1.

The branch of biology that deals with the principles of heredity and variation is:
A) Evolution
B) Genetics
C) Genomics
D) Taxonomy
2. Transmission of genetic characters from one generation to the next is called:
A) Variation
B) Mutation
C) Inheritance
D) Selection
3. Which of the following is the basic unit of biological information that codes for a protein?
A) Chromosome
B) Gene
C) Protein
D) Trait
4. The specific location of a gene on a chromosome is called its:
A) Allele
B) Trait
C) Locus
D) Genome
5. A character or trait in genetics refers to:
A) A DNA sequence only
B) A protein in the body
C) Any heritable feature of an organism
D) A non-inheritable behavioral trait
6. Variations arise mainly because:
A) Genes remain unchanged
B) Chromosomes do not segregate
C) Crossing over and independent assortment occur
D) Proteins degrade rapidly
7. The alternative forms of a gene located at the same locus on homologous chromosomes are called:
A) Traits
B) Genotypes
C) Alleles
D) Phenotypes
8. Which of the following pairs is an example of a homozygous genotype?
A) RR
B) Rr
C) XY
D) RY
9. A red-flowered plant (RR) is crossed with a white-flowered plant (rr). All offspring are red. This is
due to:
A) Mutation
B) Incomplete dominance
C) Dominance of R allele
D) Co-dominance
10. The measurable expression of a genetic trait in an individual is called:
A) Genome
B) Genotype
C) Phenotype
D) Allele
 11. Which of the following defines the genotype?
A) Frequency of a gene in a population
B) Number of genes in a cell
C) Gene composition for a trait
D) Number of genes in a chromosome
12. If the genotype of two plants is represented as Rr & R1R2, the phenotype is:

Rr R1R2
A) White Red
B) Red & Pink Red only
C) Red only Pink
D) Pink only Red and white

13. Which of the following shows a heterozygous genotype?

A) RR
B) rr
C) Rr
D) RRR
14. The total set of all genes in a sexually reproducing population is known as:
A) Genome
B) Gene pool
C) Allele pool
D) Gene map
15. Gene pool includes:
A) All expressed genes
B) All dominant alleles only
C) All alleles in reproductive individuals
D) All chromosomes
16. In a population of 100 diploid mice, how many alleles are present for a single gene?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 150
D) 400
17. Jumping genes are called so because:
A) They move from nucleus to cytoplasm
B) They replicate frequently
C) They keep hopping on different loci
D) They jump between species
18. In the flower color example, R is the allele for red, and r is for white. Which of the following will
produce white flowers?
A) RR
B) Rr
C) rr
D) Cannot be determined

A gene pool can be defined as:

