03.3. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Stabilisers (ATA 55). ........................................................................................................ 51
11A.03.4. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Flight Control Surfaces (ATA 55/57). ............................................................................... 53
11A.03.5. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Nacelles/Pylons (ATA 54). ............................................................................................... 57
11A.04.1. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Air Supply. ........................................................................................ 57
11A.04.2. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Air Conditioning. .............................................................................. 59
11A.04.3. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Pressurisation. .................................................................................... 67
11A.04.4. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Safety and warning devices. ............................................................... 76
11A.05.1. Instruments/Avionic Systems - Instrument Systems (ATA 31). ............................................................................................ 79
11A.05.2. Instruments/Avionic Systems - Avionic Systems. .................................................................................................................. 114
11A.06. Electrical Power (ATA 24). ....................................................................................................................................................... 150
11A.07b. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25). .................................................................................................................................. 195
11A.08a. Fire Protection (ATA 26). ........................................................................................................................................................ 197
11A.08b. Fire Protection (ATA 26). ........................................................................................................................................................ 202
11A.09. Flight Controls (ATA 27). .......................................................................................................................................................... 203
11A.10. Fuel Systems (ATA 28). ............................................................................................................................................................. 222
11A.11. Hydraulic Power (ATA 29). ....................................................................................................................................................... 229
11A.12. Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30). ............................................................................................................................................ 239
11A.13. Landing Gear (ATA 32).............................................................................................................................................................. 244
11A.14. Lights (ATA 33). ........................................................................................................................................................................ 255
11A.15. Oxygen (ATA 35). ...................................................................................................................................................................... 261
11A.16. Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36). .................................................................................................................................................. 271
11A.17. Water/Waste (ATA 38). ............................................................................................................................................................ 273
11A.18. On Board Maintenance Systems. ............................................................................................................................................ 275
11A.19. .................................................................................................................................................................................................. 276

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Module 11 A. Aeroplane Aerodynamics

11A.01.1. Theory of Flight - Aeroplane Aerodynamics and Flight Controls.

Question Number. 1. As a subsonic aircraft speeds-up, its Centre of Pressure.

Option [Link] forward.
Option B. moves aft.
Option C. is unaffected.
Correct Answer [Link] aft.
[Link] that the aircraft is to remain at constant altitude, it must reduce its angle of attack as it
speeds-up. This alone will move the CofP rearwards, in accordance with the sub-sonic angle of attack change
theory.

Question Number. 2. Wing spoilers, when used asymmetrically, are associated with.
Option A. ailerons.
Option B. rudder.
Option C. elevators.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 3. If an aircraft is yawing to the left, where would you position the trim tab on the
rudder?.
Option A. To the centre.
Option B. To the right.
Option C. To the left.
Correct Answer [Link] the left.

Question Number. 4. If an aircraft is flying with a left wing low, where would you move the left aileron
trim tab?.
Option A. Down.
Option B. Up.
Option [Link] the aileron trim tab will not correct the situation.
Correct Answer is. Up.

Question Number. 5. When a leading edge flap is fully extended, what is the slot in the wing for?.

Option [Link] allow the flap to retract into it when it retracts.

Option [Link] re-energise the boundary layer.
Option [Link] increase the lift.
Correct Answer [Link] re-energise the boundary layer.

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Question Number. 6. With respect to differential aileron control, which of the following is true?.

Option [Link] up going Aileron moves through a smaller angle than the down going aileron.
Option [Link] up going and down going ailerons both deflect to the same angle.
Option [Link] down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.
Correct Answer [Link] down going aileron moves through a smaller angle than the up going aileron.
[Link] of Flight, Kermode, Page 301. The down going aileron moves less, to reduce the
induced drag which causes adverse aileron yaw.

Question Number. 7. The aeroplane fin is of symmetrical aerofoil section and will therefore provide a
side-load.
Option [Link] a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.
Option [Link] if a suitable angle of attack develops due to yaw.
Option [Link] when the rudder is moved.
Correct Answer [Link] a suitable angle of attack develops due either yaw or rudder movement.
[Link] deflection or yaw.

Question Number. 8. An aircraft left wing is flying low. The aileron trimmer control to the left aileron
trim tab in the cockpit would be.
Option [Link] up causing the left aileron to move up.
Option [Link] up causing the left aileron to move down.
Option [Link] down causing the left aileron to move down.
Correct Answer [Link] up causing the left aileron to move down.
[Link] aileron required - which requires up trim.

Question Number. 9. The purpose of a slot in a wing is to.

Option [Link] up the airflow and increase lift.
Option [Link] as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.
Option [Link] housing for the slat.
Correct Answer [Link] as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.
Explanation.A slot is to act as venturi, accelerate the air and re-energise boundary layer.

Question Number. 10. Large flap deployment.

Option [Link] no effect on spanwise flow.
Option [Link] increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing upper surface.
Option [Link] increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.
Correct Answer [Link] increased spanwise flow towards tips on wing lower surface.
[Link] increase the pressure differential between top and bottom surfaces, increase tip vortices
and spanwise flow.

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Question Number. 11. Which part of the wing of a swept-wing aircraft stalls first?.
Option A. Tip stalls first.
Option [Link] stalls first.
Option [Link] stall together.
Correct Answer [Link] stalls first.
[Link] tip of a swept wing stalls first.

Question Number. 12. During flight, an aircraft is yawing to the right. The aircraft would have a
tendency to fly.
Option A. right wing low.
Option B. nose up.
Option C. left wing low.
Correct Answer [Link] wing low.
[Link] leading wing (left wing) has increased lift, causing it to rise.

Question Number. 13. With a drop in ambient temperature, an aircraft service ceiling will.
Option [Link] be affected.
Option B. lower.
Option C. rise.
Correct Answer is. rise.
[Link] ambient temperature drops, density increases and aircraft performance increases.

Question Number. 14. Extending a leading edge slat will have what effect on the angle of attack of a
wing?.
Option [Link] the angle of attack.
Option [Link] the angle of attack.
Option [Link] effect on angle of attack.
Correct Answer [Link] the angle of attack.

Question Number. 15. To ensure that a wing stalls at the root first, stall wedges are.
Option [Link] at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.
Option [Link] at the wing trailing edge at the wing root.
Option [Link] on the wing leading edge at the wing root.
Correct Answer [Link] on the wing leading edge at the wing root.

Question Number. 16. With reference to differential aileron control.

Option [Link] increases on the inner wing.
Option [Link] decreases on the outer wing.
Option [Link] increases on the outer wing.
Correct Answer [Link] increases on the inner wing.

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Question Number. 17. Dutch role is movement in.

Option A. yaw and roll.
Option B. yaw and pitch.
Option C. pitch and roll.
Correct Answer [Link] and roll.

Question Number. 18. If an aircraft is aerodynamically stable.

Option [Link] becomes too sensitive.
Option [Link] returns to trimmed attitude.
Option C.C of P moves back.
Correct Answer [Link] returns to trimmed attitude.

Question Number. 19. Ailerons control the aircraft in the.

Option [Link] plane.
Option [Link] plane.
Option C. lateral plane.
Correct Answer [Link] plane.
[Link] control the aircraft 'IN' the lateral axis, which is 'ABOUT' the longitudinal axis.

Question Number. 20. An anti-balance tab is used.

Option [Link] trimming the aircraft.
Option [Link] give more feel to the controls.
Option [Link] relieve stick loads.
Correct Answer [Link] give more feel to the controls.

Question Number. 21. Slats.

Option [Link] as an air brake.
Option [Link] the boundary layer from separating for longer.
Option [Link] the overall surface area and lift effect of wing.
Correct Answer [Link] the boundary layer from separating for longer.

Question Number. 22. Due to the change of lift forces resulting from the extension of flaps in flight.

Option [Link] should be lowered, reducing AoA.

Option [Link] should remain in the same position, maintaining same AoA.
Option [Link] should be raised, increasing AoA.
Correct Answer [Link] should be lowered, reducing AoA.
[Link] main purpose of flaps is to increase lift so that the pilot can lower the nose, increase decent
angle and get a better view of the runway.

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Question Number. 23. Flight spoilers.

Option [Link] be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed.
Option [Link] be deployed on the down going wing in a turn to increase lift on that wing.
Option [Link] be used with differential ailerons to reduce adverse yaw in a turn.
Correct Answer [Link] be used to decrease lift to allow controlled decent without reduction of airspeed.

Question Number. 24. If the aircraft is flying nose heavy, which direction would you move the elevator
trim tab?.
Option [Link] to move elevator up.
Option [Link] to move elevator up.
Option [Link] to move elevator down.
Correct Answer [Link] to move elevator up.

Question Number. 25. Wing tip vortices are strongest when.

Option [Link] high speed straight and level flight.
Option [Link] slowly at high angles of attack.
Option [Link] into a headwind.
Correct Answer [Link] slowly at high angles of attack.

Question Number. 26. An example of a secondary flight control is a.

Option A. elevator.
Option B. flap.
Option C. spoiler.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] would consider a Flap to be a secondary flight control. It is discounted in this question as it
is technically a Lift Augmentation Device, rather than a 'control.

Question Number. 27. A balance tab.

Option [Link] the pilot to move the controls.
Option [Link] used to trim the appropriate axis of the aircraft.
Option [Link] increases the area of the control surface.
Correct Answer [Link] the pilot to move the controls.

Question Number. 28. Which wing increases drag when the ailerons are moved?.
Option [Link] wings have an equal increase in drag.
Option [Link] wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more.
Option [Link] wings increase drag but the wing with the up-going aileron increases more.
Correct Answer [Link] wings increase drag but the wing with the down-going aileron increases more.

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Question Number. 29. Which flap will increase wing area and camber?.
Option A. Split.
Option B. Slot.
Option C. Fowler.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 30. An automatic slat will lift by itself when the angle of attack is.
Option A. low.
Option B. high or low.
Option C. high.
Correct Answer is. high.

Question Number. 31. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by.

Option [Link] and right spoilers extending.

Option [Link] spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.
Option [Link] spoilers extending, right spoilers remaining retracted.
Correct Answer [Link] spoilers extending, left spoilers remaining retracted.

Question Number. 32. A split flap increases lift by increasing.

Option [Link] surface area.
Option [Link] camber of the top surface.
Option [Link] angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.
Correct Answer [Link] angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion.

Question Number. 33. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will.
Option A. sink.
Option [Link] nose down.
Option C. pitch nose up.
Correct Answer [Link] nose down.
[Link] to the centre of pressure moving aft.

Question Number. 34. Dutch roll is.

Option A.a type of slow roll.
Option [Link] a pitching instability.
Option C.a combined yawing and rolling motion.
Correct Answer is.a combined yawing and rolling motion.

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Question Number. 35. On an aircraft with an all-moving tailplane, pitch up is caused by.
Option [Link] tailplane incidence.
Option [Link] tailplane incidence.
Option [Link] movement of the elevator trim tab.
Correct Answer [Link] tailplane incidence.

Question Number. 36. A leading edge slat is a device for.

Option [Link] the stalling angle of the wing.
Option [Link] wing drag.
Option [Link] the stalling angle of the wing.
Correct Answer [Link] the stalling angle of the wing.

Question Number. 37. A Krueger flap is.

Option A.a leading edge slat which extends forward.
Option B.a flap which extends rearwards but does not lower.
Option C.a leading edge flap which hinges forward.
Correct Answer is.a leading edge flap which hinges forward.

Question Number. 38. The layer of air over the surface of an aerofoil which is slower moving, in relation
to the rest of the airflow, is known as.
Option A. camber layer.
Option [Link] of the above are correct.
Option [Link] layer.
Correct Answer [Link] layer.

Question Number. 39. When airflow velocity over an upper cambered surface of an aerofoil decreases,
what takes place?.
Option [Link] increases, lift decreases.
Option [Link] decreases, lift increases.
Option [Link] increases, lift increases.
Correct Answer [Link] increases, lift decreases.

Question Number. 40. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?.
Option [Link] rivets used on skin exterior.
Option B. Aspect ratio.
Option C. Fineness ratio.
Correct Answer [Link] rivets used on skin exterior.

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Question Number. 41. Changes in aircraft weight.

Option [Link] only affect total drag if the lift is kept constant.
Option [Link] not affect total drag since it is dependant only upon speed.
Option [Link] corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change.
Correct Answer [Link] corresponding changes in total drag due to the associated lift change.

Question Number. 42. When an aircraft stalls.

Option [Link] decreases and drag increases.
Option [Link] and drag increase.
Option [Link] and drag increase.
Correct Answer [Link] decreases and drag increases.

Question Number. 43. The aircraft stalling speed will.

Option [Link] with an increase in weight.
Option [Link] with an increase in weight.
Option [Link] unaffected by aircraft weight changes since it is dependant upon the angle of attack.
Correct Answer [Link] with an increase in weight.

Question Number. 44. In a bank and turn.

Option [Link] lift is not required.
Option [Link] lift is required.
Option [Link] lift is not required if thrust is increased.
Correct Answer [Link] lift is required.

Question Number. 45. The angle of attack at which stall occurs.

Option [Link] on the weight of the aircraft.
Option [Link] be varied, it is always constant.
Option [Link] be varied by using flaps and slats.
Correct Answer [Link] be varied by using flaps and slats.

Question Number. 46. The primary function of a flap is.

Option [Link] alter the position of the centre of gravity.
Option [Link] trim the aircraft longitudinally.
Option [Link] alter the lift of an aerofoil.
Correct Answer [Link] alter the lift of an aerofoil.

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Question Number. 47. The stalling speed of an aircraft.

Option [Link] increased when it is lighter.
Option [Link] not change.
Option [Link] increased when it is heavier.
Correct Answer [Link] increased when it is heavier.

Question Number. 48. A wing flap which has dropped or partially extended on one wing in flight will
lead to.
Option A.a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons.
Option B.a fixed banked attitude which would be corrected by use of the rudder.
Option C.a pitching moment which would be corrected by used of the elevators.
Correct Answer is.a steady rolling tendency which would be corrected by use of the ailerons.

Question Number. 49. With an increase in the amount of flap deployment, the stalling angle of a wing.

Option A. increases.
Option [Link] the same.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 50. Downward displacement of an aileron.

Option [Link] the angle at which its wing will stall.
Option [Link] the angle at which its wing stalls.
Option [Link] no effect on its wing stalling angle, it only affects the stalling speed on that wing.
Correct Answer [Link] the angle at which its wing will stall.

Question Number. 51. Due to the tailplane angle of attack change, the flap-induced downwash on the
tailplane.
Option [Link] cause a nose-down or nose-up pitch depending upon the initial tailplane load.
Option [Link] tend to cause an aircraft nose down pitch.
Option [Link] tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.
Correct Answer [Link] tend to cause an aircraft nose-up pitch.

Question Number. 52. Due to the change in lift coefficient accompanying extension of the flaps, to
maintain the lift constant it would be necessary to.
Option [Link] the nose.
Option [Link] the pitch attitude constant.
Option C. raise the nose.
Correct Answer [Link] the nose.

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Question Number. 53. Which leading edge device improves the laminar flow over the wing?.
Option A. Flap and slat.
Option B. Flap.
Option C. Slat.
Correct Answer is. Slat.

Question Number. 54. The tropopause exists at about.

Option A. 18,000 ft.
Option B. 36,000 ft.
Option C. 30,000 ft.
Correct Answer is.36,000 ft.

Question Number. 55. Induced drag curve characteristics of a slender delta wing are such that there is.

Option [Link] increase in gradient with wing speed.

Option [Link] in gradient with wing speed.
Option [Link] change in gradient with wing speed.
Correct Answer [Link] in gradient with wing speed.

Question Number. 56. If an aircraft is yawing left, the trim tab on the rudder would be positioned.

Option [Link] the left, moving the rudder right.

Option B. to the centre.
Option [Link] the right, moving the rudder left.
Correct Answer [Link] the left, moving the rudder right.

Question Number. 57. Instability giving roll and yaw.

Option [Link] longitudinal stability.
Option [Link] lateral stability.
Option C. is dutch roll.
Correct Answer [Link] dutch roll.

Question Number. 58. Vortex generators are fitted to.

Option [Link] transition point forwards.
Option [Link] transition point rearwards.
Option [Link] the onset of flow separation.
Correct Answer [Link] transition point forwards.

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Question Number. 59. Leading edge flaps.

Option [Link] stalling angle of the wing.
Option [Link] not change the stalling angle.
Option [Link] stalling angle of the wing.
Correct Answer [Link] stalling angle of the wing.

Question Number. 60. Krueger flaps are on.

Option [Link] leading edge.
Option [Link] trailing edge.
Option [Link] the leading or training edge.
Correct Answer [Link] leading edge.

Question Number. 61. Sweepback will.

Option [Link] lateral stability.
Option [Link] affect lateral stability.
Option [Link] lateral stability.
Correct Answer [Link] lateral stability.

Question Number. 62. A plain flap.

Option [Link] attached to the leading edge of the wing.
Option [Link] part of lower trailing edge.
Option [Link] not increase the wing area on deployment.
Correct Answer [Link] not increase the wing area on deployment.

Question Number. 63. A split flap, when deployed.

Option [Link] drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down.
Option [Link] used only on high speed aircraft.
Option [Link] lift without a corresponding increase in drag.
Correct Answer [Link] drag with little lift coefficient increase, from intermediate to fully down.

11A.01.2. Theory of Flight - High Speed Flight.

Question Number. 1. Air above Mach 0.7 is.

Option A. compressible.
Option [Link].
Option [Link] only when above the speed of sound.
Correct Answer [Link].

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Question Number. 2. Supersonic air passing through a divergent duct causes the.
Option [Link] to increase, velocity to decrease.
Option [Link] to increase, velocity to increase.
Option [Link] to decrease, velocity to increase.
Correct Answer [Link] to decrease, velocity to increase.

Question Number. 3. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed. Its
Mach. No. will.
Option A. not change.
Option B. increase.
Option C. decrease.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] of sound INCREASES with DECREASING altitude, so mach number will decrease.

Question Number. 4. A nose down change of trim (tuck-under) occurs due to shock induced.
Option [Link] stall on a delta wing aircraft.
Option [Link] stall on a straight wing aircraft.
Option [Link] stall on a delta wing aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] stall on a delta wing aircraft.

Question Number. 5. A symmetrical aerofoil is accelerating through Mach 1 with an angle of attack of
0°. A shock wave will form.
Option [Link] the upper and lower surface and will move aft.
Option [Link] the upper and lower surface and will move aft until the point of maximum camber.
Option [Link] the upper surface only and move aft.
Correct Answer [Link] the upper and lower surface and will move aft.
[Link] form on upper and lower surfaces BEGINNING at point of max curvature, gradually
moving back.

Question Number. 6. At speeds greater than mach 1, airflow in the boundary layer is.
Option A. subsonic.
Option B. supersonic.
Option C. stationary.
Correct Answer [Link].
Explanation.A dumb question, as the definition of the boundary layer is 'airflow ranges from zero to 99% of
free flow speed' However, by same definition, some flow in the boundary layer is ALWAYS less than Mach 1.

Question Number. 7. Before an aircraft reaches critical mach.

Option [Link] nose pitches down because the CP moves rear.
Option [Link] nose pitches up because the CP moves Forward.
Option [Link] aircraft buffets because the CP moves to the shock wave.
Correct Answer [Link] nose pitches down because the CP moves rear.

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Question Number. 8. On a standard day, at which altitude will the speed of sound be the greatest?.

Option A. 20,000 ft.

Option B. 10,000 ft.
Option C. Sea level.
Correct Answer [Link] level.

Question Number. 9. Which of the following will increase the Critical Mach Number of an aerofoil?.

Option [Link] the fineness ratio of the wings.

Option [Link] the aspect ratio of the wings.
Option [Link] a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back.
Correct Answer [Link] a thin airfoil and sweeping the wings back.

Question Number. 10. As an aircraft accelerates through the transonic region, the centre of pressure
tends to.
Option [Link] into a shock wave.
Option [Link] rearward.
Option C. move forward.
Correct Answer [Link] rearward.

Question Number. 11. Supersonic air going through an incipient shock wave will decrease its speed and.

Option [Link] temperature and increase density.

Option [Link] temperature and increase density.
Option [Link] temperature and decrease density.
Correct Answer [Link] temperature and increase density.

Question Number. 12. On an aircraft travelling at speeds greater than Mach 1 the boundary layer is
thicker than if the aircraft were travelling slower than.
Option A. Mach 1.
Option B. stationary.
Option C. supersonic.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] layer at supersonic speeds is very thin and considered negligible. Part of it is stationary.
b) is the 'best' answer.

Question Number. 13. At speeds above Mach 1, shockwaves will form above and below the wing.

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Option [Link] both the leading edge and the trailing edge.
Option [Link] the leading edge.
Option [Link] the trailing edge.
Correct Answer [Link] both the leading edge and the trailing edge.

Question Number. 14. A high speed aircraft with MACH warning will.
Option [Link] when Mcrit is reached.
Option [Link] when Mcrit is reached.
Option [Link] when Mach 1 has been exceeded.
Correct Answer [Link] when Mcrit is reached.
[Link] overspeed warning (aka 'henpecker' - cluck, cluck, cluck) is activated at Mcrit (shown by the
barber pole on some ASIs).

Question Number. 15. Above the critical mach number, the drag coefficient.
Option [Link] the same.
Option B. increases.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 16. At high Mach Numbers above Mach 2.2, some aircraft metals.
Option [Link] their strength due to the kinetic heating effect.
Option [Link] as aluminium, become brittle.
Option [Link] shrink due to the extreme pressures involved.
Correct Answer [Link] their strength due to the kinetic heating effect.

Question Number. 17. Mach trim operates.

Option [Link] the longitudinal axis.
Option [Link] reduce Dutch roll.
Option [Link] the lateral axis.
Correct Answer [Link] the longitudinal axis.

Question Number. 18. To increase critical mach number.

Option [Link] wings are swept.
Option [Link] are fitted.
Option [Link] are fitted.
Correct Answer [Link] wings are swept.

Question Number. 19. An aircraft experiences a large loss of lift and a big increase in drag in straight
and level flight, what would be the most probable cause?.
Option [Link] conditions.

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Option [Link] reached its critical mach number.

Option [Link] head winds.
Correct Answer [Link] reached its critical mach number.

Question Number. 20. A Mach Trimmer is a device which.

Option [Link] the aircraft from exceeding its critical Mach No.
Option [Link] out trim control to prevent damage in the transonic speed range.
Option [Link] compensates for trim changes in the transonic region.
Correct Answer [Link] compensates for trim changes in the transonic region.

Question Number. 21. Critical Mach No. may be increased by.

Option [Link] back the wing.
Option [Link] a higher thickness/chord ratio wing.
Option [Link] more powerful engines.
Correct Answer [Link] back the wing.

Question Number. 22. Airflow either side of a normal shock wave is.
Option [Link] upstream, subsonic downstream.
Option [Link] upstream, sonic downstream.
Option [Link] upstream and downstream.
Correct Answer [Link] upstream, subsonic downstream.

Question Number. 23. Mach Number is defined as.

Option [Link] divided by local speed of sound.
Option [Link] of sound at sea level divided by local speed of sound.
Option [Link] divided by the local speed of sound.
Correct Answer [Link] divided by local speed of sound.

Question Number. 24. The reason for sharp leading edged wings on high speed aircraft is to.
Option [Link] the shockwave to be accurately positioned.
Option [Link] boundary layer.
Option [Link] wave drag.
Correct Answer [Link] the shockwave to be accurately positioned.

Question Number. 25. Critical Mach Number is defined as.

Option [Link] free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes sonic.
Option [Link] number at which the airflow becomes supersonic.

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Option [Link] minimum mach number at which the aircraft can go supersonic.
Correct Answer [Link] free-stream Mach Number at which some part of the airflow over the aircraft becomes
sonic.

Question Number. 26. The transonic region is a region of.

Option A. mixed airflow.
Option B. all subsonic.
Option C. all supersonic.
Correct Answer [Link] airflow.

Question Number. 27. Immediately downstream of an oblique shockwave is always.

Option A. supersonic.
Option [Link] same as upstream.
Option C. subsonic.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 28. Wave drag.

Option [Link] at the low speed stall.
Option [Link] in the transonic region.
Option [Link] in the supersonic region.
Correct Answer [Link] in the transonic region.

Question Number. 29. For increased Mcrit.

Option [Link] sweepback.
Option [Link] sweepback.
Option [Link] thickness/chord ratio.
Correct Answer [Link] thickness/chord ratio.

Question Number. 30. Symptoms of shock stall are.

Option [Link], loss of control, and instability.
Option [Link] in speed, buffet and movement of the centre of pressure.
Option [Link] effects, buffet and loss of control.
Correct Answer [Link], loss of control, and instability.

Question Number. 31. Sweepback increases Mcrit by.

Option [Link] the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section.
Option [Link] the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section.

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Option [Link] the amount of airflow over the lowest point on the aerofoil section.
Correct Answer [Link] the amount of airflow over the highest point on the aerofoil section.

Question Number. 32. Mach number is.

Option [Link] ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at sea level.
Option [Link] ratio of the aircrafts IAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.
Option [Link] ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.
Correct Answer [Link] ratio of the aircrafts TAS to the speed of sound at the same atmospheric conditions.

Question Number. 33. The critical Mach number is.

Option [Link] aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the aircraft.
Option [Link] Mach No. when a shock wave forms at the leading edge.
Option [Link] Mach No. when the aircraft reaches the speed of sound.
Correct Answer [Link] aircraft Mach. No. when the airflow reaches the speed of sound at some point on the
aircraft.

Question Number. 34. Above the Critical Mach No. the drag coefficient will.
Option [Link] the same.
Option [Link] to increas.
Option [Link] to decrease.
Correct Answer [Link] to increase.

Question Number. 35. A wing of low thickness/chord ratio, the Critical Mach No. will be.
Option [Link] than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Option [Link] than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Option [Link] same as a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.
Correct Answer [Link] than a wing of high thickness/chord ratio.

Question Number. 36. An aeroplane flying above the Critical Mach No. will usually experience.
Option [Link] oscillation in pitch.
Option B.a nose up pitch.
Option C.a nose down pitch.
Correct Answer is.a nose down pitch.

Question Number. 37. Tuck-under can be counteracted by.

Option A. trim tabs.
Option [Link] reversal.

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 [Link]

Option C. mach trim.

Correct Answer [Link] trim.

Question Number. 38. What causes tuck under?.

Option A. Shock stall.
Option [Link] reversal.
Option [Link] back effect.
Correct Answer [Link] stall.

Question Number. 39. When does a shock stall occur?.

Option [Link] the aircraft reaches speed of sound in a dive.
Option [Link] the critical Mach number of the aeroplane.
Option [Link] the aircraft forward speed is above Mach One.
Correct Answer [Link] the critical Mach number of the aeroplane.

Question Number. 40. With an increase in altitude under I.S.A. conditions, the temperature in the
troposphere.
Option A. decreases.
Option [Link] constant.
Option C. increases.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 41. Air either side of an oblique shockwave is generally.

Option A. subsonic.
Option B. sonic.
Option C. supersonic.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 42. Downstream of a normal shock wave.

Option [Link] decreases temperature increases.
Option [Link] and temperature decrease.
Option [Link] and temperature increase.
Correct Answer [Link] and temperature increase.

Question Number. 43. Speed of sound varies with.

Option A. pressure.
Option B. temperature.

20
 [Link]

Option C. altitude.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 44. Immediately downstream of a normal shockwave, air is always.

Option [Link] same as upstream.
Option B. subsonic.
Option C. supersonic.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 45. Increased sweepback.

Option A. raises Mcrit.
Option [Link] stability.
Option [Link] tip stall characteristics.
Correct Answer [Link] Mcrit.

Question Number. 46. Aerodynamic heating.

Option [Link] with skin friction.
Option [Link] as a function of airspeed.
Option [Link] with altitude.
Correct Answer [Link] as a function of airspeed.

Question Number. 47. To overcome ineffective control surface problems in the transonic region.
Option [Link] powered elevators may be used.
Option [Link] ailerons may be used.
Option [Link] all moving tailplane may be used.
Correct Answer [Link] all moving tailplane may be used.

Question Number. 48. An aircraft flying below the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its
Mach. No. will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option [Link] the same.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 49. To counter the effect of a shift of centre of pressure as an aircraft flies through
the transonic region, fuel is pumped.
Option A. backwards.
Option B. forwards.

21
 [Link]

Option C. sideways.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 50. To make flying controls more effective at high speed.
Option [Link] generators are used.
Option [Link] rule is used.
Option [Link] rule is used.
Correct Answer [Link] generators are used.

Question Number. 51. An aircraft flying above the tropopause descends at a constant True Airspeed, its
Mach. No. will.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase.
Option [Link] the same.
Correct Answer [Link] the same.

Question Number. 52. The velocity of sound with an increase in altitude will.
Option A. increase.
Option [Link] constant.
Option C. decrease.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 53. Mach number equals the ratio of.

Option [Link] to airspeed.
Option [Link] airspeed to local sonic speed.
Option [Link] speed to indicated airspeed.
Correct Answer [Link] airspeed to local sonic speed.

Question Number. 54. Tuck-under is caused by.

Option [Link] stall on a straight wing aircraft.
Option [Link] stall on a swept wing aircraft.
Option [Link] stall on a swept wing aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] stall on a swept wing aircraft.

Question Number. 55. The purpose of sweepback on an aerofoil is to.

Option [Link] Mcrit.
Option B. decrease drag.
Option C. increase Mcrit.

22
 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link] Mcrit.

Question Number. 56. As the airspeed over a cambered wing is increased, a shock wave will appear
initially.
Option [Link] the point of maximum curvature.
Option [Link] the point of maximum curvature.
Option [Link] the leading edge.
Correct Answer [Link] the point of maximum curvature.

Question Number. 57. In the transonic speed range.

Option [Link] position of the wing centre of pressure remains constant.
Option [Link] centre of pressure initially moves forward, then back.
Option [Link] centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory.
Correct Answer [Link] centre of pressure movement may become oscillatory.

11A.02a. Airframe Structures - General Concepts.

Question Number. 1. Zone 320 under the ATA system is.

Option [Link] stabiliser.
Option [Link] stabiliser.
Option [Link] fuselage.
Correct Answer [Link] stabiliser.

Question Number. 2. When doing a bonding check the maximum resistance between component and
earth is.
Option A. 0.005ohms.
Option B. 1/50 ohms.
Option C. 50 milliohms.
Correct Answer is.50 milliohms.

Question Number. 3. How is damage to the nose cone of an aircraft prevented during a lightning
strike?.
Option A. Earthing Strap.
Option B. Bonding Strip.
Option C. Special paint.
Correct Answer [Link] Strip.

Question Number. 4. Tension is the stress of.

Option [Link] or stretch.
Option [Link] or compression.
Option C. twisting.

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 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link] or stretch.

[Link] is the stress of elongation or stretch.

Question Number. 5. A Fuselage Station is a.

Option [Link] point on aircraft wing.
Option [Link] point on aircraft fuse.
Option [Link] point on the aircraft fuselage.
Correct Answer [Link] point on the aircraft fuselage.
[Link] Stations are longitudinal measurements on the fuselage.

Question Number. 6. Composite materials are bonded by.

Option [Link] wire.
Option B. copper wire.
Option C. special paint.
Correct Answer [Link] paint.

Question Number. 7. ATA Zone 100 is.

Option [Link] fuselage.
Option B. left-hand wing.
Option C. lower fuselage.
Correct Answer [Link] fuselage.
[Link] Zone 100 is lower fuselage (below floor).

Question Number. 8. The bonding lead to a remote aircraft component must be.
Option A.0.25 in wide and 22 AWG.
Option B. 22 AWG.
Option C. 0.5 in wide.
Correct Answer is.0.5 in wide.

Question Number. 10. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by.
Option [Link] paint.
Option [Link] paint.
Option C. bonding strips.
Correct Answer [Link] paint.

Question Number. 11. Precise points are located on an aircraft by a system of.
Option [Link], vertical and lateral lines.
Option [Link] stations, water lines and buttock lines.
Option [Link] stations, vertical lines and lateral lines.

24
 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link] stations, water lines and buttock lines.

Question Number. 12. Which of the following is an example of a fail safe structure?.
Option A. Longeron.
Option B. Spar.
Option C. Stringer.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] chosen due to a stringer's duplicity.

Question Number. 13. Damage tolerant design.

Option [Link] for damage to structure by distributing loads to other structure.
Option [Link] for certain damage to the structure to go.
Option [Link]-repaired between scheduled maintenance is applied only to secondary structure.
Correct Answer [Link] for certain damage to the structure to go un-repaired between scheduled
maintenance.

Question Number. 14. In the ATA 100 zonal system the passenger entry door will have a designation of.
Option A. 600.
Option B. 800.
Option C. 400.
Correct Answer is. 800.

Question Number. 15. Which area of the aircraft is subject to hoop stress?.
Option A. Pressure cabin.
Option [Link] surfaces.
Option [Link] surfaces.
Correct Answer [Link] cabin.

Question Number. 16. Shear stress is described as.

Option A. pulling forces.
Option [Link] away under the action of forces.
Option [Link] forces.
Correct Answer [Link] away under the action of forces.
[Link] keyword is 'slip', but it is a terrible definition of shear stress.

Question Number. 17. The ground cable must be.

Option [Link] strand 18 AWG.
Option [Link] strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area.
Option [Link] stranded 0.5 in. cross sectional area.

25
 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link] strand copper wire 0.5 in. cross sectional area.

Question Number. 18. Where on the aircraft is FS245, RWS45?.

Option A.245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing.
Option B.245 inches from the nose of the aircraft and 45 inches from the tip of the right wing.
Option C.245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right wing.
Correct Answer is.245 inches from the datum line of the aircraft and 45 inches from the centreline of the right
wing.

Question Number. 19. How is the radome protected from lightning strike?.
Option A. Diverter strips.
Option B. Special paint.
Option [Link] grease on the hinges.
Correct Answer [Link] strips.

Question Number. 20. If you short the two prongs with the single prong of a bonding tester together,
what would the gauge read?.
Option A. Centre scale.
Option [Link] scale deflection.
Option C. Zero.
Correct Answer is. Zero.

Question Number. 21. A condition after which a permanent deformation of a material is caused, is
known as.
Option A. bending.
Option B. strain.
Option C. shear.
Correct Answer is. strain.
[Link] is 'best' of the answers. Strain is 'deformation' but does not necessarily cause a permanent
deformation.

Question Number. 22. Semi-monocoque construction.

Option [Link] used only for the fuselage.
Option [Link] good damage resistance.
Option [Link] the safe-life design concept.
Correct Answer [Link] good damage resistance.

Question Number. 23. Most radio aerials are.

Option [Link] from the fuselage.
Option B. not bonded.
Option C. bonded.

26
 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 24. Secondary bonding is usually provided with.

Option [Link] copper 0.25 inch.
Option B. 18 AWG.
Option [Link] strand 0.25 inch.
Correct Answer is.18 AWG.

Question Number. 25. Water Lines (WLs) are measured points on a.

Option A. wing line.
Option B. vertical line.
Option C. horizontal line.
Correct Answer [Link] line.

Question Number. 26. The various parts of the aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential
by.
Option A. bonding.
Option B. static wicks.
Option C. earthing.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 27. The cross sectional area of a secondary conductor must be not less than.
Option A. 22 SWG * 0.25.
Option B. 22 SWG * 0.5.
Option C.18 SWG for a single wire.
Correct Answer is.18 SWG for a single wire.

Question Number. 28. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an aircraft?.
Option A. Flying Hours.
Option [Link] Cycles.
Option C. Landings.
Correct Answer [Link] Hours.

Question Number. 29. The main forces on an aircraft structure are.

Option [Link], compression, torsion and strain.
Option [Link], compression, twisting and shear.
Option [Link], compression, torsion and shear.

27
 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link], compression, torsion and shear.

Question Number. 30. The life of the structure is counted by.

Option A. flying hours.
Option [Link] cycle.
Option C. landings.
Correct Answer [Link] cycle.

Question Number. 31. What are buttock lines?.

Option [Link] from the centre line.
Option [Link] measurement lines.
Option [Link] measurement lines.
Correct Answer [Link] from the centre line.
[Link] measurement lines.

Question Number. 32. Aircraft fibreglass panels are protected against lighting strikes, partially by.

Option [Link] paint.

Option B. bonding.
Option [Link]-conductive paint.
Correct Answer [Link] paint.

Question Number. 33. A member taking a compression load is called a.

Option A. cable.
Option B. beam.
Option C. strut.
Correct Answer is. strut.

Question Number. 34. Stringers are used in which of the following types of aircraft fuselage
construction?.
Option [Link]-monocoque.
Option B. Truss type.
Option C. Monocoque.
Correct Answer [Link]-monocoque.

Question Number. 35. Wing stations are measured.

Option [Link] from the wing root.
Option [Link] from the fuselage centreline.
Option [Link] from the wing upper surface.

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 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link] from the fuselage centreline.

Question Number. 36. What load is a tie rod designed to accept?.

Option A. Bending.
Option B. Torsion.
Option C. Tensile.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 37. If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will be.
Option A. red.
Option B. yellow.
Option C. green.
Correct Answer is. red.

Question Number. 38. Which of the following is primary structure?.

Option A. Frame.
Option B. Stringer.
Option C. Skin.
Correct Answer is. Skin.

Question Number. 39. Fuselage station numbers are measured from the front of the aircraft in.
Option A. feet.
Option [Link] and inches.
Option C. inches.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 40. Which parts of the aircraft are classified secondary structures?.
Option [Link] parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft.
Option [Link] parts of the airframe are highly stressed and if damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and
loss of life.
Option [Link] are lightly stressed parts such as fairings, wheel shields and minor component brackets etc.
Correct Answer [Link] parts of the airframe are highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the
aircraft.

Question Number. 41. Structure with built in redundancy is called.

Option A. double safe.
Option B. failsafe.
Option C. safe life.

29
 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 42. Stress.

Option [Link] the load per unit area acting on a material.
Option [Link] the property of a material to resist fracture.
Option [Link] the deformation of a material caused by applied load.
Correct Answer [Link] the load per unit area acting on a material.

Question Number. 43. A piece of structure which must be replaced at a specified number of cycles,
flying hours or years, regardless of its physical condition is what type of item?.
Option A. Fail-safe.
Option [Link] monitored.
Option C. Safe-life.
Correct Answer [Link]-life.

Question Number. 44. If you are unable to identify a structure classification as either Primary or
Secondary, what action should you adopt?.
Option [Link] it to primary.
Option [Link] it red and stamp it as tertiary.
Option [Link] it as secondary.
Correct Answer [Link] it to primary.

Question Number. 45. Safe-life is.

Option [Link] minimum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs.
Option [Link] maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure occurs.
Option [Link] sharing of loads between adjacent members.
Correct Answer [Link] maximum number of flying hours that should elapse before a major structural failure
occurs.

Question Number. 46. Bending stresses are a combination of.

Option [Link] and shear stresses.
Option [Link] and compression stresses.
Option [Link] and compression stresses.
Correct Answer [Link] and compression stresses.

Question Number. 47. The Airworthiness Notice that refers to structural surveys is.
Option A. Notice 65.
Option B. Notice 79.
Option C. Notice 89.

30
 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link] 89.

[Link] AWNs are now transferred to CAP747.

Question Number. 48. Structural survey inspections are normally called up by the.
Option [Link] engineer.
Option B. manufacturer.
Option C. operator.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 49. Where are wing stations measured from?.

Option A. Butt Line (BL).
Option [Link] Line (WL).
Option C. Zone Line (ZL).
Correct Answer [Link] Line (BL).
[Link] question, but the fuselage centreline is 'technically' a buttock line of sorts.

Question Number. 50. Where is Zone 323?.

Option [Link] of vertical stabilise.
Option [Link] front and rear spar.
Option [Link] rear spar and trailing edge.
Correct Answer [Link] front and rear spar.
[Link] A320 AMM 06-20-00-00 shows zone 323 as between the front and rear spar of the vertical
stab. Zone 324 is the tip of the vertical stab.

Question Number. 51. To prevent a system being affected by high current flows after a lightning strike
to a composite aircraft, electricity is discharged through.
Option [Link] connected primary conductors.
Option B.a sprayed coat of non-conductive paint.
Option C.a sprayed coat of conductive paint.
Correct Answer [Link] connected primary conductors.

Question Number. 52. A structural member intended to resist compression is a.

Option A. tie.
Option B. strut.
Option C. web.
Correct Answer is. strut.

Question Number. 53. An aircraft structure, having multiple load paths, is known as a.
Option [Link]-life design.
Option [Link]-safe design.
Option [Link] design.

31
 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link]-safe design.

Question Number. 54. Wrinkling of the skin on the upper surface of the fuselage indicates.
Option A. sagging.
Option B. hogging.
Option C. shedding.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 55. If a redundant structure fails it becomes.

Option A. fatigued.
Option B. safe-life.
Option C. failsafe.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 56. A redundant structure is.

Option A.a safe-life structure.
Option B.a failsafe structure.
Option [Link]-condition structure.
Correct Answer is.a failsafe structure.

Question Number. 57. The measurement of the fuselage perpendicular to horizontal plane measured in
inches from bottom of the fuselage is.
Option [Link] station.
Option B. butt line.
Option C. water line.
Correct Answer [Link] line.

Question Number. 58. What are the four stresses to be considered when building an aircraft?.
Option [Link], Tension, Torsion, Stress.
Option [Link], Torsion, Tension, Shear.
Option [Link], Torsion, Stress, Strain.
Correct Answer [Link], Torsion, Tension, Shear.

Question Number. 59. A structure that has a high designed reserve strength would be classified as.

Option A. primary.
Option B. tertiary.
Option C. secondary.

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 [Link]

Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 60. An example of primary stress is.

Option A. shear.
Option B. tension.
Option C. tension.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 61. What is the water line?.

Option A.A line below which redux bonding can not be used.
Option [Link] datum from which vertical locations refer.
Option [Link] datum from which vertical locations refer.
Correct Answer [Link] datum from which vertical locations refer.

Question Number. 62. Lateral stations have station zero at the.

Option A. nose.
Option B. left wing tip.
Option C. centre line.
Correct Answer [Link] line.

Question Number. 63. Airworthiness requirements for large aircraft are found in.
Option A. ANO 25.
Option B. JAR 25.
Option C. CS 25.
Correct Answer is. CS 25.
[Link] 25 is replaced by EASA Certification Specification CS 25.

Question Number. 64. An Anthropomorphic Test Dummy (ATD) is strapped into a large aircraft forward
facing seat. It is put through a series of crash tests. This is to.
Option [Link] determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat, and if so
to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC).
Option [Link] the aircraft structure and seating mount points for structural integrity.
Option [Link] measure the amount of force applied to the abdomen of the ATD to ensure it is not above 236 kg.
Correct Answer [Link] determine whether or not the ATD\'s head comes into contact with any structure or seat,
and if so to measure the force applied to the head in line with a specific Head Injury Criterion (HIC).

Question Number. 65. Diffusion bonding and superplastic forming provides.

Option [Link] strength and high stiffness.
Option [Link] stiffness and high ductility.
Option [Link] strength and high ductility.
Correct Answer [Link] stiffness and high ductility.

33
 [Link]

11A.02b. Airframe Structures - General Concepts.

Question Number. 1. What kind of seal is used on firewall bulkheads?.
Option A. Soft rubber.
Option [Link]-proof grommets.
Option [Link] is required.
Correct Answer [Link]-proof grommets.

Question Number. 2. The two stages in a good adhesive bond are.

Option [Link] and Setting.
Option [Link] and gripping.
Option [Link] and setting.
Correct Answer [Link] and Setting.
Explanation.A module 7 questions. The two processes in adhesive bonding is 'wetting and setting'.

Question Number. 3. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use.

Option A. acid etch.
Option B. alkaline etch.
Option C. solvent etch.
Correct Answer [Link] etch.
[Link] acid and chromic acid wash.

Question Number. 4. The purpose of a primer is to.

Option [Link] shiny surface for the topcoat.
Option [Link] flexible surface for the top coat.
Option [Link] bonding of the topcoat.
Correct Answer [Link] bonding of the topcoat.

Question Number. 5. In semi-monocoque construction, compression loads are taken by.

Option A. stringers.
Option B. bulkheads.
Option C. frames.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 6. Most large transport aircraft skins are.

Option A. 2024.
Option B. 7075.
Option C. 5056.
Correct Answer is. 2024.

34
 [Link]

Question Number. 7. Which of the following statements is correct, in relation to PLI washers used in
critical bolted joints?.
Option [Link] washers can be affected by thread or nut friction or by lubrication.
Option [Link] washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once.
Option [Link] washers can be used more than once, providing they are used in critical bolted joints.
Correct Answer [Link] washers can only be used with self locking nuts and the washers should be used once.

Question Number. 8. What opposes buckling in a semi-monocoque structure?.

Option A. Stringers.
Option B. Bulkheads.
Option C. Frames.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 9. In a monocoque structure, which component carries the majority of the loads?.

Option A. Longerons.
Option B. Stringers.
Option C. Skin.
Correct Answer is. Skin.

Question Number. 10. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels?.

Option A. Zinc plating.
Option [Link] plating.
Option C. Nickel plating.
Correct Answer [Link] plating.

Question Number. 11. What material can be chromated as a protection against corrosion?.
Option [Link] alloys.
Option [Link] alloys.
Option C. Ferrous alloys.
Correct Answer [Link] alloys.

Question Number. 12. When carrying out a symmetry check on a large aircraft, what method of
measurement is normally used?.
Option [Link] alignment method.
Option [Link] alignment method.
Option [Link] tape and spring balance.
Correct Answer [Link] tape and spring balance.

35
 [Link]

Question Number. 13. Paint remover substances.

Option [Link] damaging to some aircraft parts.
Option [Link] only be used once.
Option [Link] only be used once.
Correct Answer [Link] damaging to some aircraft parts.
[Link] only be used once.

Question Number. 14. To remove a rivet.

Option [Link] the head with a drill bit slightly smaller than the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and
remove the shank with a metal punch.
Option [Link] off the rivet head, and remove the shank with a metal punch.
Option [Link] the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and remove
the shank with a metal punch.
Correct Answer [Link] the head with a drill bit the same size as the rivet shank, chisel off the rivet head, and
remove the shank with a metal punch.
[Link] Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says 'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet', but CAIPs BL/6-29 para
10.1 says 'slightly smaller'. We chose the former, because it is current.

Question Number. 15. Battery trays are.

Option [Link] to soak up electrolyte.
Option [Link] for earthing purposes.
Option [Link] with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.
Correct Answer [Link] with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint.

Question Number. 16. The primary purpose of sealant in use in pressurised aircraft is.
Option [Link] seal the cabin.
Option [Link] prevent corrosion.
Option [Link] provide external streamlining.
Correct Answer [Link] seal the cabin.

Question Number. 17. When installing a 'Hi-lock' bolt, it is necessary to.

Option [Link] fit the bolt as they are prelubricated.
Option [Link] the collar.
Option [Link] the shank and threads.
Correct Answer [Link] fit the bolt as they are prelubricated.