A) A group of dominant genes only
B) All the expressed traits in a population
C) Total genetic information in a breeding population
D) The DNA of an individual organism
19. If a heterozygous round seed plant (Rr) is self-fertilized, what will be the expected phenotypic
ratio in the F2 generation?
A. 3 round : 1 wrinkled
B. 1 round : 3 wrinkled
C. 2 round : 2 wrinkled
D. 1 round : 2 wrinkled
20. The observation that wrinkled seeds reappear in F2 after crossing a round and wrinkled seed
plant supports which conclusion?
A. Traits blend in offspring
B. Traits are inherited as discrete units
C. Wrinkled is dominant over round
D. Environment controls inheritance
21. A pea plant with genotype RrYy is self-fertilized. What proportion of its offspring will be round
and green?
A. 9/16
B. 3/16
C. 1/16
D. 6/16
22. Which statement about Mendel's law of segregation is correct?
A. Alleles blend to form intermediate traits
B. Alleles separate during gamete formation
C. Each gamete receives both alleles
D. Segregation occurs only in dihybrid crosses
23. In a test cross between a plant with round seeds and a homozygous wrinkled one, 50% offspring
have wrinkled seeds. This indicates the genotype of the round seed plant is:
A. Heterozygous
B. Homozygous dominant
C. Homozygous recessive
D. Can’t be determined
24. Which of the following crosses would result in a 1:1 phenotypic ratio in the progeny?
A. Rr × Rr
B. RR × rr
C. Rr × rr
D. RR × Rr
25. Mendel’s law of independent assortment is best demonstrated through a dihybrid cross because:
A. It shows dominance of traits
B. It reveals how alleles of different traits behave independently
C. It explains mutation
D. It shows incomplete dominance
26. A tall pea plant is test crossed and all progeny are tall. What is the likely genotype of the parent?
A. Homozygous dominant
B. Homozygous recessive
C. Heterozygous
D. Cannot be determined without further data
27. The 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in F2 generation of a dihybrid cross confirms that:
A. Both traits blend together
B. Dominant traits always occur together
 C. Alleles of different genes assort independently
D. Only dominant alleles are inherited
28. Why did Mendel choose Pisum sativum (garden pea) for his genetic experiments?
A. It had easily observable contrasting traits
B. It had a short generation time and produced many progeny
C. It could be both self- and cross-pollinated easily
D. All of these
29. 1. Which of the following was not a reason for Mendel's success in his experiments on Pisum
sativum?
A. The pea plant had numerous distinct, contrasting traits
B. The pea plant had a long generation time
C. The flowers of pea were hermaphrodite
D. The pea plant produced a large number of progeny
30. A monohybrid cross between two heterozygous individuals (Tt × Tt) for plant height results in:
A. 100% tall plants
B. 75% tall and 25% dwarf plants
C. 50% tall and 50% dwarf plants
D. 3 tall : 1 short genotypic ratio
31. In a dihybrid cross involving seed shape and seed color, the F2 phenotypic ratio expected is:
A. 1:2:1
B. 9:3:3:1
C. 9:3:3:1
D. 3:1
32. The principle of segregation states that:
A. Alleles blend during gamete formation
B. Each allele in a pair separates into a different gamete during meiosis
C. Dominant alleles are inherited more frequently
D. Genes are lost during hybrid formation
33. If a plant with genotype RrYy is self-crossed, how many different types of gametes can it produce?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
34. What is the genotypic ratio in F2 generation of a monohybrid cross?
A. 3:1
B. 1:2:1
C. 9:3:3:1
D. 2:1:1
35. Which of the following correctly defines Mendel's law of independent assortment?
A. Alleles of one gene influence the inheritance of others
B. Genes for different traits assort independently during gamete formation
C. Linked genes segregate together
D. One allele completely dominates the other
36. In a test cross, an individual showing a dominant trait is crossed with:
A. Another dominant individual
B. A homozygous recessive individual
C. A heterozygous individual
D. A wild type
37. Which of the following cross would result in a 1:1 phenotypic ratio in offspring?
A. Tt × Tt
B. TT × Tt
 C. TT × TT
D. Tt × tt
38. Which of the following traits studied by Mendel in Pisum sativum is controlled by a single gene
with two alleles?

A. Flower color and flower shape

B. Seed shape and color in pea plants
C. Pod colour and pod size
D. Leaves shape and plant height

39. What does Mendel’s law of independent assortment explain?

A) Genes assort randomly, irrespective of dominance
B) Alleles of a pair do not assort independently
C) Alleles of different genes assort independently during gamete formation
D) Dominant alleles always segregate together
40. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross, what is the phenotypic ratio observed in the F2 generation?
A) 1:1:1:1
B) 3:1
C) 9:3:3:1
D) 1:2:1
41. Which of the following best explains the appearance of new phenotypic combinations in the F2
generation of a dihybrid cross?
A) Gene mutation
B) Independent assortment of alleles
C) Law of segregation
D) Crossing over during mitosis
42. How many types of gametes are produced from a dihybrid F1 individual (RRYy)?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 8
43. Which combination of traits was not present in the P-generation but appeared in F2 of Mendel’s
dihybrid cross?
A) Round yellow and wrinkle green
B) Round green and Round yellow
C) Wrinkled green and Round green
D) Round green and wrinkle yellow
44. What would be the probability of getting a wrinkled green seed in the F2 generation of a dihybrid
cross between RrYy individuals?
A) 3/16
B) 1/8
C) 1/16
D) ¼
45. If the chance of round seed is ¾ and green seed is ¼, what is the joint probability of a seed being
round and green according to the product rule?
A) 6/16
B) 3/16
C) 1/4
D) 9/16
46. According to modern genetics, independent assortment is only possible when genes are located on:
A) Homologous chromosomes
B) Non-homologous chromosomes
 C) Sex chromosomes
D) Recessive chromosomes
47. What is the genotype of the parents if they are both normal but produce an albino child?
A) AA × aa
B) Aa × Aa
C) aa × aa
D) AA × AA
48. In a dihybrid cross of RrYy × RrYy, what fraction of offspring will have round shape and yellow
colour?
A) 1/4
B) 9/16
C) 3/16
D) ½
49. In a monohybrid cross between round (RR) and wrinkled (rr) seeded pea plants, all F₁ progeny
have round seeds. This observation supports:

A. Incomplete dominance

B. Codominance

C. Complete dominance

D. Overdominance

50. In complete dominance, the phenotype of the heterozygote is:

A. Intermediate between both homozygotes

B. Same as the dominant homozygote

C. A mixture of both alleles’ effects

D. Distinct and qualitatively different from both homozygotes

51. Which of the following inheritance patterns contradicts Mendel’s principle of dominance but not
segregation?

A. Complete dominance

B. Incomplete dominance

C. Co-dominance

D. Both B & C

52. What phenotypic ratio is expected in F₂ generation in a case of incomplete dominance?

A. 9:3:3:1

B. 1:2:1
C. 3:1

D. 1:1

53. In 4 o’clock plant (Mirabilis jalapa), crossing red and white flowered plants results in pink flowers
in F₁. The molecular basis of this phenotype is due to:

A. Recessive epistasis

B. Codominance

C. Mutation

D. Incomplete dominance

54. Which of the following statements best explains codominance?

A. Both alleles blend to form an intermediate trait

B. Both alleles express themselves independently in heterozygotes

C. Dominant allele masks the recessive one

D. Heterozygotes express only one of the alleles

55. MN blood group system is a classical example of:

A. Incomplete dominance

B. Complete dominance

C. Codominance

D. Overdominance

56. Which term describes the condition where heterozygotes exhibit greater phenotypic expression
than either homozygote?

A. Codominance

B. Incomplete dominance

C. Overdominance

D. Complete dominance

57. In fruit flies, heterozygotes (w+/w) produce more fluorescent eye pigment than either homozygote.
This is an example of:

A. Incomplete dominance
B. Overdominance

C. Codominance

D. Pleiotropy

58. In which type of inheritance does the heterozygous individual exhibit a phenotype that is
intermediate between the two homozygotes?