Question Number. 18. Sealant or levelling compound is installed during structure repair:.
Option [Link] to AMM and SRM chapter 51.
Option [Link] to SB instructions.
Option [Link] to separate manufacturer's documentations such as BAC.
Correct Answer [Link] to AMM and SRM chapter 51.

36
 [Link]

Question Number. 19. A bonded waffle doubler, as well as acting as a skin strengthener, also acts as a.
Option A. jury strut.
Option B. tear stopper.
Option C. shear tie.
Correct Answer [Link] stopper.

Question Number. 20. What are the faying surfaces of a repair?.

Option [Link] of repair.
Option [Link] of repair metal.
Option [Link] under repair.
Correct Answer [Link] under repair.
[Link] to interpretation. We have gone for 'material under repair' as the surfaces joined together.

Question Number. 21. Why is a joggle joint used?.

Option [Link] countersunk rivets do not need to be used.
Option [Link] contour of surface.
Option [Link] strength.
Correct Answer [Link] contour of surface.

Question Number. 22. Dissimilar metal fusion bonding is best for.

Option [Link] strength high toughness.
Option [Link] strength high stiffness.
Option [Link] strength high toughness.
Correct Answer [Link] strength high stiffness.

Question Number. 23. The ideal conditions for paint spraying an aircraft are.
Option A.20°C to 30°C and humidity below 70%.
Option B.15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.
Option C.15°C to 25°C and humidity above 60%.
Correct Answer is.15°C to 25°C and humidity below 75%.

Question Number. 24. What are the types of true bonded joints?.
Option [Link] and specific.
Option [Link] and cemented.
Option [Link] and cemented.
Correct Answer [Link] and specific.

37
 [Link]

Question Number. 25. Why is a joggle joint used?.

Option [Link] provide a smooth contour to surface.
Option [Link] add strength.
Option [Link] provide a flush fit.
Correct Answer [Link] provide a flush fit.
[Link] c also, but the joggle does not provide the 'contour'.

Question Number. 26. When both sides of a structural repair are not easily reached, which type of
fastener would you use?.
Option A. Pop rivet.
Option B. Hi lock bolt.
Option C. Blind rivet.
Correct Answer [Link] rivet.
[Link] rivet is not a blind fastener because the broken stem must be retrieved.

Question Number. 27. With regard to extraneous spilt fluids.

Option [Link] may be harmful to the aircraft structure.
Option [Link] should only be cleaned up if they are on the external surface of the aircraft.
Option [Link] can be ignored, they provide extra protection.
Correct Answer [Link] may be harmful to the aircraft structure.

Question Number. 28. Skin panels may be strengthened by.

Option A. cleats.
Option B. struts.
Option C. stringers.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 29. What is the normal form of construction of a spar?.

Option [Link] webs separated by a boom.
Option [Link] boom mounted under a web.
Option [Link] booms separated by a web.
Correct Answer [Link] booms separated by a web.

Question Number. 30. A crack stopper is fitted.

Option [Link] a crack starts, to prevent its initiation.
Option [Link] a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.
Option [Link] a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.
Correct Answer [Link] a crack starts, to slow its rate of propagation.

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Question Number. 31. Which of the following should be accomplished before jacking an aircraft?.
Option [Link] critical stress panels or plates.
Option [Link] the fuel tanks are empty.
Option [Link] all optional equipment.
Correct Answer [Link] critical stress panels or plates.

Question Number. 32. Synthetic resins are made from nylon, vinyl and.
Option A. asphalt.
Option B. cellulose.
Option C. acrylics.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 33. One of the advantages of the semi-monocoque construction is that it.
Option [Link] easier to manufacture.
Option [Link] the loads.
Option [Link] all the loads in the skin.
Correct Answer [Link] the loads.

Question Number. 34. In a fully monocoque fuselage, all the loads are carried by the.
Option A. longerons.
Option B. frames.
Option C. skin.
Correct Answer is. skin.

Question Number. 35. Intercostals are.

Option [Link] struts joining the upper and lower wings of a biplane.
Option [Link] ribs in cantilever wings.
Option [Link] fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames.
Correct Answer [Link] fuselage members attached at each end to adjacent frames.

Question Number. 36. Joints that are designed to stop the propagation of cracks are known as.
Option A. failsafe joints.
Option [Link] joints.
Option [Link] limiting joints.
Correct Answer [Link] joints.

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 [Link]

Question Number. 37. If an aircraft has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be.

Option A. plastic.
Option [Link] alloy.
Option C. stainless steel.
Correct Answer [Link] steel.

Question Number. 38. An overweight landing is one in which the aircraft has.
Option [Link] much kinetic energy on landing.
Option B.a missed placed centre of gravity on landing.
Option [Link] excessive fuel load on take-off.
Correct Answer [Link] much kinetic energy on landing.

Question Number. 39. Symmetry checks should be carried out.

Option [Link] the hangar with the aircraft on its wheels.
Option [Link] the ramp with the aircraft on its wheels.
Option [Link] the hanger with the aircraft on jacks.
Correct Answer [Link] the hanger with the aircraft on jacks.

Question Number. 40. The purpose of a wash primer and primer is to.
Option [Link] bonding for top-coat.
Option [Link] a flexible surface for top-coat.
Option [Link] more aerodynamic finish for top-coat.
Correct Answer [Link] bonding for top-coat.

Question Number. 41. Dents are generally not permitted in a tubular member.
Option [Link] they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member.
Option [Link] the major axis of the dent is parallel to the tube axis irrespective of the location.
Option [Link] they are located in the middle third of the length of the member.
Correct Answer [Link] they are located in the end thirds of the length of the member.

Question Number. 42. When an item is cocooned, the visual indicator will indicate.
Option A. humidity.
Option B. temperature.
Option C. toxic gases.
Correct Answer [Link].

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 [Link]

Question Number. 43. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is.
Option A. 1 in 600.
Option B. 1 in 200.
Option C. 1 in 400.
Correct Answer is.1 in 600.

Question Number. 44. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by.

Option A. stringers.
Option B. longerons.
Option C. bulkheads.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 45. Which loads do longerons resist?.

Option A. Torsional only.
Option [Link], compression, tensile and torsion.
Option [Link], compression and tensile.
Correct Answer [Link], compression and tensile.

11A.03.1. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Fuselage (ATA 52/53/56).

Question Number. 1. Blowout panels are fitted to floors of pressurized aircraft to.
Option [Link] access for pressurising the aircraft.
Option [Link] access for pressurising the aircraft.
Option [Link] venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor.
Correct Answer [Link] venting should a differential pressure build up across the floor.
[Link] DC10 Cargo door disaster. Cargo compartment depressurised, cabin pressure caused
floor to collapse. Blowout panels made compulsory thereafter.

Question Number. 2. Acrylic windows must be able to flex in-situ because they have.
Option [Link] shrinkage due to age.
Option [Link] coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
Option [Link] coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
Correct Answer [Link] coefficient of expansion than surrounding structure.
[Link] has a thermal expansion approximately 8x that of aluminium alloy.

Question Number. 3. A cargo bay must have signs stating.

Option [Link] hazardous cargo.
Option [Link] dimensions.
Option [Link] loadings.
Correct Answer [Link] loadings.

41
 [Link]

[Link], pallet size is fixed, but the weight is critical.

Question Number. 4. Zone D Cargo compartment windows.

Option [Link] have blinds pulled down.
Option [Link] be blanked off.
Option [Link] made from fire retardant Perspex.
Correct Answer [Link] be blanked off.

Question Number. 5. A fire zone in which a crew member could enter to fight a fire is.
Option A. class B.
Option B. class A.
Option C. class E.
Correct Answer [Link] B.

Question Number. 6. Windscreen delamination is.

Option [Link] of the glass due to overheat.
Option [Link] of the glass from the vinyl interlayer.
Option [Link] peeling away from the airframe.
Correct Answer [Link] of the glass from the vinyl interlayer.

Question Number. 7. What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?.
Option A. 30°C to 50°C.
Option B. 50°C to 70°C.
Option C. 50°F to 70°F.
Correct Answer is.50°F to 70°F.

Question Number. 8. What is the maximum temperature of warm water which is used to clean dirty
aircraft acrylic panels?.
Option A. 104°F.
Option B. 125°F.
Option C. 40°F.
Correct Answer is. 104°F.

Question Number. 9. How are passenger door pressure loads transmitted to the fuselage structure?.

Option A. By door stops.

Option [Link] the pressure seal.
Option [Link] the latching mechanism.
Correct Answer [Link] door stops.

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Question Number. 10. Passenger cabin windows are constructed with two panes and a seal between
them. Under normal flight conditions which pane(s) take the differential pressure loads?.
Option A. Outer.
Option B. Inner.
Option C. Both.
Correct Answer is. Outer.
[Link] inner panel has a small hole in it to let the pressure through to the outer panel.

Question Number. 11. How are passenger seats secured to the floor?.
Option [Link] the front legs while the back attachment provides anti rattle.
Option [Link] both front and back legs.
Option [Link] the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle.
Correct Answer [Link] the back legs while the front attachment provides anti rattle.
[Link] back legs are secured as they have the upward load during a sudden stop.

Question Number. 12. A material commonly used for pressure bulkhead sealing is.
Option A. PTFE.
Option B. aluminium.
Option C. soft rubber.
Correct Answer [Link] rubber.

Question Number. 13. When acrylic and sheet metal is joined together, allowance should be made for.

Option [Link] of the acrylic due to heat.

Option [Link] corrosion of the metal.
Option [Link] of the metal due to heat.
Correct Answer [Link] of the acrylic due to heat.

Question Number. 14. Which of the following is Perspex resistant to?.

Option A. Kerosene.
Option B. MEK.
Option C. Acetone.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 15. In a pressurised aircraft cabin window, the differential pressure can be taken by.

Option [Link] scratch panel.

Option [Link] inner pane only.
Option [Link] main panes.
Correct Answer [Link] main panes.

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 [Link]

Question Number. 16. The purpose of the vinyl interlayer in window construction is.
Option [Link] improve on brittle behaviour.
Option [Link] enable inclusion of heater film.
Option [Link] increase static strength.
Correct Answer [Link] improve on brittle behaviour.

Question Number. 17. On passenger aircraft of two or more zones.

Option [Link] should be at least one exit per zone.
Option [Link] seat backs fold forward at over wing emergency exits.
Option [Link] emergency exits are to be clearly signed.
Correct Answer [Link] should be at least one exit per zone.

Question Number. 18. Class D cargo bay windows require.

Option [Link] blind down for flight.
Option [Link] acrylic panels.
Option [Link] proof coatings.
Correct Answer [Link] proof coatings.

Question Number. 19. Cargo bay panels are normally constructed from.
Option A. Kevlar.
Option [Link] Nomex.
Option [Link] and resin.
Correct Answer [Link] and resin.

Question Number. 20. The fatigue life of a pressure hull is based on.
Option [Link] number of explosive decompressions.
Option [Link] total number of pressurizations.
Option [Link] number of negative differential pressure applications.
Correct Answer [Link] total number of pressurizations.

Question Number. 21. In pressurized aircraft, undercarriage bays.

Option [Link] unpressurised.
Option [Link] be pressurized or unpressurised.
Option [Link] pressurized.
Correct Answer [Link] unpressurised.

Question Number. 22. The main longitudinal members in a fuselage are called.

44
 [Link]

Option A. frames.
Option B. longerons.
Option C. spars.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 23. A partition within the aircraft's structure is called a.

Option A. frame.
Option B. bulkhead.
Option C. cleat.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 24. When inspecting stowage doors, special attention should be given to the.
Option [Link] microswitches.
Option B. trim.
Option C. catches.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 25. Seat track cutouts provide for various seat spacings, usually in.
Option [Link] foot increments.
Option [Link] inch increments.
Option [Link] inch increments.
Correct Answer [Link] inch increments.

Question Number. 26. Wall mounted flight attendant seats are fixed to.
Option A. rails.
Option B. tracks.
Option C. stanchions.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 27. Windshields are heated to.

Option [Link] strength and toughness only.
Option [Link] misting and icing only.
Option [Link], ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness.
Correct Answer [Link], ant-ice and maintain strength and toughness.

Question Number. 28. The internal doors of an aircraft.

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 [Link]

Option [Link] pressure loads.

Option [Link] carry pressure loads when the aircraft is at cruise altitude.
Option [Link] carry pressure loads.
Correct Answer [Link] carry pressure loads.

Question Number. 29. A pressure door warning light illuminates only when the door is.
Option A. locked.
Option [Link] fully opened.
Option C. not locked.
Correct Answer [Link] locked.

Question Number. 30. If an electrically operated cargo door lifting actuator fails, it may be operated.

Option [Link] electrical ground power.

Option [Link] alternate actuators.
Option [Link] by winding.
Correct Answer [Link] by winding.

Question Number. 31. After installation of an acrylic window panel, protective paper and adhesive
remaining on the panel may be removed by use of soap and water and.
Option [Link] spirits.
Option [Link] thinners.
Option C. MEK.
Correct Answer [Link] spirits.

Question Number. 32. If heat is applied to the vinyl interlayer of an aircraft windscreen, its ability to
withstand impact will.
Option A. increase.
Option B. decrease.
Option C. not change.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 33. When fitting a transparent plastic panel (acrylic) to a metal frame, provision
must be made for the relative movement of the panel and the frame for the reason of.
Option [Link] higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame.
Option [Link] lower coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the frame.
Option [Link] known slight shrinkage of the panel due to ageing.
Correct Answer [Link] higher coefficient of expansion of the transparent panel when compared with the
frame.

46
 [Link]

Question Number. 34. Perspex is resistant to.

Option A. Paraffin.
Option B. Acetone.
Option C. C.T.C.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 35. Moisture drain valves in a pressurised fuselage.

Option [Link] open all the time to ensure the bilge areas are well drained.
Option [Link] open when the cabin is depressurised.
Option [Link] open when the cabin is pressurised.
Correct Answer [Link] open when the cabin is depressurised.

Question Number. 36. Wide body transport aircraft have cabin floor vents.
Option [Link] provide access to class A cargo compartments in the event of fire.
Option [Link] ensure adequate ventilation of the underfloor areas.
Option [Link] equalise pressures above and below the floor after the loss of a cargo compartment door.
Correct Answer [Link] equalise pressures above and below the floor after the loss of a cargo compartment door.

Question Number. 37. On an inspection, you are aware of vinyl bubbling. What action is required?.

Option [Link] action is required with this defect.

Option [Link] the defective window.
Option [Link] replace the window if the bubbling affects vision.
Correct Answer [Link] replace the window if the bubbling affects vision.

Question Number. 38. Passenger windows in jet transport aircraft normally have.
Option [Link] structural panes.
Option [Link] structural pane.
Option [Link] structural panes.
Correct Answer [Link] structural panes.

Question Number. 39. A plug type window is fitted.

Option [Link] the outside.
Option [Link] either side.
Option [Link] the inside.
Correct Answer [Link] the inside.

Question Number. 40. Air is used to seal the cabin door in pressure cabins. The source of this air is
usually.

47
 [Link]

Option [Link] pressurised air.

Option [Link] pressurised air.
Option [Link] storage bottles.
Correct Answer [Link] pressurised air.

Question Number. 41. Drain valves are normally closed by.

Option [Link] pressure.
Option [Link] air pressure.
Option C. rubber strips.
Correct Answer [Link] air pressure.

Question Number. 42. Drain holes in unpressurised areas are.

Option [Link] open or closed.
Option B. always open.
Option C. always closed.
Correct Answer [Link] open.

Question Number. 43. A cargo compartment in which there is a separate approved smoke or fire
detector system to give warning and means to shut off the ventilating airflow to the compartment is a.
Option [Link] 'B' compartment.
Option [Link] 'C' compartment.
Option [Link] 'E' compartment.
Correct Answer [Link] 'E' compartment.

Question Number. 44. Aircraft frames are constructed of.

Option A. 'Z' section.
Option B. 'U' section.
Option C. I' section.
Correct Answer is.'Z' section.

Question Number. 45. The life of a fuselage depends on.

Option [Link] pressurisation cycles not including ground cycles.
Option [Link] pressurisation cycles excluding maximum differential.
Option [Link] pressurisation cycles.
Correct Answer [Link] pressurisation cycles.

Question Number. 46. Passenger cabin seat rails form part of the.
Option A. frames.

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 [Link]

Option B. stringers.
Option C. longerons.
Correct Answer [Link].

11A.03.2. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Wings (ATA 57).

Question Number. 1. A spar web will take loads in.
Option A. bending.
Option B. tension.
Option C. shear.
Correct Answer is. shear.
[Link] spar as a whole, takes bending and shear. The bending is taken by the booms (as
compression-top and tension - bottom) and the web takes the shear. (Sometimes called a 'shear' web).

Question Number. 2. Wing bending and shear loads are taken by.
Option A. spar cap.
Option B. skin.
Option C. main spar.
Correct Answer [Link] spar.
[Link] main spar takes the wing bending and shear loads.

Question Number. 3. An aspect ratio of 8 could mean.

Option [Link] 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.
Option [Link] squared 64 ft., chord 8 ft.
Option [Link] chord 64 ft., span 8 ft.
Correct Answer [Link] 64 ft., mean chord 8 ft.
[Link] Ratio = span/mean chord.

Question Number. 4. A cantilever wing is a.

Option [Link] airliner wing.
Option [Link] wing of a biplane.
Option [Link]-back wing.
Correct Answer [Link] airliner wing.

Question Number. 5. On a mono-spar wing, what gives the wing its profile contour?.
Option [Link] stringers.
Option [Link] position of the spars.
Option C. Ribs.
Correct Answer is. Ribs.

Question Number. 6. A wing's leading edge would have provisions and linkages for slats and.
Option [Link] edge flaps.

49
 [Link]

Option [Link] edge flaps.

Option C. slots.
Correct Answer [Link] edge flaps.
[Link] are fixed features - no linkages, or are produced when the slats open.

Question Number. 7. The mid-spar is fitted in large aircraft to.

Option [Link] fitting the engine mount & landing gear mount.
Option [Link] the main spar with operational loads.
Option [Link] redundant design.
Correct Answer [Link] the main spar with operational loads.

Question Number. 8. The main undercarriage is attached to the.

Option [Link] structure.
Option B. rear main spar.
Option [Link] main spar.
Correct Answer [Link] structure.
[Link] only wholly correct answer.

Question Number. 9. The final coat of sealing in a integral fuel tank is called.
Option A. fillet.
Option B. interfay.
Option C. brush coat.
Correct Answer [Link] coat.
Explanation.B737 ANN 28-11-00 page 811, the 3 coats of sealant for repair fuel tanks leak are termed as fillet,
injection and prepack. Fillet seal is the first coat.

Question Number. 10. The principle load bearing members of the wing are.
Option A. spars.
Option B. struts.
Option C. ribs.
Correct Answer is. spars.

Question Number. 11. One purpose of a rib is to.

Option [Link] the bending loads on a fuselage.
Option [Link] the main lateral member in an aerofoil.
Option [Link] the correct contour of an aerofoils covering.
Correct Answer [Link] the correct contour of an aerofoils covering.

Question Number. 12. What is a cantilever wing?.

Option [Link] that folds for access to limited space.

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 [Link]

Option [Link] that has external supporting struts.

Option [Link] that has no external supporting struts.
Correct Answer [Link] that has no external supporting struts.

Question Number. 13. A spar is tapered from root to tip because.

Option [Link] forces are greatest at the root.
Option [Link] moment is greatest at the root.
Option [Link] of lift occurs close to the root.
Correct Answer [Link] moment is greatest at the root.

Question Number. 14. A spar web is.

Option A.a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.
Option [Link] area between two spar caps.
Option C. a rib/spar joint.
Correct Answer is.a member between the spar and wing/fuselage connection.

Question Number. 15. A leading edge slat is attached to the.

Option A. slat track.
Option [Link] upper skin.
Option C. front spar.
Correct Answer [Link] track.

11A.03.3. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Stabilisers (ATA 55).

Question Number. 1. The web of an 'I' beam takes mainly which type of load?.
Option A. Shear.
Option B. Tension.
Option C. Bending.
Correct Answer is. Shear.
Explanation.A 'web' always takes shear loads.

Question Number. 2. The term 'empennage' incorporates.

Option [Link], ailerons, spoilers.
Option [Link], stabiliser, ailerons.
Option [Link], stabiliser, rudder.
Correct Answer [Link], stabiliser, rudder.

Question Number. 3. The four main structural items making up a horizontal stabiliser are.
Option [Link], rib, bulkheads, skin panels.

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 [Link]

Option [Link], rib, stringers, skin panels.

Option [Link], rib, longerons, skin panels.
Correct Answer [Link], rib, stringers, skin panels.

Question Number. 4. To correct for nose heaviness on an aircraft fitted with a variable incidence
tailplane, the incidence of the tailplane would be.
Option [Link], which is done by lowering the leading edge.
Option [Link], which is done by lowering the trailing edge.
Option [Link], which is done by lowering the leading edge.
Correct Answer [Link], which is done by lowering the leading edge.

Question Number. 5. An upward elevator deflection on the reverse camber tailplane.

Option [Link] increase or decrease download depending upon the aircraft C of G position.
Option [Link] decrease tailplane download.
Option [Link] increase tailplane download.
Correct Answer [Link] increase tailplane download.

Question Number. 6. Variable incidence tailplanes.

Option [Link] rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb.
Option [Link] and landing approach and slowly during cruise always move slowly.
Option [Link] rapidly when trimming the aircraft during the landing approach and slowly at all other times.
Correct Answer [Link] rapidly when trimming the aircraft during climb out and landing approach and slowly
during cruise.
Explanation.B737-400, AMM 27-41-00 PAGE 5 para 1.c, trim speed is depend on the flap position. Trim rate
with flaps retracted is 1/3 the trim rate with flaps extended.

Question Number. 7. The direction of travel of an electrically operated variable incidence tailplane is
determined by.
Option A. a gearbox.
Option [Link] operated clutches.
Option [Link] of rotation of the electric motor.
Correct Answer [Link] operated clutches.

Question Number. 8. On an aircraft with a variable incidence trimming tailplane, the tailplane
incidence changes.
Option [Link] the control column is moved back or forward.
Option [Link] if the elevator moves.
Option [Link] the trim wheel is turned back or forward.
Correct Answer [Link] the trim wheel is turned back or forward.

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11A.03.4. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Flight Control Surfaces (ATA 55/57).

Question Number. 1. Construction such as horn balance and inset hinge balance installed on control
surface assembly.
Option [Link] as a 'servo' system of balance.
Option [Link] same effect of the balance tab.
Option [Link] meant to trim CG of control surfaces.
Correct Answer [Link] same effect of the balance tab.

Question Number. 2. The fin helps to give.

Option [Link] stability about the normal axis.
Option [Link] stability about the normal axis.
Option [Link] stability about the longitudinal axis.
Correct Answer [Link] stability about the normal axis.

Question Number. 3. Which of the following are primary control surfaces?.

Option [Link] spoilers, elevators, tabs.
Option [Link], roll spoilers, tabs.
Option [Link], ailerons, rudder.
Correct Answer [Link], ailerons, rudder.

Question Number. 4. Aerodynamic balance.

Option [Link] reduce aerodynamic loading.
Option [Link] cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability.
Option [Link] cause CP to move towards the trailing edge and cause instability.
Correct Answer [Link] reduce aerodynamic loading.

Question Number. 5. Flutter can be reduced by using.

Option A. servo tabs.
Option [Link] balancing.
Option C. a horn balance.
Correct Answer [Link] balancing.

Question Number. 6. An elevator provides control about the.

Option [Link] stabilizer.
Option [Link] axis.
Option C. lateral axis.
Correct Answer [Link] axis.

Question Number. 7. The outboard ailerons on some large aircraft.

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 [Link]

Option [Link] isolated at low speeds.

Option [Link] isolated to improve sensitivity.
Option [Link] isolated at high speeds.
Correct Answer [Link] isolated at high speeds.

Question Number. 8. An excess of aerodynamic balance would move the control surface centre of
pressure.
Option [Link], resulting in too much assistance.
Option [Link], resulting in loss of assistance.
Option [Link], resulting in an unstable overbalance.
Correct Answer [Link], resulting in an unstable overbalance.

Question Number. 9. A flying control mass balance weight.

Option [Link] the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.
Option [Link] to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
Option [Link] that the C of G always acts to aid the pilot thus relieving control column load.
Correct Answer [Link] to move the control surface C of [Link] to the hinge line.

Question Number. 10. What is attached to the rear of the vertical stabilizer?.
Option A. Elevator.
Option B. Aileron.
Option C. Rudder.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 11. The method employed to mass balance control surfaces is to.
Option [Link] weights forward of the hinge line.
Option [Link] the leading edge of the surface to project into the airflow.
Option [Link] bias strips to the trailing edge of the surfaces.
Correct Answer [Link] weights forward of the hinge line.

Question Number. 12. Control surface flutter may be caused by.

Option [Link] play in trim tab attachments.
Option [Link] static friction in trim tab control tabs.
Option [Link] angular movement of trim tabs.
Correct Answer [Link] play in trim tab attachments.

Question Number. 13. A 'frise' aileron is incorporated to.

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 [Link]

Option [Link] aerodynamic balancing so assisting the pilot to move the control.
Option [Link] aileron control is retained at high angles of attack.
Option [Link] aileron drag in a turn.
Correct Answer [Link] aileron drag in a turn.

Question Number. 14. Aerodynamic balance of a control surface may be achieved.

Option [Link] a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.
Option [Link] a trimming strip at the trailing edge of the surface.
Option [Link] weights added to the control surface aft of the hinge line.
Correct Answer [Link] a horn at the extremity of the surface forward of the hinge line.

Question Number. 15. A control surface is provided with aerodynamic balancing to.
Option [Link] the drag when the control is deflected.
Option [Link] the pilot in moving the control.
Option [Link] stability.
Correct Answer [Link] the pilot in moving the control.

Question Number. 16. The extension to the rudder (shaded portion shown on the diagram), is provided
to.

Option [Link] control surface flutter.

Option [Link] aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder.
Option [Link] the pilot aware of the aerodynamic forces encountered when moving the control.
Correct Answer [Link] aerodynamic assistance for the pilot when moving the rudder.

Question Number. 17. The balance tab is an auxiliary surface fitted to a main control surface.
Option [Link] automatically to provide feel to the controls.
Option [Link] independently at which point in the length of cable the tensiometer is applied.
Option [Link] automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.
Correct Answer [Link] automatically to assist the pilot in moving the controls.

Question Number. 18. Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is achieved by.

Option [Link] a weight ahead of the hinge point.
Option [Link] a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.
Option [Link] a weight in the leading edge of the control surface.
Correct Answer [Link] a portion of the control surface ahead of the hinge point.

Question Number. 19. Aerodynamic balance is used to.

55
 [Link]

Option [Link] the flying controls easier to move.

Option [Link] flutter of the flying controls.
Option [Link] the control load to zero.
Correct Answer [Link] the flying controls easier to move.

Question Number. 20. A horn balance is.

Option A.a rod projecting forward from the control surface with a weight on the end.
Option B.a rod projecting upward from the main control surface to which the control cables are attached.
Option C.a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.
Correct Answer is.a projection of the outer edge of the control surface forward of the hinge line.

Question Number. 21. A control surface is mass balanced by.

Option [Link] attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line.
Option [Link] attachment of weights acting on the hinge line.
Option [Link] a balance tab.
Correct Answer [Link] attachment of weights acting forward of the hinge line.

Question Number. 22. The purpose of anti-balance tabs is to.

Option [Link] stick loads.
Option [Link] the aircraft.
Option [Link] more feel to the control column.
Correct Answer [Link] more feel to the control column.

Question Number. 23. A flying control mass balance weight.

Option [Link] to move the control surface C of G forward of the hinge line.
Option [Link] to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.
Option [Link] the control surface C of G as close to the trailing edge as possible.
Correct Answer [Link] to move the control surface C of G close to the hinge line.

Question Number. 24. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in.

Option A. yaw.
Option B. pitch.
Option C. roll.
Correct Answer is. pitch.

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 [Link]

11A.03.5. Airframe Structures - Aeroplanes - Nacelles/Pylons (ATA 54).

Question Number. 1. Jet engines are usually mounted by.

Option [Link] castings.
Option [Link] mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure.
Option [Link] steel tubing.
Correct Answer [Link] mounts and bolted to aircraft forged structure.

Question Number. 2. A pylon structural member supports the.

Option A. centre section.
Option B. engine.
Option C. empennage.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 3. Wing mounted podded engines and integral fuel tanks.
Option [Link] wing bending relief.
Option [Link] increased safety if the undercarriage collapses on landing.
Option [Link] tailplane download.
Correct Answer [Link] wing bending relief.

11A.04.1. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Air Supply.

Question Number. 1. A spill valve opens.

Option [Link] prevent an excessive pressure difference.
Option [Link] control the flow to the cabin.
Option [Link] control the air from the cabin to outside.
Correct Answer [Link] control the flow to the cabin.

Question Number. 2. Which of the following can be used on the ground?.

Option A. Turbo fan.
Option [Link] compressor.
Option C. Turbo brake.
Correct Answer [Link] fan.
[Link] on air conditioning systems to supply air on ground.

Question Number. 3. What is the minimum cabin air mass flow?.

Option A.1 lbs per minute per person.
Option B.0.5 lbs per minute per person.
Option C.10 lbs per minute per person.
Correct Answer is.0.5 lbs per minute per person.

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Question Number. 4. The function of an air mass flow control valve is to.
Option [Link] the airflow out of the cabin.
Option [Link] a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes.
Option [Link] that system differential pressure is not exceeded.
Correct Answer [Link] a reasonably constant air mass flow into the cabin at all altitudes.

Question Number. 5. Air supplied for pressurisation and conditioning is.

Option [Link] same for both the above sources.
Option [Link] from an engine compressor bleed.
Option [Link] from a compressor driven by an engine gear box.
Correct Answer [Link] from an engine compressor bleed.

Question Number. 6. The mass flow delivery from engine driven blowers is controlled by.
Option [Link] control devices.
Option [Link] speed variations.
Option C. spill valves.
Correct Answer [Link] valves.

Question Number. 7. The function of spill valves is to control.

Option [Link] supply to the cabin.
Option [Link] pressure differential.
Option [Link] rate of pressurisation.
Correct Answer [Link] supply to the cabin.

Question Number. 8. The purpose of a 'Spill' valve in a cabin air supply system is.
Option [Link] relieve the pressure in the air supply ducting to atmosphere.
Option [Link] give a heating effect.
Option [Link] spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower altitudes.
Correct Answer [Link] spill overboard excess air delivered at S.L. and lower altitudes.

Question Number. 9. The function of the mass airflow control valve is to.
Option [Link] system operating pressure is not exceeded.
Option [Link] a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude.
Option [Link] that constant airflow out of the cabin is dictated by cabin altitude.
Correct Answer [Link] a reasonable mass flow of air into the cabin irrespective of aircraft altitude.

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Question Number. 10. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air supply is provided by.
Option [Link] compressor of the gas turbine engine.
Option [Link] gas turbine exhaust.
Option [Link] engine exhaust heat.
Correct Answer [Link] compressor of the gas turbine engine.

Question Number. 11. In most pressurization systems, the amount of compressed air delivered to the
cabin is.
Option [Link] constant irrespective of altitude.
Option [Link] at any particular altitude but varies for different altitudes.
Option [Link], depending on the amount selected by the cabin rate of change selector.
Correct Answer [Link] constant irrespective of altitude.

Question Number. 12. The purpose of a mass flow controller is to.

Option [Link] that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times.
Option [Link] pilot to select the desired cabin altitude.
Option [Link] the cabin altitude remains constant during cruise at all altitudes.
Correct Answer [Link] that a constant mass of air is delivered to cabin at all times.

Question Number. 13. How much air is required for the Flight Deck?.
Option [Link] the captain sets.
Option B. 10 lbs/minute.
Option C.10 cubic feet/minute.
Correct Answer is.10 cubic feet/minute.

11A.04.2. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Air Conditioning.

Question Number. 1. A refrigerant is used in which of the following?.

Option [Link] cycle machine.
Option [Link] pump.
Option C. Vapour cycle.
Correct Answer [Link] cycle.

Question Number. 2. A water separator is located.

Option [Link] of the turbine.
Option [Link] of heat exchanger.
Option [Link] of turbine.
Correct Answer [Link] of turbine.

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Question Number. 3. The velocity of air from the cabin ventilation system should not exceed.
Option A.40 feet per second.
Option B.120 feet per second.
Option C.20 feet per second.
Correct Answer is.120 feet per second.

Question Number. 4. In typical vapour cycle system, the sub-cooler.

Option [Link] the vapour further to prevent slugging.
Option [Link] extra cooling effect when the aircraft is on ground.
Option [Link] a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour.
Correct Answer [Link] a heat exchanger to superheat the vapour.

Question Number. 5. In an air conditioning system, heat is added to air by.

Option [Link] duct outlets.
Option [Link] compressor outlet.
Option [Link] compressor inlet.
Correct Answer [Link] compressor inlet.
[Link] answer we can get to a bad question. Heat is added by varying the amount of compressor
inlet air that bypasses the heat exchanger (Trim Air).

Question Number. 6. Air conditioning systems.

Option [Link] the temperature of air.
Option [Link] and decrease the temperature of air.
Option [Link] the temperature of air.
Correct Answer [Link] the temperature of air.

Question Number. 7. An air cycle machine turbine.

Option [Link] compressor to increase temperature.
Option [Link] compressor to pressurise aircraft.
Option [Link] compressor to decrease temperature.
Correct Answer [Link] compressor to increase temperature.
[Link] compressor is to INCREASE the temperature to increase the rate at which heat energy can be
extracted.

Question Number. 8. Air exiting the compressor side of an ACM.

Option [Link] change in temperature or pressure as it is a centrifugal compressor.
Option [Link] have increased pressure and temperature.
Option [Link] have decreased pressure and temperature.
Correct Answer [Link] have increased pressure and temperature.

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[Link] AL/3-24 para 4.2.2 mentions pre-cooled air is compressed by action of compressor impeller
and diffuser assembly. Hence increase in pressure. Pressure laws says Temperature is proportional to
Pressure.

Question Number. 9. Where is the water trap located in a bootstrap compressor?.

Option [Link] the inlet of the compressor.
Option [Link] the inlet of the turbine.
Option [Link] the outlet of the compressor.
Correct Answer [Link] the inlet of the turbine.
[Link] shows it at the outlet of the turbine (not one of the answers). B757 has an additional water
trap at the inlet of the turbine.

Question Number. 10. Where is the silencer located in a 'blower' air conditioning system?.
Option [Link] the outlet of the blower.
Option [Link] the inlet to the cabin.
Option [Link] the inlet of the blower.
Correct Answer [Link] the outlet of the blower.

Question Number. 11. When does a 'blower' air conditioning system produce the most air?.
Option [Link] high altitudes.
Option [Link] low altitudes.
Option [Link] is not affected by altitude.
Correct Answer [Link] is not affected by altitude.

Question Number. 12. In an air conditioning system, before distribution, the air goes through the.

Option A. TCV.
Option [Link] control valve.
Option [Link] and mixer valve.
Correct Answer is. TCV.
Explanation.b737-400 amm ref 21-00-00 para 5b mentions TCV is located before distribution for pack
temperature control for amount of hot air bypassing the Air Cycle Machine. b737-300 name the same valve as
mixer valve.

Question Number. 13. In a cabin air recirculation system, recirculated air and fresh air are supplied in
the proportions.
Option A.50% of fresh air, 50% of recirculated air.
Option B.60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air.
Option C.40% of fresh air, 60% of recirculated air.
Correct Answer is.60% of fresh air, 40% of recirculated air.

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Question Number. 14. An air-to-air heat exchanger is provided to.

Option [Link] the air supply temperature.
Option [Link] an emergency ram air supply.
Option [Link] the air supply temperature.
Correct Answer [Link] the air supply temperature.

Question Number. 15. Temperature control of cabin air is achieved by.

Option [Link] the water vapour in the supply.
Option [Link] the ambient airflow to the heat exchanger.
Option [Link] the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.
Correct Answer [Link] the amount of air by-passing the cooling system.

Question Number. 16. In pressurized aircraft, temperature conditioning is mainly achieved by.
Option [Link] cabin pressure.
Option [Link] heat from the pressurising air.
Option [Link] heat to the pressurising air.
Correct Answer [Link] heat from the pressurising air.

Question Number. 17. If pressurisation air supplies come from an engine compressor, an internal oil
leak will.
Option [Link] contaminate the air.
Option [Link] the air.
Option [Link] affect the issue as it is automatically detected and vented overboard.
Correct Answer [Link] the air.

Question Number. 18. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by.
Option [Link] pressure and driving the units compressor.
Option [Link] the units compressor.
Option [Link] pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure and driving the units compressor.

Question Number. 19. Heating for pressure cabins is obtained from.

Option [Link] for pressure cabins is obtained from.
Option [Link] supply heated by the pressurising process.
Option [Link] the units compressor.
Correct Answer [Link] supply heated by the pressurising process.

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Question Number. 20. A cold air unit allows for cabin temperatures to be.
Option [Link] as ambient temperature, despite compression heating.
Option [Link] than ambient air temperature despite compression heating.
Option C.a little more than ambient air temperature.
Correct Answer is.a little more than ambient air temperature.

Question Number. 21. A cold air unit produces a drop in temperature by.
Option [Link] compressed air into a heat exchanger.
Option [Link] supply to the cabin.
Option [Link] hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.
Correct Answer [Link] hot air across a turbine which is driving a compressor.

Question Number. 22. When a 'muff' or air ducting is built around the engine exhaust system and air is
directed around inside the muffler, this is an.
Option [Link] heater.
Option [Link] heater.
Option [Link] heater.
Correct Answer [Link] heater.

Question Number. 23. In a turbo fan cold air system, the heat exchanger cooling air is.
Option [Link] air from ambient conditions.
Option [Link] bled directly from engine or through blower.
Option [Link] from cabin air supply duct.
Correct Answer [Link] air from ambient conditions.
[Link] air for heat exchanger is taken from the ambient ram air which is control by varying
opening of the ram air exhaust louvers. Ref B737-400 AMM 21-00-00 page 8.

Question Number. 24. Conditioned air is.

Option A. oxygen added.
Option [Link] removed.
Option [Link] and pressure adjusted.
Correct Answer [Link] and pressure adjusted.

Question Number. 25. Which of the following sometimes inhibits an air conditioning pack?.
Option [Link] switches.
Option [Link] switches.
Option [Link] position switches.
Correct Answer [Link] switches.

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Question Number. 26. When carrying out a ground pressure test, you should use the aircraft engines
because you can test the whole.
Option [Link] aircraft engines because you can test the whole system.
Option [Link] trolley and clean air.
Option C.a G.P.U. and A.P.U. combination.
Correct Answer [Link] aircraft engines because you can test the whole system.
[Link] ground pressure test is typically known as confidence check of airplane ability to maintain
cabin pressure in flight on single pack operation for boeing term. The test involve both left and right engine.
Ref AMM 21-00-05 page 201.

Question Number. 27. The ventilation air in the aircraft cabin must have a minimum humidity of.
Option A. 60 percent.
Option B. 30 percent.
Option C. 20 percent.
Correct Answer is.30 percent.

Question Number. 28. In a Boot-Strap Air Conditioning supply system the source of compressed air is
from.
Option [Link] air at the wing leading edge.
Option [Link] turbine intake ram air.
Option [Link] turbine compressor bleed air.
Correct Answer [Link] turbine compressor bleed air.
Explanation.B737 has the config where the air-conditioning air supply is taken from the pneumatic system
which draw air from the 5th or 9th compressor stage of the gas turbine engine. Ref AMM 21-00-00 page 8.

Question Number. 29. The temperature within the cabin of the aircraft is normally maintained at.

Option A. 12ºC to 18ºC.

Option B. 18ºC to 24ºC.
Option C. 20ºC to 24ºC.
Correct Answer is.18ºC to 24ºC.
Explanation.B737-400 AMM ref 21-61-00 page 11, the selectable range of temperature is between 18 and 29
deg C. For alternate operation when all selectors to OFF, the Left Pack operate at 24deg C and Right Pack at
18deg C.

Question Number. 30. In a 'bootstrap' cooling system the supply of air is first passes across an
expansion turbine, then directly to the.
Option [Link] exchanger.
Option [Link] across an expansion turbine, then compressed and passed through a heat exchanger.
Option [Link] then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine.
Correct Answer [Link] then passed through a heat exchanger and across an expansion turbine.

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Question Number. 31. The humidity within a passenger cabin should.

Option [Link] be less than 60%.
Option [Link] be greater than 40%.
Option [Link] between 30% and 70%.
Correct Answer [Link] between 30% and 70%.

Question Number. 32. One of the principles of cooling employed in an air cycle system is.
Option [Link] compression of ambient air across a turbine.
Option [Link] of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.
Option [Link] surface heat exchange in the C.A.U.
Correct Answer [Link] of heat energy to mechanical energy in the C.A.U.

Question Number. 33. Before filling a vapour cycle cooling system.

Option [Link] the system with a solvent.
Option [Link] suction to remove air and moisture.
Option [Link]-heat the system to 100°F.
Correct Answer [Link] suction to remove air and moisture.
[Link] AL/3-24 para 9.7(b) says, 'before charging a newly installed system, or recharging a system
which has been partly disconnected, all air should be evacuated IAW MM.'.

Question Number. 34. The rate of flow of air from the punkha louvers should not be less than.
Option A. 300 ft/min.
Option B. 25 ft/min.
Option C. 200 ft/min.
Correct Answer is.25 ft/min.

Question Number. 35. An aircraft cabin is air conditioned and pressurized in order to.
Option [Link] human efficiency and comfort during flights at high altitudes.
Option [Link] that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the cabin in
order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression.
Option [Link] that the pressure within the fuselage is always less than the ambient pressure, thus
increasing the fatigue life of the fuselage.

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Correct Answer [Link] that the air density within the cabin is maintained at a lower figure than outside the
cabin in order to prevent moisture precipitation during rapid decompression. OR maintain human efficiency
and comfort during flights at high altitudes.
[Link] AL/3-23 para 2.1 says 1) to maintain a safe cabin altitude relative to aircraft altitude. 2) to
provide a comfortable environment when flying at higher altitudes.

Question Number. 36. In the case of a vapour cycle cooling, system heat is removed from the charge air
by.
Option [Link] the pressure of a vapour.
Option [Link] a vapour into a liquid.
Option [Link] a liquid into a vapour.
Correct Answer [Link] a liquid into a vapour.

Question Number. 37. Subsequent to passing through the primary heat exchanger, the supply air in a
turbo-fan cold air system flows to the.
Option [Link] cooler or secondary heat exchanger.
Option B. turbine.
Option C. fan.
Correct Answer is. fan.
[Link]' is sometimes used to describe the compressor. CAIP AL/3-24 figure 2.

Question Number. 38. The heat exchanger in a turbo-fan system is cooled by.
Option [Link] bleed air or blower air.
Option [Link] bled from the main cabin supply duct.
Option [Link] ram air.
Correct Answer [Link] ram air.

Question Number. 39. The effective temperature of a cabin is given by.

Option [Link], humidity, thermal inertia and heat load.
Option [Link] only.
Option [Link] and humidity.
Correct Answer [Link] and humidity.

Question Number. 40. When dissipating heat in a vapour cycle system.

Option [Link] converts to a liquid.
Option [Link] liquid sublimates.
Option [Link] converts to a vapour.
Correct Answer [Link] converts to a liquid.

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Question Number. 41. International markings for air conditioning pipelines are.
Option A. triangles.
Option B. dots.
Option C. rectangles.
Correct Answer is. dots.

Question Number. 42. A cabin humidifier is operated.

Option [Link] high altitudes.
Option [Link] low altitudes.
Option C. on the ground.
Correct Answer [Link] high altitudes.

Question Number. 43. In an air conditioning system, heat is added to the air by.
Option [Link] duct outlets.
Option [Link] compressor inlet.
Option [Link] compressor outlet.
Correct Answer [Link] compressor outlet.
[Link] think this is referring to the temperature rise in the ACM compressor, which is done via a
centrifugal compressor (i.e. smaller inlet area to outlet area).

Question Number. 44. A turbo fan CAU used for air cycle cooling will.
Option [Link] affect the charge air pressure.
Option [Link] the pressure but decrease the temperature.
Option [Link] pressure and temperature of the charge air.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure and temperature of the charge air.

11A.04.3. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Pressurisation.

Question Number. 1. As an aircraft descends from cruising altitude (34,000ft), the cabin altitude must.
Option A. decrease.
Option B. increase.
Option C. stay the same.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 2. The signal line between the controller and discharge valve is leaking. This will
cause.
Option [Link] will not effect on cabin pressure.
Option [Link] cabin pressure to increase.
Option [Link] cabin pressure to decrease.
Correct Answer [Link] cabin pressure to increase.

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[Link] discharge valve is opened by vacuum in the signal line. If line leaks , valve will close, and cabin
pressure will increase.

Question Number. 3. The basic system of cabin pressurisation is to arrange a constant.

Option [Link] and outlet.
Option [Link] and vary the outlet.
Option [Link] and vary the inlet.
Correct Answer [Link] and vary the outlet.

Question Number. 4. The purpose of the differential capsule in a pressure controller is to control.

Option [Link] rate of pressurisation.

Option B. cabin air flow.
Option [Link] differential pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] differential pressure.

Question Number. 5. With a pressurised aircraft at maximum differential pressure and a cabin
pressure increase occurs, the differential capsule in the pressure controller will.
Option [Link] a constant mass flow.
Option [Link] pressurisation to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure.
Option [Link] all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.
Correct Answer [Link] all pressurising air to be spilled overboard.

Question Number. 6. A comfortable rate of cabin altitude climb for passengers is.
Option A.500 ft. per min.
Option B. 100 ft. per min.
Option C. 300 ft. per min.
Correct Answer is.500 ft. per min.

Question Number. 7. Before carrying out a ground pressure check,.

Option [Link] all pitot and static lines are fitted.
Option [Link] altimeter to QNH.
Option [Link] on all instruments.
Correct Answer [Link] all pitot and static lines are fitted.

Question Number. 8. On touch-down of aircraft.

Option [Link] outflow valve will be shut.
Option [Link] cabin pressure will be zero.
Option [Link] outflow valve will be fully open.
Correct Answer [Link] outflow valve will be fully open.

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Explanation.B737 Pressurization system senses the air-ground sw and the toggle sw FLT-GRD in the cockpit
control. Before touch down, at RD position, controller commands signal to close the discharge valve to 200ft
below landing field elevation. Upon touch down, controller drives discharge fully open. Purpose to prevent
rapid pressure bump.

Question Number. 9. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors,
cupboards etc. must be.
Option A. removed.
Option B. all open.
Option C. all closed.
Correct Answer [Link] open.

Question Number. 10. Prior to conducting a ground pressurisation test, it is necessary to.
Option [Link]/disable the pressure controller.
Option B. set QFE.
Option [Link] the emergency pressure relief valve.
Correct Answer [Link]/disable the pressure controller.
[Link] pressurisation system must be controlled manually. Setting QFE is for the automatic control
of the valves.