A. Complete dominance

B. Incomplete dominance

C. Codominance

D. Overdominance

59. Which of the following is a correct example of multiple alleles?

A) ABO blood group system
B) Eye color in humans
C) Flower color in pea plants
D) Skin color in humans
60. What is the genotype of an individual with blood group A?
A) IA IA or IAi
B) IB IB or IB i
C) IA IB
D) ii
61. The ABO blood group system is determined by a gene located on which chromosome?
A) Chromosome 12
B) Chromosome 9
C) Chromosome 6
D) Chromosome 3
62. 4. Which of the following genotypes will result in blood group AB?
A) IA IA
B) IB IB
C) IA IB
D) IA i
63. Pick out the incorrect statement(s) in reference to dominance relationship between I A, IB, and i
alleles?
1) IA is dominant over IB 2) IB is dominant over I 3) i is dominant over IA
4) IA and IB are codominant to each other 5) IA is dominant over I
A) 1 & 2
B) 2,4 & 5
C) 1,3 & 4
D) 1 & 3
64. Which of the following is a universal fact about ABO-system of blood group?
A) O child may have an AB parent
B) O parents can only produce O children
C) AB x AB parents can produce heterozygous A and B
D) O x A can produce homozygous A
65. Which of the following phenotypes will contain both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the blood
serum?
 A) Blood group A
B) Blood group B
C) Blood group AB
D) Blood group O
66. The Rh factor was first discovered in which organism?
A) Rhinoceros
B) Rhesus monkey
C) Sheep
D) Rabbit
67. Which of the following genotypes results in an Rh+ individual?
A) dd
B) Dd
C) DD
D) Both B and C
68. What is the genetic basis of the Rh blood group system?
A) A single gene with two alleles
B) Three genes with independent loci
C) Two genes with tightly linked loci
D) One gene with multiple alleles
69. A person with blood type AB will have which of the following antibodies in their serum?
A) Anti-A
B) Anti-B
C) Neither Anti-A nor Anti-B
D) Both Anti-A and Anti-B
70. In the ABO blood group system, the i allele is:
A) Dominant to IA and IB
B) Codominant with IA
C) Recessive to IA and IB
D) Dominant to IA
71. Which of the following is the universal blood donor?
A) Blood type AB
B) Blood type A
C) Blood type B
D) Blood type O
72. In the ABO system, a person with blood group A has which antigens on the surface of their RBCs?
A) Antigen B
B) Antigen A
C) Both Antigen A and B
D) No antigens
73. Erythroblastosis fetalis is most likely to occur in which situation?
A) When an Rh- mother carries an Rh+ fetus for the first time
B) When both parents are Rh+
C) When the fetus is O type
D) When the mother is O type
74. What causes erythroblastosis fetalis?
A) The mother’s immune system producing antibodies against Rh antigens of the fetus
B) The mother’s immune system producing antibodies against ABO blood group antigens
C) A mismatch in the ABO blood type between mother and fetus
D) A genetic mutation in the fetus’ RBCs
75. Rh incompatibility can be avoided in future pregnancies by giving the mother:
A) A blood transfusion
B) Rh antiserum injection
 C) An iron supplement
D) Antibiotics
76. In a case of mild ABO incompatibility between mother and child, how does this protect the baby
from severe Rh incompatibility?
A) The mother develops antibodies against the child’s Rh antigens.
B) The mother’s antibodies destroy the child’s RBCs before Rh antibodies can form.
C) The baby’s immune system is suppressed, preventing the production of antibodies.
D) The mother’s body blocks the passage of Rh+ cells into the bloodstream.
77. Which blood group system involves three alleles: IA, IB, and i?
A) Rh blood group system
B) ABO blood group system
C) MN blood group system
D) Duffy blood group system
78. A person with blood group O has which genotype?

a) ii

b) IAIA

c) IBIB

d) IAIB

79. The ABO blood group system involves which of the following alleles?

a) IA, IB, i

b) A, B, O

c) Rhesus factor, A, B

d) None of the above

[Link] of the following statements is correct regarding the inheritance of blood groups?

a) A person with blood group AB can produce a child with blood group O.
b) A child with blood group O can be born to parents with blood groups A and B.
c) A child with blood group O can be born to parents with blood groups AB and O.
d) A person with blood group A cannot inherit an allele for blood group O from their parents.

81. Which of the following blood types can be received by an individual with blood type O?

a) Only blood type O

b) Blood type A and B

c) Blood type AB

d) Blood type A, B, AB, and O

82. A mother with blood type O and a father with blood type AB could have a child with which of the
following blood types?

a) Blood type A or B

b) Blood type O

c) Blood type AB

d) Blood type O only

83. The ABO blood group system was discovered by which of the following scientists?

a) Gregor Mendel

b) Karl Landsteiner

c) Charles Darwin

d) Charles Babbage

84. In a cross between an individual with genotype IAIB and an individual with genotype IAi, what is
the probability of producing a child with blood group B?

a) 25%

b) 50%

c) 75%

d) 100%

85. Which of the following best illustrates the concept of epistasis?

a) A dominant allele at a single locus affects the trait's expression
b) Recessive alleles from both parents produce a homozygous phenotype
c) A gene at one locus masks the expression of a gene at a different locus
d) Two alleles at the same locus interact to form an intermediate phenotype
86. Why is the Bombay phenotype considered an example of epistasis?
a) The IA and IB alleles are mutated in Bombay individuals
b) The absence of H gene product prevents expression of A and B antigens
c) The IAIB genotype always produces O phenotype
d) It involves codominance of IA and IB alleles at the ABO locus
87. Individuals with genotype hh at the H locus will:
a) Express A or B antigens if they have IA or IB alleles
b) Have genotype IAIB and express AB blood group
c) Appear phenotypically as O, regardless of their ABO genotype
d) Produce H antigen and attach A or B antigens to RBCs
88. Which of the following clearly distinguishes dominance from epistasis?
a) Dominance is phenotypic, while epistasis is genotypic
b) Dominance always involves two different chromosomes
 c) Dominance occurs between alleles of the same gene; epistasis between different genes
d) Epistasis does not affect phenotype while dominance does
89. Which of the following is a classic example of pleiotropy in animals?
a) Bombay phenotype in humans
b) Codominance in AB blood group
c) White fur and deafness in cats with dominant allele W
d) Human blood type inheritance
90. A white cat with genotype WW is deaf due to:
a) Mutation in melanin-producing gene only
b) Effect of epistatic gene interaction
c) Failure of melanocyte development affecting fur and ear cells
d) Lack of dominance at the fur colour gene locus
91. In polygenic inheritance of human skin colour, what causes a darker shade?
a) A dominant gene at a single locus
b) Expression of epistatic allele
c) Higher number of pigment-encoding alleles from multiple loci
d) Environmental effect without any genetic basis
92. In polygenic inheritance, the phenotypic expression of a trait is determined by:
a) A single gene affecting multiple traits
b) The cumulative effect of alleles from multiple gene pairs
c) A dominant allele overriding the recessive alleles
d) A single gene pair interacting with environmental factors
93. The continuous variation observed in human height is best explained by:
a) Codominance of alleles at a single locus
b) A single gene controlling all traits
c) The additive effect of multiple gene pairs at different loci
d) Environmental influences alone without any genetic basis
94. What is the key feature of quantitative traits like human height or wheat grain color?
a) They show distinct phenotypic categories without intermediate forms
b) They exhibit a smooth, bell-shaped distribution in a large population
c) They are controlled by a single gene with multiple alleles
d) They do not show any variation due to environmental factors
95. In the experiment conducted by Nilsson-Ehle on wheat grain colour, F2 offspring exhibited
multiple shades of red due to:
a) Dominance of a single allele for red pigment
b) Additive effects of three different gene pairs at different loci
c) Environmental factors influencing the final colour expression
d) A single gene with incomplete dominance producing intermediate shades
96. How does the interaction between environmental factors and polygenes influence traits like
human skin colour?
a) Environmental factors do not affect polygenic traits
b) Environmental factors like sunlight can darken the skin, adding to the genetic effect
c) Environmental factors can completely override genetic control of skin colour
d) Only genetic factors control polygenic traits, regardless of environmental conditions
97. The frequency histogram of human height in a population forms a bell-shaped curve because:
a) It is a polygenic trait controlled by multiple gene pairs
b) It is influenced by a single gene with two alleles
c) All humans share the same genetic makeup for height
d) Height variation is determined solely by environmental factors
98. If a polygenic trait like wheat grain colour is controlled by three genes (A, B, C), and an individual
has genotype AaBbCc, what will be the expected phenotype?
a) Light red grain
 b) Dark red grain
c) Pink grain with moderate red colour
d) White grain
99. What is the recombination frequency if genes A and B are linked and their recombinant types
make up 36 out of 180 of the total?

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 50%
d) 100%

100. What is the result of crossing over between linked genes during meiosis?

a) It produces recombinant types of offspring.

b) It produces only parental combinations of offspring.
c) It prevents independent assortment.
d) It has no effect on genetic variation.

101. If the recombination frequency between two genes is 50%, what can be concluded?

a) The genes are closely linked on the same chromosome.

b) The genes are either on different chromosomes or far apart on the same chromosome.
c) The genes assort independently.
d) There is no crossing over between the genes.

102. If two genes are linked and show a recombination frequency of 10%, what does this imply?

a) The genes are on different chromosomes.

b) The genes are 10 map units apart.
c) The genes undergo independent assortment.
d) The genes do not recombine.

103. What is the relationship between recombination frequency and the distance between genes
on a chromosome?

a) The greater the recombination frequency, the closer the genes are.
b) The greater the recombination frequency, the farther the genes are.
c) Recombination frequency has no relation to gene distance.
d) Recombination frequency increases with the number of chromosomes.