Question Number. 11. In the flightdeck of a pressurised aircraft, there is a gauge that shows.
Option [Link] pressure altitude.
Option [Link] altitude.
Option [Link] differential pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] differential pressure.

Question Number. 12. Cabin differential pressure is the pressure difference between.
Option A.8,000ft and standard barometric pressure.
Option [Link] level air pressure and indicated dynamic pressure in the cabin.
Option [Link] pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure inside the aircraft and the ambient air pressure.

Question Number. 13. If the pressure controller is set to 0 ft.

Option [Link] differential is reached immediately after take-off.
Option [Link] will not pressurise.
Option [Link] remains at sea level untill maximum differential.
Correct Answer [Link] will not pressurise.

Question Number. 14. During a pressurisation check at maximum differential, if the engines are shut-
down.
Option [Link] remains pressurised until the dump valve opens.
Option [Link] valve opens immediately.
Option [Link] ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency.

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Correct Answer [Link] ROC indicator gives indication of cabin seal efficiency.

Question Number. 15. Cabin pressure is maintained by.

Option [Link] the supply of air to the cabin.
Option [Link] the output of the compressor.
Option [Link] the amount of air discharged from the cabin.
Correct Answer [Link] the amount of air discharged from the cabin.

Question Number. 16. Control of rate of change of cabin pressure is.

Option [Link] important in descent.
Option [Link] important in ascent.
Option [Link] important in descent and ascent.
Correct Answer [Link] important in descent.

Question Number. 17. Cabin rate of climb is shown by.

Option A.a double scale on the aircraft.
Option [Link] lights.
Option C.a special instrument.
Correct Answer is.a double scale on the aircraft.

Question Number. 18. During normal pressurized climb following take-off.

Option [Link] cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.
Option [Link] cabin R.O.C. is more than ambient R.O.C.
Option [Link] differential pressure is constant.
Correct Answer [Link] cabin R.O.C. is less than ambient R.O.C.

Question Number. 19. Cabin differential pressure is the difference between.

Option A.8,000 ft and sea level.
Option [Link] pressure and ambient pressure.
Option C.I.S.A. conditions and aircraft altitude.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure and ambient pressure.

Question Number. 20. Cabin altitude in pressurized flight is the.

Option [Link] altitude of the cabin as corrected to mean sea level I.S.A. conditions.
Option [Link] corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft.
Option [Link] at which cabin altitude equals outside air pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] corresponding to cabin pressure irrespective of the altitude for the aircraft.

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Question Number. 21. When an aircraft has reached max. diff. and is at constant level (altitude) the
system allows for.
Option [Link] mass flow.
Option [Link] to be switched off until leaks cause a drop in pressure.
Option [Link] pressurising air to be spilled overboard.
Correct Answer [Link] mass flow.

Question Number. 22. The control of ventilating and pressurising air released to atmosphere is
achieved by a.
Option [Link] controller/dump valve combination.
Option [Link] controller/discharge valve combination.
Option [Link] valve/inwards relief valve combination.
Correct Answer [Link] controller/discharge valve combination.

Question Number. 23. Rate of change of cabin pressure is most noticeably shown on a.
Option A. cabin V.S.I.
Option B. cabin pressure gauge.
Option C. cabin altimeter.
Correct Answer [Link] V.S.I.

Question Number. 24. Pressurisation control ensures that.

Option [Link] operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000 ft.
Option [Link] does not start before aircraft is above 8,000 ft.
Option [Link] cabin is always maintained at sea level.
Correct Answer [Link] operational altitude the cabin altitude is below 10,000 ft.

Question Number. 25. Pitot' and 'Static' lines during a cabin pressure test should be.
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Option [Link] connected.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 26. If the cabin pressure fails to reach its maximum cabin pressure differential the.

Option [Link] valve should be adjusted.

Option [Link] valve should be adjusted.
Option [Link] controller should be adjusted.
Correct Answer [Link] controller should be adjusted.

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Question Number. 27. When the aircraft has reached its maximum cabin pressure differential the.

Option [Link] valve closes.

Option [Link] valve opens.
Option [Link] flow ceases through the cabin.
Correct Answer [Link] valve opens.

Question Number. 28. Would you operate the flying controls during a cabin pressure ground test?.

Option A. No.
Option B. Occasionally.
Option C. Yes.
Correct Answer is. Yes.

Question Number. 29. Which component must be isolated when carrying out a ground cabin pressure
test?.
Option [Link] regulator controller.
Option [Link] discharge valve.
Option [Link] relief valve.
Correct Answer [Link] discharge valve.

Question Number. 30. A cabin pressure air leak from the front of the fuselage is.
Option [Link] undesirable because of the drag created.
Option [Link] effective in any way.
Option [Link] desirable because it increases the air-flow.
Correct Answer [Link] undesirable because of the drag created.

Question Number. 31. The principle of cabin pressurisation is.

Option [Link] altitude climbs eventually to that of the aircraft.
Option [Link] altitude will always maintain a constant differential to that of aircraft altitude.
Option [Link] the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to a lower altitude.
Correct Answer [Link] the aircraft climbs to altitude, the cabin climbs to a lower altitude.

Question Number. 32. When the cabin differential pressure has reached the required value and the
height is maintained.
Option [Link] pressurized air is spilled to atmosphere.
Option [Link] mass airflow is permitted through the cabin.
Option [Link] pressure system ceases to function until the cabin pressure is reduced.
Correct Answer [Link] mass airflow is permitted through the cabin.

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Question Number. 33. Cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin altitude by.
Option [Link] the position of the outflow valve.
Option [Link] the position of the inward relief valve.
Option [Link] the mass flow into the cabin.
Correct Answer [Link] the position of the outflow valve.

Question Number. 34. If cabin height is set lower than airfield height when the aircraft is on the ground
with squat switches overridden, then the outflow valve will normally.
Option A. open.
Option B. remain closed.
Option C. not operate.
Correct Answer [Link] closed.

Question Number. 35. The cabin altitude is.

Option [Link] difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure.
Option [Link] actual height of the aircraft above sea level.
Option [Link] equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level.
Correct Answer [Link] equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level.

Question Number. 36. The cabin differential pressure is.

Option [Link] actual height of the aircraft above sea level.
Option [Link] difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure.
Option [Link] equivalent height of the aircraft above sea level.
Correct Answer [Link] difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric pressure.

Question Number. 37. The outflow of air from the cabin is regulated by.
Option [Link] vent valves.
Option [Link] outflow valves.
Option [Link] dump control valves.
Correct Answer [Link] outflow valves.

Question Number. 38. When air is pressurized, the oxygen content.

Option [Link] constant.
Option B. increases.
Option C. decreases.
Correct Answer [Link].

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[Link] content increases as mass per unit volume, but NOT as a percentage of the other gases in
air. Your interpretation of the question may differ.

Question Number. 39. If an altitude of 8000 feet is selected on the cabin pressure controller and
provided maximum cabin pressure differential is not exceeded.
Option A.8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at all aircraft altitudes from sea level.
Option [Link] level cabin conditions will be maintained to 8000 feet aircraft altitude.
Option C.8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet.
Correct Answer is.8000 feet cabin conditions will be maintained at aircraft altitudes above 8000 feet.

Question Number. 40. If cabin pressure is increasing, the cabin rate of change indicator will show.

Option A. a rate of climb.

Option B.a rate of descent.
Option [Link], provided the rate of change is within the normally accepted limits.
Correct Answer is.a rate of descent.

Question Number. 41. During a normal climb from aerodrome level with the pressurization system
'ON'.
Option [Link] cabin differential pressure is maintained constant.
Option [Link] pressurization system does not control pressure until 10,000 ft is reached.
Option [Link] atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] atmospheric pressure decreases more quickly than the cabin pressure.

Question Number. 42. Rate of change of cabin pressure is.

Option A. automatic.
Option [Link] by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller.
Option [Link] by the pilot and controlled by the spill valve.
Correct Answer [Link] by the pilot and controlled by the pressure controller.

Question Number. 43. An aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 8.5 PSI at cruising altitude. If
the ambient pressure is 2.9 PSI, the pressure inside the cabin at cruising altitude would be.
Option A. 11.4 PSI.
Option B. 8.5 PSI.
Option C. 8.5 PSI.
Correct Answer is.11.4 PSI.

Question Number. 44. Cabin differential is determined only by.

Option [Link] height at which the aircraft is flying.
Option [Link] selected cabin height.
Option [Link] height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height.
Correct Answer [Link] height at which the aircraft is flying and by the selected cabin height.

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Question Number. 45. If the pilot selected a cabin height of 8000 ft. whilst taxiing and activated the
pressurization system, the cabin pressure would.
Option [Link] to a pressure equivalent to 8000 ft.
Option [Link] at ground level pressure.
Option [Link] to a pressure equivalent to about 500 ft.
Correct Answer [Link] at ground level pressure.

Question Number. 46. A silencer is installed in a pressurization system to reduce.

Option [Link] noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system.
Option [Link] noise from the high speed of airflow within the system.
Option [Link] noise coming through the ventilators.
Correct Answer [Link] noise from the blowers and/or compressors in the system.

Question Number. 47. To avoid discomfort, the rate of change of pressure should be low, particularly.

Option [Link] descent.

Option [Link] cabin pressure is decreasing.
Option C. during ascent.
Correct Answer [Link] descent.

Question Number. 48. If an aircraft is operating at 40,000 ft. the pressurization ensures that.
Option [Link] level pressure is maintained in the cabin.
Option [Link] cabin pressure is progressively increased until the operational height is reached.
Option [Link] cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10,000 ft.
Correct Answer [Link] cabin pressure is equivalent to an altitude of less than 10,000 ft.

Question Number. 49. The pressure controller activates.

Option [Link] cabin discharge valve.
Option [Link] blower or compressor.
Option C. the spill valve.
Correct Answer [Link] cabin discharge valve.

Question Number. 50. When cruising near the operational ceiling, the flight altitude set on the
pressurization control panel may be 500 ft. more than the actual flight altitude so as to prevent.
Option [Link] relief valve operation.
Option [Link] controller hunting.
Option [Link] valve operation.
Correct Answer [Link] controller hunting.

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Question Number. 51. The cabin rate of climb is shown.

Option [Link] a differential scale on the aircraft rate of climb indicator.
Option [Link] a specific indicator.
Option [Link] being inside or outside limits by green and red lights, a gauge being used.
Correct Answer [Link] a specific indicator.

Question Number. 52. A water separator would be installed in a pressurization system to.
Option [Link] water from the cabin air before it is discharged to atmosphere.
Option [Link] any rain accompanying the ram air.
Option [Link] surplus water from the charge air.
Correct Answer [Link] surplus water from the charge air.

Question Number. 53. Cabin pressure controller maintains a particular cabin altitude by control of.

Option [Link] mass air flow.

Option [Link] valve position.
Option [Link] relief valve position.
Correct Answer [Link] valve position.

Question Number. 54. Ditching control is used for.

Option [Link] aircraft depressurisation.
Option [Link] all valves and inlets.
Option [Link] life rafts.
Correct Answer [Link] all valves and inlets.

11A.04.4. Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurisation (ATA 21) - Safety and warning
devices.

Question Number. 1. A cabin altitude is protected against reaching an altitude of 13,000 ft. by.
Option [Link] over pressure relief valve.
Option [Link] sensor.
Option [Link] in the outflow valve.
Correct Answer [Link] sensor.

Question Number. 2. If the cabin altitude increases above the normal maximum.
Option [Link] delivery is automatically boosted.
Option [Link] inward relief valve opens.
Option C.a warning light comes on in the cockpit.
Correct Answer is.a warning light comes on in the cockpit.

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Question Number. 3. On an aircraft employing a heater system on the air conditioning system, after an
overheat, how is the heater reset?.
Option [Link] ground only by engineer.
Option [Link] it cools the pilot resets.
Option [Link] cooling below 300°C it auto resets.
Correct Answer [Link] ground only by engineer.

Question Number. 4. Ditching control is used to.

Option [Link] cabin pressure at sea level.
Option [Link] the outflow valves.
Option [Link] rapid depressurisation.
Correct Answer [Link] the outflow valves.

Question Number. 5. Inward vent valves are fitted to.

Option [Link] negative differentials.
Option [Link] ventilation.
Option [Link] positive differentials.
Correct Answer [Link] negative differentials.

Question Number. 6. Inward vent valves will operate when.

Option [Link] altitude exceeds cabin altitude.
Option [Link] after descent.
Option [Link] altitude exceeds aircraft altitude.
Correct Answer [Link] altitude exceeds aircraft altitude.

Question Number. 7. Inwards relief valves usually open at a negative differential pressure not
exceeding.
Option A. 0.5 p.s.i.
Option B. 1.2 p.s.i.
Option C. 0.16 p.s.i.
Correct Answer is.0.5 p.s.i.

Question Number. 8. Failure of the normal maximum pressure differential control is allowed for by
fitting.
Option [Link] relief valves.
Option [Link] altitude selectors.
Option [Link] relief valve.
Correct Answer [Link] relief valve.

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Question Number. 9. To what position is the inward relief valve spring loaded?.
Option A. Closed.
Option B. Both position.
Option C. Open.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 10. Inward relief valves are interconnected in pressurized aircraft.
Option [Link] achieve maximum pressure differential.
Option [Link] relieve cabin pressure and allow outside pressure to be greater.
Option [Link] allow controlled pressure during descent.
Correct Answer [Link] allow controlled pressure during descent.

Question Number. 11. A safety valve will normally relieve at.

Option [Link] differential pressure than the discharge valve.
Option [Link] differential pressure than the discharge valve.
Option [Link] differential pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] differential pressure than the discharge valve.

Question Number. 12. A negative differential pressure is prevented by.

Option A.a blow off valve.
Option B. a spill valve.
Option [Link] inward relief valve.
Correct Answer [Link] inward relief valve.

Question Number. 13. The inward relief valve is usually set to operate at a cabin differential of.
Option A. +0.5 PSI.
Option B. -0.5 PSI.
Option C. +9.25 PSI.
Correct Answer is.-0.5 PSI.

Question Number. 14. An inward relief valve will operate.

Option [Link] an aircraft has landed, to restore ground level conditions is the cabin.
Option [Link] climbing with pressurization OFF.
Option [Link] cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] cabin pressure is lower than ambient pressure.

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Question Number. 15. An inward relief valve is installed in a pressurization system to ensure that the
pressure hull of an aircraft is not subjected to.
Option [Link] high an internal pressure.
Option B.a high negative differential pressure.
Option [Link] which would cause the aircraft to explode.
Correct Answer is.a high negative differential pressure.

Question Number. 16. Failure of the normal maximum differential pressure control is catered for by.

Option [Link] safety relief valves.

Option [Link] relief valve.
Option C. spill valves.
Correct Answer [Link] safety relief valves.

11A.05.1. Instruments/Avionic Systems - Instrument Systems (ATA 31).

Question Number. 1. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output?.

Option A. Machmeter.
Option B. VSI.
Option C. ASI.
Correct Answer is. VSI.

Question Number. 2. The decision height light will illuminated when.

Option [Link] aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height.
Option [Link] decision height is selected.
Option [Link] aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height.
Correct Answer [Link] aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height.
[Link] Height comes on at Decision Height and remains on as aircraft descends to landing.

Question Number. 3. In a Central Air Data Computer (CADC) system, Mach information is derived
from.
Option [Link] and static pressures.
Option [Link] airspeed and altitude.
Option [Link] air speed and total air temperature.
Correct Answer [Link] airspeed and altitude.

Question Number. 4. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), the rate of climb of an aircraft is produced
in the.
Option [Link] Airspeed Module.
Option B. Mach Module.
Option [Link] Module.

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Correct Answer [Link] Module.

Question Number. 5. In a Central Air Data Computer, altitude is produced from.

Option [Link] air pressure.
Option [Link] air pressure and total air temperature.
Option [Link] air pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] air pressure.

Question Number. 6. In a Central Air Data Computer (ADC), Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is produced from.
Option [Link] pressure only.
Option [Link] pressure only.
Option [Link] and static air pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] and static air pressure.

Question Number. 7. What is the maximum radio altimeter track altitude?.

Option A. 10,000 ft.
Option B. 500 ft.
Option C. 2,500 ft.
Correct Answer is.2,500 ft.

Question Number. 8. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at.

Option A.1 000 ft radio alt.
Option B.2 500 ft radio alt.
Option C.10 000 ft radio alt.
Correct Answer is.2 500 ft radio alt.

Question Number. 9. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure,
when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?.
Option [Link] speed indicator.
Option B. Altimeter.
Option [Link] speed indicator.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes.

Question Number. 10. An ECAM system is tested under the following conditions:-.
Option [Link] on the ground with one engine running.
Option [Link] in the air with both engines running.
Option [Link] on the ground with parking brake set/on.
Correct Answer [Link] on the ground with parking brake set/on.

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Question Number. 11. Which instrument are most likely to damage if you have a rapid drop in pressure,
when carrying out a pitot-static leak check?.
Option [Link] speed indicator.
Option B. Altimeter.
Option [Link] speed indicator.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] is most sensitive to rapid pressure changes.

Question Number. 12. The runway heading is.

Option A. QDM.
Option B. QFU.
Option C. QDR.
Correct Answer is. QFU.

Question Number. 13. Apparent drift of a vertical gyro is a function of.

Option A. sin of latitude.
Option B. tan of latitude.
Option C. cos of latitude.
Correct Answer [Link] of latitude.

Question Number. 14. A machmeter works.

Option A. always.
Option [Link] except on the ground.
Option [Link] 10,000 ft.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 15. Radio marker information is displayed on.

Option A. HIS.
Option B. ADI.
Option C. EICAS.
Correct Answer is. ADI.

Question Number. 16. Angle of Attack alarm is sounding too close to stall. Rectification is to.
Option [Link] probe down.
Option [Link] probe up.
Option [Link] probe laterally.
Correct Answer [Link] probe up.
[Link] probe up, closer to the Leading Edge stagnation point, so it operates sooner.

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Question Number. 17. Where is alpha angle used?.

Option A. IRS.
Option B. Accelerometer.
Option [Link] of attack.
Correct Answer [Link] of attack.

Question Number. 18. Where is the spinup/rundown brake on a gyro instrument?.

Option A. Inner gimbal.
Option B. Inner gimbal.
Option C. Rotating vane.
Correct Answer [Link] gimbal.

Question Number. 19. On replacing a pre-indexed flux valve you would.

Option [Link] the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-indexed flux
valve was removed from.
Option [Link] out a check swing after fitment.
Option [Link] the aircraft onto its A coefficient so that no error is induced.
Correct Answer [Link] the serviceable pre indexed flux valve into the same position as the unserviceable pre-
indexed flux valve was removed from.

Question Number. 20. In Airways flying, what is the barometric scale of the altimeter set to?.
Option A. QFE.
Option B. QNH.
Option C. 1013.25.
Correct Answer is.1013.25.

Question Number. 21. Vibration monitoring signals are sent.

Option [Link] a signal conditioner to the gauge.
Option [Link] a half-wave rectifier to the gauge.
Option [Link] to the gauge.
Correct Answer [Link] a signal conditioner to the gauge.

Question Number. 22. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is from.
Option [Link] and minus.
Option [Link] and positive.
Option [Link] and positive.
Correct Answer [Link] and minus.

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[Link] 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient.

Question Number. 23. A direct reading Bourdon gauge has a restriction in the inlet. This is to.
Option [Link] sudden pressure changes.
Option [Link] FOD ingestion.
Option [Link] FOD ingestion.
Correct Answer [Link] sudden pressure changes.
[Link] restriction is to damp out surges in pressure.

Question Number. 24. The hot junction of thermocouple is.

Option [Link] of combustion chamber.
Option [Link] the combustion chamber.
Option [Link] the instrument.
Correct Answer [Link] of combustion chamber.
[Link] hot junction is the sensor, aft of the combustion chamber.

Question Number. 25. When a rad. alt. reaches 2,500 ft. what happens to the display?.
Option [Link] warning in view.
Option [Link]. alt. flag in view.
Option [Link]. alt. goes out of view.
Correct Answer [Link]. alt. goes out of view.

Question Number. 26. Pitot tubes are heated.

Option [Link] kinetic heating.
Option [Link] compressed bleed air.
Option C. electrically.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 27. The suction gauge reads 5 inches of mercury. This is.
Option [Link] ambient pressure.
Option [Link] zero pressure.
Option [Link] zero pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] ambient pressure.
[Link] 5 inches Hg refers to the 'suction' from ambient.

Question Number. 28. What are the primary colours for use in CRT displays?.
Option [Link], blue, green.
Option [Link], cyan, magenta.
Option [Link], blue, yellow.
Correct Answer [Link], blue, green.

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Question Number. 29. Alpha vane signal could be fed to _________________when close to stall.
Option A. thrust levers.
Option B. flap position.
Option [Link]/slow switch.
Correct Answer [Link] levers.

Question Number. 30. When performing maintenance operations on an aircraft equipped with RVSM
system, and a quick release disconnect connection is disturbed.
Option A.a full test of the system should be carried out only if the aircraft manufacturer recommends to do so.
Option [Link] allowances for the system should be halved.
Option C.a full test of the system should be carried out.
Correct Answer is.a full test of the system should be carried out.

Question Number. 31. For aircraft certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for
the system would be.
Option A.+/- 500 feet for the system overall.
Option B.+/- 300 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument errors.
Option C.+/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error.
Correct Answer is.+/- 200 feet plus +/- 50 feet for instrument error.

Question Number. 32. Download TGL No.6 at [Link] PAra.8.3.

Option [Link], plan, map, ILS, radar.
Option [Link], plan, map, ILS, radar.
Option [Link], ILS, map, radar, attitude.
Correct Answer [Link], plan, map, ILS, radar.
[Link] is on the EADI.

Question Number. 33. The sensing element of the flux valve.

Option [Link] itself to the new heading of the aircraft after it has stabilised.
Option [Link] itself to the new heading as the aircraft turns.
Option [Link] in the same position attached to the aircraft structure.
Correct Answer [Link] in the same position attached to the aircraft structure.

Question Number. 34. In a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error -2 degrees. The
coefficient C is.
Option A. 0 degrees.
Option B. +2 degrees.
Option C. -2 degrees.
Correct Answer is.0 degrees.

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Question Number. 35. When aligning an aircraft for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is.

Option A. 1 degrees.
Option B. 5 degrees.
Option C. 3 degrees.
Correct Answer is.5 degrees.

Question Number. 36. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is carried out
with.
Option A. spirit level.
Option [Link] inclinometer.
Option [Link] inclinometer.
Correct Answer [Link] inclinometer.

Question Number. 37. What kind of gyro is a rate gyro?.

Option A. Tied down.
Option B. Space.
Option C. Displacement.
Correct Answer [Link] down.
[Link]/10-2 A rate gyro has only 2 axis of freedom.

Question Number. 38. A radio altimeter system can be self tested.

Option [Link] the ground only.
Option [Link] on the ground only and in the air.
Option C. on the air only.
Correct Answer [Link] the ground only.

Question Number. 39. The apparent wander for directional gyros is.
Option [Link] by applying a constant torque.
Option [Link] on longitude.
Option [Link] at the pole.
Correct Answer [Link] by applying a constant torque.

Question Number. 40. The Directional Gyro is checked every 15 minutes for.
Option A. toppling.
Option B. drift.
Option C. erection.
Correct Answer is. drift.

Question Number. 41. Random drift of a gyro is caused by.

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Option [Link] friction and unbalance.

Option [Link] in roll when aircraft is turning.
Option [Link] turning with an error in roll.
Correct Answer [Link] friction and unbalance.

Question Number. 42. Standby Compass adjusting magnets (Flinders Bars) exert the most amount of
influence.
Option [Link] parallel to each other.
Option [Link] 90 degrees apart.
Option [Link] 45 degrees apart.
Correct Answer [Link] 90 degrees apart.
[Link] between flinders bars determines their correcting influence.

Question Number. 43. With engine static and engine blanks fitted, EPR gauge reads just above 1.
Option [Link] requires re-calibration.
Option B. This is normal.
Option [Link] is unserviceable.
Correct Answer [Link] requires re-calibration.

Question Number. 44. Coefficient A is adjusted.

Option [Link] any heading.
Option B. at 360 degrees.
Option C. at 270 degrees.
Correct Answer [Link] any heading.

Question Number. 45. With an aircraft which has more than one compass system.
Option [Link] are adjusted on each heading.
Option [Link] and slave adjusted, correction card for master only.
Option [Link] adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card.
Correct Answer [Link] adjusted, slave adjusted, each having a corrected compass card.

Question Number. 46. A DC electrical cable must be positioned how far away from a compass?.
Option A. 20 inches.
Option B. 24 inches.
Option [Link] as to give no more than 2 degrees deflection of compass.
Correct Answer is.24 inches.

Question Number. 47. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments?.

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Option A. Lower.
Option B. Upper.
Option C. Both.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 48. On the CWP, what does amber indicate?.

Option A. Present status.
Option B. Warning.
Option [Link] info.
Correct Answer [Link] info.

Question Number. 49. Which instrument shows Decision Height?.

Option A. HSI.
Option B. ECAM.
Option C. ADI.
Correct Answer is. ADI.

Question Number. 50. Where does the HSI receive GND speed information from?.
Option A. EICAS.
Option [Link] static probes.
Option C. INS.
Correct Answer is. INS.

Question Number. 51. When power is switched off, the gimbal brake.
Option [Link] inner gimbal.
Option [Link] outer gimbal.
Option [Link] outer gimbal.
Correct Answer [Link] inner gimbal.
[Link] for gimbal lock prevention. Energised off.

Question Number. 52. On an EADI the command bars show the.

Option [Link] flight path compared to planned flight path.
Option [Link] flight path compared with horizon.
Option [Link] flight path compared with aircraft position.
Correct Answer [Link] flight path compared with aircraft position.

Question Number. 53. The airdata computer inputs to.

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Option [Link] rate sensors, mach-meters, ASI, altimeter.

Option [Link] meter, standby altimeter, ASI.
Option [Link], FMC, secondary radar.
Correct Answer [Link], FMC, secondary radar.
[Link] for nav. Secondary Radar is ATC transponder encoder.

Question Number. 54. What deviation is indicated by 2 dots in a VOR system?.

Option A. 10°.
Option B. 6°.
Option C. 2.5°.
Correct Answer is. 10°.

Question Number. 55. How may the basic principle of the radio altimeter be described?.
Option [Link] a measure of the time between a RF pulse transmission and the reception of its echo from the
ground directly below the aircraft.
Option [Link] a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or contraction
of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer.
Option [Link] a comparison of radio altitude against a barometric altitude referenced to ISA sea level
(1013.25mb).
Correct Answer [Link] a series of radio pulses to the ground their frequency depending on the expansion or
contraction of an evacuated capsule and the deflection of an E and I bar transducer.

Question Number. 56. In a compass system, what senses the horizontal component of the earths
magnetic field and where is it normally fitted?.
Option [Link] gyro mounted on the roll axis of the aircraft.
Option B.A precession device mounted on the yaw axis of the aircraft.
Option [Link] detectors fitted in the wing tips.
Correct Answer [Link] detectors fitted in the wing tips.

Question Number. 57. An RMI has inputs from VOR and.

Option A.a remote compass input.
Option [Link] other sources.
Option [Link] azimuth gyro.
Correct Answer [Link] azimuth gyro.

Question Number. 58. In a modern HSI, the displays are.

Option [Link] and direction.
Option [Link] and attitude.
Option [Link] and attitude.
Correct Answer [Link] and direction.

Question Number. 59. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 303.

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Option A. 300 ft.

Option B. 200 ft.
Option C. 500 ft.
Correct Answer is. 200 ft.

Question Number. 60. An H on the EHSI indicates.

Option A. ILS approach.
Option B. VOR hold.
Option C. DME hold.
Correct Answer [Link] hold.

Question Number. 61. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs.
Option A. slower.
Option B. same speed.
Option C. faster.
Correct Answer is. faster.

Question Number. 62. A pneumatic indicator takes its indications from.

Option A. reservoir.
Option [Link] outlet.
Option [Link] inlet.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 63. What is apparent drift due to?.

Option [Link] when aircraft banking.
Option [Link] rotation.
Option [Link] pivot friction.
Correct Answer [Link] rotation.

Question Number. 64. An aircraft airspeed indicator has.

Option [Link] to the capsule.
Option [Link] to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule.
Option [Link] to the capsule.
Correct Answer [Link] to the capsule and static to the out side of the capsule.

Question Number. 65. Above 2500 ft. the rad. alt.

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Option [Link] goes to zero to show system is being monitored.

Option [Link] to indicate but with a warning flag.
Option [Link] is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view.
Correct Answer [Link] is hidden behind a mask with off flag out of view.

Question Number. 66. How does a machmeter work?.

Option [Link] airspeed / temperature.
Option [Link] airspeed / indicated airspeed.
Option [Link] airspeed and speed of sound.
Correct Answer [Link] airspeed and speed of sound.
[Link] Mechanics of Flight 10th edition p339, and Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight.

Question Number. 67. When changing a pitot static instrument with quick release couplings.
Option A.a leak check is not required.
Option B.a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.
Option C.a leak check is always required.
Correct Answer is.a leak check is only required if stated by manufacturer.

Question Number. 68. The flux detector element.

Option [Link] heading with respect to magnetic north.
Option [Link] it position after the aircraft heading is changed.
Option [Link] heading with the heading of the aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] heading with respect to magnetic north.

Question Number. 69. If rate feedback in a flight director goes open circuit, position indication will.

Option A. go hard over.

Option B. be sluggish.
Option C. oscillate.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 70. The needle of a resolver is connected to.

Option [Link] coils and a permanent magnet.
Option [Link] coils and an electromagnet.
Option C. two coils only.
Correct Answer [Link] coils only.

Question Number. 71. If the compass fluid has bubbles at low altitude.

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Option [Link] is due to insufficient de-aeration.

Option [Link] has no influence on compass readings.
Option [Link] is due to excessive high cabin altitude flying.
Correct Answer [Link] is due to insufficient de-aeration.

Question Number. 72. A remote compass compensator unit is replaced. Which of the following is
correct?.
Option A.A compass swing must be performed.
Option [Link] swing is required if the new heading is within 5 degrees of the old.
Option [Link] swing can be performed at a later date.
Correct Answer is.A compass swing must be performed.

Question Number. 73. A compass has a residual deviation of +1 degree. To steer a true heading of 180
degrees the pilot must steer.
Option A. 180 degrees.
Option B. 181 degrees.
Option C. 179 degrees.
Correct Answer is.179 degrees.

Question Number. 74. How is a leading edge flap position indicated in the cockpit?.
Option A.A measuring device.
Option [Link] synchro.
Option [Link].
Correct Answer [Link] synchro.

Question Number. 75. In a Machmeter, what type of compensation is there?.

Option [Link]-Law compensation.
Option [Link] spring.
Option [Link] is not required.
Correct Answer [Link]-Law compensation.

Question Number. 76. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?.

Option [Link] the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.

Option [Link] the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Option C. No effect.
Correct Answer [Link] the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.

Question Number. 77. A gyroscopic body has its rigidity increased by.

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Option [Link] the rotor speed.

Option [Link] the mass of the rotor.
Option [Link] the rotor speed.
Correct Answer [Link] the rotor speed.

Question Number. 78. If a constant torque is applied to a gyroscope, the rate of precession.
Option [Link] with a lower rotor speed.
Option [Link] unaffected by changes in rotor speed.
Option [Link] with a higher rotor speed.
Correct Answer [Link] with a lower rotor speed.

Question Number. 79. Random drift of a gyro is caused by.

Option [Link] of the earth.
Option [Link] and bearing friction in the gyro.
Option [Link] turning with an error in roll.
Correct Answer [Link] and bearing friction in the gyro.

Question Number. 80. A pendulous vane type erection system fitted to a gyro horizon works on the
principle of.
Option [Link] reaction of the air from a fully open port.
Option [Link] reaction of the air from a fully open port.
Option [Link] reaction of the air from a bisected port.
Correct Answer [Link] reaction of the air from a fully open port.
[Link] reaction of the air from a bisected port.

Question Number. 81. During the normal straight and level flight, the gyro of an electrical artificial
horizon is kept erect in pitch by a.
Option [Link] motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in
the athwartships axis.
Option [Link] motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury switch in
the fore and aft axis.
Option [Link] switch in the fore and aft axis controlling a torque motor fitted between the inner and outer
gimbal rings.
Correct Answer [Link] motor fitted between the outer gimbal ring and the case controlled by a mercury
switch in the fore and aft axis.

Question Number. 82. The normal erection supply to the mercury switches of the artificial horizon is
disconnected.
Option [Link] the first 40 seconds after initially switching 'ON'.
Option B. during turns.
Option [Link] the fast erection button is pressed.
Correct Answer [Link] turns.

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Question Number. 83. The pitch/bank erection system is used in an electrical gyro horizon to.
Option [Link] prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn.
Option [Link] full erection control to the roll switch during a turn.
Option [Link] full erection control to the pitch switch during a turn.
Correct Answer [Link] prevent the pitch switch giving a false indication due to centrifugal effects during a turn.

Question Number. 84. The fast erection push on an electrical gyro horizon must not be used for a set
period after switching on because.
Option [Link] normal erection switch contact will burn out.
Option [Link] of the gyro rotor windings will occur.
Option [Link] hunting will take place.
Correct Answer [Link] hunting will take place.

Question Number. 85. Apparent drift of a directional gyro is due to.

Option [Link] effect of the earth's rotation.
Option [Link] of the gimbals.
Option [Link] friction.
Correct Answer [Link] effect of the earth's rotation.

Question Number. 86. The erection system on a directional gyroscope has.

Option A.a switch on the outer gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal.
Option B.a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the inner gimbal.
Option C.a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal.
Correct Answer is.a switch on the inner gimbal controlling a motor on the outer gimbal.

Question Number. 87. In a rate gyro used to detect movements about a vertical axis, the amount the
gimbal ring moves would be increased if the.
Option [Link] speed decreases.
Option [Link] tension was increased.
Option [Link] through which the gyro moves in azimuth increases.
Correct Answer [Link] speed decreases.

Question Number. 88. The Turn and Slip indicator employs.

Option [Link] azimuth gyro.
Option B. a vertical gyro.
Option C. a rate gyro.
Correct Answer is.a rate gyro.

Question Number. 89. In a Turn and Slip indicator, the effect of increasing the rotor speed would be.

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Option [Link] would over read.

Option [Link] would have no effect.
Option [Link] would under read.
Correct Answer [Link] would under read.

Question Number. 90. How is the information on a directional gyro outer gimbal taken off?.
Option [Link] a flux take-off device.
Option [Link] a switch on the outer gimbal.
Option [Link] a switch on the inner gimbal.
Correct Answer [Link] a flux take-off device.

Question Number. 91. Why is a directional gyro inner gimbal restricted to +/- 85º?.
Option [Link] prevent outer gimbal rotating.
Option [Link] prevent gyro going into gimbal lock.
Option [Link] ensure outer gimbal erection system works correctly.
Correct Answer [Link] prevent gyro going into gimbal lock.

Question Number. 92. The speed of the rotor in a Turn and Slip indicator is approximately.
Option A. 4,200 rpm.
Option B. 2,400 rpm.
Option C. 22,500 rpm.
Correct Answer is.4,200 rpm.

Question Number. 93. In a directional gyro, the inner/outer gimbal is corrected to.
Option A.15 sine latitude.
Option B.15 cosine latitude.
Option C.15 sine longitude.
Correct Answer is.15 sine latitude.

Question Number. 94. The electrolyte switches used in gyro systems rely upon.
Option [Link] in resistance to operate.
Option [Link] in inductance to operate.
Option [Link] in voltage applied to operate.
Correct Answer [Link] in resistance to operate.

Question Number. 95. Precession of a gyro depends on.

Option [Link] answers (a) and (b).

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Option [Link] velocity of the rotor only.

Option [Link] of inertia of the rotor only.
Correct Answer [Link] answers (a) and (b).

Question Number. 96. Angular momentum of a gyro rotor depends on.

Option [Link] of inertia of the rotor.
Option [Link] velocity of the rotor.
Option [Link] of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor.
Correct Answer [Link] of inertia and angular velocity of the rotor.

Question Number. 97. Air driven gyros, compared to electric gyros, generally rotate.
Option A. slower.
Option [Link] same speed.
Option C. faster.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 98. Gyro rigidity is proportional to.

Option [Link], and radius of mass from spin axis.
Option [Link], speed and radius of mass from spin axis.
Option [Link] and speed.
Correct Answer [Link], speed and radius of mass from spin axis.

Question Number. 99. Gyro precessional force is.

Option [Link] to the square of the applied force.
Option [Link] proportional to applied force.
Option [Link] proportional to the applied force.
Correct Answer [Link] proportional to applied force.

Question Number. 100. The speed of a vacuum driven gyro horizon rotor is approximately.
Option A. 15,000 rpm.
Option B. 15,000 rpm.
Option C. 4,200 rpm.
Correct Answer is.15,000 rpm.

Question Number. 101. A V.S.I. is connected to.

Option A. vacuum.

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Option B. pitot pressure.

Option C. static pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure.

Question Number. 102. With a V.S.I. pointer at position 1 on the upper half of the scale it indicates.

Option A.1,000 ft/minute rate of climb.

Option B.100 ft/minute rate of climb.
Option C.100 ft/minute rate of climb.
Correct Answer is.1,000 ft/minute rate of climb.

Question Number. 103. After disconnecting the supply to an electrically operated gyro instrument it is
recommended that, to allow the gyro rotor to stop, before moving the instrument.
Option [Link] minutes should elapse.
Option [Link] minutes should elapseq.
Option [Link] minutes should elapse.
Correct Answer [Link] minutes should elapse.

Question Number. 104. The Port and Starboard static vents on an aircraft are inter-connected to.
Option [Link] errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws.
Option [Link] compressibility error.
Option [Link] errors caused by leaks in the system.
Correct Answer [Link] errors caused in the static system when the aircraft yaws.

Question Number. 105. Which of the following would cause a displacement gyro to topple?.
Option [Link] gyro at low speed.
Option [Link] the gyro.
Option [Link] the gyro.
Correct Answer [Link] gyro at low speed.

Question Number. 106. In level flight, a V.S.I. will indicate.

Option A. vertically up.
Option [Link] down.
Option [Link] to left.
Correct Answer [Link] to left.

Question Number. 107. On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule.

Option [Link] the case pressure.

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Option [Link] the case pressure.

Option [Link] the same as case pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] the case pressure.

Question Number. 108. A small constant leak in the case of V.S.I. fitted in a pressurized aircraft would,
during level flight, cause the instrument to indicate.
Option A. zero.
Option B. a rate of climb.
Option C.a rate of descent.
Correct Answer is. zero.

Question Number. 109. When a force is applied to a horizontal gyro, the precession of the rotor will
continue until.
Option [Link] of rotation is in line with the precessional force.
Option [Link] of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force.
Option [Link] long as the force is applied.
Correct Answer [Link] of rotation is in line with the plane of the applied force.

Question Number. 110. An artificial horizon has.

Option [Link] inner gimbal pivoted longitudinally.
Option [Link] inner gimbal pivoted laterally.
Option [Link] inner gimbal pivoted vertically.
Correct Answer [Link] inner gimbal pivoted laterally.

Question Number. 111. A pressure of one atmosphere is equal to.

Option A. 1 inch Hg.
Option B. 100 millibar.
Option C. 14.7 PSI.
Correct Answer is.14.7 PSI.

Question Number. 112. In the directional gyro.

Option [Link] outer gimbal is pivoted longitudinally.
Option [Link] outer gimbal is pivoted vertically.
Option [Link] outer gimbal is pivoted laterally.
Correct Answer [Link] outer gimbal is pivoted vertically.

Question Number. 113. The millibar is a unit of.

Option [Link] temperature.
Option [Link] pressure.
Option [Link] pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure.

Question Number. 114. In the Turn and Slip indicator.

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Option [Link] spin axis is lateral.

Option [Link] spin axis is longitudinal.
Option [Link] spin axis is vertical.
Correct Answer [Link] spin axis is lateral.

Question Number. 115. In an altimeter, the.

Option [Link] and case are connected via a calibrated choke.
Option [Link] of the capsule is connected to static pressure.
Option [Link] is evacuated and sealed.
Correct Answer [Link] is evacuated and sealed.

Question Number. 116. The units on the calibrated scale of a V.S.I. are expressed in.
Option [Link] per hour (mph).
Option [Link] of feet per minute.
Option C. knots (kts).
Correct Answer [Link] of feet per minute.
Explanation.(Light aircraft only - large aircraft are 1000s ft/min.

Question Number. 117. A standby air supply for gyro operation could be obtained from.
Option A.a tapping from the induction manifold.
Option B. a pitot head.
Option C. a venturi.
Correct Answer is.a venturi.

Question Number. 118. At the lowest point of each vent line you would normally find a.
Option A. float valve.
Option B. NACA duct.
Option [Link] draining non-return valve.
Correct Answer [Link] draining non-return valve.

Question Number. 119. A rate two turn is.

Option A.360 degrees per minute.
Option B.180 degrees per minute.
Option C.90 degrees per minute.
Correct Answer is.360 degrees per minute.

Question Number. 120. The rate of turn information from a turn coordinator (compared to a Turn and
Slip) is.

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Option A. less accurate.

Option [Link] instantaneous.
Option C. more accurate.
Correct Answer [Link] accurate.

Question Number. 121. Temperature correction in a sensitive altimeter mechanism is provided by a.

Option [Link] weight.

Option B.U-spring acting on the capsule.
Option [Link]-metal U-spring acting on the capsule.
Correct Answer [Link]-metal U-spring acting on the capsule.

Question Number. 122. The capsule in a vertical speed indicator will be expanded when the aircraft is.

Option A. descending.
Option B. in level flight.
Option C. climbing.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 123. After replacing an instrument of the pitot-static group, it is necessary to.
Option [Link] out a leak test on the appropriate system(s).
Option [Link] through the lines with a clean low pressure air supply.
Option [Link] the instrument concerned.
Correct Answer [Link] out a leak test on the appropriate system(s).

Question Number. 124. If the pitot and static pipe lines were cross connected at the instrument panel
connection, application of pressure to the pitot head would cause the.
Option [Link] reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate climb.
Option [Link] reading to increase, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.
Option [Link] reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.
Correct Answer [Link] reading to decrease, vertical speed indicator to indicate descent.

Question Number. 125. A constant force applied to the inner gimbal of a vertical gyro would cause.

Option A.a continual precession in roll.

Option B.a roll error and gyro topple.
Option C.a pitch error and gyro topple.
Correct Answer is.a continual precession in roll.

Question Number. 126. A rate of turn indicator dial marked '2 minutes' refers to a.
Option A. rate 3 turn.

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Option B. rate 2 turn.

Option C. rate 1 turn.
Correct Answer [Link] 1 turn.

Question Number. 127. A pitot or static leak check is carried out.

Option [Link] when an instrument is changed.
Option [Link] when a leak is suspected.
Option [Link] the pitot or static systems are disturbed.
Correct Answer [Link] the pitot or static systems are disturbed.

Question Number. 128. The temperature of boiling water at standard pressure on the Fahrenheit and
Centigrade scale is.
Option A.100 deg. and 32 deg. Respectively.
Option B.212 deg. and 100 deg. Respectively.
Option C.212 deg. and 100 deg. Respectively.
Correct Answer is.212 deg. and 100 deg. respectively.

Question Number. 129. A temperature of 59°F is equivalent to.

Option A. 15°C.
Option B. 32°C.
Option C. 14.69°C.
Correct Answer is. 15°C.

Question Number. 130. Aircraft heading (HDG) is.

Option [Link] angle between True North and the desired track.
Option [Link] angle between True North and the actual track.
Option [Link] angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] angle between True North and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

Question Number. 131. Wind angle is the direction of the wind measured.
Option [Link] degrees from the desired track.
Option [Link] degrees from True North.
Option [Link] degrees from the aircraft's heading.
Correct Answer [Link] degrees from True North.

Question Number. 132. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to.
Option [Link] gimbal nutation.
Option [Link] the outer gimbal movement.

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Option [Link] gimbal lock.

Correct Answer [Link] gimbal lock.

Question Number. 133. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is.

Option [Link] a control synchro.

Option [Link] a torque synchro.
Option [Link] a differential synchro.
Correct Answer [Link] a control synchro.

Question Number. 134. Agonic lines link places of.

Option A. zero variation.
Option B. zero variation.
Option [Link] variation.
Correct Answer [Link] variation.

Question Number. 135. Position error is caused by.

Option [Link] head position.
Option [Link] location in the instrument panel.
Option [Link] imperfections in an instrument.
Correct Answer [Link] head position.

Question Number. 136. To convert degrees Centigrade to degrees Kelvin.

Option [Link] 112 degrees.
Option [Link] the formula (deg C * 9/5) + 32.
Option [Link] 273 degrees.
Correct Answer [Link] 273 degrees.

Question Number. 137. Damping on a RATE GYRO can be either.

Option [Link] on a RATE GYRO can be either.
Option [Link], eddy current or variable spring.
Option [Link], eddy current or air dash pot.
Correct Answer [Link], eddy current or air dash pot.

Question Number. 138. The electrical output from a remote gyro to an attitude director indicator is.

Option [Link] a differential synchro.

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Option [Link] a torque synchro.

Option [Link] a control synchro.
Correct Answer [Link] a control synchro.

Question Number. 139. Electrical driven gyros are.

Option [Link] faster than air driven gyros.
Option [Link] at the same speed as air driven gyros.
Option [Link] at the same speed as air driven gyros.
Correct Answer [Link] faster than air driven gyros.

Question Number. 140. In a ratiometer temperature indicating circuit, there is a break in the circuit to
the bulb. This will give.
Option [Link] scale deflection.
Option [Link] scale deflection.
Option [Link] scale deflection.
Correct Answer [Link] scale deflection.
[Link] of it this way - resistance increases with temperature, and that drives it toward fsd. If the
bulb circuit is broken, the resistance will be infinite.

Question Number. 141. With the gyro at normal running speed, a torque applied to the inner gimbal ring
of a vertical gyro will cause the.
Option [Link] ring to move.
Option [Link] ring to move.
Option [Link] and inner ring to move.
Correct Answer [Link] ring to move.

Question Number. 142. When an aircraft is descending, the pressure in the altimeter case.
Option [Link] cause the aneroid capsule to expand.
Option [Link] cause the aneroid capsule to contract.
Option [Link] not affect the aneroid capsule.
Correct Answer [Link] cause the aneroid capsule to contract.

Question Number. 143. The supply of Desynn indicating system.

Option [Link] alternating current at 400 c/s.
Option [Link] direct current.
Option [Link] alternating current at 50 c/s.
Correct Answer [Link] direct current.

Question Number. 144. A sensitive altimeter reading 100 ft. when the millibar scale is set to the
atmospheric pressure at airfield level (QFE).
Option [Link] that the instrument is unserviceable.

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Option [Link] that the aircraft is in a region of high pressure and the reading must be corrected to I.S.A.
standards.
Option [Link] that the airfield is 100 ft. above sea level.
Correct Answer [Link] that the instrument is unserviceable.

Question Number. 145. After using a pitot-static test set the pressure in the aircraft static system should
be released to the atmosphere by.
Option [Link] the static connector from its static vent after waiting for a period of three minutes.
Option [Link] the static system via an internal bleed in the test set.
Option [Link] the static connector from its static vent.
Correct Answer [Link] the static system via an internal bleed in the test set.

Question Number. 146. An altimeter is operated.

Option [Link] the vacuum system.
Option [Link] the pitot system.
Option [Link] the static system.
Correct Answer [Link] the static system.

Question Number. 147. What is the purpose of the bimetallic strip in the altimeter?.
Option [Link] for non-linear tension in the hairspring.
Option [Link] for capsule elasticity.
Option [Link] for change in density.
Correct Answer [Link] for capsule elasticity.

Question Number. 148. Which axis does the directional gyro spin on?.
Option A. Horizontal.
Option [Link] vertical and horizontal.
Option C. Vertical.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 149. The capsule in an altimeter responds to.

Option [Link] pressure.
Option [Link] pressure.
Option [Link] pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure.

Question Number. 150. The aeroplane monitor on the artificial horizon is fitted to the.
Option [Link] case.
Option B. inner gimbal.

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Option C. rotor.
Correct Answer [Link] case.

Question Number. 151. True airspeed in an Air Data Computer is a function of.
Option [Link] number and temperature.
Option [Link] number and temperature.
Option [Link] and temperature.
Correct Answer [Link] number and temperatureq.

Question Number. 152. The advantage of an instantaneous V.S.I. over a conventional one is.
Option [Link] has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one.
Option [Link] does not require pitot/static pressure.
Option [Link] does not require warming up.
Correct Answer [Link] has an accelerometer which prevents the lag of a conventional one.

Question Number. 153. For a particular I.A.S. as the density decreases with altitude, the T.A.S.
Option A. increases.
Option B. increases.
Option [Link] the same.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 154. The type of gyro used in a gyro compass is a.

Option A. rate gyro.
Option [Link] gyro.
Option C. vertical gyro.
Correct Answer [Link] gyro.

Question Number. 155. A desiccant used in the storage of instruments.

Option [Link] sodium-bicarbonate.
Option B. is silica-gel.
Option C. is silica-gel.
Correct Answer [Link] silica-gel.

Question Number. 156. What effect on the rate of precession will a change of gyro rotor speed have?.

Option A. No effect.

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Option [Link] the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.

Option [Link] the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.
Correct Answer [Link] the rotor speed, decrease the rate of precession.

Question Number. 157. Bourdon Tubes have.

Option [Link] cross section.
Option [Link] cross section.
Option [Link] cross section.
Correct Answer [Link] cross section.

Question Number. 158. In a Bourdon tube.

Option [Link] a Bourdon tube.
Option [Link] end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source.
Option [Link] end is sealed and the other end open to atmosphere.
Correct Answer [Link] end is sealed and the other end open to the pressure source.

Question Number. 159. Pressure gauge calibrators (Dead Weight Testers) use the.
Option A. Charle's Law.
Option B. Boyle's Law.
Option [Link]'s press principle.
Correct Answer [Link]'s press principle.

Question Number. 160. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is.
Option A. anti-freeze oil.
Option B. castor-oil.
Option C. kerosene.
Correct Answer [Link]-oil.

Question Number. 161. The distance readout on an HSI is.

Option [Link] the aircraft DME system.
Option [Link] the aircraft ATC system.
Option [Link] in by the pilot.
Correct Answer [Link] the aircraft DME system.

Question Number. 162. A gyroscope having one plane of freedom at right angles to the plane of rotation,
and its gimbal restrained either electrically or by a spring, is known as.
Option A. a tied gyro.

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Option B. an earth gyro.

Option C. a rate gyro.
Correct Answer is.a rate gyro.

Question Number. 163. Pressure may be expressed in.

Option [Link] per unit volume.
Option [Link] or mass.
Option [Link] per unit area.
Correct Answer [Link] per unit area.

Question Number. 164. What is the purpose of the hair spring in a Bourdon tube pressure gauge?.

Option [Link] reduce 'backlash'.

Option [Link] return the pointer to zero.
Option [Link] act a controlling force.
Correct Answer [Link] reduce 'backlash'.

Question Number. 165. The ADIs attitude information is normally obtained from the aircraft's.
Option [Link] rate gyros.
Option [Link] gyros.
Option C. vertical gyros.
Correct Answer [Link] gyros.

Question Number. 166. One dot VOR deviation represents.

Option A. 5°.
Option B. 2 miles.
Option C. 1¼°.
Correct Answer is. 5°.

Question Number. 167. An instrument used for measuring negative pressures.

Option [Link] the Bourdon tube reversed within the case.
Option [Link] anti-clockwise pointer movement if Bourdon tube operated.
Option [Link] be of the Bourdon tube type.
Correct Answer [Link] be of the Bourdon tube type.

Question Number. 168. An absolute pressure gauge measures.

Option [Link] extremely accurately.
Option [Link] applied pressure referred to atmospheric pressure.

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Option [Link] applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum.

Correct Answer [Link] applied pressure referred to a perfect vacuum.

Question Number.169. Gauge pressure as indicated on a direct reading Bourdon Tube pressure gauge is equal
to.
Option [Link] pressure minus absolute pressure.
Option [Link] pressure minus atmospheric pressure.
Option [Link] pressure plus atmospheric pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure minus atmospheric pressure.

Question [Link] to/from indicator on an HSI informs the pilot of which direction he is tracking
relative to.
Option A. a VOR station.
Option B. an ILS station.
Option C. an ADF station.
Correct Answer is.a VOR station.

Question Number. 171. A pressure gauge, such as a hydraulic brake pressure gauge, indicates 1,000 p.s.i.
In terms of absolute pressure, this represents.
Option A. 1,014.7 p.s.i.
Option B. 985.3 p.s.i.
Option C. 1,000 p.s.i.
Correct Answer is.1,014.7 p.s.i.

Question Number. 172. To fill a Dead Weight Tester.

Option [Link] in hand wheel and fill reservoir.
Option [Link] platform and fill cylinder.
Option [Link] out hand wheel and fill reservoir.
Correct Answer [Link] out hand wheel and fill reservoir.

Question Number. 173. With an aircraft on the ground and QNH set on the millibar scale of the
altimeter, the altimeter will read.
Option A. off scale.
Option [Link] airfield height.
Option C. zero.
Correct Answer [Link] airfield height.

Question Number. 174. When checking a sensitive altimeter on a pre-flight inspection.

Option [Link] standard sea level barometric pressure is always set on the millibar scale.
Option [Link] ambient air pressure corrected for temperature is set on the millibar scale.

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Option [Link] ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale.

Correct Answer [Link] ambient air pressure is set on the millibar scale.
[Link] is set and it should read airfield height.

Question Number. 175. The HSI compass card is positioned by the.

Option [Link] select knob.
Option [Link] system.
Option [Link] ADF system.
Correct Answer [Link] system.

Question Number. 176. The applied pressure to an A.S.I. varies with the.
Option [Link] root of the speed.
Option [Link] root of the speed.
Option [Link] of the speed.
Correct Answer [Link] of the speed.

Question Number. 177. The supply to an A.S.I.

Option [Link] pitot pressure only.
Option [Link] static pressure only.
Option [Link] pitot and static pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] pitot and static pressure.

Question Number. 178. The capsule for an A.S.I. will be expanding when the aircraft is.
Option A. accelerating.
Option B. decelerating.
Option C. climbing.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question [Link] deflection of the ADI command bars when flying a localiser approach is
proportional to.
Option [Link] sum of the amplitude of the two modulations.
Option [Link] difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations.
Option [Link] difference in amplitude of the two r.f. carriers.
Correct Answer [Link] difference between the amplitudes on the two modulations.

Question Number. 180. If an aircraft is flying straight and level in still air, airspeed will be.
Option [Link] than the ground speed.
Option [Link] than the ground speed.
Option [Link] to the ground speed.

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Correct Answer [Link] to the ground speed.

Question Number. 181. If an aircraft flying in still air at 400 knots, encounters a head wind of 50 knots, its
ground speed is.
Option A. 400 knots.
Option B. 450 knots.
Option C. 350 knots.
Correct Answer is.350 knots.

Question Number. 182. To provide a linear scale on an A.S.I., a.

Option [Link]-metal corrector is employed.
Option B.10 to 1 gearing is used.
Option [Link] bar and screws are fitted.
Correct Answer [Link] bar and screws are fitted.

Question Number. 183. A machmeter is an instrument which indicates the speed of.
Option [Link] aircraft relative to the speed of sound at ground level.
Option [Link] relative to the aircraft's altitude.
Option [Link] aircraft relative to the local sonic speed.
Correct Answer [Link] aircraft relative to the local sonic speed.

Question Number. 184. The moving element of a ratiometer has.

Option A. one coil.
Option B. three coils.
Option C. two coils.
Correct Answer [Link] coils.

Question Number. 185. When carrying out a pressure leak test on an altimeter, you are checking for
leaks in the.
Option [Link] chamber.
Option [Link] case.
Option C. capsule stack.
Correct Answer [Link] case.

Question Number. 186. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1013.25 and the barometric pressure at
that time was 1020, the altimeter should read.
Option [Link] zero feet (negative altitude).
Option B. zero feet.
Option [Link] altitude.

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Correct Answer [Link] zero feet (negative altitude).

[Link] aircraft is on the ground.

Question Number. 187. An aircraft flying towards a VOR station shows indications of 120° and 'TO'. After
passing over thestation, on the same course, the indications will be.
Option A.120° and FROM.
Option B. 300° and TO.
Option C.300° and FROM.
Correct Answer is.120° and FROM.

Question Number. 188. The command bars in a flight director system indicate.
Option [Link] actual path with respect to required path.
Option [Link] required path with respect to actual path.
Option C. true horizon.
Correct Answer [Link] required path with respect to actual path.

Question Number. 189. When changing a windscreen panel which has a standby magnetic compass
located in the vicinity.
Option [Link] should be taken that the bonding tag is attached to the correct attachment bolt.
Option [Link] must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type.
Option [Link] attachment bolts should be tightened in an anti-clockwise direction around the window.
Correct Answer [Link] must be taken to ensure that the attachment bolts are of the specified type.

Question Number. 190. On a conventional RMI the angle between the compass datum and the radio
pointer arrow is.
Option [Link] relative bearing.
Option [Link] complimentary bearing.
Option [Link] magnetic bearing.
Correct Answer [Link] relative bearing.

Question Number. 191. A compass is made aperiodic by.

Option [Link] fluid.
Option [Link].
Option [Link] it to the case.
Correct Answer [Link] fluid.

Question Number. 192. Isogonal lines link places of.

Option [Link] variation.
Option [Link] variation.
Option [Link] variation.
Correct Answer [Link] variation.

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Question Number. 193. In an artificial horizon Pendulosity Error is caused by.

Option [Link] heaviness of inner gimbals.
Option [Link] lightness of inner gimbals.
Option [Link] of erection control device.
Correct Answer [Link] heaviness of inner gimbals.

Question Number. 194. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?.
Option A. 550 knots.
Option B. 662 knots.
Option C. 278 knots.
Correct Answer is.278 knots.
[Link] airspeed is always higher than EAS (or IAS) at any altitude above Sea Level.

Question Number. 195. If the Airspeed Indicator reading is 300 Knots, what is the Calibrated Airspeed?.

Option A. 293 knots.

Option B. 296 knots.
Option C. 304 knots.
Correct Answer is.304 knots.

Question Number. 196. In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by.

Option [Link] lightness of inner gimbals.
Option [Link] heaviness of inner gimbals.
Option [Link] of erection control device.
Correct Answer [Link] of erection control device.

Question Number. 197. A Vertical Speed indicator Metering Unit Consist of.
Option [Link] a) & b).
Option [Link] orifice.
Option C.a capillary.
Correct Answer [Link] a) & b).

Question Number. 198. Flux Valve senses angle of horizontal component with respect to the aircraft's.

Option [Link] axis.

Option [Link] lateral and longitudinal axis.
Option [Link] axis.
Correct Answer [Link] axis.

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Question Number. 199. The manual VOR input is for.

Option [Link] course deviation bar.
Option [Link] radio magnetic indicator.
Option [Link] ADI.
Correct Answer [Link] course deviation bar.

Question Number. 200. After correction of the north-south heading reading on a compass swing, the
resultant correction is known as.
Option [Link] deviation.
Option [Link] heading.
Option [Link] heading.
Correct Answer [Link] deviation.

Question Number. 201. Apparent drift on directional gyro is corrected by.

Option [Link] adjustment nut on inner ring.
Option [Link] of balance holes drilled in gyro rotor.
Option [Link] switch on outer ring.
Correct Answer [Link] adjustment nut on inner ring.

Question Number. 202. If a micro adjuster is replaced in a compass system, you would.
Option [Link] it to zero datum.
Option [Link] out a new compass swing.
Option [Link] it up the same as the one removed.
Correct Answer [Link] out a new compass swing.

Question [Link] a compass swing: North error -2 degrees, South error + 2 degrees. The coefficient C
is.
Option A. -2 degrees.
Option B. 0 degrees.
Option C. +2 degrees.
Correct Answer is.-2 degrees.
[Link]/10-5 Table 1. This is not the same as a previous question.

Question Number. 204. Purpose of Altitude Alerting is to warn the pilot of.
Option [Link] to or deviation from selected altitude.
Option [Link] of altitude.
Option [Link] information.
Correct Answer [Link] to or deviation from selected altitude.

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Question Number. 205. Aircraft certified before 1997 with RVSM, maximum tolerance for the system is.

Option A.+/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.

Option B.+/- 500ft system tolerance.
Option C.+/- 200ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.
Correct Answer is.+/- 300ft system, +/-50ft for instrument error.

Question Number. 206. Machmeters work on.

Option [Link] and static.
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Correct Answer [Link] and static.

Question Number. 207. An aircraft with Mach warning will warn.

Option [Link] Mcrit is reached.
Option [Link] Mach 1 is exceeded.
Option [Link] envelope limit is reached.
Correct Answer [Link] Mcrit is reached.

Question Number. 208. An HSI provides what information?.

Option [Link], map, attitude, ILS.
Option [Link], plan, ILS, map, radar.
Option [Link], ILS, plan, attitude.
Correct Answer [Link], plan, ILS, map, radar.

Question Number. 209. Compressibility error in a pitot head is caused by.

Option [Link] of air in the tube at high speed.
Option [Link] in the pitot tube.
Option [Link] of pitot head.
Correct Answer [Link] of air in the tube at high speed.

Question Number. 210. The earth's magnetic field is.

Option [Link] at the poles, horizontal at the magnetic equator.
Option [Link] across the earth.
Option [Link] across the earth.
Correct Answer [Link] at the poles, horizontal at the magnetic equator.

Question Number. 211. There is an air bubble in the compass.

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Option [Link] is due to high altitude.

Option [Link] fluid is not aerated properly.
Option [Link] is required, to compensate for expansion of the fluid.
Correct Answer [Link] is due to high altitude.

Question Number. 212. A flux detector output is a.

Option A.A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage.
Option B.A.C. voltage at the same frequency as the excitation voltage.
Option [Link] D.C. voltage.
Correct Answer is.A.C. voltage at twice the frequency of the excitation voltage.

11A.05.2. Instruments/Avionic Systems - Avionic Systems.

Question Number. 1. Primary Radar is.

Option [Link] signal from aircraft's own radar.
Option [Link] of aircraft's transponder.
Option [Link] ground use only.
Correct Answer [Link] signal from aircraft's own radar.
[Link] is ground use, but the Wxr and TCAS are also 'primary radar'.

Question Number. 2. When an autopilot is Fail Passive,.

Option [Link] pilot must resume control and land the aircraft.
Option [Link] autoland can continue.
Option [Link] aircraft reverts to fail operational autopilot.
Correct Answer [Link] pilot must resume control and land the aircraft.

Question Number. 3. On an aircraft's navigation display, distance measuring equipment gives.

Option [Link] range to beacon.
Option [Link] and range to beacon.
Option [Link] range to beacon.
Correct Answer [Link] range to beacon.

Question Number. 4. On a modern aircraft flight instrument display system, radio deviation is shown
on the.
Option [Link] & EADI.
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Correct Answer [Link] & EADI.
[Link] deviation is VOR or ILS. The deviation indicator is duplicated. It is on the EHSI and EADI.

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Question Number. 5. On a flight management system, the database is updated every.

Option A. 1 Month.
Option B. 2 Months.
Option C. 3 Months.
Correct Answer is.1 Month.

Question Number. 6. Autopilot servo brake is energised.

Option [Link] the same time as the clutch.
Option B. to actuate off.
Option C. to actuate on.
Correct Answer [Link] actuate off.

Question Number. 7. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?.

Option [Link] work aircraft.
Option B. Light aircraft.
Option [Link] passenger aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] aircraft.
[Link] Schedule 4 Scale N and Article 47, prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft. However,no
direct reference to them being 'essential' on light aircraft is found.

Question Number. 8. Emergency frequency is.

Option A. 121.5 Hz.
Option B. 125.5 Hz.
Option C. 123.5 Hz.
Correct Answer is.121.5 Hz.

Question Number. 9. 121.5 MHz is what frequency?.

Option A. VOR.
Option B. VHF.
Option C. ILS.
Correct Answer is. VHF.
Explanation.118-137 MHz is VHF frequency.

Question Number. 10. 112.1 MHz is what frequency?.

Option A. VOR.
Option B. VHF.
Option C. ILS.
Correct Answer is. VOR.
Explanation.112-118 MHz is VOR frequency. Less than 112 MHz odd decimals are ILS.

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Question Number. 11. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?.

Option A. Not cellulose.
Option B. Cellulose only.
Option C. Polyurethane.
Correct Answer [Link] cellulose.

Question Number. 12. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna.

Option [Link] not use cellulose paint.
Option [Link] cellulose paint.
Option C. use any paint.
Correct Answer [Link] not use cellulose paint.

Question Number. 13. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?.
Option A. Four.
Option B. Two.
Option C. Three.
Correct Answer is. Three.

Question Number. 14. ILS marker beacon lights are.

Option [Link], amber, white.
Option [Link], white, green.
Option [Link], blue, amber.
Correct Answer [Link], amber, white.

Question Number. 15. 111.1 MHz is.

Option [Link] ILS frequency.
Option B.a VOR frequency.
Option C.a HF frequency.
Correct Answer [Link] ILS frequency.

Question Number. 16. An autopilot PFCU servo brake is.

Option [Link] at the same time as the clutch.
Option B. energised off.
Option C. energised on.
Correct Answer [Link] off.

Question Number. 17. The aviation distress frequency is.

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Option A. 121.5 MHz.

Option B. 122.5 MHz.
Option C. 121.5 kHZ.
Correct Answer is.121.5 MHz.

Question Number. 18. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to.

Option A. 2000 ft.
Option B. 2500 ft.
Option C. 100 ft.
Correct Answer is.2500 ft.

Question Number. 19. 112.1 MHz is.

Option A.a VOR frequency.
Option [Link] ADF frequency.
Option C. ILS.
Correct Answer is.a VOR frequency.
Explanation.112 - 118 MHz are VOR frequencies.

Question Number. 20. What does a Decca Navigation system operate on?.
Option [Link] High Frequency.
Option [Link] Frequency.
Option [Link] Frequency.
Correct Answer [Link] Frequency.
[Link] navigation is low frequency.

Question Number. 21. Which of the following has an hyperbolic curve?.

Option A. DME.
Option B. Loran C.
Option C. VOR.
Correct Answer [Link] C.
[Link] C is a type of LF Navigation.

Question Number. 22. A GPS satellite will come into view.

Option A.10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
Option B.20° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
Option C.15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
Correct Answer is.15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
[Link] mask' is 15 degrees.

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Question Number. 23. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to.
Option [Link] category aircraft only.
Option [Link] aircraft.
Option [Link] work and transport category aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] category aircraft only.
[Link] Schedule 4 Scale N.

Question Number. 24. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is.
Option [Link] allow the pilot to override.
Option [Link] protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway.
Option [Link] limit the range of control movement.
Correct Answer [Link] allow the pilot to override.

Question Number. 25. Track mode of an RA is operational.

Option [Link] 0 to 2,500 feet.
Option [Link] 10,000 feet.
Option [Link] 1.0 to 100 feet.
Correct Answer [Link] 0 to 2,500 feet.
[Link] radio altimeter is operational from 0 - 2500 ft

Question Number. 26. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?.
Option A. 3.
Option B. 1.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 2.

Question Number. 27. Wavelength of band radar is.

Option A. 3 cm.
Option B. 10 m.
Option C. 5 cm.
Correct Answer is. 3 cm.

Question Number. 28. Precipitation static is caused by.

Option A. HF radiation.
Option [Link] to air particle collisions.
Option [Link] strikes.
Correct Answer [Link] to air particle collisions.

Question Number. 29. HF aerials have weak points designed at.

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Option A. the front end.

Option B. the back end.
Option C. both ends.
Correct Answer [Link] back end.

Question Number. 30. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?.

Option A. 1030 MHz.
Option B. 1000 MHz.
Option C. 1090 MHz.
Correct Answer is.1090 MHz.

Question Number. 31. CAT 2 RVR limit is.

Option A. 1000 ft.
Option B. 1200 ft.
Option C. 10,000 ft.
Correct Answer is.1200 ft.
[Link] II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. Ref: Avionic Fundamentals page
199.

Question Number. 32. With autopilot engaged, which control surface is inhibited?.
Option A. Ailerons.
Option B. THS.
Option C. Elevators.
Correct Answer is. THS.

Question Number. 33. When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system will.
Option [Link] the angle of incidence of the THS.
Option [Link] of incidence remains the same.
Option [Link] the angle of incidence of the THS.
Correct Answer [Link] the angle of incidence of the THS.

Question Number. 34. In autopilot, the control column.

Option [Link] in pitch and roll.
Option [Link] not move.
Option C. moves in pitch.
Correct Answer [Link] in pitch and roll.
Explanation.A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-47 (Parallel system). This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-
wire aircraft.

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Question Number. 35. A hyperbolic system is.

Option A. LORAN C.
Option B. ILS.
Option C. VOR.
Correct Answer [Link] C.
[Link] C is a type of Omega Navigation.

Question Number. 36. When is autothrottle disengaged?.

Option [Link] thrust reverser has deployed beyond 90% so that TO/GA can be selected in case of emergency.
Option B. On landing.
Option [Link] selection of thrust reverse.
Correct Answer [Link] selection of thrust reverse.

Question Number. 37. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will cause.

Option [Link] to move and trim system to move.

Option [Link] to move but trim system not to move.
Option [Link] will not move and trim system will move.
Correct Answer [Link] to move and trim system to move.
Explanation.A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-47 - This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft.

Question Number. 38. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?.
Option [Link] of times interrogating signal is sent per second.
Option [Link] of times reply signal is sent per second.
Option [Link] of pulses per signal.
Correct Answer [Link] of times reply signal is sent per second.

Question Number. 39. A hyperbolic system is.

Option A. 800 m.
Option B. 400 m.
Option C. 200 m.
Correct Answer is.400 m.
[Link] II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. 1200 ft = 400m

Question Number. 40. How many programs can a FMC store?.

Option A. One current.
Option [Link]. One active and one standby.
Option [Link]. Both active.
Correct Answer [Link]. One active and one standby.

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Question Number. 41. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at.
Option A. cruise.
Option B. approach.
Option C. take off.
Correct Answer [Link] off.

Question Number. 42. How does an IRS calculate velocity?.

Option [Link] of laser gyro.
Option [Link] integration of accelerometers.
Option [Link] of accelerometers.
Correct Answer [Link] of accelerometers.

Question Number. 43. In an autopilot, what controls pitch mode?.

Option A. Localizer.
Option B. Glideslope.
Option C. VOR.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 44. Glideslope controls autopilot in.

Option A. roll.
Option B. pitch.
Option C. yaw.
Correct Answer is. pitch.

Question Number. 45. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static
electricity into the atmosphere at.
Option [Link] current levels.
Option [Link] voltage levels.
Option [Link] voltage levels.
Correct Answer [Link] current levels.
[Link] found in an older version of A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 700 (Not in latest
edition). Quote 'If the aircraft is equipped with static dischargers, the static discharge occurs at lower current
and more frequently'.

Question Number. 46. What is B-RNAV?.

Option [Link] to store 6 waypoints.
Option [Link] true airspeed.
Option [Link] bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint.

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Correct Answer [Link] bearing and airspeed until next active waypoint.

Question Number. 47. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground
based transmitters.
Option A. VOR, ILS.
Option B. RA, ADF, ILS.
Option C. DME, ILS, ADF.
Correct Answer [Link], ILS.
[Link] AFCS uses VOR and ILS (RA is not ground based).

Question Number. 48. What is the wavelength of C band radar?.

Option A. 7 cm.
Option B. 17 m.
Option C. 3 cm.
Correct Answer is. 7 cm.
Explanation.C Band is 4 - 8 cm. Most aircraft systems use about 5.6cm.

Question Number. 49. What is primary radar?.

Option [Link] that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse.
Option B. Land based.
Option [Link] that gives height and position.
Correct Answer [Link] that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse.

Question Number. 50. What is ILS marker beacon frequency?.

Option A. 100 MHz.
Option B. 75 MHz.
Option C. 50 MHz.
Correct Answer is.75 MHz.

Question Number. 51. TCAS is selected.

Option [Link] available in cruise.
Option [Link] a switch, by pilot on selector panel.
Option C. automatically.
Correct Answer [Link] a switch, by pilot on selector panel.

Question Number. 52. The manual VOR input is for.

Option A. glideslope.
Option [Link] deviation bar.
Option C. RMI.
Correct Answer [Link] deviation bar.

Question Number. 53. The mach trim is initiated by.

Option [Link] autopilot motor.

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Option [Link] electric motor.

Option C. a PCU.
Correct Answer [Link] autopilot motor.

Question Number. 54. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?.
Option A. Amber.
Option B. Blue.
Option C. White.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 55. A GPS system is formed from.

Option [Link], processing unit, interactive console.
Option [Link], processing unit, display unit.
Option [Link], control, user.
Correct Answer [Link], control, user.

Question Number. 56. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC isavailable, it.
Option [Link] be connected to the left side.
Option [Link] be connected to either side.
Option [Link] be connected to the right side.
Correct Answer [Link] be connected to the left side.

Question Number. 57. Laser gyros are.

Option [Link] to the magnetic north.
Option [Link] to the true north.
Option [Link] to the aircraft structure.
Correct Answer [Link] to the aircraft structure.

Question Number. 58. Laser gyros.

Option [Link] movable parts.
Option [Link] not have rotational parts.
Option [Link] rotational parts.
Correct Answer [Link] not have rotational parts.

Question Number. 59. A radio coupled approach is.

Option A. in any order.
Option [Link] first, followed by glideslope.
Option [Link] first, followed by localiser.
Correct Answer [Link] first, followed by glideslope.

Question Number. 60. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel.

Option [Link] turn command back-up.

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Option [Link] yaw damping compensation.

Option [Link] turn coordination.
Correct Answer [Link] turn coordination.

Question Number. 61. The rate of G/S warning in GPWS.

Option [Link] with barometric altitude.
Option [Link] with radio altitude.
Option [Link] not change.
Correct Answer [Link] with radio altitude.

Question Number. 62. What frequency are VOR and ILS?.

Option A. VHF.
Option B. UHF.
Option C. HF.
Correct Answer is. VHF.

Question Number. 63. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for.

Option [Link] beacons.
Option [Link] communications.
Option C. weather radar.
Correct Answer [Link] communications.

Question Number. 64. An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust reversers are
deployed. What happens to autothrottle?.
Option [Link] armed for go around in an emergency.
Option [Link] throttles.
Option [Link] switches off.
Correct Answer [Link] switches off.

Question Number. 65. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned.

Option [Link] right side of control wheel.
Option [Link] left side of control wheel.
Option [Link] side of control wheel furthest from throttles.
Correct Answer [Link] side of control wheel furthest from throttles.

Question Number. 66. ILS and VOR operate in which range.

Option A. UHF.

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Option B. VHF.
Option C. HF.
Correct Answer is. VHF.

Question Number. 67. FMC secondary flight-plan is selected.

Option [Link] the air by the pilot.
Option [Link] the ground by the pilot.
Option [Link] calendar date monthly.
Correct Answer [Link] the air by the pilot.
[Link] has a primary (active) and a secondary (alternative) stored flight plan.

Question Number. 68. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give.
Option [Link] caption and aural 'pull up, undercarriage, flaps, throttle'.
Option [Link] warning.
Option [Link] caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'.
Correct Answer [Link] caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'.

Question Number. 69. The components of an ILS are.

Option A.a localizer and a glide slope.
Option B.a localizer and the marker beacons.
Option C.a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons.
Correct Answer is.a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons.

Question Number. 70. In ILS, the glideslope provides.

Option [Link] steering.
Option [Link] checks.
Option [Link] steering.
Correct Answer [Link] steering.

Question Number. 71. If the 90 Hz tone modulation in a localizer receiver predominates, the deviation
indicator will show.
Option A. fly left.
Option B. the flag.
Option C. fly right.
Correct Answer [Link] right.

Question Number. 72. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?.

Option A. 500 ft.

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Option B. 1000 ft.

Option C. 750 ft.
Correct Answer is. 500 ft.

Question Number. 73. A radio coupled autopilot in pitch uses.

Option A. ADF.
Option B. glideslope.
Option C. VOR.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 74. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in.
Option A. cruise.
Option B. approach.
Option C. take off.
Correct Answer [Link] off.

Question Number. 75. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for.
Option A. aircraft type.
Option B. location.
Option [Link] orientation.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. The
purpose being to tell the installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i.e left, ctr or right side!
The unit is universal for all.

Question Number. 76. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?.

Option [Link] on the FMC.
Option B. FMC via CDU.
Option C. BITE.
Correct Answer [Link] via CDU.

Question Number. 77. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:.
Option [Link] speed indicator.
Option [Link] altimeter.
Option [Link] altimeter.
Correct Answer [Link] altimeter.
[Link] the three, GPWS has only connection to the RA. It does use barometric vertical speed however.

Question Number. 78. INS has mercury switches on.

Option A. all gimbals.

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Option B. outer gimbal.

Option C. inner gimbal.
Correct Answer [Link] gimbals.

Question Number. 79. If the runway picture in the EADI moves down during an ILS approach, the
aircraft must fly.
Option A. up.
Option B. down.
Option [Link] - this is normal on an ILS approach.
Correct Answer is. down.

Question Number. 80. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?.
Option A.90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path.
Option B.150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline.
Option C.150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway centreline.
Correct Answer is.150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline.

Question Number. 81. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system
operate?.
Option A.108.00 - 117.95 MHz.
Option B.190 - 1759 KHz.
Option C.1025 - 1150 KHz.
Correct Answer is.190 - 1759 KHz.

Question Number. 82. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply
from those for other aircraft?.
Option [Link] modulation of an audio tone.
Option [Link] changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.
Option [Link] using an alternate frequency.
Correct Answer [Link] changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.

Question Number. 83. From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance
radio-magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?.
Option A. From ADF only.
Option [Link] VOR and ADF systems.
Option [Link] VOR only.
Correct Answer [Link] VOR and ADF systems.

Question Number. 84. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?.
Option A. HF.

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Option B. VHF and UHF.

Option C. VHF.
Correct Answer [Link] and UHF.

Question Number. 85. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication
system?.
Option [Link] electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance.
Option [Link] extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length.
Option [Link] select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band.
Correct Answer [Link] electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance.

Question Number. 86. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being
connected to a weather radar?.
Option [Link] provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.
Option [Link] place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display.
Option [Link] ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground.
Correct Answer [Link] provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.

Question Number. 87. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity
Warning System (GPWS).
Option A. Autothrottle.
Option [Link]/undercarriage.
Option [Link]/ailerons.
Correct Answer [Link]/undercarriage.

Question Number. 88. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and
glidepath. How does it operate?.
Option [Link] operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS.
Option [Link] operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies.
Option [Link] and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or
UP and DOWN.
Correct Answer [Link] and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO
and FRO or UP and DOWN.

Question Number. 89. The FMS navigation database is updated.

Option A. daily.
Option B. every 28 days.
Option [Link] a B or C check has been completed.
Correct Answer [Link] 28 days.

Question Number. 90. In an IRS system you would expect to find.

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Option [Link] laser gyros.

Option [Link] strap down accelerometers.
Option [Link] azimuth gyro system.
Correct Answer [Link] laser gyros.
[Link] they mean a strapdown system. (Note: in b, it is the system which is strapdown, not the
accelerometers, in c, azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved).

Question Number. 91. In an INS system the accelerometer is a mass.

Option A.a mass suspended in free air.
Option [Link] between two springs in a tube.
Option C.a remotely mounted mass on the airframe.
Correct Answer [Link] between two springs in a tube.
[Link]: the mass is suspended in fluid, and is not remote.

Question Number. 92. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for.
Option [Link] part of the passenger telephone system.
Option [Link] defects on the aircraft automatically.
Option [Link] between the aircraft and base.
Correct Answer [Link] between the aircraft and base.

Question Number. 93. What are the main areas of the autopilot?.
Option [Link], correction , demand, resolved.
Option [Link], correction, follow up, demand.
Option [Link], correction, follow up, command.
Correct Answer [Link], correction, follow up, command.

Question Number. 94. VHF frequency is.

Option A. 108 - 136 MHz.
Option B. 108 - 112 MHz.
Option C. 108 - 118 MHz.
Correct Answer is.108 - 136 MHz.

Question Number. 95. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a.
Option A. hi tone chime.
Option B. horn.
Option C. Low Tone.
Correct Answer [Link] tone chime.

Question Number. 96. Channel 3 on a CVR records.

Option A. first officer.
Option B. flightdeck.
Option C. captain.

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Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 97. DME works on the frequency of.

Option A. HF.
Option B. VHF.
Option C. UHF.
Correct Answer is. UHF.

Question Number. 98. A radial is referenced.

Option A. on a compass.
Option B. from a beacon.
Option C. to a VOR.
Correct Answer [Link] a beacon.

Question Number. 99. ADF works by using.

Option A. sense aerial.
Option B. loop aerial.
Option [Link] loop and sense aerial.
Correct Answer [Link] loop and sense aerial.

Question Number. 100. How is the next database on the FMC activated?.
Option [Link] in the air.
Option [Link], on the ground.
Option [Link] by due date.
Correct Answer [Link], on the ground.

Question Number. 101. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop, Pull-up' command?.
Option A. Mode 6.
Option B. Mode 2.
Option C. Mode 3.
Correct Answer [Link] 2.

Question Number. 102. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be.
Option A. Mode A.
Option B. Mode S.
Option C. Mode C.
Correct Answer [Link] S.

Question Number. 103. GPS.

Option [Link] 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
Option [Link] 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.
Option [Link] 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits.

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Correct Answer [Link] 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits.

Question Number. 104. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury
switches.
Option [Link] inner gimbal ring.
Option [Link] both gimbal rings.
Option [Link] outer gimbal ring.
Correct Answer [Link] inner gimbal ring.

Question Number. 105. The IRS laser gyro is a.

Option A. displaced gyro.
Option B. rate gyro.
Option [Link] gyro.
Correct Answer [Link] gyro.

Question Number. 106. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?.
Option A. TA.
Option B. RA.
Option [Link] RA or TA.
Correct Answer is. RA.

Question Number. 107. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?.
Option [Link] circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
Option [Link] squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
Option [Link] diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Correct Answer [Link] diamonds, red squares and amber circles.

Question Number. 108. The laser ring gyro.

Option [Link] not have gimbal.
Option [Link] not have gimbal and rotating parts.
Option [Link] a stabilized platform.
Correct Answer [Link] not have gimbal and rotating parts.

Question Number. 109. 3 autopilot computers are considered.

Option A. Fail resistant.
Option B. Fail Passive.
Option C. Fail Operable.

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Correct Answer [Link] Operable.

Question Number. 110. In autopilot with THS in motion, the.

Option [Link] is inhibited.
Option [Link] Trim is inhibited.
Option [Link] trim is inhibited.
Correct Answer [Link] Trim is inhibited.

Question Number. 111. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?.

Option [Link] deselecting auto-throttle first.
Option [Link] through a clutch on the throttle levers.
Option [Link] is not possible.
Correct Answer [Link] through a clutch on the throttle levers.

Question Number. 112. Where is the autothrottle disconnect switch?.

Option [Link] reach of the First Officer.
Option [Link] reach of both pilots.
Option [Link] reach of the Captain.
Correct Answer [Link] reach of both pilots.

Question Number. 113. Decca navigation uses.

Option A. VHF.
Option B. LF.
Option C. HF.
Correct Answer is. LF.

Question Number. 114. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one FMS fails during flight.
Option [Link] has no effect, because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode, now it is active.
Option [Link] failed FMS has a blank screen.
Option [Link] whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby.
Correct Answer [Link] failed FMS has a blank screen.

Question Number. 115. Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?.
Option [Link] Advisories.
Option [Link] position warning.
Option C. Stall warning.

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Correct Answer [Link] warning.

Question Number. 116. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of.
Option A. 75 MHz.
Option B. 100 MHz.
Option C. 50 MHz.
Correct Answer is.75 MHz.

Question Number. 117. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to.
Option A. the RMI.
Option B. the ILS system.
Option [Link] CDI offset bar.
Correct Answer [Link] CDI offset bar.

Question Number. 118. A flat plate antenna is a.

Option [Link] antenna.
Option B.a Doppler antenna.
Option C.a series of slots and wave guides.
Correct Answer is.a series of slots and wave guides.

Question Number. 119. To obtain an accurate GPS fix, the GPS receiver must be in line of sight of.
Option A. 6 satellites.
Option B. 4 satellites.
Option C. 3 satellites.
Correct Answer is.4 satellites.

Question Number. 120. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad.
alt. system?.
Option A. TCAS.
Option B. GPWS.
Option C. altitude alert.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 121. The GPS satellite system consists of.

Option A.24 satellites and 1 standby satellites.
Option B.21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.

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Option C.20 satellites and 5 standby satellite.

Correct Answer is.21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.

Question Number. 122. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:.

Option [Link] and interrogation.
Option B. Altitude.
Option C. Interrogation.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 123. The autothrottle system at touchdown will.

Option [Link] to idle and disconnect.
Option [Link] reverse thrust.
Option C. go to idle.
Correct Answer [Link] to idle and disconnect.

Question Number. 124. When will the decision height aural warning sound?.
Option [Link] decision height.
Option [Link] decision height.
Option [Link] decision height.
Correct Answer [Link] decision height.

Question Number. 125. FMCS Pin Programming is allowed.

Option [Link] the database of aircraft landing altitudes.
Option [Link] CAA Rules.
Option [Link] compensate for FMC position on the aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] compensate for FMC position on the aircraft.

Question Number. 126. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must.
Option [Link] the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
Option [Link] the altitude to be fed into the INS.
Option [Link] the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS.
Correct Answer [Link] the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS.

Question Number. 127. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has.

Option [Link] and gyros fixed to the airframe.
Option [Link] on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe.

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Option [Link] fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform.

Correct Answer [Link] and gyros fixed to the airframe.

Question Number.128.A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced
by a.
Option [Link]-linear force.
Option B. linear force.
Option C. constant force.
Correct Answer [Link] force.

Question Number. 129. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to.

Option A. 10-2 g.
Option B. 10-6 g.
Option C. 10-3 g.
Correct Answer is.10-6 g.

Question Number. 130. A laser gyro output is.

Option [Link] proportional to angular turning rate.
Option [Link] proportional to frequency addition.
Option [Link] proportional to angular turning rate.
Correct Answer [Link] proportional to angular turning rate.

Question Number. 131. In an IN system, Coriolis effect is the result of.

Option [Link] effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform.
Option B. gyro wander.
Option [Link] misalignment.
Correct Answer [Link] effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform.

Question Number. 132. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by.
Option A.a single integration.
Option B.a differential followed by an integration.
Option [Link] successive integrations.
Correct Answer [Link] successive integrations.

Question Number. 133. Coriolis effect is corrected for by.

Option [Link] the gyros.
Option [Link] a correction term to the accelerometer outputs.

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Option [Link]-aligning the stable platform.

Correct Answer [Link] a correction term to the accelerometer outputs.

Question Number. 134. In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a.
Option [Link] suspension.
Option B. linear spring.
Option [Link] balance system.
Correct Answer [Link] balance system.

Question Number. 135. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted.
Option A. orthogonally.
Option [Link] to each other.
Option C.120 degrees apart.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 136. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to.
Option [Link] unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Option [Link] attitude reference.
Option [Link] the gyros from toppling.
Correct Answer [Link] unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.

Question Number. 137. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a.

Option [Link] gyro.
Option [Link] integrating gyro.
Option C. rate gyro.
Correct Answer [Link] integrating gyro.

Question Number. 138. Earth rate is approximately.

Option A.15 degrees per hour.
Option B.5 degrees per hour.
Option C.84 degrees per hour.
Correct Answer is.15 degrees per hour.

Question Number. 139. In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the.

Option A. pitch gimbal.
Option [Link] gimbal.
Option C. roll gimbal.

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Correct Answer [Link] gimbal.

Question Number. 140. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use.
Option A. a pitch gimbal.
Option B. three gimbals.
Option C. four gimbals.
Correct Answer [Link] gimbals.

Question Number. 141. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum.

Option [Link] platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical.
Option [Link] platform rotates with respect to the aircraft.
Option [Link] platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical.
Correct Answer [Link] platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical.

Question Number. 142. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of.

Option A. 84.4 minutes.
Option B. 8.4 minutes.
Option C. 84.4 seconds.
Correct Answer is.84.4 minutes.

Question Number. 143. An IN system requires data from the.

Option A. satellites.
Option [Link] data computer.
Option [Link] system.
Correct Answer [Link] data computer.

Question Number. 144. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN system will flash.
Option [Link] minutes before the next waypoint.
Option [Link] seconds before a track change is required.
Option [Link] an error is detected.
Correct Answer [Link] minutes before the next waypoint.

Question Number. 145. TK (cross track) is the.

Option [Link] in degrees that aircraft track is left or right of desired track.
Option [Link] track across the earth's surface.
Option [Link] distance from the desired track.

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Correct Answer [Link] distance from the desired track.

Question Number. 146. The output of an INS can be fed to.

Option [Link] indicators.
Option B. altimeters.
Option [Link] speed indicators.
Correct Answer [Link] indicators.

Question Number. 147. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted.
Option A. 120º apart.
Option B.90º to each other.
Option [Link] to each other.
Correct Answer is.90º to each other.

Question Number. 148. A basic I.N.S. platform has.

Option A.3 axis accelerometer.
Option B.3 accelerometers and 2 gyros (pitch and roll).
Option C.2 accelerometers and 3 gyros.
Correct Answer is.2 accelerometers and 3 gyros.

Question Number. 149. Using I.N.S. an aircraft flie.

Option [Link] directed by ground station.
Option B. great circle arc.
Option C. rhumb line.
Correct Answer [Link] circle arc.

Question Number. 150. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?.
Option A. E.T.A.
Option B. Waypoints.
Option [Link] position.
Correct Answer [Link] position.

Question Number. 151. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made.
Option [Link] navigation information is lost.
Option [Link] attitude information is lost.
Option [Link] feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays.

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Correct Answer [Link] navigation information is lost.

Question Number. 152. For the INS, the Battery Unit provides.
Option [Link] power when airborne, switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage.
Option [Link] power only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment phase.
Option [Link] when airborne and on the ground.
Correct Answer [Link] when airborne and on the ground.

Question Number. 153. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays.
Option [Link] perpendicular from the selected track.
Option [Link] in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.
Option [Link] in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track.
Correct Answer [Link] in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.

Question Number. 154. The Earth Rate Compensation is computed from.

Option [Link] earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude.
Option [Link] earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the cosine of the latitude.
Option [Link] earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of thelongitude.
Correct Answer [Link] earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude.

Question Number. 155. INS wind speed is calculated from.

Option [Link] vectorial addition of IAS and TAS.
Option [Link] vectorial addition of TAS and GS.
Option [Link] vectorial addition of IAS and GS.
Correct Answer [Link] vectorial addition of TAS and GS.

Question Number. 156. Centripetal error compensation is achieved by.

Option [Link] platform is torqued to align the N/S accelerometer along its insensitive axis.
Option [Link] additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error.
Option [Link] the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate.
Correct Answer [Link] additional signal is added to the N/S accelerometer to cancel the centripetal error.

Question Number. 157. Transport Rate compensation is achieved by.

Option [Link] the platform to oscillate at a fixed rate.
Option [Link] platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal.
Option [Link] additional signal added to the N/S accelerometer output depending on heading.

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Correct Answer [Link] platform being torqued by a computed torquing signal.

Question Number. 158. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System).
Option A.a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds.
Option [Link] amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Option C.a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Correct Answer is.a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.

Question Number. 159. An IRS alignment.

Option [Link] 10 minutes and the previous flight shut down present position is used for the alignment.
Option [Link] 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment.
Option [Link] 10 minutes and present position must be entered before alignment.
Correct Answer [Link] 10 minutes and present position can be entered any time during the alignment.

Question Number. 160. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the.
Option [Link] No. 1 and No.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered.
Option [Link] entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU.
Option [Link] present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power
down.
Correct Answer [Link] entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU.

Question Number. 161. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that.

Option [Link] the two contra-rotating beams each operate at different frequencies.
Option [Link] 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together.
Option [Link] contra-rotating beams are synchronised together.
Correct Answer [Link] 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together.

Question Number. 162. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the.
Option [Link] comm system.
Option [Link] nav system.
Option [Link] director computer.
Correct Answer [Link] nav system.

Question Number. 163. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode.
Option [Link] the difference between the desired course and the actual course.
Option [Link] the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading.
Option [Link] direct from the compass system.

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Correct Answer [Link] the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading.

Question Number. 164. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the.

Option [Link] between the course arrow and aircraft heading.

Option [Link] between the selected heading and aircraft heading.
Option [Link] course counter.
Correct Answer [Link] between the course arrow and aircraft heading.

Question Number. 165. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the.
Option A. VHF nav set.
Option B. DME system.
Option [Link] nav system.
Correct Answer [Link] nav set.

Question Number. 166. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is.
Option A. 90 Hz.
Option B. 90 KHZ.
Option C. 150 Hz.
Correct Answer is. 90 Hz.

Question Number. 167. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line, as seen
from the localiser transmitter, is.
Option A. 150 Hz.
Option B. 90 Hz.
Option C. 90 KHz.
Correct Answer is.150 Hz.
[Link] says 'as seen from the localiser transmitter'.

Question Number. 168. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°, when the
aircraft heading is 150° is.
Option A. turn left.
Option B. straight ahead.
Option C. turn right.
Correct Answer [Link] right.