104. What is the significance of crossing over in meiosis?

a) It increases genetic variation by producing recombinant gametes.

b) It decreases genetic variation by maintaining parental combinations.
c) It prevents gene recombination.
d) It results in no variation among offspring.

105. How does the phenomenon of gene linkage affect inheritance patterns?

a) Linked genes assort independently, leading to genetic variation.

b) Linked genes tend to be inherited together, reducing variation.
c) Linked genes produce only recombinant offspring.
d) Linked genes increase the chances of genetic mutation.

106. The genes A and B are located on the same chromosome. If their recombinants are 25 out
of 125 individuals, how far apart are they on the chromosome?

a) 15 map units
b) 20 map units
c) 25 map units
d) 75 map units

107. How would gene linkage affect the outcome of a dihybrid cross compared to independently
assorting genes?

a) Gene linkage would produce a higher proportion of parental-type offspring and fewer recombinant-
type offspring.
b) Gene linkage would lead to more genetic variation among the offspring.
c) Gene linkage would result in equal proportions of parental and recombinant types of offspring.
d) Gene linkage would cause the genes to assort independently.

108. Why does the occurrence of crossing over reduce the chance of gene linkage?

a) Crossing over exchanges alleles between homologous chromosomes, increasing the diversity of
combinations.
b) Crossing over ensures that alleles on different chromosomes assort independently.
c) Crossing over eliminates genetic variations and maintains the parental alleles.
d) Crossing over stops linked genes from being inherited together.

109. A researcher observes a cross between two individuals, both heterozygous for two linked
genes. After analyzing the offspring, they notice a high proportion of parental combinations and a
small number of recombinant combinations. Which of the following best explains this result?

a) The genes assort independently due to independent assortment.

b) The genes are linked, and crossing over occurred at a low frequency.
c) The genes are on different chromosomes and undergo recombination easily.
d) The recombinant combinations are more common because of gene mutations.

110. If a chromosome has a high recombination frequency between genes A and B, what would
be the expected genetic outcome in offspring for a cross involving these two genes?

a) Offspring will show a high number of linked gene combinations and low variation.
b) Offspring will show a high degree of genetic variation due to frequent recombination events.
c) Offspring will predominantly inherit one of the two parental combinations.
d) There will be no genetic variation as the genes will assort independently.

111. How does the concept of "linkage groups" relate to the number of homologous pairs of
chromosomes in a species?

a) The number of linkage groups is determined by the number of alleles in a species.

b) The number of linkage groups corresponds to the number of homologous chromosome pairs in the
species.
c) Linkage groups are independent of the number of chromosomes in an organism.
d) The number of linkage groups is always double the number of chromosomes in the species.

112. In Drosophila melanogaster, which chromosome determines the sex of the individual?

a) X chromosome
b) Y chromosome
c) Both X and Y chromosomes
d) Autosome

113. Which of the following is true about the sex chromosomes in humans?

a) Both males and females have two X chromosomes.

b) The Y chromosome is responsible for determining the female sex.
c) Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, while females have two X chromosomes.
d) Sex chromosomes are only present in females.

114. In the XO-XX system of sex determination, which of the following is true for male
grasshoppers?

a) Males have only one X chromosome and no Y chromosome.

b) Males have two X chromosomes.
c) Males have one X chromosome and one Y chromosome.
d) Males have no sex chromosomes.

115. In the XY-XX type of sex determination system, what is the sex chromosome composition
of a male human?

a) XY
b) XX
c) XO
d) XXY

116. The SRY gene in humans is located on which chromosome?

a) X chromosome
b) Y chromosome
c) Autosomes
d) Both X and Y chromosomes

117. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the ZZ-ZW sex determination system?

a) Males are heterogametic.

b) Females produce only Z-carrying eggs.
c) Females are heterogametic (ZW).
d) Both males and females have the same chromosome composition.

118. In a species with an XO sex determination system, what is the sex of a grasshopper that has
one X chromosome and no other sex chromosome?
a) Male
b) Female
c) Sterile
d) Undetermined

119. What is the chromosomal composition of a female in the XY-XX sex determination system?

a) XX
b) XY
c) XO
d) XXY

120. What mechanism determines the sex of the offspring in the XO-XX sex determination
system in grasshoppers?

a) The sperm carries either an X chromosome or no sex chromosome (nullo gamete).

b) The egg carries either an X chromosome or no sex chromosome.
c) The sperm carries two X chromosomes.
d) The egg carries two X chromosomes.