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Question Number. 169. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in
the.
Option [Link]-signal sector.
Option B.90 Hz modulation sector.
Option C.150 Hz modulation sector.
Correct Answer [Link]-signal sector.

Question Number. 170. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of.
Option [Link] horizontal plane.
Option [Link] vertical plane.
Option [Link] to touch down.
Correct Answer [Link] horizontal plane.

Question Number. 171. The glideslope transmitter is located.

Option [Link] the approach end of the runway.
Option [Link] to the touch-down point of the runway.
Option [Link] the end opposite to the approach end of the runway.
Correct Answer [Link] to the touch-down point of the runway.

Question Number. 172. The glideslope and localiser frequencies.

Option [Link] to be selected separately.
Option [Link] fixed and common to all runways thereforefrequency selection is not necessary.
Option [Link] paired and one frequency selector suffices for both.
Correct Answer [Link] paired and one frequency selector suffices for both.

Question Number. 173. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of.
Option [Link] vertical plane.
Option [Link] to touchdown.
Option [Link] horizontal plane.
Correct Answer [Link] vertical plane.

Question Number. 174. The glideslope equipment operates in the.

Option A. VHF band.
Option B. HF band.
Option C. UHF band.
Correct Answer [Link] band.

Question Number. 175. The localiser equipment operates in the.

Option A. HF band.
Option B. UHF band.

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Option C. VHF band.

Correct Answer [Link] band.

Question Number. 176. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by
comparing.
Option [Link] phase of two 30 Hz modulations.
Option [Link] phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation.
Option [Link] amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations.
Correct Answer [Link] phase of two 30 Hz modulations.

Question Number. 177. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is.
Option A. 360.
Option B. infinite.
Option C.180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in 360°.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 178. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?.

Option A. 127.2 MHz.
Option B. 103.9 MHz.
Option C. 114.3 MHz.
Correct Answer is.114.3 MHz.
[Link] Radio Systems, Powell Pages 58 All frequencies between 112.00 and 117.95 MHz
(HighPower VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108.00 and 111.95 MHz (Terminal VORs).

Question Number. 179. Aerial masts may be damaged by.

Option A. water.
Option [Link] anti-icing fluid.
Option [Link] hydraulic fluids.
Correct Answer [Link] hydraulic fluids.

Question Number. 180. Most radio aerial masts are.

Option [Link] from the fuselage.
Option B. bonded.
Option C. not bonded.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 181. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the
reference and variable signals will be.
Option A. in phase.

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Option B.270° out of phase.

Option C.180° out of phase.
Correct Answer is.180° out of phase.
[Link] is due South of the station.

Question Number. 182. The middle marker modulation is keyed with.

Option A. dashes.
Option B. dots.
Option [Link] dots and dashes.
Correct Answer [Link] dots and dashes.

Question Number. 183. The modulation of the outer marker is.

Option A. 1300 Hz.
Option B. 400 Hz.
Option C. 3000 Hz.
Correct Answer is.400 Hz.

Question Number. 184. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is.

Option A. 3 miles.
Option B. 3500 ft.
Option C. 7 miles.
Correct Answer is.3500 ft.

Question Number. 185. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot.

Option [Link] visually and aurally.
Option B. visually.
Option C. aurally.
Correct Answer [Link] visually and aurally.

Question Number. 186. An over station sensor (OSS) detects.

Option [Link] deviation signals proportional to distance from a VOR transmitter.
Option [Link] rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion.
Option C. radio deviation signals proportional to distance from a localiser transmitter.
Correct Answer [Link] rapid rate of the VOR signal over the cone of confusion.

Question Number. 187. Incompatible Flight Director modes are.

Option [Link] hold and ILS.
Option [Link] and compass.

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Option [Link] and glidepath.

Correct Answer [Link] hold and ILS.

Question Number. 188. The VOR system comprises.

Option [Link] phase signal.
Option [Link] phase signal.
Option [Link] and reference phase signals.
Correct Answer [Link] and reference phase signals.

Question Number. 189. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is.
Option [Link] both have the same sensitivity.
Option B. VOR.
Option C. ILS.
Correct Answer is. ILS.

Question Number. 190. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM
indicator would show.
Option A. from.
Option B. no indication.
Option C. to.
Correct Answer is. from.

Question Number. 191. How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS
frequencies?.
Option [Link] discriminator in receiver.
Option [Link] pulse from ground station.
Option [Link] on control panel.
Correct Answer [Link] discriminator in receiver.

Question Number. 192. The glideslope transmitter operates on.

Option [Link] of 108 to 118 MHZ.
Option B. the UHF band.
Option C. the VHF band.
Correct Answer [Link] UHF band.

Question Number. 193. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the.
Option [Link] of the control column.
Option [Link] of the control column.

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Option [Link] of the controls away from the throttles.

Correct Answer [Link] of the controls away from the throttles.

Question Number. 194. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible
warning.
Option [Link] switched off by the instinctive cut-out button.
Option [Link] off after a time interval.
Option [Link] only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot.
Correct Answer [Link] switched off by the instinctive cut-out button.

Question Number. 195. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will
have.
Option [Link] decision height.
Option B.a decision height depending on RVR.
Option C.a decision height of 50ft.
Correct Answer is.a decision height of 50ft.

Question Number. 196. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is.

Option [Link] on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds.

Option B.a matter of choice for the operator.
Option C. mandatory.
Correct Answer [Link] on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds.

Question Number. 197. With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust will.
Option [Link] the autothrottle.
Option [Link] the throttles to the reverse thrust position.
Option [Link] the throttles to the minimum thrust position.
Correct Answer [Link] the autothrottle.

Question Number. 198. During ATC transponder operation, side lobe suppression acts to.
Option [Link] altitude readout.
Option [Link] coms transmission during transponder operation.
Option [Link] the DME operation during transmit phase.
Correct Answer [Link] the DME operation during transmit phase.

Question Number. 199. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver.

Option [Link] systems can be operated simultaneously.
Option B.#1 HF system can transmit but not receive.
Option C.#1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation.

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Correct Answer is.#1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation.

Question Number. 200. L band DME transmits on a frequency of.

Option A. 4133 MHz.
Option B. 1090 MHz.
Option C. 2210 MHz.
Correct Answer is.1090 MHz.

Question Number. 201. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft
and beacon is;.
Option A. None of above.
Option [Link] first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft
and beacon.
Option [Link] first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft
to beacon.
Correct Answer [Link] first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between
aircraft and beacon.

Question Number. 202. Which two frequencies are paired?.

Option [Link] and localizer.
Option [Link] and DME.
Option [Link] and Glideslope.
Correct Answer [Link] and localizer.

Question Number. 203. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the
runway threshold by.
Option A. 70 ft.
Option B. 700 ft.
Option C. 7 ft.
Correct Answer is. 700 ft.

Question Number. 204. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of
aerial?.
Option [Link] aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Option [Link] aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
Option [Link] aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
Correct Answer [Link] aerial becomes capacitively reactive.

Question Number. 205. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of
aerial?.

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Option [Link] aerial becomes capacitively reactive.

Option [Link] aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Option [Link] aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
Correct Answer [Link] aerial becomes inductively reactive.

Question Number. 206. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency, when its load is
purely.
Option A. capacitive.
Option B. inductive.
Option C. resistive.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 207. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is.

Option [Link] stop the motor overheating.
Option [Link] give control surface feel.
Option [Link] allow it to be overridden at a certain force.
Correct Answer [Link] allow it to be overridden at a certain force.

Question Number. 208. Most aerials are.

Option [Link] from non-conductive material.
Option B. bonded.
Option C. not bonded.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 209. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?.

Option A. Amber.
Option B. White.
Option C. Blue.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 210. Laser gyros have.

Option [Link] rotating parts.
Option B. moving parts.
Option C. rotating parts.
Correct Answer [Link] rotating parts.
Explanation.A laser gyro has moving parts (dither motor vibrates) but not rotating parts.

Question Number. 211. Laser gyros are aligned to.

Option A. true north.
Option [Link] structure.

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Option [Link] north.

Correct Answer [Link] structure.

Question Number. 212. Triplex autopilot is.

Option A. fail passive.
Option [Link] operational.
Option C. fail soft.
Correct Answer [Link] operational.

Question Number. 213. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises.

Option A. ILS, DME, ADC.
Option B. ILS, VOR, ADF.
Option [Link], ADF, DME.
Correct Answer [Link], DME, ADC.
[Link] does not normally utilise ADF.

Question Number. 214. ACARS is.

Option A.a satellite communication system.
Option B.a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight.
Option C.a navigation system.
Correct Answer is.a way of reporting defects to maintenance base in flight.

Question Number. 215. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?.
Option [Link] airspeed indicator.
Option B. The altimeter.
Option [Link] ATC control panel.
Correct Answer [Link] ATC control panel.

Question Number. 216. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?.
Option A.3 (one is used for redundancy).
Option B. 1.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 2.

Question Number. 217. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?.
Option A. Roll.
Option B. Yaw.
Option C. Pitch.

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Correct Answer is. Pitch.

Question Number. 218. What is secondary radar?.

Option A.A backup radar on an airfield.
Option [Link] returned from a transponder.
Option [Link] radar bounce from an aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] returned from a transponder.

Question Number. 219. In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode used?.
Option A. Take-off.
Option B. Cruise.
Option C. Approach.
Correct Answer [Link]-off.

Question Number. 220. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?.

Option [Link] descent rate, unsafe terrain clearance.
Option [Link] descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate.
Option [Link] terrain closure rate, altitude loss after take-off.
Correct Answer [Link] descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate.

Question Number. 221. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use.
Option A. HF.
Option B. VHF.
Option C. VLF.
Correct Answer is. HF.

Question Number. 222. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?.
Option A. 4.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 3.

11A.06. Electrical Power (ATA 24).

Question Number. 1. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the.

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Option [Link] begin to gas freely.

Option [Link] and voltage remain constant for specified period.
Option [Link] reaches 1.180.
Correct Answer [Link] and voltage remain constant for specified period.

Question Number. 2. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant.
Option A. power.
Option B. voltage.
Option C. current.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 3. A battery in situ on an aircraft.

Option [Link] charge slowly if initial battery voltage is low.
Option [Link] at a fairly constant rate because generator voltage remains constant.
Option [Link] charged at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low.
Correct Answer [Link] charged at an excessive rate if initial battery voltage is low.

Question Number. 4. To parallel an alternating current generator with one or more other generators,
phase A must be.
Option A.90 degrees out-of-phase and ABC.
Option [Link]-phase with other generators and ABC.
Option [Link]-phase with other generators and CBA only.
Correct Answer [Link]-phase with other generators and ABC.
[Link] generators are paralleled for phase, voltage, frequency, load and phase rotation.

Question Number. 5. On an unparalleled twin generator alternating current system, the phase of the
second generator to be brought on line.
Option [Link] unimportant.
Option [Link] be in-phase prior to paralleling.
Option [Link] important if the first generator fails.
Correct Answer [Link] unimportant.
[Link] question says it is unparalleled.

Question Number. 6. On the direct current short shunt generator circuit shown, output voltage at the
load is 200V. What is the voltage across the shunt winding?.
Option A. 206V.
Option B. 200V.
Option C. 212V.
Correct Answer is. 200V.
[Link] 10 ohm shunt, 0.06 ohm and the 0.04 ohm are the field windings. The generator output is
split between the 0.06 ohm and the 100 ohm load, but only by 0.06/100 * 200V = 0.12V (across the 0.06 ohm).
So the voltage across the shunt winding is closer to 200V than the other two answers.

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Question Number. 7. On a direct current circuit, current limiters.

Option [Link] excessive current to the load circuit.
Option [Link] excessive current to the load circuit.
Option [Link] excessive current to the field circuit.
Correct Answer [Link] excessive current to the load circuit.

Question Number. 8. On a direct current twin generator system, the paralleling relay contacts close
when the oncoming generators voltage is.
Option [Link] bus voltage.
Option [Link] bus voltage.
Option [Link] same as bus voltage.
Correct Answer [Link] bus voltage.

Question Number. 9. When a current transformer is disconnected, what should be done?.

Option [Link] shorted.
Option [Link] open circuit.
Option [Link] placed across terminals.
Correct Answer [Link] shorted.

Question Number. 10. What does the differential sensing coil sense?.
Option A. Current.
Option B. Power.
Option C. Volts.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 11. Where does the GCU gets its power?.
Option A. PMG.
Option B. Battery.
Option C. RAT.
Correct Answer is. PMG.
Explanation. PMG is main supply for GCU, battery is back up power for GCU.

Question Number. 12. Galley loads are wired in.

Option [Link] series or parallel depending on the design.
Option [Link] so load shedding will lower current consumption.
Option C. series.
Correct Answer [Link] so load shedding will lower current consumption.
[Link] loads on an aircraft are wired in parallel.

Question Number. 13. A fuse-type current limiter.

Option [Link] current flow to a load.
Option [Link] be used as a radio suppressor.

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Option [Link] a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded.

Correct Answer [Link] a circuit after a time/current condition has been exceeded.
[Link] Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Page 112, or, Aircraft Electricity and Electronics,
Eismin Page 99. However, another type of current limiter holds the current but does and open the circuit see
Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 202.

Question Number. 14. When a load is shed from a busbar, the.

Option [Link] voltage increases.
Option [Link] consumption from the bar decreases.
Option [Link] voltage decreases.
Correct Answer [Link] consumption from the bar decreases.

Question Number. 15. In unparalleled AC generation systems, the phase rotation of one generator in
relation to the others.
Option [Link] unimportant.
Option B. must be BCA.
Option [Link] be synchronised prior to paralleling.
Correct Answer [Link] unimportant.
[Link] relationship is unimportant in an unparalleled system (although answer b says it will be
paralleled, thereby changing the question???).

Question Number. 16. In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive
power share is protected by.
Option [Link]-current and under-current protection circuits.
Option [Link]-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits.
Option [Link]-excitation and under-excitation protection circuits.
Correct Answer [Link]-voltage and under-voltage protection circuits.

Question Number. 17. Sharing of electrical loads by paralleled DC generators is controlled by.
Option [Link] circuits which control the field excitation of the generators.
Option [Link] circuits which control the speed of the generators.
Option [Link] load shedding.
Correct Answer [Link] circuits which control the field excitation of the generators.
[Link] the speed would also change the frequency and thus the phase relationship. Generators
are always controlled by adjusting the field strength.

Question Number. 18. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by.

Option [Link] positioned on MNA.

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Option [Link] field diode failure.

Option [Link] spring tension.
Correct Answer [Link] spring tension.
[Link] spring tension of the brushes can cause excessive sparking.

Question Number. 19. Before checking the SG of a battery recently removed from an aircraft.
Option [Link] out a capacity test.
Option [Link] the temperature of the electrolyte.
Option [Link] to stabilise for one hour.
Correct Answer [Link] the temperature of the electrolyte.

Question Number. 20. On an AC external power plug, the interlock circuit is controlled by pins.
Option A. CD.
Option B. AB.
Option C. EF.
Correct Answer is. EF.

Question Number. 21. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated.

Option [Link] on the magnitude of the overvoltage.
Option [Link] a fixed time delay.
Option [Link] the over voltage limit is exceeded.
Correct Answer [Link] on the magnitude of the overvoltage.

Question Number. 22. A diode connected across a coil will.

Option [Link] arching when relay is opening and closing.
Option [Link] the coil being fitted the wrong way.
Option [Link] back EMF and allow faster switching.
Correct Answer [Link] back EMF and allow faster switching.

Question Number. 23. Which fault does not always trip the GCR?.
Option [Link]-frequency and over-volts.
Option [Link]-frequency and under-frequency.
Option [Link]-frequency and under-volts.
Correct Answer [Link]-frequency and under-frequency.
Explanation.A and b are both wrong because under and over voltage will both trip the relay. On some aircraft,
under frequency will NOT trip the relay, so c is the 'least incorrect'.

Question Number. 24. Differential protection in a generating system.

Option [Link] the volts coil to trip the GCR.
Option [Link] voltage difference between source and load.

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Option [Link] current difference between source and load.

Correct Answer [Link] current difference between source and load.

Question Number. 25. Open phase sensing on a current transformer.

Option [Link] detected using any phase.
Option [Link] detected using all phases.
Option [Link] detected on generator neutral circuit.
Correct Answer [Link] detected on generator neutral circuit.

Question Number. 26. If the battery is switched off in flight, the.

Option [Link] is disconnected from bus.
Option [Link] voltage falls to zero.
Option [Link]'s instruments will be powered from the standby bus.
Correct Answer [Link] is disconnected from bus.

Question Number. 27. To flash a generator field the.

Option [Link] is on line and producing a voltage less than the flashing voltage.
Option [Link] must be stationary.
Option [Link] rotates but is not on line.
Correct Answer [Link] must be stationary.

Question Number. 28. Voltage is controlled by.

Option [Link] constant speed drive.
Option [Link] swashplate.
Option [Link] voltage regulator.
Correct Answer [Link] voltage regulator.
[Link] voltage is controlled by the voltage regulator.

Question Number. 29. The ground interlock pins are numbered.

Option A. C and N.
Option B. A and B.
Option C. E and F.
Correct Answer is.E and F.

Question Number. 30. Distilled water should be added to a ni-cad battery.

Option A. at any time.
Option [Link] fully charged.
Option [Link] in the battery workshop.

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Correct Answer [Link] in the battery workshop.

Question Number. 31. Overflowing electrolyte in a ni-cad battery indicates.

Option [Link] charging current.
Option [Link] electrolyte temperature.
Option [Link] enough charging current.
Correct Answer [Link] charging current.

Question Number. 32. During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by.
Option [Link].
Option B. undervoltage.
Option C. overcurrent.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 33. What would you use to neutralise nicad battery spillage?.
Option [Link] of soda.
Option B. Distilled water.
Option C. Boric acid.
Correct Answer [Link] acid.
Explanation. Boric acid.

Question Number. 34. Before operating generators in parallel, their voltages should be matched to
prevent.
Option [Link] spikes of sufficient magnitude to trigger GCU overvoltage circuits.
Option [Link] circulating currents developing.
Option [Link] the generator drive and shearing of splines.
Correct Answer [Link] the generator drive and shearing of splines.

Question Number. 35. Consumer loads are connected to a busbar.

Option [Link] parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced.
Option [Link] series so when loads are shed current is reduced.
Option [Link] series so when loads are shed voltage is reduced.
Correct Answer [Link] parallel so when loads are shed current is reduced.
[Link] loads are connected in parallel with each other.

Question Number. 36. A current transformer connected on the neutral star point of a generator is for.

Option [Link] current protection.

Option [Link] sequence protection.

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Option [Link] protection.

Correct Answer [Link] current protection.

Question Number. 37. Differential protection as applied to AC generation systems compares.

Option [Link] voltage to busbar voltage.
Option [Link] pressure to cabin pressure.
Option [Link] current to busbar current.
Correct Answer [Link] current to busbar current.

Question Number. 38. In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation.
Option [Link] be out of phase prior to paralleling.
Option [Link] of no consequence after paralleling.
Option [Link] be synchronised prior to paralleling.
Correct Answer [Link] be synchronised prior to paralleling.

Question Number. 39. Diodes are placed across a contactor to.

Option [Link] up operation by reducing back EMF.
Option [Link] contact bounce.
Option [Link] smooth contactor operation.
Correct Answer [Link] up operation by reducing back EMF.

Question Number. 40. Placing the battery master switch to off during flight will.
Option [Link] all power to the main busbar.
Option [Link] down the APU.
Option [Link] the battery from the main busbar.
Correct Answer [Link] the battery from the main busbar.
[Link] Battery master switch simply connects the battery to the main busbar, allowing it to be
charged from the generator(s).

Question Number. 41. Whilst operating paralleled AC constant frequency generators, it is important to
maintain generatoroutputs at the same voltage.
Option [Link] prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more
generators.
Option [Link] prevent a circulating current developing between two or more TRUs.
Option [Link] prevent CSD shock loading.
Correct Answer [Link] prevent a circulating current of considerable magnitude developing between two or more
generators.

Question Number. 42. A voltage regulator installed in series with a generator field.

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Option [Link] a current coil in parallel with generator output.

Option [Link] a voltage coil in series with generator output.
Option [Link] a voltage coil in parallel with generator output.
Correct Answer [Link] a voltage coil in parallel with generator output.

Question Number. 43. CSD warning lights on the flight deck normally indicate.
Option [Link] oil pressure, low oil temperature.
Option [Link] oil pressure, high oil temperature.
Option [Link] oil pressure, low oil temperature.
Correct Answer [Link] oil pressure, high oil temperature.

Question Number. 44. The output frequency of a hydraulically driven standby generator is controlled
by.
Option A. an IDG.
Option [Link] hydraulically actuated swash plate.
Option C. a CSD.
Correct Answer [Link] hydraulically actuated swash plate.

Question Number. 45. An AC generator used with a CSD.

Option [Link] not need a voltage controller because voltage is kept constant.
Option [Link] a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load.
Option [Link] not need a voltage controller because current is kept constant.
Correct Answer [Link] a voltage controller to maintain voltage with increasing load.

Question Number. 46. Power to a GCU is supplied.

Option [Link] the generator output only.
Option [Link] the battery bus or rectified generator output.
Option [Link] by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output.
Correct Answer [Link] by a 'field tickling' supply and then PMG output.
Explanation. PMG is main supply for GCU, battery is back up power for GCU.

Question Number. 47. Trip signals for a GCR are.

Option [Link] protection and undervoltage.
Option [Link] and undervoltage.
Option [Link] and overcurrent.
Correct Answer [Link] protection and undervoltage.

Question Number. 48. Abnormal CSD operation is monitored on the flight deck by observing indications
of.
Option [Link] oil quantity / low oil temperature.
Option [Link] oil temperature / low oil pressure.
Option [Link] oil temperature / low oil quantity.

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Correct Answer [Link] oil temperature / low oil pressure.

Question Number. 49. Wires in hot temperature areas should be bound with.
Option A. Nomex.
Option B. PVC.
Option C. Teflon.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] is probably referring to the Teflon tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity and Electronics by
Eismin 5th Edition Page 69. Also AC43 Para.11.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is Dupont tradename for PTFE).

Question Number. 50. A heat gun should be operated at.

Option A.100°C below the specified.
Option B.100°C above the specified.
Option [Link] specified temperature.
Correct Answer [Link] specified temperature.
Explanation.A heat gun should be operated at the specified temperature, or 100°C (approx) above the
heatshrink temperature.

Question Number. 51. High voltages on a generator in a parallel system should be prevented because.

Option [Link] will damage the drive shaft.

Option [Link] will cause high circulating current in the bus / other generators.
Option [Link] will trip the GCR.
Correct Answer [Link] will trip the GCR.

Question Number. 52. Over-voltage condition trips the generator. The time taken to trip the GCU
depends on.
Option [Link] of voltage.
Option [Link] of fuel and hydraulic valves.
Option [Link] delay circuit.
Correct Answer [Link] of voltage.
[Link] time delay -c could also be considered correct. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics, Eismin,
page 203.

Question Number. 53. Speed of an HMG is controlled by a.

Option A. CSD unit.
Option B. swashplate.
Option C. ID unit.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] of an HMG is controlled by a swashplate.

Question Number. 54. A permanent magnet should have.

Option [Link] retentivity, high coercivity.

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Option [Link] retentivity, low coercivity.

Option [Link] retentivity, low coercivity.
Correct Answer [Link] retentivity, low coercivity.
Explanation.A permanent magnet should have a low coercivity (so it is easy to magnetise) and high retentivity
(so it is difficult to demagnetise).

Question Number. 55. What will happen if the aircraft battery becomes overheated?.
Option [Link] power supply to the battery charger will be interrupted.
Option [Link] hot battery bus will be disconnected from the battery.
Option [Link] battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode.
Correct Answer [Link] battery charger will switch to trickle charge mode.
Explanation.B737 switches to trickle charge. However, see Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd Edition Figure
1.32 for charger disconnect system.

Question Number. 56. When the temperature increases in a lead acid battery, the SG will.
Option A. increase.
Option [Link] the same.
Option C. decrease.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] volume increases, but mass remains constant, with temperature, density decreases.

Question Number. 57. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust
it?.
Option [Link] the cockpit on the flight engineers panel.
Option B. On the GCU.
Option [Link] means of a remote trimmer.
Correct Answer [Link] means of a remote trimmer.
[Link] with a remote trimmer.

Question Number. 58. Control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency is.

Option A. by CSU.
Option B. by IDG.
Option [Link] angle of swash plate.
Correct Answer [Link] angle of swash plate.
[Link] of an HPG is via a swashplate.

Question Number. 59. When a ni-cad battery is fully charged.

Option [Link] electrolyte level is lower than normal.
Option [Link] electrolyte level stays the same.

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Option [Link] electrolyte level is higher level than normal.

Correct Answer [Link] electrolyte level is higher level than normal.

Question Number. 60. Electrical load on aircraft is controlled by.

Option A. an IRS.
Option B. a BPCU.
Option C. a GCU.
Correct Answer is.a BPCU.
Explanation.B767 MM 42-41-00 quote: 'The BPCU shares status information with the GCU's. The BPCU
controls all electrical buses and controls load shedding.'.

Question Number. 61. A 4:1 step-up transformer receives 120VAC in its primary and has 1600 Ohms
resistance in its secondary. What is the current drawn from the source?.
Option A. 0.3 A.
Option B. 1.2 A.
Option C. 3 A.
Correct Answer is. 1.2 A.
[Link] current in secondary I = V/R = 480/1600 = 3/10A. Next find current in Primary = 4 * 3/10 =
12/10 = 1.2A.

Question Number. 62. After engine start using a Ni-Cad battery, the pilot observes on the battery
charger indicator, an initial high current draw followed by a rapid decrease in current.
Option [Link] battery is faulty.
Option [Link] is a problem with the charging circuit and he must shut-down the engines.
Option [Link] cause for concern.
Correct Answer [Link] cause for concern.
[Link] is normal.

Question Number. 63. Topping up a Ni-Cad battery in situ.

Option A. is permitted.
Option [Link] only allowed in the shop.
Option C. is not allowed.
Correct Answer [Link] not allowed.

Question Number. 64. In a lead-acid battery after numerous checks, one cell has low reading.
Option [Link] must be replaced.
Option [Link] needs topping up.
Option C. It is defective.
Correct Answer [Link] must be replaced.

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Question Number. 65. A short range passenger aircraft has complete electrical failure. What time
duration would the battery be expected to power essential equipment?.
Option A. 60 minutes.
Option B. Forever.
Option C. 30 minutes.
Correct Answer is.30 minutes.
[Link] 81 para 3.1.2 - now transferred to CAP 747 GR no 4.

Question Number. 66. An external power plug has two short pins. These are used for.
Option [Link] handling bus.
Option [Link] interlock circuit.
Option C.a guide for correct alignment of the plug in the socket.
Correct Answer [Link] interlock circuit.

Question Number. 67. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is.

Option [Link] allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck.
Option [Link] monitor total current load.
Option [Link] enable two propeller systems to be synchronised.
Correct Answer [Link] allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck.

Question Number. 68. To confirm the state of charge of a ni-cad battery.

Option [Link] the battery to load and check the voltage.
Option [Link] the discharge time.
Option [Link] the battery to load, check voltage and check the SG of each cell.
Correct Answer [Link] the discharge time.

Question Number. 69. Circulating currents are associated with.

Option [Link] and DC generators in parallel.
Option [Link] generators in parallel.
Option [Link] generators in parallel.
Correct Answer [Link] generators in parallel.

Question Number. 70. Generator brush bedding.

Option [Link] only be done if 50% of the width and 80% of the length is already being done.
Option [Link] be done on the aircraft.
Option [Link] not be done on the aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] not be done on the aircraft.

Question Number. 71. What is the amperage at point '' to the nearest amp?.

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Option A. 100 Amps.

Option B. 102 Amps.
Option C. 101 Amps.
Correct Answer is.101 Amps.
Explanation.100 volts accross far right load, therefore 100 volts also accross 100ohm load (parallel circuit
theory). I = V/R = 100/100 = 1A through 100 ohm load. (Ohms Law). Total current at '' is 100 + 1 = 101 Amps.
(Kirkchoff's Law).

Question Number. 72. Pitot tubes are heated by.

Option A. DC.
Option B. AC.
Option C. AC or DC.
Correct Answer [Link] or DC.

Question Number. 73. Paralleling is used for.

Option [Link] electrical generators only.
Option [Link] and DC electrical generators.
Option [Link] electrical generators only.
Correct Answer [Link] and DC electrical generators.

Question Number. 74. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA.

Option [Link] 31 Section 21.
Option [Link] 24 Section 21.
Option [Link] 24 Section 31.

Question Number. 75. In a carbon pile regulator, the resistive element is.
Option [Link] parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
Option [Link] series with the field and changes resistance with changing length.
Option [Link] series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.
Correct Answer [Link] series with the field and changes resistance with surface area contact.

Question Number. 76. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit starts is.

Option A. 144 degrees C.

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Option B. 71 degrees F.
Option C. 144 degrees F.
Correct Answer is.144 degrees F.

Question Number. 77. If an aircraft has no battery charger, the battery is charged by.
Option [Link] current until a predetermined limit when it automatically switches to constant voltage.
Option [Link] voltage.
Option [Link] current.
Correct Answer [Link] voltage.

Question Number. 78. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is.
Option A. fluctuating.
Option B. stationary.
Option [Link] width modulating.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 79. In a transistor voltage regulator, the voltage output is controlled by.
Option [Link] and transistors.
Option [Link] and transistors.
Option [Link] and transformers.
Correct Answer [Link] and transistors.

Question Number. 80. A paralleled relay for a DC system is energised and connected by.
Option A. voltage coil.
Option B. current coil.
Option [Link] and current coil.
Correct Answer [Link] and current coil.

Question Number. 81. Increasing the real load primarily.

Option [Link] output voltage.
Option [Link] frequency.
Option [Link] output voltage and increases frequency.
Correct Answer [Link] frequency.

Question Number. 82. Inductive reactive load causes.

Option [Link] in torque and increase in heat dissipated.

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Option [Link] in torque only.

Option [Link] effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated.
Correct Answer [Link] effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated.

Question Number. 83. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of.
Option [Link] power from the generator that does work.
Option [Link] power from the generator that does work.
Option [Link] power from the generator that does work.
Correct Answer [Link] power from the generator that does work.

Question Number. 84. Differential protection in an AC system protects against.

Option A.a reverse current flowing from the battery.
Option B. short circuits.
Option [Link]-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults.
Correct Answer [Link] circuits.

Question Number. 85. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be.
Option [Link] at idle.
Option B. stationary.
Option [Link] at Nsync.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 86. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to.

Option [Link] engine overload.
Option [Link] constant load on the generator.
Option [Link] generators to be paralleled.
Correct Answer [Link] generators to be paralleled.

Question Number. 87. In an undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely
consequence is.
Option [Link] of the time delay circuit.
Option [Link] of the field regulatory TRs.
Option [Link] the bus tie relay.
Correct Answer [Link] of the time delay circuit.

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Question Number. 88. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it would be an
indication that the.
Option [Link] driveshaft had sheared.
Option [Link] sequence detection circuit has operated.
Option [Link] tie interlock is inoperative.
Correct Answer [Link] driveshaft had sheared.

Question Number. 89. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical load increases,
generator output voltage will.
Option [Link] and amperage output increases.
Option [Link] constant and amperage output increases.
Option [Link] and amperage output increases.
Correct Answer [Link] constant and amperage output increases.

Question Number. 90. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft, they are connected in.
Option A. series.
Option B. parallel.
Option [Link] parallel or series and switched between as an option.
Correct Answer [Link] parallel or series and switched between as an option.

Question Number. 91. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?.
Option [Link] to battery relay.
Option [Link] to external power relay.
Option [Link] or earth.
Correct Answer [Link] to external power relay.

Question Number. 92. How is RAT driven?.

Option A. Airstream.
Option B. Compressor.
Option C. Fan.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] Air Turbine.

Question Number. 93. How is an aircraft battery rated?.

Option A. Watts.
Option B. Ampere hours.
Option C. Joules.
Correct Answer [Link] hours.

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Question Number. 94. A reduction in field strength of a DC shunt motor driving a constant load will
result in.
Option [Link] torque and increased speed.
Option [Link] torque and reduced speed.
Option [Link] torque and speed.
Correct Answer [Link] torque and speed.

Question Number. 95. What are the 2 short prongs on an AC plug for?.
Option [Link] AC current to pull on interlock circuit.
Option [Link] help plug location/fit.
Option [Link] prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection.
Correct Answer [Link] prevent arcing during plug connection / disconnection.
[Link] short prongs are for DC only. Aircraft Electrical System, Pallett pg 72.

Question Number. 96. A vibration contact voltage regulator consists of a shunt winding and a.
Option [Link] regulating coil in parallel.
Option [Link] regulating coil in series.
Option [Link] regulation coil in series.
Correct Answer [Link] regulation coil in series.

Question Number. 97. What is the purpose of diode in a power GCR?.

Option [Link] allow flow in the event of failure of the relay.
Option [Link] prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil.
Option [Link] speed up the operation.
Correct Answer [Link] prevent back-flow of current in the EMF coil.
[Link] diode is to prevent the high current flow in the coil due to induction as the relay switches off.

Question Number. 98. Eddy currents are.

Option [Link] currents.
Option [Link] by resistance of the coil.
Option [Link] by heating effect of the coil.
Correct Answer [Link] currents.

Question Number. 99. The small pins in the power connector plug are.
Option A. neutral.
Option B. positive.
Option C. negative.
Correct Answer [Link].

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Question Number. 100. When an overvolt is present on an AC generator system, the tripping circuit.

Option [Link] after a time delay.

Option [Link] after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude.
Option [Link] at a set level.
Correct Answer [Link] after a time delay inversely proportional to overvolt amplitude.

Question Number. 101. In an AC distribution system, the purpose of the synchronising bus-bar is to.

Option [Link] essential services.

Option [Link] interconnection between the generator load busbars.
Option [Link] a means of monitoring the load.
Correct Answer [Link] interconnection between the generator load busbars.

Question Number. 102. Vibrating contact voltage regulator sensing coil is.
Option [Link] series with the field windings.
Option [Link] the generator output.
Option [Link] parallel with the field windings.
Correct Answer [Link] parallel with the field windings.

Question Number. 103. A current transformer connected across the neutral of a 3 phase generator is for.

Option [Link] sequence monitoring.

Option [Link] protection.
Option [Link] monitoring.
Correct Answer [Link] protection.

Question Number. 104. Zener diodes are for.

Option [Link] stabilisation.
Option B. rectification.
Option [Link] regulation.
Correct Answer [Link] regulation.
[Link] old Module 4 question. Although Zener diodes can be used (back-to-back) to protect
equipment from voltage spikes (voltage stabilisation) they are more commonly associated with voltage
regulation.

Question Number. 105. AC generator output indications are measured in.

Option A. KVA & KW.
Option B. KW.
Option C. KW & KVAR.

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Correct Answer [Link] & KW.

[Link] AC generator is rated in KVA and KW (or KVA and power factor, from which KW can be
calculated). However, a DC generator is rated in KW only.

Question Number. 106. Load shedding allows.

Option [Link] current to the busbar.
Option [Link] current to the busbar.
Option [Link] voltage to the busbar.
Correct Answer [Link] current to the busbar.
[Link] shedding is carried out to reduce current (voltage is constant).

Question Number. 107. How may the output of a transistorised voltage regulator be described?.
Option A. Variable AC.
Option [Link] variable DC.
Option [Link] width modulated DC.
Correct Answer [Link] width modulated DC.
Explanation.A voltage regulator has two outputs, one to the generator field (pulse width modulated on a
transistorised regulator) and one to the busbar (constant voltage but variable current depending on load). The
answer here depends upon which output they are referring.

Question Number. 108. In the event of complete AC generator failure in an AC split bus-bar generation
system, how is power maintained to the essential AC bus-bar?.
Option [Link] power fed from static inverter only.
Option [Link] power fed from a hot battery bus-bar only.
Option [Link] power fed from a battery supplied static inverter.
Correct Answer [Link] power fed from a battery supplied static inverter.

Question Number. 109. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the
field power supply to the generator exciter?.
Option [Link] line contactor.
Option [Link] power pilot relay.
Option [Link] control relay.
Correct Answer [Link] control relay.
[Link] sure of the point of this question. The GCR is the only one which is (sometimes) 'within' the
GCU. (Never heard of a 'generator power pilot relay').

Question Number. 110. In what units are static inverters rated?.

Option A. kW.
Option B. kVA.
Option C. kVAR.

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Correct Answer is. kVA.

[Link] or KVA, just like an AC generator.

Question Number. 111. In a generator system, a stability winding is used.

Option [Link] control output current.
Option [Link] prevent voltage overshoot.
Option [Link] series with the field to prevent oscillations.
Correct Answer [Link] prevent voltage overshoot.

Question Number. 112. On engine shutdown, what prevents GCR being tripped?.
Option [Link]-frequency.
Option B. Under-current.
Option C. Under-volt.
Correct Answer [Link]-frequency.

Question Number. 113. How is real and reactive load sharing achieved in an AC parallel generator
system?.
Option [Link] load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator fields.
Option [Link] and reactive loads by control of the constant speed drives only. Output voltage is controlled by
adjustment of generator fields.
Option [Link] load by control of generator fields, Reactive loads by adjustment of the constant speed drives.
Correct Answer [Link] load by control of the constant speed drives, reactive load by adjustment of generator
fields.

Question Number. 114. Other than when there is a fault in an aircraft battery or its charging system,
when is the charger switched off automatically?.
Option [Link] the alternators are fully loaded.
Option [Link] the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting.
Option [Link] there is a failure of one alternator in a split-bus bar system.
Correct Answer [Link] the battery is used for excessively high discharge currents such as in starting.

Question Number. 115. The trimmer resister in a carbon pile volts regulator is.
Option [Link] parallel with the generator volts coil.
Option [Link] series with the generator volts coil.
Option [Link] series with the generator field.
Correct Answer [Link] series with the generator volts coil.

Question Number. 116. When a field relay trips the generator off-line, it can be reset.
Option [Link] the ground only.
Option [Link] the fault has been cleared.
Option [Link] cycling the generator switch.
Correct Answer [Link] the ground only.

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Question Number. 117. In a paralleled AC generator system both A phases must be in synchronisation
and.
Option [Link] must equal ABC.
Option [Link] rotation does not matter.
Option [Link] must equal CBA.
Correct Answer [Link] must equal CBA.

Question Number. 118. When loads are shed from a busbar automatically.
Option [Link] bar current decreases.
Option [Link] bar current rises.
Option [Link] bar voltage rises.
Correct Answer [Link] bar current decreases.

Question Number. 119. What controls output from the generator?.

Option A. ELCU.
Option B. GCU.
Option C. BPCU.
Correct Answer is. GCU.

Question Number. 120. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of.
Option [Link] temperature.
Option B. charge.
Option [Link] level.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 121. During normal engine shut-down, the generator.

Option [Link] and control relay are both tripped.
Option [Link] is tripped only.
Option [Link] relay is tripped only.
Correct Answer [Link] is tripped only.

Question Number. 122. The generator warning light will come on when.
Option [Link] is above battery voltage.
Option [Link] is too high.
Option [Link] is below battery voltage.
Correct Answer [Link] is below battery voltage.

Question Number. 123. When replacing a current transformer.

Option [Link]/current selection must be made prior to fitting.

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Option [Link] can be fitted any way round.

Option [Link] can only be fitted one way round.
Correct Answer [Link] can only be fitted one way round.

Question Number. 124. The economy coil on a relay.

Option [Link] current required to close.
Option [Link] it cheaper to make.
Option [Link] current required to hold closed.
Correct Answer [Link] current required to hold closed.

Question Number. 125. What is the function of the generator control relay?.
Option [Link] the generator on-line.
Option [Link] the generator to the busbar.
Option [Link] output voltage.
Correct Answer [Link] the generator on-line.

Question Number. 126. The current consumed by a DC starter motor will.

Option [Link] as the engine speed increases.
Option [Link] as the engine speed increases.
Option [Link] constant.
Correct Answer [Link] as the engine speed increases.
[Link] due to the back EMF as engine speed increases.

Question Number. 127. A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is.

Option A. borax powder.
Option [Link] bicarbonate.
Option C. citric acid.
Correct Answer [Link] bicarbonate.

Question Number. 128. In a split bus power distribution system.

Option [Link] generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation.
Option [Link] are paralleled on connection to the tie bus.
Option [Link] is split between 115V AC and 28V DC.
Correct Answer [Link] generator supplies its own bus and distribution system in normal operation.

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Question Number. 129. Flashing a generator field.

Option [Link] resistance.
Option [Link] resistance.
Option [Link] magnetism.
Correct Answer [Link] magnetism.

Question Number. 130. When checking SG of electrolyte of lead acid battery, what should be taken into
account?.
Option [Link] temperature.
Option [Link] temperature.
Option C. Battery charge.
Correct Answer [Link] temperature.

Question Number. 131. How do you check condition of Ni-Cad battery in situ?.
Option [Link] voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load.
Option [Link] voltmeter connected to the battery terminal.
Option [Link] voltmeter in the cockpit when battery is off load.
Correct Answer [Link] voltmeter in the cockpit, when battery is on load.

Question Number. 132. The reactive load circuit in a multi-engined AC generator system.
Option [Link] generator field excitation voltage.
Option [Link] generator field excitation current.
Option [Link] generator drive speed.
Correct Answer [Link] generator field excitation current.

Question Number. 133. A vibrating type voltage regulator uses a volts coil.
Option [Link] parallel with the generator output.
Option [Link] series with the generator output.
Option [Link] series with the current coil.
Correct Answer [Link] parallel with the generator output.

Question Number. 134. The purpose of the economy contacts in a relay is to.
Option [Link] contact pitting and burning.
Option [Link] the auxiliary contacts before the main contacts.
Option [Link] the current required to hold the contacts closed.
Correct Answer [Link] the current required to hold the contacts closed.

Question Number. 135. A vibrating contact voltage regulator has.

Option A.a resister in parallel with the points.

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Option B.a volts coil in parallel with the points.

Option C.a resistor in series with the points.
Correct Answer is.a resister in parallel with the points.

Question Number. 136. Brush bedding-in on a starter generator can be carried out.
Option A. during flight.
Option [Link] 80 percent of the brush area has been previously bedded in, on the bench.
Option [Link] off the aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] off the aircraft.

Question Number. 137. What would be the cause of a low electrolyte level in a nicad battery?.
Option [Link] current.
Option B. Evaporation.
Option [Link] charging current.
Correct Answer [Link] charging current.

Question Number. 138. An AC generator connected to a CSD requires.

Option A.a separate voltage regulator.
Option [Link] voltage regulator as the CSD will control generator frequency.
Option [Link] voltage regulator as the CSD will control the voltage.
Correct Answer is.a separate voltage regulator.

Question Number. 139. If electrolyte from a lead-acid battery is spilled in the battery compartment,
which procedure should be followed?.
Option A. Apply boric acid solution to the affected area followed by a water rinse.
Option [Link] sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are followed by a water rinse.
Option [Link] the affected area thoroughly with clean water.
Correct Answer [Link] sodium bicarbonate solution to the affected are followed by a water rinse.

Question Number. 140. Which statement regarding the hydrometer reading of a lead-acid storage
battery electrolyte is true?.
Option A.A specific gravity correction should be subtracted from the hydrometer reading if the electrolyte
temperature is above 20°C.
Option [Link] hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the electrolyte temperature is
60°F.

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Option [Link] hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless of the
electrolyte temperature.
Correct Answer [Link] hydrometer reading will give a true indication of the capacity of the battery regardless
of the electrolyte temperature. OR The hydrometer reading does not require a temperature correction if the
electrolyte temperature is 60°F.
[Link] EEL/1-1 4.3.4 (American Text such as Jeppesen AandP Technician Airframe Textbook Page
7-27 specify 80°F as the standard, but CAIPs specifies 60°F as standard - take your pick).

Question Number. 141. An increase in the speed of a DC generator will cause the voltage to rise with the
following resultant action in the voltage regulator:-.
Option [Link] volts coil to exert more pull thus increasing the current in the generator field.
Option [Link] volts coil to exert less pull thus increasing the resistance of the carbon pile.
Option [Link] volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation.
Correct Answer [Link] volts coil to increase its magnetic field thus decreasing the field excitation.

Question Number. 142. The equalizing coils on voltage regulators will.

Option [Link] current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower.
Option [Link] connected to each other when the generators are paralleled.
Option [Link] current passing through them only when the generators are not paralleled.
Correct Answer [Link] current passing through them from the higher loaded generator to the lower.

Question Number. 143. A fully charged lead-acid battery will not freeze until extremely low
temperatures are reached because.
Option [Link] of the acid is in the solution.
Option [Link] acid is in the plates, thereby increasing the specific gravity of the solution.
Option [Link] internal resistance generates sufficient heat to prevent freezing.
Correct Answer [Link] of the acid is in the solution.

Question Number. 144. What determines the amount of current which will flow through a battery while
it is being charged by a constant voltage source?.
Option [Link] total plate area of the battery.
Option [Link] ampere-hour capacity of the battery.
Option [Link] state-of-charge of the battery.
Correct Answer [Link] state-of-charge of the battery.

Question Number. 145. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes.
Option [Link] current and constant voltage.
Option [Link] current and varying voltage.
Option [Link] voltage and varying current.
Correct Answer [Link] voltage and varying current.

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Question Number. 146. The presence of small amounts of potassium carbonate deposits on the top of
nickel-cadmium battery cells that have been in service for time is an indication of.
Option [Link] operation.
Option [Link] gassing.
Option [Link] plate sulphation.
Correct Answer [Link] gassing.
[Link] Electrical Systems Page 23 and Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 50 but see
also CAIPs EEL/1-3 4.2 (h).

Question Number. 147. The servicing and charging of nickel-cadmium and lead-acid batteries together in
the same service area is likely to result in.
Option [Link] battery service life.
Option [Link] of both types of batteries.
Option [Link] explosion and/or fire hazard.
Correct Answer [Link] of both types of batteries.

Question Number. 148. If the current drawn from No.1 generator of a twin generator DC system is less
than that drawn from No.2 generator, the current in the No.2 generator equalizing coil will flow.
Option [Link] the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, increasing the output of No.2 generator.
Option [Link] the opposite direction to the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2
generator.
Option [Link] the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2 generator.
Correct Answer [Link] the same direction as the current flow in the voltage coil, reducing the output of No.2
generator.

Question Number. 149. On a C.S. driven generator, operation of the Disconnect Solenoid will disconnect
the generator drive and.
Option [Link] will automatically reset itself when the fault is rectified.
Option [Link] can only be carried out on the ground.
Option [Link] can only be reset when all loads are switched off.
Correct Answer [Link] can only be carried out on the ground.

Question Number. 150. In a constant frequency AC system, real load sharing is achieved by regulating
the.
Option [Link] regulator.
Option [Link] drive torque.
Option [Link] speed.

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Correct Answer [Link] drive torque.

Question Number. 151. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication.
Option A. for low speed.
Option [Link] low oil pressure.
Option [Link] when it is disconnected from the generator.
Correct Answer [Link] low oil pressure.

Question Number. 152. The electrolyte of a nickel-cadmium battery is the lowest when the battery is.

Option [Link] a discharged condition.

Option B. being charged.
Option [Link] load condition.
Correct Answer [Link] a discharged condition.

Question Number. 153. Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored for a long period of time will show a
low fluid level because the.
Option [Link] becomes absorbed in the plates.
Option [Link] level was not periodically replenished.
Option [Link] evaporates through vents.
Correct Answer [Link] becomes absorbed in the plates.

Question Number. 154. The purpose of 'field flashing' is to.

Option [Link] the residual magnetism in a field winding 24 hours after the field supply is removed.
Option [Link] the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding.
Option [Link] the insulation resistance of a field winding with a 1000V supply.
Correct Answer [Link] the polarity of residual magnetism in a field winding.

Question Number. 155. The purpose of an inverter is to convert.

Option A. AC to DC.
Option [Link] to a higher frequency AC.
Option C. DC to AC.
Correct Answer [Link] to AC.

Question Number. 156. How can the state-of-charge of a nickel-cadmium battery be determined?.

Option [Link] measuring discharge.

Option [Link] the level of the electrolyte.
Option [Link] measuring the specific gravity of the electrolyte.
Correct Answer [Link] measuring discharge.

Question Number. 157. What may result if water is added to a nickel-cadmium battery when it is not
fully charged?.

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Option [Link] adverse results since water may be added anytime.

Option [Link] cell temperature will run too low for proper output.
Option [Link] spewing will occur during the charging cycle.
Correct Answer [Link] spewing will occur during the charging cycle.

Question Number. 158. In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell temperature.

Option [Link] a decrease in internal resistance.
Option [Link] cell voltage.
Option [Link] an increase in internal resistance.
Correct Answer [Link] a decrease in internal resistance.

Question Number. 159. When a charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit
gas only.
Option [Link] the electrolyte level is low.
Option [Link] they are defective.
Option [Link] the end of the charging cycle.
Correct Answer [Link] the end of the charging cycle.

Question Number. 160. The equalising coil in the carbon pile regulator.
Option [Link] the effect of the voltage sensing coil.
Option [Link] connected in series with the carbon pile.
Option [Link] inoperative when the undervolt relay energises.
Correct Answer [Link] the effect of the voltage sensing coil.

Question Number. 161. In a constant frequency AC system, reactive load sharing is achieved by
regulating the.
Option [Link] drive torque.
Option [Link] speed.
Option [Link] regulator.
Correct Answer [Link] regulator.

Question Number. 162. Under-frequency in an AC supply would cause.

Option [Link] of inductive devices.
Option [Link] of AC motors.
Option [Link] of capacitive devices.
Correct Answer [Link] of inductive devices.
[Link] devices will pass more current if it is lower frequency.

Question Number. 163. The electrolyte in a lead-acid battery contains.

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Option [Link] acid.

Option B. nitric acid.
Option C. sulphuric acid.
Correct Answer [Link] acid.

Question [Link] the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralizing may be
carried out.
Option [Link] a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate.
Option [Link] washing with distilled water.
Option [Link] applying a coating of petroleum jelly.
Correct Answer [Link] a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate.

Question Number. 165. Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per.

Option A. second.
Option B. minute.
Option C. revolution.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 166. The three voltages of a three phase generator are.
Option A.120 degrees apart.
Option B.90 degrees apart.
Option C.180 degrees apart.
Correct Answer is.120 degrees apart.

Question Number. 167. To restore the level of electrolyte which has been lost due to normal gassing
during battery charging.
Option [Link] water must be added.
Option [Link] of the same specific gravity as that contained in the battery must be added.
Option [Link] acid must be added.
Correct Answer [Link] water must be added.

Question Number. 168. A 12 volt lead-acid battery.

Option A. has 6 cells.
Option B. has 24 cells.
Option C. has 12 cells.
Correct Answer [Link] 6 cells.

Question Number. 169. The active component of an A.C. circuit is 4 amps and the reactive is 3 amps.
Ammeter reading willbe.

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Option A. 3.4 amps.

Option B. 5 amps.
Option C. 7 amps.
Correct Answer is.5 amps.
[Link] current is the vector sum of active (real) and reactive currents. 3, 4, 5 triangle in this case.

Question Number. 170. In a delta connected generator.

Option [Link] volts equals 1.73 phase volts.
Option [Link] volts equals 1.73 line volts.
Option [Link] volts equals phase volts.
Correct Answer [Link] volts equals phase volts.

Question Number. 171. The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an
aircraft generator under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the.
Option [Link] of conductors in the armature.
Option [Link] of the magnetic field.
Option [Link] at which the armature rotates.
Correct Answer [Link] of the magnetic field.

Question Number. 172. As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will.

Option [Link] constant and the amperage output will increase.

Option [Link] constant and the amperage output will decrease.
Option [Link] and the amperage output will increase.
Correct Answer [Link] and the amperage output will increase.
[Link] no voltage regulator is considered, otherwise b is the answer.

Question Number. 173. When checking the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a battery.
Option [Link] cell should be checked as the readings may differ.
Option [Link] cell only need be checked as the remainder will read the same.
Option [Link] the end cells need be checked as they contain the terminals.
Correct Answer [Link] cell should be checked as the readings may differ.

Question Number. 174. A lead-acid battery is considered to be fully charged when the.
Option [Link] begin to gas freely.
Option B.S.G. reaches 1.180.
Option C.S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period.
Correct Answer is.S.G. and voltage remain constant for specified period.

Question Number. 175. Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?.

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Option [Link] compass.

Option [Link] pump.
Option [Link] heating.
Correct Answer [Link] heating.
[Link] heating or lighting circuit can be frequency wild.

Question Number. 176. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery.

Option [Link] jelly may be applied to the connections.
Option [Link] connectors may be painted.
Option [Link] connectors are used.
Correct Answer [Link] jelly may be applied to the connections.

Question Number. 177. Before taking S.G. readings of a lead-acid battery recently removed from an
aircraft.
Option [Link] electrolyte temperature must be noted.
Option B.a period of 1 hour should have elapsed to allow the S.G. to stabilize.
Option [Link] battery must be charged at the 10 hour rate for one hour.
Correct Answer [Link] electrolyte temperature must be noted.

Question Number. 178. The output of a DC generator is controlled by varying the.

Option A. field current.
Option B. engine speed.
Option [Link] current.
Correct Answer [Link] current.

Question Number.179.A generator rated at 30 kVA power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output
of.
Option A. 24 Kw.
Option B. 37.5 kW.
Option C. 30 kW.
Correct Answer is.24 kW.
[Link] = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/30 TP = 24.

Question Number. 180. The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a lead-acid battery.
Option [Link] with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge.
Option [Link] constant with changes in the state of charge but is a useful guide to the amount of acid
contained in the electrolyte.
Option [Link] substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide to the
state of charge.
Correct Answer [Link] substantially constant regardless of the state of charge and is not therefore a guide
to the state of charge. OR changes with the state of charge and is therefore a measure of the state of charge.

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Question Number. 181. A battery which is assumed to be 100% efficient and to have a capacity of 60
ampere-hours at the 10 hour rate will deliver.
Option A.60 amps for 10 hours or 6 amps for 10 hours depending upon the rate of demand.
Option B.60 amps for 10 hours.
Option C.6 amps for 10 hours.
Correct Answer is.6 amps for 10 hours.

Question Number. 182. Two 12V 25 ampere batteries connected in series will produce.
Option A.12V with 50 ampere hour capacity.
Option B.12V with 25 ampere hour capacity.
Option C.24V with 25 ampere hour capacity.
Correct Answer is.24V with 25 ampere hour capacity.

Question Number. 183. As an installed battery becomes fully charged by the aircraft generator.
Option [Link] battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases.
Option [Link] generator voltage decreases to supply the steadily decreasing current.
Option [Link] battery contactor isolates the battery from the generator.
Correct Answer [Link] battery voltage nears its nominal level so the charging current decreases.

Question Number. 184. On a DC shunt generator without a voltage regulator, if the load increases the
generator output voltage will.
Option A. increase.
Option [Link] constant.
Option C. decrease.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 185. For battery charging, the electrical supply connected to the battery must be.

Option A. AC at 400 c.p.s.

Option B. AC at 50 c.p.s.
Option C. DC.
Correct Answer is. DC.

Question Number. 186. When using A.C. power on the bus bar you require 28V D.C. for battery charging.
Option A.a D.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.
Option [Link] A.C. inverter would be required.
Option [Link] A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.
Correct Answer [Link] A.C. transformer and rectifier would be required.

Question Number. 187. Two similar 12V batteries connected in parallel will produce.

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Option A.12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.

Option B.24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
Option C.24V e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery.
Correct Answer is.12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.

Question Number. 188. If a nicad battery overheats, it is an indication of.

Option [Link] generator is not connected to the bus bar.
Option [Link] runaway.
Option [Link] generator voltage regulator setting is too low.
Correct Answer [Link] runaway.

Question Number. 189. When checking a nicad battery in situ for serviceability.
Option [Link] electrical circuits must be isolated before installing shorting strips.
Option B.a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted.
Option C.a hydrometer must be used.
Correct Answer is.a load is applied to the battery and the voltmeter reading noted.

Question Number. 190. The output from an AC generator is taken from.

Option [Link] rings via commutator.
Option B. slip rings.
Option [Link] on the stator.
Correct Answer [Link] on the stator.

Question Number. 191. Load sharing on a DC generation system is achieved by.

Option [Link] varying the generators outputs as the engine speed varies.
Option [Link] load differences causing torque signals to vary the engine speed.
Option [Link] currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming.
Correct Answer [Link] currents affecting the carbon pile for voltage trimming.

Question Number. 192. If a nickel cadmium aircraft battery is not required for immediate service, it
should be stored.
Option [Link] a totally dry condition.
Option [Link] the fully charged condition.
Option [Link] the fully discharged condition.
Correct Answer [Link] the fully discharged condition.

Question Number. 193. The correct way to determine the state of charge of a nickel-cadmium battery is.

Option [Link] checking the voltage of each cell under load.

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Option [Link] a complete discharge and a measured recharge.

Option [Link] checking the specific gravity of each cell.
Correct Answer [Link] a complete discharge and a measured recharge.

Question Number. 194. A DC generator will be connected to the busbar after the RCCO contacts close
due to.
Option [Link] battery voltage.
Option B.a differential voltage of 0.5V battery voltage higher than generator.
Option [Link] generator voltage.
Correct Answer [Link] generator voltage.

Question Number. 195. Spillage of a lead acid electrolyte is detected by.

Option [Link] paper that turns red.
Option [Link] paper that turns black.
Option [Link] paper that turns blue.
Correct Answer [Link] paper that turns red.
[Link] turns litmus paper red.

Question Number. 196. To restore electrolyte after spillage.

Option [Link] distilled water only.
Option [Link] a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery.
Option C. add acid only.
Correct Answer [Link] a mixture of acid and water of the same s.g. as that in the battery.

Question Number. 197. When a DC generator fails, the pilot will receive the following indications:-.

Option [Link] current on the ammeter and a red PFWL.

Option [Link] voltage and current discharge with a red PFWL.
Option [Link] audio bell and red PFWL.
Correct Answer [Link] current on the ammeter and a red PFWL.

Question Number. 198. The purpose of an inverter is to convert.

Option A. DC to AC.
Option B. AC to DC.
Option [Link] to a higher frequency AC.
Correct Answer [Link] to AC.

Question Number. 199. With a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the adjustment of generator
voltage is carried out by.
Option [Link] of voltage coil resistance.

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Option [Link] of the field resistance.

Option [Link] of contact spring tension.
Correct Answer [Link] of contact spring tension.

Question Number. 200. Battery SG is measured using a.

Option A. hypsometer.
Option B. hygrometer.
Option C. hydrometer.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 201. A battery for use on aircraft must have a capacity of.
Option A. 80%.
Option B. 90%.
Option C. 50%.
Correct Answer is. 80%.

Question Number. 202. When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to connect is the.
Option A. positive.
Option B. negative.
Option C. positive earth.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 203. Polarization in a cell is.

Option [Link] fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate.
Option [Link] fact that as a battery discharges, the -ve plate's potential approaches that of the +ve plate's.
Option [Link] establishing of a potential across the cell.
Correct Answer [Link] fact that hydrogen bubbles form on the -ve plate.

Question Number. 204. Battery capacity is checked by.

Option [Link] at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state.
Option [Link] the terminal voltage whilst on load and multiplying by the current drawn.
Option [Link] while maintaining the voltage constant by varying a resistor in the circuit and checking
the time to be discharged.
Correct Answer [Link] at a constant current and checking the time taken to reach the discharged state.

Question Number. 205. The frequency of an AC generator is dependant on the.

Option [Link] of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.
Option [Link] strength and the speed of the generator.

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Option [Link] of conductors and the field strength.

Correct Answer [Link] of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.

Question Number. 206. To adjust the voltage output of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant
frequency, it is necessary to.
Option [Link] the driving speed.
Option [Link] the reactance of the stator winding circuit.
Option [Link] the field current.
Correct Answer [Link] the field current.

Question Number. 207. In a paralleled AC generation system load sharing is for.

Option [Link] and reactive load.
Option B. real load only.
Option [Link] load only.
Correct Answer [Link] and reactive load.

Question Number. 208. Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between.

Option [Link] phase and earth or between any two phases.

Option [Link] phase and earth only.
Option [Link] A and B only.
Correct Answer [Link] phase and earth or between any two phases.

Question Number. 209. A frequency wild supply would be suitable for.

Option A.3-phase torque motors.
Option B. deicing loads.
Option [Link] and navigation systems.
Correct Answer [Link] loads.

Question Number. 210. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in series would give.
Option A. 36V 40Ah.
Option B. 12V 120Ah.
Option C. 36V 120Ah.
Correct Answer is.36V 40Ah.

Question Number. 211. Three 12V, 40Ah accumulators in parallel would give.
Option A. 12V 40Ah.
Option B. 36V 120Ah.
Option C. 12V 120Ah.

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Correct Answer is.12V 120Ah.

Question Number. 212. An inverter can be an AC generator driven by.

Option A. an AC motor.
Option [Link] an AC or DC motor.
Option C. a DC motor.
Correct Answer is.a DC motor.

Question Number. 213. When mixing electrolyte for lead acid batteries.
Option [Link] water to acid.
Option [Link] acid to water.
Option [Link] method of mixing is unimportant.
Correct Answer [Link] acid to water.

Question Number. 214. The RPM of a 6 pole, 400 Hz alternator is.

Option A. 4000.
Option B. 6000.
Option C. 8000.
Correct Answer is. 8000.
Explanation. 400/3 * 60.

Question Number. 215. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the.
Option A. efficiency.
Option B. power factor.
Option C. power rating.
Correct Answer [Link] factor.

Question Number. 216. Apparent power is measured in.

Option A. Volt Amps.
Option B. Kilovolts.
Option C. Watts.
Correct Answer [Link] Amps.

Question Number. 217. A Ni-Cad battery consists of 19, 1.2 volt cells. What will be the nominal battery
output?.
Option A. 20V.
Option B. 24V.

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Option C. 22V.
Correct Answer is. 22V.

Question Number. 218. The preferred method of battery charging a Ni-Cad battery is constant.
Option A. speed.
Option B. voltage.
Option C. current.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 219. When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the phase of each.
Option [Link] be in opposition to one another.
Option [Link] be synchronized.
Option C. is unimportant.
Correct Answer [Link] unimportant.
[Link] says 'UNparalleled'.

Question Number. 220. When the GPU is connected to the aircraft.

Option [Link] supplies essential services.
Option [Link] is not paralleled with the aircraft generator.
Option [Link] is paralleled with the aircraft generator.
Correct Answer [Link] is not paralleled with the aircraft generator.

Question Number. 221. A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected in series (no-load voltage = 2.1 volts
per cell) furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2 ohms resistance. The internal resistance of the battery in this
instance is.
Option A. 2.52 ohms.
Option B. 0.52 ohms.
Option C. 5.0 ohms.
Correct Answer is.0.52 ohms.
[Link] = 2.1 * 12 = 25.2 CCV = 10 * 2 = 20. Internal voltage drop = 5.2 V. Internal R=V/I = 5.2/10 =
0.52.

Question Number. 222. The rating of an aircraft alternator is 40 KVA at PF 0.8 lagging.
Option [Link] maximum load under all conditions is 40KVA.
Option [Link] maximum load under all conditions is 40KW.
Option [Link] maximum load permitted is 32KW.
Correct Answer [Link] maximum load permitted is 32KW.
[Link] = TP/AP 0.8 = TP/40 AP = 40 * 0.8 = 32 KW.

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Question Number. 223. An I.D.G (integrated drive generator).

Option [Link] the alternator and CSD as one unit.
Option [Link] separate CSDU.
Option [Link] not require a CSDU.
Correct Answer [Link] the alternator and CSD as one unit.

Question Number. 224. A P.M.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator which.

Option [Link] rotates during starting.

Option [Link] rotates after starting.
Option [Link] initial excitation.
Correct Answer [Link] initial excitation.

Question Number. 225. To parallel an alternator with another alternator the alternators must have the
same.
Option [Link], RPM and phase relationship.
Option [Link], voltage and phase relationship.
Option [Link], RPM and speed.
Correct Answer [Link], voltage and phase relationship.

Question Number. 226. Speed of an alternator may be controlled by.

Option [Link] engine rpm constant.
Option [Link] the field current.
Option [Link] (constant speed drive unit).
Correct Answer [Link] (constant speed drive unit).

Question Number. 227. Frequency wild' alternators supply.

Option [Link] circuits.
Option [Link] circuits.
Option [Link] circuits.
Correct Answer [Link] circuits.

Question Number. 228. The real load of an alternator is directly related to.
Option [Link] shaft rpm.
Option [Link] shaft torque.
Option C. output voltage.
Correct Answer [Link] shaft torque.

Question Number. 229. How is initial voltage build-up ensured in a brushless generating system, before
full output is available from the voltage regulator?.
Option A.A switch must be operated by the crew to provide excitation form the dc busbar to bring generator
on line.
Option [Link] magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles.

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Option [Link] form the DC busbars is automatically provided during the start sequence.
Correct Answer [Link] magnets are mounted between the exciter field poles.

Question Number. 230. Insulation resistance of electrical machines is.

Option [Link] higher when the machine is hot.
Option [Link] affected by change of temperature of machine.
Option [Link] lower when the machine is hot.
Correct Answer [Link] higher when the machine is hot.

Question Number. 231. The purpose of a thermistor in a brushless AC generator is to.

Option [Link] for temperature changes in the main AC stator windings.
Option [Link] the resistance of the rectifiers nearly constant at varying temperatures.
Option [Link] the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures.
Correct Answer [Link] the exciter field resistance nearly constant at varying temperatures.

Question Number. 232. The term 'random paralleling' means the incoming alternator's output voltage
frequency and phase relationship is.
Option A. not the same.
Option [Link] outputs are constant.
Option C. the same.
Correct Answer [Link] the same.

Question Number. 233. One lamp is connected across corresponding phases of two alternators. They will
be synchronised when.
Option [Link] lamp is extinguished.
Option [Link] lamp is maximum brightness.
Option [Link] lamp is either at maximum brightness or is extinguished.
Correct Answer [Link] lamp is extinguished.

Question Number. 234. Automatic synchronising means that the incoming alternator's voltage and
frequency.
Option [Link] be checked.
Option [Link] be synchronised using the two lamps provided at the system's panel.
Option [Link] be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator.
Correct Answer [Link] be checked at the system's electrical panel by selecting the relevant alternator.

Question Number. 235. The danger of random paralleling is the possibility of.
Option [Link] of the other alternators.
Option [Link] power disconnection.

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Option [Link] engagement.

Correct Answer [Link] engagement.

Question Number. 236. What is monitored in a constant speed drive?.

Option [Link] oil temperature and low oil press.
Option [Link] oil press and CSD speed.
Option [Link] oil temperature and low oil press.
Correct Answer [Link] oil temperature and low oil press.

Question Number. 237. The CSD or IDG speed governor setting.

Option [Link] adjusted with the engine stationary.
Option [Link] not allowed to be adjusted.
Option [Link] adjusted with the engine running.
Correct Answer [Link] adjusted with the engine stationary.

Question Number. 238. An external ground power supply can be used for.
Option [Link] the ground handling busbar services.
Option [Link] normal services required by flight and ground crew.
Option [Link] the emergency busbar services.
Correct Answer [Link] normal services required by flight and ground crew.

Question Number. 239. The APU generator can normally be.

Option [Link] during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails.
Option [Link] in parallel with the aircraft's main generators.
Option [Link] in parallel with the ground power supply.
Correct Answer [Link] during flight as a back up supply if the main aircraft supply fails.

Question Number. 240. The impedance on a run of co-axial cable is.

Option [Link] to the length of cable.
Option [Link] affected by length of cable.
Option [Link] proportional to the length of cable.
Correct Answer [Link] affected by length of cable.

Question Number. 241. Galley loads are supplied from the.

Option [Link] service bus.
Option B. main bus bar.
Option [Link] bus bar.
Correct Answer [Link] bus bar.

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Question Number. 242. A ni-cad battery is stored in the.

Option A. dry condition.
Option [Link] charged condition.
Option [Link] discharged condition.
Correct Answer [Link] discharged condition.

Question Number. 243. Transformer rectifier unit (TRUs) change.

Option [Link] phase to direct current.
Option [Link] current to AC.
Option [Link] phase AC to direct current.
Correct Answer [Link] phase to direct current.

Question Number. 244. A frequency wild AC generator is used for.

Option A. deicing loads.
Option B. instruments.
Option [Link] lights.
Correct Answer [Link] loads.

Question Number. 245. What should you do if the electrolyte is found to be low in one cell of a lead acid
battery?.
Option [Link] is defective, replace the battery.
Option [Link]-up the individual cell with distilled water.
Option [Link] the defective cell.
Correct Answer [Link]-up the individual cell with distilled water.

Question Number. 246. What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor?.

Option [Link] prevent current going the wrong way.
Option B. Prevent spikes.
Option [Link] bounce.
Correct Answer [Link] spikes.
[Link] is known as a 'flywheel diode'.

11A.07a. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25).

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Question Number. 1. Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come
under.
Option A. Class C.
Option B. Class D.
Option C. Class B.
Correct Answer [Link] D.

Question Number. 2. Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with.
Option A. oxygen.
Option B. helium.
Option C. CO2.
Correct Answer is. CO2.
[Link] inflatable emergency equipment are inflated with CO2.

Question Number. 3. Vertical projected separation between seat rows must be.
Option A. 4 inches.
Option B. 3 inches.
Option C. 5 inches.
Correct Answer is.3 inches.

Question Number. 4. Life jackets are inflated with cylinders of.

Option A. CO2.
Option B. air.
Option C. Nitrogen.
Correct Answer is. CO2.

Question Number. 5. The minimum passenger aisle width for an aircraft with a seating capacity of 20
or more is.
Option A. 15.
Option [Link] upon aircraft type.
Option C. 24.
Correct Answer is. 15.

Question Number. 6. When testing emergency slide bottles.

Option [Link] pin could be checked by connecting directly to ground.
Option [Link] pin must be grounded to the cartridge body at one time.
Option [Link] three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body.
Correct Answer [Link] three pins must be shorted together and grounded to the cartridge body.
[Link] of the cartridges is the same procedure as testing fire bottle cartridges. CAIPs EEL/1-73.6.3
on.

Question Number. 7. Where would you find information regarding galley equipment?.

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Option A. AWN 99.

Option B. BCARs.
Option C. ANO.
Correct Answer [Link] 99.

Question Number. 8. How often are life jackets inspected?.

Option [Link] accordance with the manufacturers specification.
Option [Link] accordance with the AMM.
Option [Link] 12 months.
Correct Answer [Link] accordance with the manufacturers specification.

Question Number. 9. Toilets must have a smoke detection.

Option [Link] and visual warning in the main cabin.
Option [Link] in the cockpit.
Option [Link] to a pump to pump the smoke out.
Correct Answer [Link] in the cockpit.

Question Number. 10. Where would you find information on life-raft deployment?.
Option A. JARs.
Option [Link] safety on-board card.
Option [Link] operations manual.
Correct Answer [Link] operations manual.

Question Number. 11. How do you clean seat belts?.

Option A. With MEK.
Option [Link] white spirit.
Option [Link] warm water with low alkalinity soap.
Correct Answer [Link] warm water with low alkalinity soap.

Question Number. 12. After a successful ditching, the liferafts deployment will.
Option [Link] rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts.
Option [Link] briefed by the cabin crew.
Option [Link] detailed instructions in a booklet in a seat pocket.
Correct Answer [Link] rapid and obvious with easily and readily displayed instructions adjacent to the liferafts.

Question Number. 13. Type and Quantity of emergency equipment to be carried is specified in which
document?.
Option [Link] Leaflet 5-7.
Option [Link] 4 of the ANO.

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Option [Link] Notice 79.

Correct Answer [Link] 4 of the ANO.

Question Number. 14. Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200
then:.
Option A.1 megaphone is required.
Option B.3 megaphones are required.
Option C.2 megaphones are required.
Correct Answer is.2 megaphones are required.

Question Number. 15. Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of.
Option A. 15g.
Option B. 9g.
Option C. 12g.
Correct Answer is. 9g.

Question Number. 16. The cylinder in a life jacket is inflated using.

Option A. CO2.
Option B. nitrogen.
Option [Link] air.
Correct Answer is. CO2.

11A.07b. Equipment and Furnishings (ATA 25).

Question Number. 1. What is the minimum separation between a seat back cushion and another seat
or fixed structure?.
Option A. 28 inches.
Option B. 24 inches.
Option C. 26 inches.
Correct Answer is.26 inches.

Question Number. 2. Cargo nets are manufactured from.

Option A. hessian.
Option B. nylon.
Option C. polypropylene.
Correct Answer is. nylon.
[Link] nets are made from nylon or polyester (not polypropylene).

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Question Number. 3. A galley trolley will be designed to.

Option [Link] not matter as the trolleys move.
Option [Link] exceed the floor limits more than 3 times in one hour.
Option [Link] exceed the floor loading limits.
Correct Answer [Link] exceed the floor loading limits.

Question Number. 4. When loading a cargo aircraft.

Option [Link] weight limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances.
Option [Link] CofG limits of the aircraft could be exceeded under careful monitored circumstances.
Option [Link] manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads.
Correct Answer [Link] manufacturer specifies the maximum floor loads.

Question Number. 5. Galley equipment which does not need electrical power is called.
Option [Link] equipment.
Option [Link] equipment.
Option [Link] equipment.
Correct Answer [Link] equipment.

Question Number. 6. Galley trolleys must have placards indicating.

Option [Link], position, flight number.
Option [Link] weight, position, flight number.
Option [Link] be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence.
Correct Answer [Link] be stowed for take-off, landing and turbulence.

Question Number. 7. PTV type entertainment equipment.

Option [Link] no capacity for digital information processing and transmitting.
Option [Link] installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques.
Option [Link] not the part of maintenance schedule.
Correct Answer [Link] installed with seat electronic unit and multiplexing techniques.
[Link] = Personal Television.

Question Number. 8. Hot fluids in an aircraft galley must have closed container lids at temperatures
above.
Option A. 65°C.
Option B. 55°C.
Option C. 45°C.
Correct Answer is. 45°C.

Question Number. 9. With regard to forward/rearward passenger seat installation.

Option [Link] can only fit seats facing forward.

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Option [Link] can fit seats facing forward or rearward.

Option [Link] can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP).
Correct Answer [Link] can only fit seats as stated in the Declaration of Design and Performance (DPP).

Question Number. 10. Attendant call is achieved by pressing a button on the passenger service unit
(PSU). To reset the light.
Option [Link] button is pushed again.
Option [Link] button is pulled out.
Option C.a reset switch on the attendants panel is operated.
Correct Answer [Link] button is pushed again.

Question Number. 11. On large aeroplanes, containerised cargo is held down by.
Option A. rope.
Option [Link] cart guides and fore and aft latches.
Option C. netting.
Correct Answer [Link] cart guides and fore and aft latches.

Question Number. 12. A galley catering trolley with electrics is classed as.
Option [Link] uncontrolled item.
Option B.a controlled item.
Option [Link], as it is removable.
Correct Answer is.a controlled item.

Question Number. 13. The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is.
Option A. 7 inches.
Option B. 3 inches.
Option C. 5 inches.
Correct Answer is.3 inches.
[Link] 747 GR No.2 Dimension C.

11A.08a. Fire Protection (ATA 26).

Question Number. 1. On pulling the fire handle, the aural warning.

Option [Link] off, the light goes off, hydraulics, bleed air and generator goes off.
Option [Link] on, the light extinguishes, the generator goes off line.
Option [Link] off, the light remains on, the generator goes off line.
Correct Answer [Link] off, the light remains on, the generator goes off line.

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Question Number. 2. Engine wing firebottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15°C to.
Option A. 1250 psi.
Option B. 600 psi.
Option C. 1500 psi.
Correct Answer is.600 psi.
[Link] Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-7. Pallett Aircraft Electrical Systems 3rd EditionPage
166";.

Question Number. 3. A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a.
Option [Link] A compensation.
Option [Link] D compensation.
Option [Link] B compensation.
Correct Answer [Link] B compensation.
[Link] Category Aircraft Systems Page 9-3 and JAR 25.857.

Question Number. 4. In a capacitive fire detection system, if.

Option [Link] is a break, the system will not work.
Option [Link] is a break, the system will work but not test satisfactory.
Option [Link] is a short to earth, the system will work but not test satisfactory.
Correct Answer [Link] is a break, the system will work but not test satisfactory.

Question Number. 5. A fire detection zone wiring can pass through another fire zone when.
Option [Link] system and the extinguishing system are the same.
Option [Link] system is different but the extinguishant is the same.
Option [Link] system is the same but the extinguishant is different.
Correct Answer [Link] system and the extinguishing system are the same.

Question Number. 6. When a fire test on a Systron Donor fire detector system is carried out.
Option A.a signal passes through the unbroken centre conductor to produce the warning.
Option [Link] checks the integrity of the contacts.
Option [Link] signal passes through the centre and back through the outer to give warning.
Correct Answer [Link] checks the integrity of the contacts.
[Link] a+p Technician Airframe Textbook page 11-6 b describes a systron-donner [Link] is
the same system the CAA call a sensor/responder system in CAIPs EEL/1-7 para 2.2.4 in para d.

Question Number. 7. When inspecting lavatory installations.

Option [Link] ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder.
Option [Link] Smoking' sign should be fitted next to the ashtrays only.
Option [Link] ashtray must be made of a thermoplastic material.
Correct Answer [Link] ashtray should not be located close to the toilet paper holder.

Question Number. 8. Lavatories must have, in the disposal container.

Option [Link] extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged.

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Option [Link] extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged.
Option [Link]/glycol extinguisher with white ball markings indicating when discharged.
Correct Answer [Link] extinguisher with black ball markings indicating when discharged.
[Link] temperature sensitive strip changes color from white to black at the indicated temp. B737
MM 26-24-00 pg1. JAR 25-854 a, b.

Question Number. 9. A fire detection loop must be capable of.

Option [Link] master warning visual and aural signals.
Option [Link] fire/overheat condition within 5 seconds and extinguishing such that after 30 seconds the
condition is no longer present.
Option [Link] master warning visual signals only.
Correct Answer [Link] master warning visual and aural signals.

Question Number. 10. A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses.

Option A. helium gas.
Option B. oxygen gas.
Option C. nitrogen gas.
Correct Answer [Link] gas.

Question Number. 11. A toilet is fitted with thermal protection.

Option [Link] protect against freezing at altitude.
Option [Link] protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat.
Option [Link] protect against continuous flushing.
Correct Answer [Link] protect against the dangers of smoke and fire in the event of an overheat.

Question Number. 12. What external warning is there for an APU fire?.
Option A. Aural.
Option [Link] aural and a red light.
Option C. Red light.
Correct Answer [Link] aural and a red light.

Question Number. 13. Engine fire bottle pressure switches are operated by.
Option A. AC or DC.
Option B. DC.
Option C. AC.
Correct Answer is. DC.

Question Number. 14. Fire tests on aircraft internal furnishings must be carried out.
Option [Link] two years.
Option [Link] five years.
Option [Link] when equipment items fail random tests.
Correct Answer [Link] when equipment items fail random tests.

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Question Number. 15. A cockpit check on the engine firewire system is a.

Option [Link] check.
Option [Link] check.
Option C. function check.
Correct Answer [Link] check.

Question Number. 16. When the fire handle is operated it.

Option [Link] off fuel and hydraulics. Generator remains on line to provide electrical power.
Option [Link] off field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers.
Option [Link] fire extinguisher only.
Correct Answer [Link] off field current, hydraulics and fuel and operates fire extinguishers.

Question Number. 17. What is the contamination monitor for, in a Systron Donner fire detection
system?.
Option A. Volts drop.
Option B. Dirty contacts.
Option [Link] comparator.
Correct Answer [Link] contacts.

Question Number. 18. Fireproofing of cabin material should be done.

Option A. every 2 years.
Option [Link] a sample fails.
Option C. every 5 years.
Correct Answer [Link] a sample fails.

Question Number. 19. What test is carried out to ensure serviceability of a squib?.
Option [Link] are fired.
Option [Link] ohmmeter is used to check voltage.
Option C.A continuity check.
Correct Answer is.A continuity check.
[Link] question. A continuity check is carried out - with a safety ohmmeter. But a safety ohmmeter
does not check voltage.

Question Number. 20. In a gas firewire system, what causes the firewire caption to come on when heat
is applied?.
Option A. Continuity.

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Option B. Pressure.
Option [Link] increase.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 21. Toilet fire detection issues can be found in.
Option A. AWN 83.
Option B. CAAIPs.
Option C. AWN 80.
Correct Answer [Link] 83.

Question Number. 22. The outside casing of a firewire has.

Option [Link] potential as ground.
Option B.28VDC potential above ground.
Option C.115VDC potential above ground.
Correct Answer [Link] potential as ground.

Question Number. 23. A cargo compartment which will contain a fire itself and ventilate is a class.

Option A. A.
Option B. D.
Option C. C.
Correct Answer is. D.

Question Number. 24. Smoke detectors consist of a.

Option [Link] detecting 2% smoke.
Option [Link] cell detecting 10% smoke.
Option [Link] cell detecting 2% smoke.
Correct Answer [Link] cell detecting 10% smoke.

Question Number. 25. In a toilet smoke condition, what would be the indication?.
Option [Link] a light or an audible warning in the cabin.
Option [Link] in the cabin.
Option [Link] warning in the cabin.
Correct Answer [Link] a light or an audible warning in the cabin.

Question Number. 26. What do you check when carrying out an insulation check on a continuous
firewire loop?.
Option [Link] firewire, sensor & controller.
Option [Link] outside of the firewire to earth.
Option C. The firewire.
Correct Answer [Link] firewire.

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Question Number. 27. When the fire-handle switch is pulled, a.

Option [Link] warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics & fuel stays on.
Option [Link] warning light goes off. Generator goes offline.
Option [Link] warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off.
Correct Answer [Link] warning light stays on. Generator, hydraulics, & fuel is cut off.
Explanation.B737 MM. Warning light is an indication of fire. Light goes off only when fire is extinguished.

11A.08b. Fire Protection (ATA 26).

Question Number. 1. What are the minimum number of fire bottles in a cabin with 201- 300 people?.
Option A. 3 BCF.
Option B.4 Fire Extinguishers.
Option C.4 Methyl Bromide.
Correct Answer is.4 Fire Extinguishers.

Question Number. 2. How often do hand-held extinguishers have to be weighed?.

Option A. Bi-annually.
Option B. Every 5 years.
Option C. Annually.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 3. The weight of an extinguisher is stamped.

Option A. on bracket.
Option B. on head fitting.
Option [Link] base of body.
Correct Answer [Link] head fitting.

Question Number. 4. How can fire extinguisher be identified as being used?.

Option [Link] the tell-tale wire.
Option B. Weighed.
Option [Link] the pressure.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 5. Portable fire extinguishers are operated by.

Option [Link] upside down and squeeze button/trigger.
Option [Link] the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle.
Option [Link] single operation until fire extinguisher is empty.
Correct Answer [Link] the tell tale/tamper-proof seal then operated by the handle.

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Question Number. 6. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft with 501 passengers?.

Option A. 6.
Option B. 7.
Option C. 5.
Correct Answer is. 7.

Question Number. 7. How many fire extinguishers are required on an aircraft having 401 - 500
passengers?.
Option A. 6.
Option B. 8.
Option C. 5.
Correct Answer is. 6.

Question Number. 8. CO2 fire extinguishers are used on.

Option [Link] fires in fuselage.
Option B. engines only.
Option [Link] holds only.
Correct Answer [Link] fires in fuselage.

11A.09. Flight Controls (ATA 27).

Question Number. 1. In an aircraft flying control system employing servo-tabs, the installation of
external ground locks to the main control surface.
Option [Link] not prevent movement of the control column.
Option [Link] unnecessary since the system is irreversible and therefore the control surface cannot be displaced
by the wind.
Option [Link] also prevent movement of the control column.
Correct Answer [Link] not prevent movement of the control column.

Question Number. 2. A full time yaw damper system detects.

Option [Link] pass frequencies.
Option B. all frequencies.
Option [Link] low frequencies.
Correct Answer [Link] pass frequencies.

Question Number. 3. With respect to flight spoilers, they.

Option [Link] operate both on the ground and in flight.
Option [Link] operate on the ground.

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Option [Link] operate in flight.

Correct Answer [Link] operate both on the ground and in flight.
[Link] spoilers are used in flight and on the ground. However Ground spoilers can ONLY be used
on the ground.

Question Number. 4. The bearing used in a fibre pulley is.

Option A. a ball bearing.
Option B.a roller bearing.
Option C. a plain bearing.
Correct Answer is.a ball bearing.
[Link] bearings are used in fibre pulleys.

Question Number. 5. When the primary stops fitted to a control run have been contacted.
Option A.a clearance exists at the secondary stops.
Option [Link] secondary stops have been over-ridden.
Option [Link] secondary stops will just be in contact.
Correct Answer is.a clearance exists at the secondary stops.
[Link] clearance is on the secondary stops.

Question Number. 6. Excessive wear on both sides of the control cable pulley groove is evidence of.

Option [Link] cable tension.

Option [Link] misalignment.
Option [Link] misalignment.
Correct Answer [Link] misalignment.

Question Number. 7. A universal protractor used to measure degrees of aileron travel should be
zeroed.
Option [Link] the aircraft is in level flight attitude.
Option [Link] the aileron in the neutral position.
Option [Link] the aileron in the down position.
Correct Answer [Link] the aileron in the neutral position.

Question Number. 8. A flying control static friction check.

Option [Link] only be carried out during flight.
Option [Link] the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the controls.
Option [Link] demonstrate that a high force is always necessary to operate non-powered controls.
Correct Answer [Link] the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and move the
controls.
Explanation.A static friction check demonstrates the force the pilot requires to overcome system inertia and
move the controls.

Question Number. 9. What is an aileron balance cable for?.

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Option [Link] allow the cable to be tensioned.

Option [Link] correct for wing heaviness.
Option [Link] allow aircraft to fly hands off.
Correct Answer [Link] allow the cable to be tensioned.

Question Number. 10. With the elevator trim wheel adjusted fully aft. (nose up), range of movement of
the elevator is restricted.
Option [Link] make no difference to the movement.
Option [Link] 'down' travel movement.
Option [Link] 'up' travel movement.
Correct Answer [Link] 'up' travel movement.
[Link] of trim reduces the associated control movement direction range.

Question Number. 11. On the ground, spoilers/speedbrakes deploy to.

Option A. 15°.
Option B. 30°.
Option C. 60°.
Correct Answer is. 60°.
[Link] Category Aircraft Systems Jeppesen Page 5-6. In the air - 30 degrees and a further 15
degrees with ailerons.

Question Number. 12. A horn balance on a control will.

Option [Link] degree of movement at high speed.
Option [Link] degree of movement at low speed.
Option [Link] degree of movement at high speed.
Correct Answer [Link] degree of movement at high speed.
[Link] a given pilot effort, the horn balance increases movement.

Question Number. 13. In normal flight, if the control column is pulled back, a servo tab fitted to the
elevator will.
Option A. move up.
Option [Link] in line with the elevator.
Option C. move down.
Correct Answer [Link] down.

Question Number. 14. In normal flight, if the control wheel is moved to the left, then the aileron on the
right wing will.
Option [Link] the angle of attack of the right hand wing.

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Option [Link] the angle of attack of the right hand wing.

Option [Link] the angle of attack of the right wing constant.
Correct Answer [Link] the angle of attack of the right hand wing.
[Link] also be answered 'b', depending on whether it means the cause or the effect. The
downgoing aileron (the right one) has an increase in AoA locally, which makes the wing lift, thusreducing the
AoA of the wing as a whole. Choose your interpretation.

Question Number. 15. On an aircraft fitted with elevons in normal flight, if a column is moved forward,
the elevons will.
Option [Link] stationary.
Option [Link] move down.
Option C. both move up.
Correct Answer [Link] move down.

Question Number. 16. To avoid moments bending the root of the wing, the aircraft will be fitted with.
Option [Link] fuel monitoring system.
Option [Link] flight control trim.
Option [Link] trim control for controlled turns and rudder movements.
Correct Answer [Link] flight control trim.

Question Number. 17. A yaw damper gain could be fitted with.

Option [Link] sensitivity for decreased speed.
Option [Link] sensitivity for increased speed.
Option [Link] sensitivity for increased speed.
Correct Answer [Link] sensitivity for increased speed.

Question Number. 18. In an aircraft system employing balance tabs, the installation of external ground
locks between the control surface and the balance tabs.
Option [Link] prevent the movement of the control column.
Option [Link] unnecessary since the system is irreversible.
Option [Link] not prevent the movement of the control column.
Correct Answer [Link] prevent the movement of the control column.

Question Number. 19. The two switches for pitch trim are located.
Option [Link] the control column acting like an 'AND' switch.
Option [Link] the control column with the captain having priority over the First Officer.
Option [Link] the control column acting like an 'OR' switch.
Correct Answer [Link] the control column acting like an 'AND' switch.

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[Link] 'split' trim switch has one half closing a relay to 'enable' power to the trim motor, and to
engage the clutch. The other switch half is to supply the power to the motor. Both must be operated together,
to operate the trim.

Question Number. 20. If the flaps are sluggish or erratic on final approach, the possible cause may be.

Option [Link] tracks out of rigging.

Option B. bearing seized.
Option [Link] motor internal leakage.
Correct Answer [Link] motor internal leakage.

Question Number. 21. In fully Fly By Wire aircraft, wing root bending moments are reduced by.
Option [Link] of fuel from one wing tank to another.
Option [Link] of the elevator.
Option [Link] application of ailerons.
Correct Answer [Link] application of ailerons.

Question Number. 22. Yaw damping rate changes with.

Option A. airspeed.
Option B. flap position.
Option C. altitude.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 23. What is the main purpose of a frize aileron?.

Option [Link] drag on the up going wing.
Option [Link] pilot overcome aerodynamic loads.
Option [Link] drag on the up going wing.
Correct Answer [Link] drag on the up going wing.
[Link] Frise aileron increases drag on the up-going aileron, which is on the downgoing wing. And
Vise versa on the other aileron.

Question Number. 24. What happens to a hydraulically operated flight control surface when pressure is
removed?.
Option A. Droop.
Option [Link] in last position.
Option C. Go to neutral.
Correct Answer [Link].
Explanation."The drop in pressure releases a valve which lets the fluid pass easily from one side of actuator
piston to the
other. This is to prevent a hydraulic lock and permit manual reversion. Surfaces behave like manually
controlled surfaces."

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Question Number. 25. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by.
Option [Link] a tachogenerator.
Option [Link] from the servo motor.
Option [Link] from control surface.
Correct Answer [Link] a tachogenerator.

Question Number. 26. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed by.
Option A. 4%.
Option B. 7%.
Option C. 10.321%.
Correct Answer is. 7%.

Question Number. 27. A wing mounted stall warning vane.

Option [Link] down at impending stall.
Option [Link] up at impending stall.
Option [Link] a visual indication of impending stall.
Correct Answer [Link] up at impending stall.

Question Number. 28. During an autopilot controlled turn.

Option [Link], rudder and THS will move.
Option [Link] and rudder will move.
Option [Link], rudder and elevators will move.
Correct Answer [Link], rudder and elevators will move.

Question Number. 29. On a full fly-by-wire system, a speedbrake screwjack servomotor is controlled by
the.
Option [Link] augmentation computer.
Option [Link] control computer.
Option [Link] management and guidance computer.
Correct Answer [Link] control computer.

Question Number. 30. In a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls the roll spoilers?.
Option [Link] control computer.
Option [Link] augmentation computer.
Option [Link] management computer.
Correct Answer [Link] control computer.

Question Number. 31. Mass balance weights are used to.

Option [Link] the trailing edge of flying control surfaces.
Option [Link] flutter on control surfaces.
Option [Link] the tabs.
Correct Answer [Link] flutter on control surfaces.

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Question Number. 32. Active load control involves.

Option [Link] the deflection of control surface with airspeed.
Option [Link] & monitoring the human pilot.
Option [Link] lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] lift force to control vertical movement of the aircraft.

Question Number. 33. Active load control uses.

Option [Link] and aileron.
Option [Link] and spoiler.
Option [Link] and stab.
Correct Answer [Link] and spoiler.

Question Number. 34. The purpose of the autopilot servo-motor torque setting is to.
Option [Link] the servo motor.
Option [Link] the system oscillation.
Option [Link] control surface runaway.
Correct Answer [Link] control surface runaway.

Question Number. 35. In a fully Fly By Wire Aircraft, ground spoilers are deployed automatically when
the aircraft is on ground and.
Option [Link] are deployed.
Option [Link] reversers are deployed.
Option [Link] on ground switch is activated.
Correct Answer [Link] reversers are deployed.

Question Number. 36. In a fully Fly By Wire aircraft, rudder trim is nulled by the.
Option [Link] Augmentation Computers.
Option [Link] flight control unit.
Option [Link] Guidance and Management Computer.
Correct Answer [Link] Augmentation Computers.

Question Number. 37. Aileron input is fed into the yaw damper system to.
Option [Link] nose pitching down.
Option [Link] nose pitching up.
Option [Link] adverse yaw in a turn.
Correct Answer [Link] adverse yaw in a turn.

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Question Number. 38. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by.

Option A.C of G movement.
Option [Link] of aircraft in cruise.
Option [Link] pitch input.
Correct Answer [Link] pitch input.
[Link] the elevator is deflected over a long time, the AFCS trims the horizontal stabilizer to eliminate
the elevator deflection load.

Question Number. 39. Differential aileron control will.

Option [Link] a nose up moment.
Option [Link] yawing in conjunction with rudder input.
Option [Link] a nose down moment.
Correct Answer [Link] yawing in conjunction with rudder input.