121. In human beings, the presence of which chromosome determines male sex?

a) X chromosome
b) Y chromosome
c) Both X and Y chromosomes
d) Autosomes

122. Which chromosome carries the SRY gene responsible for male development in humans?
a) X chromosome
b) Autosome
c) Y chromosome
d) Mitochondrial chromosome
123. What is the chromosomal sex of a human individual with Turner syndrome?
a) XX
b) XO
c) XY
d) XXY
124. In grasshoppers, which gamete determines the sex of the offspring?
a) Female gamete
b) Male gamete
c) Both gametes
d) Autosomes
125. Which of the following is true regarding the XX-XY system in humans?
a) Male is homogametic
b) Sex is determined by maternal genes
c) Male produces two types of sperms
d) Female produces both X and Y ova
126. Which type of sex determination is observed in birds like chickens?
a) XY-XX
b) XO-XX
c) ZZ-ZW
d) X:A ratio system
127. What would be the chromosomal composition of a Drosophila with an X:A ratio of 0.5?
a) XXY
b) XX
c) XY (male)
d) XO (female)
128. In the XO-XX system, what does the 'O' represent?
a) Extra chromosome
b) Absence of a sex chromosome
c) Modified Y chromosome
d) Autosomal deletion
129. What type of individual results when a human zygote receives two X chromosomes and one
Y chromosome?
a) Turner female
b) Klinefelter male
c) Super female
d) Normal male
130. Which organism uses a genic system of sex determination instead of chromosomal?
a) Grasshopper
b) Human
c) Bird
d) Yeast
131. In the ZZ-ZW system, which of the following is true?
a) Male is ZW
b) Female is heterogametic
c) Males determine the sex of offspring
d) All gametes carry same sex chromosomes
132. In Morgan’s experiment, the absence of white-eyed females in the F2 generation indicated:
A. The trait was autosomal recessive
B. The gene for eye color was X-linked
C. The white eye allele was lethal in females
D. The gene was located on Y chromosome
133. Why were only males white-eyed in Morgan’s F2 generation despite both sexes carrying X
chromosomes?
A. Male flies carry two X chromosomes
B. Females inherit the Y chromosome from the father
C. Males are hemizygous and express X-linked recessive alleles
D. Female flies suppress the expression of white eye gene
134. Which of the following correctly represents the genotype of F1 females in Morgan’s initial
cross?
A. XwXw
B. XWY
C. Xw+Xw
D. Xw+Y
135. Which cross best demonstrates the crisscross inheritance of an X-linked trait?
A. White-eyed female × white-eyed male
B. White-eyed male × red-eyed (heterozygous) female
C. Red-eyed male × red-eyed female (homozygous)
D. Red-eyed female × red-eyed male
136. In a reciprocal cross between a white-eyed female and red-eyed male, what will be the
phenotype of F1 offspring?
A. All females red-eyed, all males white-eyed
B. All red-eyed
 C. All white-eyed
D. 50% red-eyed in both sexes
137. Morgan’s experiments with Drosophila primarily helped prove:
A. Crossing over occurs in males only
B. Genes are located on chromosomes (chromosomal theory of inheritance)
C. Genes are found only in X chromosomes
D. Mutations are always harmful
138. Which of the following is a key reason why Drosophila is ideal for genetic studies?
A. Presence of chloroplasts
B. 46 chromosomes like humans
C. Short generation time and easily distinguishable traits
D. High resistance to radiation
139. Which observation led Morgan to propose that eye color is sex-linked in Drosophila?
A. Equal ratios of white and red eyes in F2
B. Only male offspring exhibited the white-eye phenotype
C. No males showed white eyes
D. All females had white eyes in F2
140. What would be the expected phenotypic ratio in offspring from a test cross of Xw+Xw
female and XwY male?
A. 1 red-eyed female : 1 white-eyed female only
B. 1 red-eyed male : 1 white-eyed male only
C. 1 red-eyed female : 1 white-eyed female : 1 red-eyed male : 1 white-eyed male
D. All red-eyed flies
141. What is the significance of giant chromosomes in Drosophila’s salivary gland cells for
genetic studies?
A. They contain only mitochondrial DNA
B. They indicate gene silencing
C. Their banding pattern corresponds to specific genes, aiding in gene mapping
D. They are not visible under a microscope
142. Which of the following traits is passed directly from father to son and cannot appear in daughters?
A) X-linked dominant trait
B) Y-linked trait
C) Sex-influenced trait
D) Autosomal recessive trait
143. SRY gene on Y-chromosome is responsible for:
A) Milk yield
B) Colour blindness
C) Maleness in humans
D) Baldness in males
144. A trait governed by genes present on both X and Y chromosomes is called:
A) Sex-limited
B) Pseudoautosomal
C) Autosomal
D) Y-linked
145. Which of the following is an example of X- and Y-linked gene (pseudoautosomal)?
A) SRY gene
B) Bobbed gene in Drosophila
C) Factor VIII
D) TFM gene
146. Which of the following patterns of inheritance is shown by haemophilia A and B?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Y-linked
 C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
147. What is the genetic basis of Haemophilia C?
A) It is an X-linked dominant trait
B) It is a Y-linked recessive trait
C) It is an autosomal recessive trait
D) It is an autosomal dominant trait
148. A female can suffer from haemophilia only when:
A) She inherits a mutated gene from her mother
B) She is homozygous for the haemophilic gene
C) Her father is a haemophilic
D) She is heterozygous for the trait
149. In which of the following genotypes is the person a carrier female for haemophilia?
A) XhXh
B) XHXh
C) XHY
D) XhY
150. Which of the following cones is affected in protanopia?
A) Green
B) Blue
C) Red
D) All cones
151. A boy with red-green colour blindness inherits the gene from:
A) His father
B) His mother
C) Both parents
D) None, it is spontaneous
152. What is the probability that a colour-blind man and a carrier woman will have a colour-blind
daughter?
A) 0%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 100%
153. In X-linked dominant inheritance, which of the following is always true?
A) All daughters of affected fathers are affected
B) Sons inherit the trait more commonly
C) Trait skips generations
D) Females are never affected
154. Hypophosphatemic rickets is inherited as:
A) Autosomal dominant
B) X-linked dominant
C) Autosomal recessive
D) Y-linked
155. Testicular feminization syndrome is an example of:
A) Autosomal recessive trait
B) Y-linked trait
C) X-linked recessive trait
D) X-linked dominant trait
156. Testicular feminization syndrome leads to:
A) Development of ovaries in males
B) Absence of secondary sex characteristics
C) Female phenotype in XY individuals
D) Extra X chromosome in females
157. Which of the following traits occurs only in males due to anatomical limitations?
A) Pattern baldness
B) Beard growth
C) Colour blindness
D) Red-green colour blindness
158. What makes a trait sex-limited?
A) It is found on Y-chromosome
B) It affects only one sex due to anatomical structure
C) It is only found in males
D) It is influenced by hormones
159. Pattern baldness in men is an example of:
A) Sex-limited trait
B) Sex-influenced trait
C) X-linked dominant
D) Y-linked trait
160. What is the difference in expression of pattern baldness in men and women?
A) It is dominant in both
B) Dominant in men, recessive in women
C) Recessive in both
D) Recessive in men, dominant in women
161. A heterozygous man with pattern baldness marries a homozygous dominant woman (no bald gene).
What is the chance that their son is bald?
A) 0%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%
162. A female has a haemophilic father and marries a haemophilic man. What is the chance that their
daughter will also have haemophilia?
A) 0%
B) 100%
C) 50%
D) 25%
163. In a pedigree analysis, a trait appears in males of alternate generations, but not in females. What does
this pattern most likely represent?
A) Autosomal dominant inheritance
B) X-linked recessive inheritance
C) Y-linked inheritance
D) Mitochondrial inheritance
164. A woman’s father is haemophilic, but her mother is normal. She marries a normal man. What is
the probability that her sons will have haemophilia?
A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 0%
D) 25%