Question Number. 40. On a fly-by-wire aircraft, what controls stabilizer trim?.

Option [Link].
Option [Link] and SEC.
Option [Link].
Correct Answer [Link] and SEC.

Question Number. 41. In an automatic flight control system, when may the yaw damper be applied?.

Option [Link] manual control only.

Option [Link] either manual or automatic control.
Option [Link] automatic control only.
Correct Answer [Link] either manual or automatic control.

Question Number. 42. Flutter can be prevented by.

Option [Link] balance.
Option [Link] tabs.
Option [Link] panels.
Correct Answer [Link] balance.

Question Number. 43. In a fully fly by wire system, if the elevator loses all electrical power.
Option [Link] lock at last position.
Option [Link] remain stationary and provide damping.
Option [Link] move to neutral and lock.
Correct Answer [Link] remain stationary and provide damping.

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Question Number. 44. In an auto trim system, for the trim system to operate.
Option [Link] of the trim controls is required.
Option [Link] need not be engaged.
Option [Link] must be engaged.
Correct Answer [Link] need not be engaged.

Question Number. 45. In an autopilot coordinated turn, when the turn angle is reached.
Option [Link] ailerons are down.
Option [Link] is up one is down.
Option [Link] ailerons are faired.
Correct Answer [Link] ailerons are faired.
[Link] to the aircraft's neutral lateral stability, the ailerons are neutralised (faired) and the aircraft
will hold the turn.

Question Number. 46. How is automatic angle of attack protection provided?.

Option [Link]/Slow indication.
Option [Link] flap deployment.
Option [Link] applying more power.
Correct Answer [Link] applying more power.

Question Number. 47. A single failure of fly by wire.

Option [Link] reduce the operational height and speed.
Option [Link] limit the flight profile.
Option [Link] no effect on the aircraft's operation.
Correct Answer [Link] no effect on the aircraft's operation.

Question Number. 48. Fly-by-wire load alleviation function in turbulent weather conditions will result
in.
Option [Link] moving symmetrically upward.
Option [Link] moving symmetrically upward.
Option [Link] and spoiler moving symmetrically upward.
Correct Answer [Link] and spoiler moving symmetrically upward.

Question Number. 49. Autotrim will switch to 'slow' when.

Option [Link] are retracted.
Option [Link] gear up and locked.
Option [Link] are extended.
Correct Answer [Link] are retracted.

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Question Number. 50. How is the stabiliser automatically controlled in normal manual operation?.

Option [Link]/Speed Trim.

Option [Link] Trim.
Option [Link] Trim.
Correct Answer [Link]/Speed Trim.

Question Number. 51. Spoiler position feedback is provided by a.

Option A.a S.C.M.
Option [Link] R.V.D.T.
Option C.a microswitch.
Correct Answer [Link] R.V.D.T.

Question Number. 52. Rudder 'Q' limiting.

Option [Link] rudder movement with increase in airspeed.
Option [Link] rudder movement with increase in airspeed.
Option [Link] feel as airspeed increases.
Correct Answer [Link] rudder movement with increase in airspeed.

Question Number. 53. Elevons combine the functions of both.

Option [Link] and aileron.
Option [Link] and aileron.
Option [Link] and elevator.
Correct Answer [Link] and aileron.

Question Number. 54. A differential aileron system is designed to.

Option [Link] flutter.
Option [Link] adverse yaw.
Option [Link] for aileron reversal.
Correct Answer [Link] adverse yaw.

Question Number. 55. An artificial feel system is required.

Option [Link] power assisted control systems.
Option [Link] proportional control systems.
Option [Link] power operated control systems.
Correct Answer [Link] power operated control systems.

Question Number. 56. A tandem P.F.C.U.

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Option [Link] the actuator rams co-axial.

Option [Link] two control surfaces under its control.
Option [Link] the actuator rams parallel.
Correct Answer [Link] the actuator rams co-axial.

Question Number. 57. What is the purpose of a differential Frise aileron?.

Option [Link] decrease the drag and decrease the rate of yaw and turn.
Option [Link] no effect on rate of yaw and turn.
Option [Link] increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn.
Correct Answer [Link] increase the drag to increase the rate of yaw and turn.

Question Number. 58. Active load control uses.

Option [Link] and stab.
Option [Link] and ailerons.
Option [Link] and spoilers.
Correct Answer [Link] and spoilers.

Question Number. 59. An artificial feel system is necessary in a powered flying control system to.

Option [Link] the sensitivity of the control system.

Option [Link] the pilot with simulated stick forces.
Option [Link] overloading of the power control units.
Correct Answer [Link] the pilot with simulated stick forces.

Question Number. 60. In the event of hydraulic failure in a power control system, a requirement of the
manual reversion is that it must be.
Option [Link] by the standby hydraulic system.
Option [Link] and instantaneous.
Option [Link], but not recommended.
Correct Answer [Link] and instantaneous.

Question Number. 61. The purpose of control cable regulators is to.

Option [Link] preset cable tensions during flight.
Option [Link] for high temperature only.
Option [Link] for low temperature only.
Correct Answer [Link] preset cable tensions during flight.

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Question Number. 62. Range of movements of power operated flying control surfaces are limited by.

Option [Link] of the jack body.

Option [Link] stops in the control system.
Option [Link] of the jack ram.
Correct Answer [Link] stops in the control system.

Question Number. 63. The aircraft is controlled about the lateral axis by the.
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 64. The aircraft is controlled about the normal axis by the.
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 65. The purpose of the Servo Valve in a power operated control is.
Option [Link] provide pressure to operate the control.
Option [Link] direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit.
Option [Link] revert the system to manual operation.
Correct Answer [Link] direct hydraulic fluid to the jack in response to the pilots control in cockpit.

Question Number. 66. A stick shaker is a device which.

Option [Link] extricate an aircraft from soft ground.
Option [Link] a short period of extra lift to assist take off.
Option [Link] the control column near stalling speed.
Correct Answer [Link] the control column near stalling speed.

Question Number. 67. The aircraft is controlled about the longitudinal axis by the.
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 68. Ruddervators when moved, will move.

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Option [Link] opposite each other or together, depending on the selection.

Option [Link] only.
Option [Link] to each other only.
Correct Answer [Link] opposite each other or together, depending on the selection.

Question Number. 69. As a consequence of the C of G being close to its aft limit.
Option [Link] stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.
Option [Link] stick forces to manoeuvre longitudinally will be low due to the low stability.
Option [Link] stick forces will be high in fore and aft pitch, due to the high longitudinal stability.
Correct Answer [Link] stick forces when pitching the nose down will be very high.

Question Number. 70. An anti-balance tab is moved.

Option [Link].
Option [Link] the C.G. changes.
Option [Link] a fixed linkage.
Correct Answer [Link] a fixed linkage.

Question Number. 71. A servo tab is operated.

Option [Link] by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.
Option [Link] a trim wheel and moves in the opposite direction to the main control surfaces when moved.
Option [Link], and moves in the same direction as the main control surfaces.
Correct Answer [Link] by the pilot to produce forces which in turn move the main control surfaces.

Question Number. 72. When checking full range of control surface movement, they must be positioned
by.
Option [Link] the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops.
Option [Link] them by hand directly until against the primary stops.
Option [Link] them by hand directly until against the secondary stops.
Correct Answer [Link] the flightdeck/cockpit controls until the system is against the primary stops.

Question Number. 73. The higher speed of the high wing in a banked turn causes it to have more drag
than the low wing, this may be compensated for by.
Option [Link] the ailerons into the opposite sense once the correct angle of bank has been reached.
Option [Link] of the rudder control.
Option [Link] the 'nose up' pitch by use of the elevators.
Correct Answer [Link] of the rudder control.

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Question Number. 74. The type of flap which extends rearwards when lowered is called a.
Option [Link] flap.
Option [Link] flap.
Option [Link] flap.
Correct Answer [Link] flap.

Question Number. 75. Which of the following trailing edge flaps give an increase in wing area?.
Option [Link] flap.
Option [Link] flap.
Option [Link] flap.
Correct Answer [Link] flap.

Question Number. 76. Which of the following is not a primary flying control?.
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 77. A tab which assists the pilot to move a flying control by moving automatically in
the opposite direction to the control surface is called a.
Option [Link] tab.
Option [Link] tab.
Option [Link] balance tab.
Correct Answer [Link] balance tab.

Question Number. 78. What is fitted on the aircraft to enable the pilot to reduce his speed rapidly in
event of severe turbulence, or speed tending to rise above the Never Exceed Limit?.
Option [Link] brakes.
Option [Link] brakes.
Option [Link] dumpers.
Correct Answer [Link] brakes.

Question Number. 79. When spoilers are used asymmetrically, they combine with.
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Option [Link].
Correct Answer [Link].

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Question Number. 80. What is used to correct any tendency of the aircraft to move towards an
undesirable flight attitude?.
Option [Link] tabs.
Option [Link] tabs.
Option [Link] tabs.
Correct Answer [Link] tabs.

Question Number. 81. With hydraulic ram operated flying controls, when the pressure is reduced to
zero, the flying control surfaces.
Option [Link] at neutral.
Option [Link].
Option [Link] in the position they were when power was removed.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 82. Powered flying control actuators.

Option [Link] operated by the autopilot only.
Option [Link] pilot input to the control surfaces.
Option [Link] feedback to the pilot.
Correct Answer [Link] pilot input to the control surfaces.

Question Number. 83. A stick shaker operates.

Option [Link] before the stall.
Option [Link] the stall.
Option [Link] the onset of the stall.
Correct Answer [Link] before the stall.

Question Number. 84. In a power assisted flight control system, the feel required is normally supplied
by.
Option A.Q feel.
Option [Link] loads on the control surfaces.
Option [Link] springs.
Correct Answer [Link] loads on the control surfaces.
[Link]/3-7 8.1 and 8.2.1 Power 'assisted' controls have aerodynamic feedback. Power
'operated'controls use a Q feel system.

Question Number. 85. "Irreversibility of a fully powered control surface is

provided by."
Option [Link] of the servo valve.
Option [Link] loads on the control surface.

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Option [Link] jack ram being attached to structure.

Correct Answer [Link] of the servo valve.
[Link] the servo valve produces a hydraulic lock.

Question Number. 86. Q feel units use.

Option [Link] pressure only.
Option [Link] and static pressures.
Option [Link] pressure only.
Correct Answer [Link] and static pressures.

Question Number. 87. Spoiler panels are positioned so that when deployed.
Option [Link] trim is not affected.
Option [Link] yaw takes place.
Option [Link] will not occur.
Correct Answer [Link] trim is not affected.

Question Number. 88. Powered flight control systems are used on transport aircraft.
Option [Link] at low level air density is high.
Option [Link] the pilot has too many tasks to perform.
Option [Link] to the increase in speed and size of aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] to the increase in speed and size of aircraft.

Question Number. 89. A differential aileron control system results in.

Option [Link] drag being reduced on the inner wing in a turn.
Option [Link] drag being compensated by small rudder movements.
Option [Link] drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn.
Correct Answer [Link] drag being reduced on the outer wing in a turn.

Question Number. 90. Spoiler panels are controlled by.

Option [Link] aileron control wheel and speed brake lever.
Option B.a speed brake lever only.
Option [Link] aileron control wheel only.
Correct Answer [Link] aileron control wheel and speed brake lever.

Question Number. 91. A lift transducer is normally fitted.

Option [Link] the elevator control system.
Option [Link] the nose area of the aircraft.
Option [Link] the leading edge of the wing.
Correct Answer [Link] the leading edge of the wing.
[Link] transducer, also known as a stall sensor.

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Question Number. 92. "If electrical power is removed from a fly by wire spoiler
system, the spoiler panels."
Option [Link] to down if any are not already down.
Option B. go to full up.
Option [Link] where they are.
Correct Answer [Link] to down if any are not already down.

Question Number. 93. In a fly-by-wire control system, the follow-up transducer is fitted to.
Option [Link] control system computer.
Option [Link] hydraulic actuator.
Option [Link] pilots input.
Correct Answer [Link] hydraulic actuator.

Question Number. 94. The down position of the speed brake lever is detented to.
Option [Link] inadvertent operation.
Option [Link] the speed brakes down during flight.
Option [Link] the ground speed brakes to be used on touchdown.
Correct Answer [Link] inadvertent operation.

Question Number. 95. Asymmetric flap operation is prevented to keep to a minimum the tendancy of.

Option A. yawing.
Option B. rolling.
Option C. pitch changes.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 96. High thrust stall warning is activated when the thrust of opposite engine reads.

Option [Link] than 75%.

Option [Link] than 50%.
Option [Link] than 90%.
Correct Answer [Link] than 75%.

Question Number. 97. A differential aileron control is one which gives.

Option A.a larger aileron up travel than down.
Option [Link] down-going aileron more travel than the up-going one.
Option [Link] aileron travel in each direction, but variable for stick movement.
Correct Answer is.a larger aileron up travel than down.

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Question Number. 98. When the control column is moved back and the hand-wheel turned to the left.

Option [Link] elevators move down and the left aileron moves down.
Option [Link] left aileron moves up and the elevators move up.
Option [Link] elevators move up and the left aileron moves down.
Correct Answer [Link] left aileron moves up and the elevators move up.

Question Number. 99. A series type yaw damper.

Option [Link] the rudder and the ailerons to damp out Dutch roll.
Option [Link] the rudder pedals and the rudder.
Option [Link] the rudder only.
Correct Answer [Link] the rudder only.

Question Number. 100. A stick shaker.

Option [Link] a linear actuator attached to the base of the control column.
Option [Link] an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column.
Option [Link] the elevators to cause buffeting of the airframe.
Correct Answer [Link] an eccentric flywheel driven by an electric motor and mounted on the control column.

Question Number. 101. If the control column is moved forward and to the left.
Option [Link] aileron moves down, right aileron up, elevator down.
Option [Link] aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down.
Option [Link] aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator up.
Correct Answer [Link] aileron moves up, right aileron down, elevator down.

Question Number. 102. On an aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by.

Option [Link] spoiler extending, right spoiler remaining retracted.

Option [Link] spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted.
Option [Link] spoilers extending.
Correct Answer [Link] spoiler extending, left spoiler remaining retracted.

Question Number. 103. When an aileron trim control in the cockpit is moved to counteract a tendency to
fly left wing low, an aileron trim tab fitted to the port aileron will.
Option [Link] up and cause the left aileron to move down but the right aileron will remain neutral.
Option [Link] up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a lesser
degree.
Option [Link] up and this will cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move up.

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Correct Answer [Link] up and cause the left aileron to move down and the right aileron to move down to a
lesser degree.

Question Number. 104. You have adjusted the elevator trim tab to correct for nose heavy. What was the
direction of travel of the trim tab?.
Option [Link] port elevator tab has moved up and starboard moved down.
Option [Link] elevator trim tab has moved up.
Option [Link] elevator trim tab has moved down.
Correct Answer [Link] elevator trim tab has moved down.

Question Number. 105. Pulleys in a flight control system are made from.
Option A. brass.
Option B. stainless steel.
Option [Link] or aluminium alloy.
Correct Answer [Link] or aluminium alloy.

Question Number. 106. A tension regulator in the flight control cable system of a large all metal aircraft
is used primarily to.
Option [Link] a set tension.
Option [Link] cable tension in cold weather.
Option [Link] cable tension in cold weather.
Correct Answer [Link] a set tension.

Question Number. 107. An interrupter arm incorporated in a flying control locking mechanism.
Option [Link] the ailerons and elevators.
Option [Link] movement of the throttles.
Option [Link] the rudder movement.
Correct Answer [Link] movement of the throttles.

Question Number. 108. The yaw damper must be designed to allow the rudder to control in response to
the aircraft's.
Option [Link] Frequency.
Option B. roll frequency.
Option [Link] roll frequency.
Correct Answer [Link] roll frequency.

Question Number. 109. The alpha vane signal can be fed to __________ when the aircraft is close to
stall.
Option A. flap position.
Option [Link]/slow switch.
Option C. throttle lever.
Correct Answer [Link] lever.

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Question Number. 110. Moving the elevator trim wheel fully aft, then the.
Option [Link] tends to go nose down.
Option [Link] tends to go nose up.
Option [Link] tends to roll to the right.
Correct Answer [Link] tends to go nose up.

Question Number. 111. Ground spoilers are used to.

Option [Link] wing loading on take-off.
Option [Link] FOD ingestion into the engines on landing and taxiing.
Option [Link] wing loading on landing.
Correct Answer [Link] wing loading on landing.

Question Number. 112. The outboard ailerons on some aircraft.

Option [Link] isolated at slow speeds.
Option [Link] isolated to prevent aileron reversal.
Option [Link] isolated to improve sensitivity.
Correct Answer [Link] isolated to prevent aileron reversal.

Question Number. 113. The effect of the rudder on an aircraft can be increased by.
Option [Link] the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity.
Option [Link] the altitude of the aircraft.
Option [Link] the velocity of the aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] the distance of the control surfaces from the aircraft's centre of gravity.

11A.10. Fuel Systems (ATA 28).

Question Number. 1. A fuel crossfeed valve is usually in.

Option [Link] closed position.
Option [Link] open position.
Option [Link] last position.
Correct Answer [Link] closed position.
[Link] crossfeed valves must be closed for flight.

Question Number. 2. Sliding couplings in fuel systems are used on.

Option [Link] pressure systems.

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Option [Link] pressure systems.

Option [Link] or vapour systems.
Correct Answer [Link] or vapour systems.

Question Number. 3. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated.

Option [Link] internal cooling.
Option B. by air.
Option C. by the fuel.
Correct Answer [Link] the fuel.

Question Number. 4. Fuel cross feed valves are operated by the.

Option A. 28 V DC bus.
Option B. 115 V AC.
Option C. battery.
Correct Answer is.28 V DC bus.

Question Number. 5. Fuel systems that are interconnected must have.

Option [Link] venting for each tank.
Option B. no airspace.
Option [Link] spaces interconnected.
Correct Answer [Link] spaces interconnected.

Question Number. 6. As fuel level increases, system capacitance.

Option A. decreases.
Option B. no change.
Option C. increases.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] dielectric constant of kerosene is more than that of air. B757 MM Chapter 28-41-00.

Question Number. 7. When refuelling.

Option [Link] fuel nozzle will automatically cut off the supply when the tank is full.
Option [Link] is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank.
Option [Link] is important to fill the expansion space in the tank.
Correct Answer [Link] is important not to fill the expansion space in the tank.

Question Number. 8. When using Biopor microbial fuel growth treatment.

Option [Link] is added to the fuel and burnt.
Option [Link] is applied dry and left.
Option [Link] is applied wet and flushed out.
Correct Answer [Link] is added to the fuel and burnt.

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Question Number. 9. Microbial growth is.

Option A. red dots.
Option [Link] black slime.
Option C. green sludge.
Correct Answer [Link] black slime.

Question Number. 10. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by.
Option A. bolts.
Option [Link] adhesive.
Option [Link] type rivets.
Correct Answer [Link] type rivets.
[Link]/3-15 4.1.3 says press studs or cords.

Question Number. 11. A zero fuel test on a fuel quantity indicating system is carried out with.
Option [Link] completely full.
Option [Link] completely empty.
Option [Link] empty apart from unusable fuel.
Correct Answer [Link] empty apart from unusable fuel.

Question Number. 12. After a tank bag has been replaced, a fuel flow test should be carried out at.

Option A. tank outlet.

Option B. engine inlet.
Option [Link] shut-off valve point.
Correct Answer [Link] inlet.

Question Number. 13. In biologically contaminated fuel, corrosion takes place.

Option [Link] the fungal colonies.
Option [Link] top of the tank.
Option [Link] bottom 2 inches of the tank.
Correct Answer [Link] the fungal colonies.

Question Number. 14. If an aircraft has ability to transfer fuel in flight, provision must be made to.

Option [Link] off fuel before structural damage.

Option [Link] overflow facility to dump fuel.
Option [Link] engine from using tank during transfer.
Correct Answer [Link] off fuel before structural damage.

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Question Number. 15. In a fuel system with interconnected vents.

Option [Link] expansion space is not required.
Option [Link] expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity.
Option [Link] expansion space must be 10% of the tank capacity.
Correct Answer [Link] expansion space must be 2% of the tank capacity.

Question Number. 16. Fuel tanks interconnected must have.

Option [Link] to allow overfueling.
Option [Link] against overfill for tanks and fuel system.
Option [Link] where fuel is fed from both tanks to engine inlet.
Correct Answer [Link] against overfill for tanks and fuel system.

Question Number. 17. When a FADEC system loses air data input it goes to.
Option A. soft reversion.
Option B. hard reversion.
Option [Link] reversion.
Correct Answer [Link] reversion.

Question Number. 18. Pressure refuelling is carried out at.

Option A. 20 PSI.
Option B. 40 PSI.
Option C. 15 PSI.
Correct Answer is.40 PSI.

Question Number. 19. Cross feed valves permit fuel transfer from.
Option A. tank to tank.
Option [Link] tank to right tank.
Option [Link] tank to any engine.
Correct Answer [Link] tank to any engine.

Question Number. 20. What is fitted to the fuel jettison pipe to prevent vaporisation?.
Option [Link] anti-corona device.
Option B.A corona device.
Option C. A nozzle.
Correct Answer [Link] anti-corona device.

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Question Number. 21. What happens to the capacitance in a fuel contents gauge as fuel is used?.

Option [Link] on altitude.

Option B. Increases.
Option C. Decreases.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 22. When an aircraft is put into storage for medium / long periods, the fuel tanks
should.
Option [Link] some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out.
Option B. be full.
Option C. be empty.
Correct Answer [Link] some fuel left in to prevent sealant from deteriorating/drying out.

Question Number. 23. Integral fuel booster pumps.

Option [Link] ram air cooling.
Option [Link] the fuel do cooling.
Option [Link] no cooling.
Correct Answer [Link] the fuel do cooling.

Question Number. 24. The purpose of a scavenge system within a fuel system is.
Option [Link] ensure that all unused fuel is returned to the tanks efficiently.
Option [Link] ensure that all available fuel can be used.
Option [Link] ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological
contamination.
Correct Answer [Link] ensure that any water in the fuel is constantly dispersed thus reducing microbiological
contamination.

Question Number. 25. In a light fixed wing aircraft, the fuel warning light indicates.
Option A. pump failure.
Option [Link] tank does not pressurise.
Option [Link] blockage, filter popped or pump fail.
Correct Answer [Link] blockage, filter popped or pump fail.

Question Number. 26. How is fuel supplied to a turbine engine?.

Option [Link] a fuel boost pump.
Option [Link] suction from the engine driven fuel pump.
Option [Link] a gravity feed pump.

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Correct Answer [Link] a fuel boost pump.

Question Number. 27. A fuel tank suction valve will open when.
Option [Link] booster pump fails.
Option [Link] the engine driven and booster pump fail.
Option [Link] engine driven pump fails.
Correct Answer [Link] booster pump fails.

Question Number. 28. To prevent water condensation in a fuel tank.

Option [Link] tank should be filled as full as possible.
Option [Link] tank should be filled with the minimum fuel possible.
Option [Link] filler cap should be left open.
Correct Answer [Link] tank should be filled as full as possible.

Question Number. 29. To protect the centre tank fuselage area from a vapour build up.
Option [Link] air is circulated around the tank.
Option B.a shroud vent and overboard drain is fitted.
Option [Link] air is bled around the tank.
Correct Answer [Link] air is bled around the tank.

Question Number. 30. When a fuel jettison valve is in transit, the magnetic indicator would show.

Option [Link] and in line.

Option [Link] and cross line.
Option [Link] and in line.
Correct Answer [Link] and cross line.

Question Number. 31. When considering the basic categories of fuel tank construction, which of the
following is most prone to leaks?.
Option A. Rigid.
Option B. Integral.
Option C. Flexible.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 32. On removal of a fuel tank booster pump, fuel is observed running out of the
boost pump canister, this could be caused by.
Option [Link] pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated.
Option [Link] draining out of the pressure switch bleed.

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Option [Link] leaking past the inlet screens.

Correct Answer [Link] pressure outlet check valve is not correctly seated.

Question Number. 33. Crossfeed valves are normally fitted with.

Option [Link] 28V DC motors.
Option [Link] three-phase AC motors.
Option [Link] single phase AC motors.
Correct Answer [Link] 28V DC motors.

Question Number. 34. A shroud vent and overload drain would normally be found on.
Option [Link] tank vent pipes.
Option [Link] jettison system.
Option [Link] APU fuel feed.
Correct Answer [Link] tank vent pipes.

Question Number. 35. To shut-off the LP fuel supply to the engine for the purpose of engine removal
you would.
Option [Link] the cross bleed valve.
Option [Link] the HP fuel lock.
Option [Link] the fire handle.
Correct Answer [Link] the fire handle.
[Link] first pulling teh firebottle CBs.

Question Number. 36. A leak from a fuel tank which manifests as fuel dripping from the tank is
classified as a.
Option A. stain.
Option B. seep.
Option C. run.
Correct Answer is. run.

Question Number. 37. Calcium Chromate tablets can be fitted in integral tanks. Before installation the
linen bag should be wetted with.
Option A. Water.
Option [Link] Spirit.
Option C. Kerosene.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 38. A check valve is fitted to a fuel jettison system to.
Option [Link] the centre from being defuelled.

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Option [Link] the dumping of the outer tanks.

Option [Link] stop the fuel jettison operation after a period of time.
Correct Answer [Link] the dumping of the outer tanks.

Question Number. 39. The advantages of integral fuel tanks are that they.
Option [Link] cheaper to manufacture, more durable and easier to maintain.
Option [Link] the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight.
Option [Link] easier to design and construct and use the maximum volume of fuel.
Correct Answer [Link] the maximum volume for fuel and have the minimum amount of weight.

Question Number. 40. On Large transport aircraft fuel is delivered to each engine using.
Option A.a parallel system.
Option [Link] same system for each engine.
Option C.a separate system for each engine.
Correct Answer [Link] same system for each engine.
Explanation."This question can be interpreted an many ways, and all three answers arguably correct.
However, based upon the fact that the fuel system can feed any engine from any tank, we have interpreted
it as 'every engine is fed from the same system'."

11A.11. Hydraulic Power (ATA 29).

Question Number. 1. A purpose of a 'cut-out' in a hydraulic system.

Option [Link] to prevent creep in jack operated services which have several selected positions.
Option [Link] to limit loss of fluid in the event of pipe fracture.
Option [Link] to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the accumulator
charged with fluid.
Correct Answer [Link] to relieve the pump of load when the operation of services is complete and the
accumulator charged with fluid.

Question Number. 2. Hydraulic pressure can be restored by.

Option [Link] the air charge in an accumulator.
Option [Link] use of a pressure/heat exchanger.
Option [Link] the fluid in a reservoir.
Correct Answer [Link] the air charge in an accumulator.

Question Number. 3. What is the colour of the band on a hydraulic seal?.

Option A. Yellow.
Option B. Green.
Option C. White.
Correct Answer [Link].

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Question Number. 4. A maintainer valve in an hydraulic system will.

Option [Link] continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply.
Option [Link] pressure inputs.
Option [Link] a high pressure to all systems.
Correct Answer [Link] continued press to essential systems during times of reduced supply.

Question Number. 5. Where is the temperature overheat switch located in a hydraulic pump?.
Option [Link] the pressure line.
Option [Link] the suction line.
Option [Link] the case drain.
Correct Answer [Link] the case drain.

Question Number. 6. What happens if a component has an internal hydraulic leak?.

Option A. Fluid loss.
Option [Link] in fluid pressure.
Option [Link] in fluid temperature.
Correct Answer [Link] in fluid temperature.
[Link] in temperature is an indication of internal leaks.

Question Number. 7. What happens to hydraulic fluid when it is overheated?.

Option [Link] acidity.
Option [Link] viscosity.
Option [Link] alkalinity.
Correct Answer [Link] acidity.
[Link] acidity is a common problem revealed after an oil system analysis.

Question Number. 8. How is the hydraulic pump depressurising solenoid actuated?.

Option [Link] both open and closed depending on cockpit selection.
Option [Link] Open.
Option [Link] Closed for fail-safe.
Correct Answer [Link] Closed for fail-safe.
[Link] depressurising valve (sometimes called an 'offloading valve') is energised closed, to fail-safe
open.

Question Number. 9. How do you prevent hydraulic fluid frothing?.

Option [Link] pressurising.
Option [Link] Reservoir to atmosphere.
Option [Link] over a tray.
Correct Answer [Link] pressurising.

Question Number. 10. Accumulators as fitted to aircraft hydraulic systems.

Option [Link] only ever used in an emergency.

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Option [Link] fluid under pressure.

Option [Link] additional fluid if leaks occur.
Correct Answer [Link] fluid under pressure.

Question Number. 11. A Skydrol hydraulic fluid seal would be made of.
Option A. natural rubber.
Option [Link] rubber.
Option [Link] rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon.
Correct Answer [Link] rubber, ethylene propylene or Teflon.

Question Number. 12. Synthetic hydraulic fluid subjected to overheating is high in.
Option A. acidity.
Option B. alkalinity.
Option C. viscosity.
Correct Answer [Link].
[Link] causes acidity.

Question Number. 13. A normal hydraulic system will.

Option [Link] pressure and source of hydraulics.
Option [Link] fluid temperature and quantity.
Option [Link] a light in the cockpit when the system is ready.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure and source of hydraulics.
[Link] systems show temperature, but they are not 'normal'.

Question Number. 14. A constant volume hydraulic system uses what to relieve pressure in system
when no services are being used?.
Option [Link] relief valve.
Option [Link] line back to pump.
Option C. ACOV.
Correct Answer is. ACOV.

Question Number. 15. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generator frequency
is by.
Option [Link] valve.
Option [Link] of swashplate.
Option C. IDG.
Correct Answer [Link] of swashplate.

Question Number. 16. Hydraulic systems normally operate at.

Option A. 1800 PSI.

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Option B. 3000 PSI.

Option C. 300 PSI.
Correct Answer is.3000 PSI.

Question Number. 17. When flushing hydraulic systems.

Option [Link] with methylated spirit.
Option [Link] with any hydraulic oil.
Option [Link] with same hydraulic oil.
Correct Answer [Link] with same hydraulic oil.

Question Number. 18. When replenishing a hydraulic system.

Option [Link] any hydraulic fluid.
Option [Link] any hydraulic fluid made by the same manufacturer.
Option [Link] the same/correct hydraulic fluid.
Correct Answer [Link] the same/correct hydraulic fluid.

Question Number. 19. When replacing a flexible pipe.

Option [Link] a bonding check.
Option [Link] only hand tight.
Option [Link] two spanners to stop pipe from twisting.
Correct Answer [Link] two spanners to stop pipe from twisting.

Question Number. 20. How do you remove air from hydraulic fluid?.
Option [Link] to atmosphere.
Option [Link] through a restriction.
Option [Link] over a tray.
Correct Answer [Link] over a tray.

Question Number. 21. A pressure control relay in a hydraulic pump is.

Option [Link] to the run position.
Option [Link] to prevent anything happening until there is hydraulic pressure.
Option [Link]-energised to start the pump.
Correct Answer [Link]-energised to start the pump.

Question Number. 22. A constant delivery pump has its output varied with.
Option A. regulators.
Option B. gears.
Option C. servo pressure.
Correct Answer [Link].

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[Link] delivery is constant flow rate.

Question Number. 23. A variable angled pump starts at.

Option [Link] way position.
Option [Link] stroke.
Option [Link] stroke.
Correct Answer [Link] stroke.

Question Number. 24. A check flow valve in a hydraulic system prevents.

Option [Link] cavitation.
Option B. reverse flow.
Option C. overpressure.
Correct Answer [Link] flow.

Question Number. 25. A duplex seal consist of.

Option A.a square section rubber ring within a steel washer.
Option B.a hard rubber square section ring with a soft rubber square section inner ring.
Option C.a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings.
Correct Answer is.a rubber 'T' section ring sandwiched between two Teflon rings.

Question Number. 26. When is an hydraulic de-pressurising valve energised?.

Option [Link] selected on.
Option [Link] there is sufficient hydraulic pressure available.
Option [Link] selected off.
Correct Answer [Link] selected off.

Question Number. 27. A fixed volume axial pump contains the following rotating parts.
Option [Link] Shaft, Swash Plate & Valve Block.
Option [Link] Plate & Valve Block.
Option [Link] Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder Block.
Correct Answer [Link] Shaft, Swash Plate & Cylinder Block.

Question Number. 28. An hydraulic closed system is one where.

Option [Link] is maintained at the selector valves at all times.
Option [Link] is no pressure at the selector valves when no functions are required.
Option [Link] of the major components of the system are included in a self contained unit.
Correct Answer [Link] is maintained at the selector valves at all times.

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Question Number. 29. What constitutes a hydraulic power pack?.

Option [Link] swashplate pump.
Option [Link], pump, selector valve, filter.
Option [Link] oil accumulator.
Correct Answer [Link], pump, selector valve, filter.

Question Number. 30. If an accumulator loses air pressure there will be.
Option [Link] depressurisation of system.
Option [Link] cavitation.
Option [Link] fluctuations of instruments.
Correct Answer [Link] fluctuations of instruments.

Question Number. 31. A marker number on a pipe indicates.

Option [Link] thickness of the wall on the pipe.
Option [Link] specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run.
Option [Link] type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe.
Correct Answer [Link] specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run.

Question Number. 32. "One reason for fitting an accumulator in an hydraulic system is to."
Option [Link] the possibility of pump cavitation.
Option [Link] pressure surges.
Option [Link] excess pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure surges.

Question Number. 33. A thermal relief valve is fitted to an hydraulic system to.
Option [Link] a leak back of pressure.
Option [Link] excess temperature.
Option [Link] excess pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] excess pressure.
[Link] relief valves relieve the pressure build-up due to excessive temperature.

Question Number. 34. A component in a hydraulic system which ensures instantaneous action when a
service is selected is.
Option A. accumulator.
Option [Link] driven pump.

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Option C. selector.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 35. A shuttle valve is used for.

Option [Link] fluid loss from a leaking jack.
Option [Link] fluid press when the emergency system fails.
Option [Link] over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure.
Correct Answer [Link] over from main to auxiliary system in the case of failure.

Question Number. 36. Restrictor valves in an hydraulic system are used to.
Option [Link] the rate of pressure build up.
Option [Link] the rate of system operation.
Option [Link] the maximum pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] the rate of system operation.

Question Number. 37. The purpose of a mechanical sequence valve is to ensure the operation of.

Option [Link] gear and doors.

Option [Link] switches.
Option [Link] anti-skid units.
Correct Answer [Link] gear and doors.

Question Number. 38. The purpose of a non-return valve is to.

Option [Link] fluid to the hydraulic actuator.
Option [Link] the movement of components.
Option [Link] one component from another.
Correct Answer [Link] fluid to the hydraulic actuator.

Question Number. 39. The end fittings on a NRV are normally different to.
Option [Link] bleeding of the system.
Option [Link] a full flow from the valve.
Option [Link] incorrect installation.
Correct Answer [Link] incorrect installation.

Question Number. 40. A hydraulic accumulator is charged with initial air pressure of 1000 PSI. When
the hydraulic system pressure of 3000 PSI is reached, the air pressure is.
Option A. 4000 PSI.
Option B. 3000 PSI.
Option C. 1000 PSI.

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Correct Answer is.3000 PSI.

Question Number. 41. Automatic cut-out valve hammering is caused by.

Option [Link] accumulator pressure.
Option [Link] in the fluid.
Option [Link] valve set too high.
Correct Answer [Link] accumulator pressure.

Question Number. 42. Hand pumps are normally single cylinder double acting because of the.
Option [Link] NRVS fitted.
Option B. relief valve.
Option [Link] ram displacement.
Correct Answer [Link] NRVS fitted.

Question Number. 43. During a leak test of an hydraulic system, system pressure.
Option [Link] not important.
Option [Link] be minimum working.
Option [Link] be at maximum.
Correct Answer [Link] be at maximum.

Question Number. 44. Constant delivery hydraulic pumps.

Option [Link] an automatic cut-out valve in the system.
Option [Link] an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system.
Option C. are self idling.
Correct Answer [Link] an automatic cut-out valve and accumulator in the system.

Question Number. 45. Mechanical sequence valves are operated by.

Option A. a striker pin.
Option B. the pilot.
Option [Link] operation of a NRV.
Correct Answer is.a striker pin.

Question Number. 46. Pressure relay valves are fitted.

Option [Link] a pressure gauge.
Option [Link] a pressure sequence valve.
Option [Link] a pressure relief valve.
Correct Answer [Link] a pressure gauge.

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Question Number. 47. Before checking the initial pressure in the hydraulic accumulator.
Option [Link] reservoir must be checked for correct level.
Option [Link] fluid pressure must be released.
Option [Link] air must be bled from the system.
Correct Answer [Link] fluid pressure must be released.

Question Number. 48. Hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized to.

Option [Link] a reserve of stored energy.
Option [Link] a constant fluid level.
Option [Link] the possibility of pump cavitation.
Correct Answer [Link] the possibility of pump cavitation.

Question Number. 49. In aircraft hydraulic systems, it is permissible to use.

Option [Link] the specified fluid.
Option [Link] fluid of the same specific gravity.
Option [Link] hydraulic fluid available.
Correct Answer [Link] the specified fluid.

Question Number. 50. The essential components of a hydraulic system of the constant delivery type are
an.
Option [Link] and automatic cut-out valve.
Option [Link] and shuttle valve.
Option [Link] and relay valve.
Correct Answer [Link] and automatic cut-out valve.

Question Number. 51. An automatic cut-out valve will.

Option [Link] pump wear.
Option [Link] the hydraulic lock forming.
Option [Link] fluid boiling point.
Correct Answer [Link] the hydraulic lock forming.

Question Number. 52. A maintaining valve is fitted to a hydraulic system.

Option [Link] maintain a back pressure to the accumulator.
Option [Link] excessive pressure to return.
Option [Link] ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure.

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Correct Answer [Link] ensure a supply of fluid to essential services in the event of system failure.

Question Number. 53. A thermal relief valve.

Option [Link] fluid temperature change.
Option [Link] fluid pressure.
Option [Link] cooling for the fluid.
Correct Answer [Link] fluid pressure.

Question Number. 54. Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with.

Option [Link] spirits.
Option [Link] same type of fluid as used in the system.
Option [Link] clean hydraulic fluid.
Correct Answer [Link] same type of fluid as used in the system.

Question Number. 55. Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid requires which kind of seals?.
Option A. Butyl Rubber.
Option [Link] Rubber.
Option [Link] Rubber.
Correct Answer [Link] Rubber.

Question Number. 56. A RAT hydraulic pump is for.

Option [Link] gear and auto-brake systems.
Option [Link] wheel steering.
Option [Link] controls if hydraulic power lost.
Correct Answer [Link] controls if hydraulic power lost.

Question Number. 57. Hydraulic hand-pump fluid supply is taken from.

Option A.a tap into a convenient return line.
Option B.a stack pipe higher than the normal level.
Option [Link] bottom of the reservoir.
Correct Answer [Link] bottom of the reservoir.

Question Number. 58. Hand pumps in hydraulic systems are normally.

Option A. single acting.
Option B. low pressure.
Option C. double acting.
Correct Answer [Link] acting.

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Question Number. 59. To enable an hydraulic system to operate two components requiring different
pressures.
Option A.a pressure reducing valve is used.
Option B.a pressure regulating valve is used.
Option C.a pressure relief valve is used.
Correct Answer is.a pressure reducing valve is used.

Question Number. 60. The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to.
Option A. area * volume.
Option [Link] * pressure.
Option [Link] * stroke.
Correct Answer [Link] * pressure.

Question Number. 61. A tandem PFCU.

Option [Link] two control surfaces under its control.
Option [Link] the rams parallel.
Option [Link] the actuator rams co-axial.
Correct Answer [Link] the actuator rams co-axial.

Question Number. 62. The reason why slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation, is a
flexible hose under pressure.
Option [Link] in length and diameter.
Option [Link] in length and diameter.
Option [Link] in length and expands in diameter.
Correct Answer [Link] in length and expands in diameter.

Question Number. 63. An automatic cut-out valve is necessary in a hydraulic system with.
Option A.a fixed volume pump.
Option [Link] above 3000 PSI.
Option C.a variable volume pump.
Correct Answer is.a fixed volume pump.

11A.12. Ice and Rain Protection (ATA 30).

Question Number. 1. How is a serrated rod ice detector bench tested?.

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Option [Link] torque test.

Option [Link] a motor load test.
Option [Link] test and go/no-go gap measurement.
Correct Answer [Link] torque test.
[Link] rotation [of the detector] with slight thumb pressure using a torque screwdriver.' Ref:
CAIPs AL/11-6.

Question Number. 2. Windshield heating provides.

Option [Link] expansion for a tighter fit.
Option [Link] resistance enhancement.
Option [Link] strength to resist cabin pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] resistance enhancement.

Question Number. 3. At what pressure and temperature is anti ice fluid applied?.
Option A. 7°F at 100 PSI.
Option B.70°C at 100 PSI.
Option C. 70°F at 10 PSI.
Correct Answer is.70°C at 100 PSI.

Question Number. 4. The advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is.

Option [Link] of a fire hazard.
Option [Link] shape is not disturbed.
Option C. more efficient.
Correct Answer [Link] shape is not disturbed.
[Link] advantage of leading edge fluid de-icing is aerodynamic shape is not disturbed.

Question Number. 5. On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is.
Option [Link] system for both sides but with the same power source.
Option [Link] on each side but with the same power source.
Option [Link] on each side with different power sources.
Correct Answer [Link] on each side with different power sources.

Question Number. 6. Prior to securing a leading edge de-icing boot you must.
Option [Link] all paint.
Option [Link] the surface.
Option [Link] rivet to prevent further abrasion.
Correct Answer [Link] all paint.

Question Number. 7. On a 'hot rod' type of ice detector, it is switched on.

Option A. all the time.
Option [Link] selected by the crew.
Option [Link] in the air.
Correct Answer [Link] selected by the crew.

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Question Number. 8. Ice formation on wings is due to.

Option [Link] ice crystals melting on contact with the wing and instantly re-freezing.
Option [Link] crystals forming layers on contact with the wing.
Option [Link] water changing state on contact with the wing.
Correct Answer [Link] water changing state on contact with the wing.

Question Number. 9. When a vibrating rod ice detector has de-iced, the warning lamp on the flight
deck.
Option [Link] out immediately.
Option [Link] out after one more cycle.
Option [Link] out after a set period of time.
Correct Answer [Link] out after a set period of time.

Question Number. 10. De-misting of passenger windows is provided by.

Option [Link] window.
Option [Link] electrical heating element.
Option [Link] from the cabin.
Correct Answer [Link] from the cabin.

Question Number. 11. A deicer boot is completely bonded to the leading edge to.
Option [Link] smoother airflow over leading edge.
Option [Link] electrical static build up.
Option [Link] more efficient deicer cycles.
Correct Answer [Link] electrical static build up.
[Link] AL/11-1 3.4 (unless they mean 'bonded' as in cemented. In which case the answer is b).

Question Number. 12. In a cockpit window heater system, the autotransformer.

Option [Link] DC power for heating.
Option [Link] AC Power for heating.
Option [Link] up output for severe weather conditions.
Correct Answer [Link] up output for severe weather conditions.

Question Number. 13. Windshield rain repellent is applied.

Option [Link] rain is on windows and spread by wipers.
Option [Link] rain and spread on window surface by wipers.
Option [Link] in heavy rain so vision is unobscured.
Correct Answer [Link] rain is on windows and spread by wipers.

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Question Number. 14. Pneumatic rain removal systems.

Option [Link] engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen.
Option [Link] not permitted on large transport aircraft.
Option [Link] a pneumatic motor to drive windscreen wipers.
Correct Answer [Link] engine bleed air at high velocity to remove water droplets from windscreen.

Question Number. 15. Windscreen wiper torque tests are carried out at.
Option [Link] attachment end.
Option [Link] point of the blade.
Option C. the shaft end.
Correct Answer [Link] shaft end.

Question Number. 16. Windscreen autotransformers.

Option [Link] down voltage.
Option [Link] up voltage.
Option [Link] used to supply extra current under difficult conditions.
Correct Answer [Link] up voltage.

Question Number. 17. An ice deposit formed when liquid water flows over the airframe before freezing,
and which is dense, tough and sticks closely to the surface is called.
Option A. glaze Ice.
Option B. rime Ice.
Option C. hoar Frost.
Correct Answer [Link] Ice.

Question Number. 18. When testing pitot head heaters.

Option [Link] can only be checked by noting the temperature rise of the probe.
Option [Link] must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability.
Option [Link] should be switched on for five minutes to allow to stabilise before taking ammeter readings.
Correct Answer [Link] must only be switched on for the minimum time required to check serviceability.

Question Number. 19. A rotary knife edge ice detector provides warning of ice by.
Option [Link] torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning light
in the cockpit.
Option [Link] torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a warning
light in the cockpit.

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Option [Link] formation stopping the rotation of a rotary knife edge and illuminating a warning light in the
cockpit.
Correct Answer [Link] torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and illuminating a
warning light in the cockpit. OR increased torque caused by ice formation slowing the rotating wheel and
illuminating a warning light in the cockpit.

Question Number. 20. Windscreen heating is supplied from.

Option [Link] wild generator, direct to the windscreen.
Option [Link] generator, via a transformer.
Option [Link] wild generator, via a rectifier.
Correct Answer [Link] wild generator, direct to the windscreen.

Question Number. 21. A wing thermal anti-ice annunciator is illuminated permanently in flight deck
without selection being made. The most probable cause would be.
Option A. a short circuit.
Option [Link] open circuit.
Option C. normal.
Correct Answer is.a short circuit.

Question Number. 22. Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from.
Option [Link] conditioning ducting.
Option [Link] compressors.
Option C.a combustion heater.
Correct Answer [Link] compressors.

Question Number. 23. The usual material for pipelines in a fluid deice system.
Option A. stainless steel.
Option B. Monel.
Option C. nylon.
Correct Answer is. nylon.

Question Number. 24. When operating a windscreen wiper on the ground, make sure to.
Option [Link] slow wiper only.
Option [Link] water as lubricant when operating.
Option [Link] soft cloth between blade and window.
Correct Answer [Link] water as lubricant when operating.

Question Number. 25. What is run-back ice?.

Option A. Glaze ice.
Option B. Rime ice.
Option C. Glime ice.
Correct Answer [Link] ice.

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11A.13. Landing Gear (ATA 32).

Question Number. 1. Spongy brakes are usually a result of.

Option [Link] leakage.
Option [Link] in the system.
Option [Link] leakage.
Correct Answer [Link] in the system.

Question Number. 2. Over inflated tyres may cause damage to the.

Option A. brake drum.
Option B. wheel hub.
Option C. wheel flange.
Correct Answer [Link] flange.

Question Number. 3. A brake debooster valve is provided for.

Option [Link] brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly.
Option [Link] the pressure and applying the brakes rapidly.
Option [Link] the pressure and slowly releasing the brakes.
Correct Answer [Link] brake pressure slowly and releasing the the brakes quickly.

Question Number. 4. Tubeless tyres are stored.

Option [Link] 15 to 20 P.S.I.
Option [Link] maximum of four high with smallest diameter tyre on top.
Option C. vertically.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 5. On a wheel bogie unit, positive camber is when the.

Option [Link] of the wheels are closer together.
Option [Link] of the wheels are closer together.
Option [Link] of the wheels are closer together.
Correct Answer [Link] of the wheels are closer together.

Question Number. 6. A badly corroded and pitted brake disk will.

Option [Link] brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced.
Option [Link] serviceable, and provide better grip.
Option [Link] a loss of fluid.
Correct Answer [Link] brake pads too quickly, and should be replaced.

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[Link] corroded brakes should be replaced.

Question Number. 7. How much oxygen is in a tyre (as a maximum)?.

Option A.5% by pressure.
Option B.15% by volume.
Option C. 5% by volume.
Correct Answer is.5% by volume.

Question Number. 8. A tyre specification 32 x 10.75-14. What does the 10.75 refer to.
Option A. Section Width.
Option B. Bead diameter.
Option [Link] diameter.
Correct Answer [Link] Width.

Question Number. 9. When servicing an oleo, fluid comes out of the air valve when the leg is
depressurised?.
Option [Link] leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed.
Option [Link] air/oil seals.
Option [Link] plate stuck open.
Correct Answer [Link] leg is serviceable - the separator has bottomed.

Question Number. 10. The type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon.
Option [Link] of fluid most readily available.
Option [Link] type of seal material.
Option [Link] generated in operation of the system.
Correct Answer [Link] generated in operation of the system.
[Link] type of fluid in an oleo strut will depend upon heat generated in operation of the system.

Question Number. 11. A restrictor valve.

Option [Link] up the flow in one direction.
Option [Link] be used to slow down undercarriage extension.
Option [Link] the extent of travel of the undercarriage.
Correct Answer [Link] be used to slow down undercarriage extension.

Question Number. 12. The function of the oil in a shock absorber is to.
Option [Link] the separator does not bottom.
Option [Link] the rebound.
Option [Link] the landing shock.
Correct Answer [Link] the rebound.

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Question Number. 13. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to.
Option [Link] free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension.
Option [Link] the compression of the air.
Option [Link] the oil from the air.
Correct Answer [Link] free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension.

Question Number. 14. Made up wheels should be stored.

Option [Link] at working pressure.
Option [Link] at 20/30 PSI charge.
Option [Link] no more than 4 high.
Correct Answer [Link] at 20/30 PSI charge.

Question Number. 15. "After MLG down and securely locked, a red light is illuminated
n the flight deck. The possible causes are."
Option [Link] sensor.
Option [Link] of adjustment sensor.
Option [Link] problem.
Correct Answer [Link] of adjustment sensor.

Question Number. 16. When checking for alignment of a MLG, check.

Option [Link], tracking, camber.
Option [Link], splay, tracking.
Option [Link], twist, tracking.
Correct Answer [Link], tracking, camber.

Question Number. 17. These markings are found on a tyre32 x 10.45 R [Link] does the number 32
mean?.
Option [Link] diameter.
Option B. qwidth.
Option [Link] diameter.
Correct Answer [Link] diameter.

Question Number. 18. A green/grey dot marking on aircraft tyre casing represents.
Option [Link] points.
Option [Link] light part of the tyre.
Option [Link] reference.
Correct Answer [Link] points.

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Question Number. 19. In detachable flange type wheels, the flange is secured by.
Option A.a retainer plate.
Option B. a lock ring.
Option C. bolts.
Correct Answer is.a lock ring.

Question Number. 20. Fuse plugs in aircraft tyres are.

Option [Link] over temperature protection.
Option [Link] overpressure protection.
Option [Link] deflate the tyre before removal.
Correct Answer [Link] overpressure protection.
[Link]/3-19 3.1.2 Fuse plugs protect the tyre from explosion due to overpressure, albeit the
overpressure as a result of temperature rise.

Question Number. 21. A breaker strip in an aircraft tyre is.

Option [Link] provide strength.
Option [Link] provide a wear indication.
Option [Link] indicate the position for tyre levers.
Correct Answer [Link] provide strength.

Question Number. 22. If fluid leaks along with air whilst oleo charging, this is.
Option [Link] by a leaky seal.
Option B. normal.
Option [Link] to excessive charging pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] by a leaky seal.

Question Number. 23. A red dot / triangle mark on aircraft tyres means.
Option [Link] reference.
Option [Link] light part of the tyre.
Option [Link] points.
Correct Answer [Link] light part of the tyre.

Question Number. 24. On selection of MLG down, the gear extends then begins to retract again. The
cause is.
Option A. a faulty selector valve.
Option B.a faulty actuator.
Option [Link] lowered at too high an airspeed.
Correct Answer is.a faulty selector valve.

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Question Number. 25. When fitting a tyre, the red dot should be positioned.
Option [Link] the other side of the wheel opposite to the charging valve.
Option [Link] the charging valve.
Option [Link] to the charging valve.
Correct Answer [Link] to the charging valve.

Question Number. 26. Composite brake units.

Option [Link] the same as normal brake units and fade away athigh temperatures.
Option [Link] less weight than normal brake units but fade away at high temperatures.
Option [Link] less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high temperatures.
Correct Answer [Link] less weight than normal brake units and have increased efficiency at high
temperatures.

Question Number. 27. A restrictor valve can be used.

Option [Link] increase the speed of undercarriage retraction.
Option [Link] increase the speed of the undercarriage extension.
Option [Link] reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension.
Correct Answer [Link] reduce the speed of the undercarriage extension.

Question Number. 28. When an undercarriage is lowered, it tends to creep back up. The fault could be.

Option [Link] emergency system.

Option B.a leaky selector valve.
Option C.a stuck relief valve.
Correct Answer is.a leaky selector valve.

Question Number. 29. Vents holes are found on.

Option A. tubeless tyres.
Option B. tubed tyres.
Option [Link] and tubeless tyres.
Correct Answer [Link] and tubeless tyres.
[Link]/3-18 2.4. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 9-42 says both tubed and tubeless. So does
Dunlop General Servicing Instructions.

Question Number. 30. At what temperature does a yellow fuse plug melt at?.
Option A. 150°C.
Option B. 250°C.
Option C. 200°C.

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Correct Answer is. 200°C.

[Link] 757 Carbon Brake wheel, Description and Operation 32-42-82 Part AHA1648 - Yellow Plug
Temperature 390°F.

Question Number. 31. The cam plate in a nose undercarriage is.

Option [Link] of the shimmy damper.
Option [Link] align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction.
Option [Link] alignment of the nose wheel steering on nose undercarriage extension.
Correct Answer [Link] align for nose wheel on nose undercarriage retraction.

Question Number. 32. What is tyre creep related to?.

Option [Link] movement of the tyre.
Option [Link] movement of the tyre.
Option [Link] moving around the wheel.
Correct Answer [Link] moving around the wheel.

Question Number. 33. Aquaplaning' can be reduced by.

Option [Link] flaring.
Option B. lowering slats.
Option [Link] anti-skid device.
Correct Answer [Link] anti-skid device.

Question Number. 34. .Why is a hydraulic damper fitted to a nose wheel steering system?.
Option [Link] reduce vibration and shimmy.
Option [Link] centralise the nose wheel during an up selection.
Option [Link] centralise the nose leg assembly during an up selection.
Correct Answer [Link] reduce vibration and shimmy.

Question Number. 35. What decides the type of oil used in an undercarriage leg?.
Option [Link] material of the leg.
Option [Link] types of seals the leg uses.
Option [Link], any oil can be used.
Correct Answer [Link] types of seals the leg uses.

Question Number. 36. In an anti-skid system.

Option [Link] are modulated to give most efficient braking.
Option [Link] release on rising torque.
Option [Link] release on falling torque.
Correct Answer [Link] are modulated to give most efficient braking.

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Question Number. 37. If an undercarriage oleo has insufficient deflection, the likely cause is.
Option [Link] level too high.
Option [Link] of pressure/leakage.
Option [Link] pressure too high.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure too high.

Question Number. 38. A Maxaret is used in what system?.

Option A. Tyre inflation.
Option B. Skid control.
Option [Link] centring landing gear.
Correct Answer [Link] control.

Question Number. 39. The pilot receives an audible warning on the flight deck as the aircraft is
descending to land. The most likely reason for this warning is.
Option [Link] airspeed is too high.
Option [Link] landing gear is not locked down.
Option [Link] rate of descent is too high.
Correct Answer [Link] landing gear is not locked down.

Question Number. 40. A restrictor in the landing gear hydraulic retraction and lowering system is
positioned in the.
Option [Link] gear up line.
Option [Link] gear down line.
Option [Link] line from the landing gear selector.
Correct Answer [Link] gear up line.
[Link] restrictor is placed in the retraction line to slow the rate of exit of fluid from the jack on
extension, to slow the rate of extension. CAIPs AL/3-6 fig 4 sows them in the down line - this is a well known
error in CAIPs.

Question Number. 41. Wheel speed information is used in auto speed brake systems.
Option [Link] stow the spoilers automatically when the aircraft has nearly stopped.
Option [Link] ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler deployment.
Option [Link] ensure the aircraft is still rolling.
Correct Answer [Link] ensure the aircraft has touched down and to give a slight time lapse before spoiler
deployment.

Question Number. 42. A fusible plug fitted to an aircraft wheel prevents.

Option [Link] inflation of tyres during servicing.

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Option [Link] seizure, if brake stators and rotors weld together under excessive temperatures.
Option [Link] bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking.
Correct Answer [Link] bursts due to high temperatures created by excessive braking.

Question Number. 43. If the shuttle valve was stuck in the normal position.
Option [Link] system will be available.
Option [Link] braking will not be available.
Option [Link] braking will not be available.
Correct Answer [Link] braking will not be available.

Question Number. 44. The breaker strip of a tyre is fitted.

Option [Link] the apex strip and the casing piles.
Option [Link] the bead and the casing piles.
Option [Link] the tread rubber and the casing piles.
Correct Answer [Link] the tread rubber and the casing piles.

Question Number. 45. Nose wheel steering in a modern aircraft is by.

Option A. rudder pedals.
Option [Link] control column.
Option C.a separate pilot operated control.
Correct Answer is.a separate pilot operated control.

Question Number. 46. The fusible plugs installed in some aircraft wheel will.
Option [Link] servicing of the wheel assembly.
Option [Link] at a specified elevated temperature.
Option [Link] the need to check air pressure
Correct Answer [Link] at a specified elevated temperature.

Question Number. 47. Excessive wear in the shoulder area of an aircraft tyre is an indication of.
Option [Link]-inflation.
Option B. over-inflation.
Option [Link] toe-in.
Correct Answer [Link]-inflation.

Question Number. 48. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to.
Option [Link] top of the tie bar.
Option [Link] base of the tie bar.
Option C.1 mm from the rib base.
Correct Answer [Link] top of the tie bar.

Question Number. 49. On large aircraft, bogie type undercarriages are used to.
Option [Link] the weight over a large area.

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Option [Link] increased landing shock.

Option [Link] skidding.
Correct Answer [Link] the weight over a large area.

Question Number. 50. To position the bogie beam at a suitable angle for retraction and landing, a.

Option [Link] damper is used.

Option [Link] is used.
Option [Link] damper is used.
Correct Answer [Link] damper is used.

Question Number. 51. On large aircraft, braked wheel assemblies are normally inflated with.
Option A. nitrogen.
Option [Link] argon and CO2 mixture.
Option [Link] and not more than 5% of air.
Correct Answer [Link] and not more than 5% of air.

Question Number. 52. Brake deboosters.

Option [Link] the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.
Option [Link] the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.
Option [Link] the operation of the anti-skid unit.
Correct Answer [Link] the hydraulic pressure entering the brakes.

Question Number. 53. A modulator is fitted in conjunction with.

Option [Link] control valves.
Option [Link]-return valve.
Option C. anti-skid units.
Correct Answer [Link]-skid units.

Question Number. 54. In the case of pressurized aircraft, the nose-wheel bay.
Option [Link] pressurized to a value higher than ambient but less than cabin pressure.
Option [Link] subject to cabin pressure.
Option [Link] not pressurized.
Correct Answer [Link] not pressurized.

Question Number. 55. An undercarriage that has the axle mounted directly onto the shock absorber is
of which type.

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Option A. Articulated.
Option [Link] Mechanical.
Option C. Direct Acting.
Correct Answer [Link] Acting.

Question Number. 56. The minimum aquaplaning ground speed is.

Option A.9.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.
Option B.8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.
Option C.8.6 times the tyre pressure in bar.
Correct Answer is.8.6 times the root square of the tyre pressure in psi.

Question Number. 57. Tubed tyres are stored.

Option [Link], up to 4 in total staggering them to prevent distortion of beads.
Option [Link], up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2 points.
Option [Link], up to 4 in total with the smallest at the top.
Correct Answer [Link], up to 4 in total in a rack with supporting tubes so each tyre is supported at 2
points.

Question Number. 58. On a main landing gear, what is positive camber?.

Option [Link] of wheels closer to fuselage.
Option [Link] of wheels closer to fuselage.
Option [Link] of wheels closer to fuselage.
Correct Answer [Link] of wheels closer to fuselage.

Question Number. 59. When the landing gear is locked up, the cockpit indicator shows.
Option A. red light.
Option B. no indication.
Option C. green light.
Correct Answer [Link] indication.

Question Number. 60. When checking the alignment of a main landing gear, check.
Option [Link], tracking, camber.
Option [Link], tracking, twist.
Option [Link], tracking, splay.
Correct Answer [Link], tracking, camber.

Question Number. 61. Tyre creep could be caused by.

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Option A. overpressure.
Option [Link] wear.
Option [Link] pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure.

Question Number. 62. When inflating a tyre and you notice ice in the valve stem.
Option [Link] the valve stem gently with a blow torch.
Option [Link] for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation.
Option [Link] on inflating as ice in the valve stem is no problem.
Correct Answer [Link] for ice to melt before carrying on with inflation.

Question Number. 63. A method of helping to prevent aquaplaning is by fitting tyres which have.

Option [Link] dispersing treads.

Option B. a plain tread.
Option C. twin contact.
Correct Answer [Link] dispersing treads.

Question Number. 64. Un-mounted tubeless tyres must be stored.

Option A. vertically.
Option B. horizontally.
Option [Link] the manufactures boxes.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 65. With a single oleo leg with a stub axle used, the torque links will.
Option [Link] the wheel in track.
Option B. assist the wheel to castor.
Option [Link] the wheel to shimmy.
Correct Answer [Link] the wheel in track.

Question Number. 66. When fitting a tyre to a hub, the red spot on the tyre should be in line with.

Option [Link]'s serial number.

Option [Link] valve assembly.
Option [Link] side to the valve assembly.
Correct Answer [Link] valve assembly.

Question Number. 67. A red or yellow line on an inner tube would indicate.

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Option A. light spot.

Option [Link] indicator.
Option C. heavy spot.
Correct Answer [Link] spot.

Question Number. 68. On a multi-brake unit with automatic adjusters, brake wear is checked by.
Option [Link] a go-no go gauge to measure the gap between the cylinder and the thrust plate.
Option [Link] of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion.
Option [Link] the protrusion of the indicator pins with the brakes released.
Correct Answer [Link] of the brakes and checking indicator pin protrusion.
[Link] component maintenance manual Ch. 32-42-98.

11A.14. Lights (ATA 33).

Question Number. 1. With aircraft lights - which of the following is true?.

Option [Link] light green, port light red, tail light white.
Option [Link] light red, port light green, tail light Red.
Option [Link] light red, port light green, tail light White.
Correct Answer [Link] light green, port light red, tail light white.

Question Number. 2. Emergency floor lighting system is inoperative, then.

Option [Link] aircraft is not allowed to fly until repaired.
Option [Link] aircraft is allowed to fly in daylight conditions only.
Option [Link] aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base.
Correct Answer [Link] aircraft is allowed to fly empty to a main base.
[Link] fly without passengers in accordance with the MEL. No reference found.

Question Number. 3. A fluorescent tube contains.

Option [Link] coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour.
Option [Link] coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour.
Option [Link] coatings and rare gases.
Correct Answer [Link] coatings, rare gases and mercury vapour.

Question Number. 4. A white steady light is required.

Option [Link] at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern.
Option [Link] at least 3 lumens, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern.
Option [Link] at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 110 degrees either side of dead astern.

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Correct Answer [Link] at least 3 candelas, at the rear of the aircraft 70 degrees either side of dead astern.

Question Number. 5. How many floor path lights can you fly with unserviceable?.
Option A. 15%.
Option B. 25%.
Option C. 20%.
Correct Answer is. 25%.

Question Number. 6. What is the arc of a landing light?.

Option A. 15°.
Option B. 11°.
Option C. 20°.
Correct Answer is. 11°.

Question Number. 7. The visible angle of a white tail navigation light is.
Option A. 11°.
Option B. 140°.
Option C. 110°.
Correct Answer is. 140°.

Question Number. 8. Wing navigation lights must be visible through which angle?.
Option A. 110°.
Option B. 125°.
Option C. 180°.
Correct Answer is. 110°.

Question Number. 9. Cockpit dome lighting is provided by the.

Option [Link] bus and ground services bus.
Option B. battery bus.
Option [Link] services bus.
Correct Answer [Link] bus and ground services bus.

Question Number. 10. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured.
Option A. green.
Option B. red.
Option C. white.
Correct Answer is. red.

Question Number. 11. Cargo bay lights on a modern aircraft are supplied by.
Option [Link] handling bus.

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Option [Link] handling bus.

Option [Link] battery bus.
Correct Answer [Link] handling bus.
[Link] 146 AMM (AC ground service busbar) although other aircraft (A340, B747) use 28VDC ground
bus.

Question Number. 12. What will happen if the Master Dim and test switch is switched to the on
position?.
Option [Link] indicator lights will illuminate.
Option [Link] lights will illuminate.
Option [Link] lights will illuminate.
Correct Answer [Link] indicator lights will illuminate.

Question Number. 13. Escape route lighting must not have more than.
Option A. 20% obscured.
Option B. 10% obscured.
Option C. 15% obscured.
Correct Answer is.20% obscured.

Question Number. 14. How many emergency lights are allowed to be inoperative?.
Option A. 25%.
Option B. 10%.
Option C. None.
Correct Answer is. 25%.

Question Number. 15. The angle of a runway turnoff light is.

Option A. 40°.
Option B. 60°.
Option C. 50°.
Correct Answer is. 50°.

Question Number. 16. Cabin fluorescent lighting circuits are supplied with.
Option A. 28 V DC.
Option B. 115 V AC.
Option C. 28 V AC.
Correct Answer is.115 V AC.

Question Number. 17. How are passenger reading lights normally tested?.
Option [Link] one is switched on individually at passenger panel.

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Option [Link] using a READ LIGHT TEST switch at any passenger panel.
Option [Link] using a READ LIGHT TEST switch on the cabin attendant panel.
Correct Answer [Link] one is switched on individually at passenger panel.

Question Number. 18. In what position should the selector switch be for a standby and emergency
lighting system during flight.
Option A. Armed.
Option B. OFF.
Option C. ON.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 19. The emergency lighting system must be designed so that after any single
transverse vertical separation of the fuselage during crash landing the maximum amount of emergency
lighting that fails is.
Option A. 15%.
Option B. 10%.
Option C. 25%.
Correct Answer is. 25%.

Question Number. 20. A rotating beacon must have a minimum light rating of.
Option A. 100 candelas.
Option B. 50 candelas.
Option C. 20 candelas.
Correct Answer is.20 candelas.

Question Number. 21. Service lights include.

Option [Link] lights, engine scanning lights, logo lights.
Option [Link] bay lights, engine scanning lights, baggage compartment lights.
Option [Link] compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights.
Correct Answer [Link] compartment lights, avionics bay lights, refuelling lights.

Question Number. 22. If the 'blow-back' device on a landing lamp operates, how is it reset?.
Option [Link] linkage must be repositioned and latched when the aircraft is on the ground.
Option [Link] full 'RETRACT'.
Option [Link] cannot. The unit must be replaced because of the high stress loads experienced.
Correct Answer [Link] full 'RETRACT'.

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Question Number. 23. Before touching or disconnecting a strobe light head, a time period must elapse
to avoid electrical shock or burning. That time period is at least.
Option A. 2 minutes.
Option B. 5 minutes.
Option C. 1 minute.
Correct Answer is.2 minutes.

Question Number. 24. The rear light of an aircraft must be white and, in addition, must show through
an inclusive angle of.
Option A.110 degrees and be 5 candelas minimum.
Option B.110 degrees and be 40 candelas minimum.
Option C.140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum.
Correct Answer is.140 degrees and be 3 candelas minimum.

Question Number. 25. Self-illuminating signs.

Option [Link] instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted.
Option [Link] a period of daylight, or intense artificial light to operate.
Option [Link] self powered and contain phosphor and helium gas.
Correct Answer [Link] instantly seen in dark areas by persons who are not dark adapted.

Question Number. 26. When an annunciator light is selected to 'DIM', the resistor is in.
Option [Link] with the light and the transistor is not conducting.
Option [Link] with the light and the transistor is not conducting.
Option [Link] with the light and the transistor is conducting.
Correct Answer [Link] with the light and the transistor is conducting.
[Link] transistor is conducting all the time the light is switched on. Pallett - Aircraft Electrical
Systems. Page 153.

Question Number. 27. Storm lights are usually fluorescent lights that are switched on.
Option [Link] lightning has less effect on fluorescent lamp units.
Option [Link] the glare-shield lights are automatically dimmed.
Option [Link] reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight.
Correct Answer [Link] reduce the effect of lightning on the pilot's sight.

Question Number. 28. Captain and First Officer's 'Dome' lights can be dimmed.
Option [Link] - they are wired in parallel.
Option [Link] - they are wired in series.
Option [Link] Officer's only in emergency mode.
Correct Answer [Link] - they are wired in series.

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Question Number. 29. In the CWS system, the caution light is coloured.
Option A. red.
Option B. amber.
Option C. green.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 30. On a CWS, which has the highest priority?.

Option A. Fire warning.
Option [Link] pump failure.
Option C. Duct overheat.
Correct Answer [Link] warning.

Question Number. 31. What inert gas is used in a typical strobe light?.
Option A. Freon.
Option B. Halon.
Option C. Xenon.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 32. Floor proximity lighting is a mandatory requirement and each light should be
spaced.
Option [Link] 60 inch intervals.
Option [Link] 70 inch intervals.
Option [Link] 40 inch intervals.
Correct Answer [Link] 40 inch intervals.

Question Number. 33. Tritium Gas is used in a.

Option A. strobe light.
Option B. landing Light.
Option [Link] illuminating lights.
Correct Answer [Link] illuminating lights.

Question Number. 34. A strobe light is a light unit that takes form of glass tube filled with which gas and
its light colour is what?.
Option [Link] Gas and blue-white.
Option [Link] gas and white.
Option [Link] gas and blue.
Correct Answer [Link] Gas and blue-white.

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Question Number. 35. The aircraft has a partial failure of its emergency lighting system.
Option [Link] with reduced passenger load.
Option [Link] flight to main base for rectification.
Option [Link] the aircraft.
Correct Answer [Link] with reduced passenger load.
Explanation.A club66 user who got this question, queried it with the CAA. He was told (by the CAA
assessor)that the answer is b. However, no reference has been found.

Question Number. 36. Navigation lights are supplied by the following circuit.
Option A. Dual circuit.
Option B. Single circuit.
Option [Link] circuits.
Correct Answer [Link] circuit.

Question Number. 37. Automatic no smoking sign will illuminate.

Option [Link] 10,000ft and descending.
Option [Link] landing gear doors are not closed.
Option [Link] landing gear is up.
Correct Answer [Link] 10,000ft and descending.

11A.15. Oxygen (ATA 35).

Question Number. 1. Anoxia is due to.

Option A. lack of oxygen.
Option [Link] air pressure on the body.
Option [Link] of nitrogen bubbles in the blood.
Correct Answer [Link] of oxygen.

Question Number. 2. The dilutor demand regulator functions.

Option A. all the time.
Option [Link] when the supply valve is opened by the user.
Option [Link] the user breathes in.
Correct Answer [Link] the user breathes in.

Question Number. 3. To measure moisture in an oxygen system use.

Option A. a glass plate.
Option B. litmus paper.
Option C.a hygrometer using the dew point method.

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Correct Answer is.a hygrometer using the dew point method.

Question Number. 4. Oxygen cylinder test dates.

Option [Link] painted in white on the cylinder.
Option [Link] variable depending on discharge.
Option [Link] be stencilled on the neck of the cylinder.
Correct Answer [Link] painted in white on the cylinder.

Question Number. 5. 02 system pressure has leaked away after charging. What is the most probable
cause?.
Option [Link] regular.
Option [Link] compensator.
Option [Link] regulator.
Correct Answer [Link] regulator.

Question Number. 6. If an O2 system is leaking, where would you most likely find the cause?.
Option [Link] Relief Valve.
Option [Link] connection.
Option [Link] mask.
Correct Answer [Link] connection.
[Link] TRV on O2 system. Breathing mask will only leak if system is turned on.

Question Number. 7. As the cabin altitude reaches 3042 metres.

Option [Link] 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew activates the system from the emergency panel.
Option [Link] 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended.
Option [Link] 02 masks deploy automatically and the crew must activate the system from the cockpit.
Correct Answer [Link] 02 masks deploy automatically and hang half way extended.
Explanation.

Question Number. 8. Oxygen cylinders are normally fitted with.

Option [Link] and quantity gauges.
Option [Link] purity gauge.
Option [Link] gauge.
Correct Answer [Link] and quantity gauges.

Question Number. 9. A demand regulator in a portable oxygen bottle opens.

Option A. all the time.
Option [Link] breathing.
Option [Link] 100% selected.
Correct Answer [Link] breathing.

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Question Number. 10. Portable oxygen bottles are fitted with.

Option A.a demand regulator.
Option [Link] overpressure indicator.
Option [Link] over temperature indicator.
Correct Answer is.a demand regulator.

Question Number. 11. American made crew oxygen cylinders are.

Option [Link] in colour with a RH thread.
Option [Link] in colour with a LH thread.
Option [Link] in colour with a RH thread.
Correct Answer [Link] in colour with a RH thread.
[Link]\'s Leaflet 5-9 p7 para 4.2.3 states green for cylinders for American origin. (l/h threads are
for charging points).

Question Number. 12. Which connector has a left hand thread?.

Option A. N2.
Option B. Freon.
Option C. O2.
Correct Answer is. O2.

Question Number. 13. What is the principle of an O2 generator?.

Option [Link] chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.
Option [Link] chlorate and iron using a mechanical detonator producing O2 when mixed with air.
Option [Link] chloride and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.
Correct Answer [Link] chlorate and iron mixed by an electronic detonator.

Question Number. 14. What pressure are oxygen cylinders usually pressurised to?.
Option A. 300 PSI.
Option B. 1800 PSI.
Option C. 3000 PSI.
Correct Answer is.1800 PSI.

Question Number. 15. Oxygen storage cylinders, once charged should be.
Option [Link] on by crew.
Option B. turned off.
Option [Link] on and safety wire-locked.
Correct Answer [Link] on and safety wire-locked.

Question Number. 16. A thermal compensator is used in.

Option A. a fuel system.

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Option [Link] oxygen system.

Option [Link] hydraulic system.
Correct Answer [Link] oxygen system.

Question Number. 17. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is.
Option [Link] into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient.
Option [Link] into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature.
Option [Link] into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down.
Correct Answer [Link] into the bottle slowly to keep the temperature at approximately ambient.

Question Number. 18. Where are the left handed threads found in an oxygen system?.
Option A. Line valve.
Option B. Shut-off valve.
Option [Link] connection.
Correct Answer [Link] connection.

Question Number. 19. Portable O2 diluter demand valve works when.

Option [Link] user breathes in.
Option B.100% is selected.
Option [Link] than 500 psi is in bottle.
Correct Answer [Link] user breathes in.

Question Number. 20. A double headed oxygen pressure regulator is used for.
Option [Link] flightcrew.
Option [Link] in altitude.
Option [Link] supply in case of emergency.
Correct Answer [Link] flightcrew.

Question Number. 21. If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14, 000 ft.
Option [Link] must get mask from overhead stowage.
Option [Link] drop automatically.
Option [Link] must drop masks.
Correct Answer [Link] drop automatically.

Question Number. 22. How do oxygen cylinders show over pressure?.

Option [Link] rupturing disc.

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Option [Link] warning.

Option [Link] rupturing disc.
Correct Answer [Link] rupturing disc.

Question Number. 23. The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is.

Option A. 2 years.
Option B. 10 years.
Option C. 5 years.
Correct Answer is.5 years.

Question Number. 24. A discharged chemical generator is indicated by.

Option A.a protruding pin.
Option B.a change in colour.
Option C.a broken tell-tale wire.
Correct Answer is.a change in colour.

Question Number. 25. A chemical oxygen generator has a supply duration of at least.
Option A. 15 minutes.
Option B. 30 minutes.
Option C. 5 minutes.
Correct Answer is.15 minutes.

Question Number. 26. The oxygen line service valve must be.
Option [Link] locked open.
Option [Link] locked closed.
Option [Link] be wire locked with telltale wire.
Correct Answer [Link] locked open.

Question Number. 27. Oxygen equipment must be carried by aircraft capable of flying above.
Option A. 4,000 ft.
Option B. 10,000ft.
Option C. 8,000ft.
Correct Answer is.10,000ft.

Question Number. 28. The critical altitude for oxygen requirement is approximately.
Option A. 38,000 ft.

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Option B. 25,000 ft.

Option C. 4,000 ft.
Correct Answer is.25,000 ft.

Question Number. 29. If oxygen is not being supplied in normal flight conditions, the cabin altitude
must be.
Option [Link] a maximum of 12,000 ft.
Option [Link] or below 8,000 ft.
Option [Link] 10,000 ft.
Correct Answer [Link] or below 8,000 ft.

Question Number. 30. Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes.

Option [Link] 40,000 ft.
Option [Link] 40,000 ft.
Option [Link] 30,000 ft.
Correct Answer [Link] 40,000 ft.

Question Number. 31. In a diluter demand oxygen system.

Option [Link] is supplied with a continuous pressure flow.
Option [Link] member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply.
Option [Link] member of the crew has a regulator.
Correct Answer [Link] member of the crew has a regulator.

Question Number. 32. In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied.

Option [Link] when the supply has been regulated by the pilot.
Option [Link] passenger inhaling into the mask.
Option [Link] the mask is plugged into the socket.
Correct Answer [Link] when the supply has been regulated by the pilot.

Question Number. 33. In the diluter demand oxygen system, selection of emergency on this regulator will
result in.
Option A.100% oxygen at positive pressure.
Option B.100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure.
Option C.100% oxygen supply as the user inhales.
Correct Answer is.100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure.

Question Number. 34. The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of.

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Option A. aluminium.
Option B. stainless steel.
Option C. alloy steel.
Correct Answer [Link] steel.

Question Number. 35. Portable oxygen cylinders are normally charged to.
Option A. 1,800 p.s.i.
Option B. 2,000 p.s.i.
Option C. 1,200 p.s.i.
Correct Answer is.1,800 p.s.i.

Question Number. 36. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in.

Option [Link]/minute.
Option B. litres/pounds.
Option C. litres/minute.
Correct Answer [Link]/minute.

Question Number. 37. Oxygen cylinders are removed for overhaul and tested.
Option A. every 3 years.
Option B. every 6 years.
Option C. every 4 years.
Correct Answer [Link] 4 years.

Question Number. 38. Oxygen bottle capacity varies between.

Option A. 80 2250 litres.
Option B.100 3200 litres.
Option C.200 2250 litres.
Correct Answer is.80 2250 litres.

Question Number. 39. Oxygen bottle test and working pressures can be found.
Option [Link] on a metal label.
Option [Link] on the bottle.
Option [Link] on the neck ring.
Correct Answer [Link] on the neck ring.

Question Number. 40. After installation, the oxygen bottle on/off valve is.
Option [Link] in the 'on' position.

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Option [Link] in the 'off' position until required.

Option [Link] locked in the 'on'.
Correct Answer [Link] locked in the 'on'.

Question Number. 41. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders.

Option [Link] relieved by a bursting disc.
Option [Link] relieved by a thermostat.
Option [Link] relieved by under pressurising the bottle.
Correct Answer [Link] relieved by a bursting disc.

Question Number. 42. To avoid condensation forming in an oxygen cylinder.

Option [Link] pressure is left at 300/400 p.s.i.
Option [Link] pressure is left at 100/200 p.s.i.
Option [Link] pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure is left at 200/300 p.s.i.

Question Number. 43. What determines the material used for oxygen pipe lines?.
Option [Link] whims of the aircraft designer.
Option [Link] length of the pipe runs.
Option [Link] pressure used in the system.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure used in the system.

Question Number. 44. The direction of flow in an oxygen non return valve is indicated.
Option [Link] visual inspection.
Option [Link] colour coding.
Option C. by an arrow.
Correct Answer [Link] an arrow.

Question Number. 45. Oxygen filters are made of.

Option A. carbon fibres.
Option B. steel wool.
Option [Link] bronze.
Correct Answer [Link] bronze.

Question Number. 46. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen systems is indicated by.
Option [Link] indicators.

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Option [Link] indicators.

Option C. lack of Anoxia.
Correct Answer [Link] indicators.

Question Number. 47. If a binding thread needs attention on an oxygen system.

Option [Link] tape may be used.
Option [Link] water may be used sparingly.
Option [Link] lubricant may be used whatsoever.
Correct Answer [Link] tape may be used.

Question Number. 48. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipeline is a series of.
Option A. diamonds.
Option B. dots.
Option C. rectangles.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 49. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted.
Option [Link] with a white collar.
Option B. black.
Option [Link] with a black collar.
Correct Answer [Link] with a white collar.

Question Number. 50. A suitable leak detecting solution for use on oxygen systems is.
Option [Link] testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B.
Option B. soapy water.
Option [Link] free medical soap.
Correct Answer [Link] testing solution to Spec. MIL-L-25567B.

Question Number. 51. When charging an oxygen bottle with gaseous oxygen, the oxygen is.
Option [Link] into the bottle as quickly as possible to keep the temperature down.
Option [Link] into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient.
Option [Link] into the bottle at any rate as this does not affect temperature.
Correct Answer [Link] into the bottle slowly to keep temperature at approximately ambient.

Question Number. 52. In areas closely associated with oxygen systems, particular care must be taken to
avoid leaving.

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Option [Link] of oils or greases.

Option [Link] based plastic materials.
Option [Link] particles.
Correct Answer [Link] of oils or greases.

Question Number. 53. When working in the vicinity of an oxygen system.

Option [Link] area must be well ventilated.
Option [Link] electrical power must be used.
Option [Link] must not come into contact with the system.
Correct Answer [Link] must not come into contact with the system.

Question Number. 54. A chemical oxygen generator operates at.

Option A.45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes.
Option B.45°F at 10 psi for 15 minutes.
Option C.45°K at 10 psi for 15 minutes.
Correct Answer is.45°C at 10 psi for 15 minutes.

Question Number. 55. When charging an oxygen bottle in situ.

Option [Link] in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph.
Option [Link] slowly through a water trap.
Option [Link] off the retaining straps first.
Correct Answer [Link] in accordance with the temperature/pressure graph.

Question Number. 56. The gauge fitted to an oxygen bottle indicates.

Option A. pressure.
Option B. temperature.
Option C. purity.
Correct Answer [Link].

Question Number. 57. The application of thread lubrication tape in an oxygen system should be.
Option [Link] to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.
Option [Link] to all except the first two threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape.
Option [Link] to all the threads and not more than one complete wrap of tape.
Correct Answer [Link] to all except the first two threads and not more than 3 complete wraps of tape.

Question Number. 58. High pressure lines in oxygen systems are made of.
Option A. stainless steel.

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Option [Link] alloy.

Option C. titanium.
Correct Answer [Link] steel.

Question Number. 59. Lubricate oxygen connector threads using.

Option A. hellerene.
Option B. Teflon tape.
Option C. WD40.
Correct Answer [Link] tape.

Question Number. 60. How is an expended chemical oxygen generator indicated?.

Option A.A pressure seal would be broken.
Option [Link] a change in colour of heat sensitive paint.
Option [Link] indicator pin would be protruding.
Correct Answer [Link] a change in colour of heat sensitive paint.

Question Number. 61. Oxygen purging is a process of.

Option [Link] testing the system.
Option [Link] the flow rate from the regulator.
Option [Link] moisture from the system.
Correct Answer [Link] moisture from the system.

Question Number. 62. To check an oxygen system for moisture.

Option A.a sniff test is used.
Option B.a hygrometer is used.
Option [Link] 72 litres/min through a filter paper in a clean glass.
Correct Answer is.a hygrometer is used.

11A.16. Pneumatic/Vacuum (ATA 36).

Question Number. 1. When the moisture separator is purged in a pneumatic system, it dumps.
Option [Link] the moisture trap.
Option [Link] whole system.
Option [Link] system between compressor and regulator valve.
Correct Answer [Link] the moisture trap.

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Question Number. 2. The pneumatic system pump is a.

Option [Link] type.
Option [Link] vane type.
Option C. piston type.
Correct Answer [Link] type.
Explanation. Although smaller systems may have avane type.
Question Number. 3. In a pneumatic system, the maintainer valve will be fitted in supply lines to.

Option [Link] equipment.

Option B. all equipment.
Option [Link]-essential equipment.
Correct Answer [Link]-essential equipment.
[Link] AL/3-22. Maintainer valves work in same way as those in hydraulic systems (hence the
reference). Although they protect the flow to the essential systems, they do so by being situated in the non-
essential lines, and closing off if the pressure drops.

Question Number. 4. High pressure pneumatic source is a.

Option [Link] pump.
Option [Link] Compressor.
Option [Link] pump.
Correct Answer [Link] pump.

Question Number. 5. High pressure pneumatic pump is a.

Option [Link] pump.
Option B. spur gear.
Option [Link] pump.
Correct Answer [Link] pump.

Question Number. 6. If the pneumatic water drain trap is left open for a long time it will drain.
Option [Link] the compressor and the PRV.
Option [Link] the moisture trap.
Option C. all the system.
Correct Answer is. between the compressor and the PRV.

Question Number. 7. On a high pressure pneumatic system, if the drain plug for oil and water is left
open for long periods of time, the system would.
Option [Link] pressure from the compressor side only.
Option [Link] pneumatic pressure partially.
Option [Link] all pressure.
Correct Answer [Link] pressure from the compressor side only.

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Question Number. 8. Two compressors driven by separate engines use.

Option [Link] to share loads.
Option [Link] to prevent compressors driving each other.
Option C. PRVs.
Correct Answer [Link] to prevent compressors driving each other.

Question Number. 9. What is important about the air entering a dry air pump?.
Option [Link] must be filtered.
Option [Link] must be pressure controlled.
Option [Link] must be temperature controlled.
Correct Answer [Link] must be filtered.

Question Number. 10. What type of compressor is used on a pneumatic system?.

Option [Link] vane type.
Option B. Spur gear type.
Option [Link] displacement type.
Correct Answer [Link] displacement type.

11A.17. Water/Waste (ATA 38).

Question Number. 1. Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by.

Option [Link] protection.
Option B. water cooling.
Option [Link] fan on timer switch.
Correct Answer [Link] protection.

Question Number. 2. What is the purpose of thermal protection on electric toilet motor?.
Option [Link] motor overheating and become fire hazard.
Option [Link] toilet freezing.
Option [Link] motor running beyond 10 seconds if timer become unserviceable.
Correct Answer [Link] motor overheating and become fire hazard.

Question Number. 3. Waste water drain masts.

Option [Link] not heated.
Option [Link] heated using low amperage in the Air and on ground.
Option [Link] heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only.

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Correct Answer [Link] heated using low amperage with the aircraft on ground only.

Question Number. 4. the seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks.
Option [Link] seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks.
Option [Link] tank must be de-fuelled.
Option [Link] seal is not replaceable, the whole drain assembly must be replaced.
Correct Answer [Link] seal of the valve is replaceable without draining the tanks.

Question Number. 5. Drinking water pipes are prevented from freezing by.
Option [Link] of neoprene foam insulation.
Option [Link] the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons.
Option [Link] the pipes adjacent to hot water piping.
Correct Answer [Link] the pipes with heated tapes or ribbons.

Question Number. 6. Toilets are the subject of.

Option A. AWN 83.
Option B. AWN 79.
Option C. AWN 80.
Correct Answer [Link] 83.
[Link] the AWNs listed have now been removed. Download an old copy from the Forum.

Question Number. 7. Toilet waste valves are.

Option [Link] spring loaded.
Option [Link] loaded open.
Option [Link] loaded closed.
Correct Answer [Link] loaded closed.

Question Number. 8. The heater used on a drain mast would be a.

Option [Link] heater.
Option B. hot air blower.
Option C. ribbon heater.
Correct Answer [Link] heater.

Question Number. 9. A toilet recirculation fan is unserviceable in flight.

Option [Link] toilet until landing.
Option [Link] can use the toilet as the toxic chemical toilet.
Option [Link] can be overcome by thermal compensating device.
Correct Answer [Link] toilet until landing.
[Link] B737-400 mmel/ddg item 38-2, the associate lavatory system may be inop. with lav door
secured closed and placard 'INOPERATIVE- DO NOT ENTER'. Toilet recirc fan is part of the lav system.

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11A.18. On Board Maintenance Systems.

Question Number. 1. The real time on a CMC is when.

Option [Link] faults page is selected on the CDU.
Option [Link] test page is selected on the CDU.
Option [Link] history page is selected on the CDU.
Correct Answer [Link] faults page is selected on the CDU.

Question Number. 2. One of the inputs in a CMC is autopilot controls. The data will be stored in.

Option [Link] only after end of sector.

Option [Link]-volatile memory.
Option [Link] memory.
Correct Answer [Link]-volatile memory.

Question Number. 3. In an autoland aircraft fitted with a CMC.

Option [Link] faults are recorded in Volatile memory.
Option [Link] faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory.
Option [Link] Primary Faults are recorded.
Correct Answer [Link] faults are recorded in Non-Volatile memory.

Question Number. 4. In a CMC system, where would you find a 'real time' fault?.
Option A. In Test.
Option [Link] Fault History.
Option C. In Fault.
Correct Answer [Link] Fault.
[Link] Electricity and Electronics, Eismin, page 270-273. 'Real time' means reporting of a fault as
it occurs, not in Fault History or Test.

Question Number. 5. A modern aircraft CMC uses.

Option A. an LED display.
Option B.a magnetic fault indicator.
Option C. a CRT screen.
Correct Answer is.a CRT screen.

Question Number. 6. A Flight Data Recorder is activated when.

Option [Link] power is applied to the helicopter.
Option [Link] helicopters engines are started.
Option [Link] helicopter takes off.
Correct Answer [Link] helicopters engines are started.

Question Number. 7. In a CMC, warning signals are generated by.

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Option A. FMC.
Option B. CMC.
Option [Link] computer.
Correct Answer [Link] computer.

Question Number. 8. An aircraft condition monitoring system.

Option [Link] the source of a fault.
Option [Link] information to the central maintenance cell.
Option [Link] information for long term error analysis.
Correct Answer is. stores information for long term error analysis.

Question Number. 9. With a ACMS quick access recorder.

Option [Link] tape must not have been used before.
Option [Link] tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk erased.
Option [Link] must use digital tape.
Correct Answer [Link] tape can have been used previously if it is first bulk erased.

11A.19.

Question Number. 1. To purge and unpleasant odour/ moisture from an oxygen system you must.

Option [Link] empty and fill the system with oxygen at least 3 times.
Option [Link] empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times.
Option [Link] empty and fill the system with air at least 3 times.
Correct Answer [Link] empty and fill the system with nitrogen at least 3 times.

Question Number. 2. Slat asymmetry may be monitored by using.

Option [Link] sensors.
Option [Link] pick-offs.
Option [Link] actuators.
Correct Answer [Link] pick-offs.

Question Number. 3. In large air conditioning systems, the main fan is activated to.
Option [Link] positive duct pressure is maintained.
Option [Link] conditioned air is distributed.
Option [Link] conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.

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Correct Answer [Link] conditioned air is distributed and maintain positive duct pressure.

Question Number. 4. If a reduction in pack outlet temp is demanded the temperature of the air at the
outlet of the ACM compressor will.
Option [Link] the same.
Option B. rise.
Option C. fall.
Correct Answer [Link] the same.
[Link] outlet temperature is determined by bypassing engine bleed air around the ACM (trim
air).The ACM is unaffected.

Question Number. 5. The rigging of a non magnetic proximity sensor requires.

Option [Link] the target clearance in the FAR position against reference figures.
Option [Link] the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures.
Option [Link] the target contacts the sensor.
Correct Answer [Link] the target clearance in the NEAR position against reference figures.

Question Number. 6. In a constant colume hydraulic EDP the short shaft which engages with the
engine gearbox would have.
Option A.2 female splined portions separated by a waisted section.
Option B.2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section designed to shear should the pump seize.
Option [Link] inner female splined portion and an outer male splined portion.
Correct Answer is.2 male spline portions seperated by a waisted section designed to shear should the pump
seize.

Question Number. 7. Pressurisation system operation may be inhibited by.

Option [Link] microswitches.
Option [Link]/ground microswitches.
Option [Link] microswitches.
Correct Answer [Link] microswitches.

Question Number. 8. Hi-lok fastener installation requires that.

Option [Link] fastener is accurately torqued.
Option [Link] shank is lubricated.
Option [Link] interference fit hole is drilled.
Correct Answer [Link] interference fit hole is drilled.
[Link] are pre-lubricated. Hole is drilled 0.0015 inch interference. Hi-lok/Hi-tique installation guide
can be download from Tutorial Support Section.

Question Number. 9. Large aircraft air conditioning systems cabin temperature control.
Option [Link] selectable for each zone individually from the flight station.
Option [Link] zone temperatures are controlled from one master switch.
Option [Link] modulating the pack valve.

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Correct Answer [Link] selectable for each zone individually from the flight station.

Question Number. 10. Information on Galley equipment can be found in.

Option A. CAAIPS.
Option [Link] Section L.
Option [Link] Notice 99.
Correct Answer [Link] Notice 99.
[Link] removed and included in CAP 747, but is still asked on the exam.

Question Number. 11. A pressure operated ice detector would.

Option [Link] a build up of ice that causes a torque switch to illuminate a flight deck annunciator.
Option [Link] completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to sound on the flight deck.
Option [Link] a build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck.
Correct Answer [Link] completely covered in ice before causing an alarm to sound on the flight deck. OR have a
build up of ice on the leading edge that causes a warning light to illuminate on the flight deck.

Question Number. 12. A tyre valve cap is used to.

Option A. prevent a leak.
Option [Link] the valve by screwing up to the valve base.
Option [Link] the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of the wheel.
Correct Answer [Link] the valve by screwing up to the shoulder of the wheel. OR prevent a leak.

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