29-06-2025

7501CMD303034250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Velocity (V) of a particle at time 't' is given by V = at + , where a, b and c are constants. The
dimension of a, b and c are respectively :-

(1) LT–2, LT, T2

(2) LT–2, L, T
(3) LT2, LT, L
(4) L, LT, T2

2) If unit of mass becomes 2 times, the unit of length becomes 4 times and the unit of time becomes
4 times in the unit of planck's constant. Due to this unit of planck's constant becomes n times. The
value of n is :-

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 8

3) The equation of state of some gases can be expressed as , where P is the

pressure, V is the volume, T is the absolute temperature and a, b & R are constants. The dimensions
of 'a' are :-

(1) [ML5 T–2]

(2) [M L–1 T–2]
(3) [L3]
(4) [L6]

4) In . S is measured in metres and t in seconds. The unit of c is

(1) None
(2) m
(3) ms–1
(4) ms–2

5) If moment of Inertia I, force F and distance L are assumed to be fundamental quantity then the
dimension of gravitational constant G is :-

(1) F1L2I2
(2) FL6I–2
(3) F2L3I2
(4) FL3I–2

6) The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors

&

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Find angle between the vectors & :-

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

8) If and the angle between and is then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A vector points vertically downward and points toward south. The vector product is :-

(1) zero vector

(2) along east
(3) along west
(4) along north

10) Which of the following sets of concurrent forces may be in equilibrium?

(1) 3 N, 5 N, 1 N
(2) 4 N, 7 N, 2 N
(3) 2 N, 10 N, 5 N
(4) 2 N, 9 N, 8 N
11) Vector makes angle from Z-axis equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

12) From the fig., the correct relation is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of the above

13) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector . Then the value of α is :-

(1) –1
(2) –1/2
(3) 1/2
(4) 1

14) The ratio of maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vector and is 3 : 1.
Now is equal to :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) What is the length of projection of on xy plane?

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3)
(4) 4
16) If a =2, b =5 and = 8 then is

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 9
(4) 4

17) The force F is given in terms of time t and displacement x by the equation

F = AcosBx + CsinDt. The dimensions of are :-

0 0 0
(1) M L T
0 0
(2) M L T–1
0 0
(3) M L–1T
0
(4) M L1T–1

18) Which of the following is not represented in correct units :-

(1)

(2) Surface tension = N/m

(3) Energy = kg-m/sec
(4) Pressure = N/m2

19) In a new system of units the unit of mass and length is made 6 times and unit of time is made 4
times then numerical value of Plank constant h [ML2T-1] will become :-

(1)
times
(2) 27 times

(3)
times
(4) 72 times

20) In the relation p = P is pressure, Z is the distance, k is Boltzmann constant and θ is temp.
The dimensional formula of β is

0 0
(1) [M L2T ]
(2) [M1L2T–1]
0
(3) [M1L T–1]
0
(4) [M L2T–1]

21) A, B, C and D are four different physical quantities having different dimensions. None of them is
dimensionless. But we know that the equation AD = C ln (BD) holds true. Then which of the
combination is not a meaningful quantity?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which of the following combinations of three different physical quantities P, Q, R can never be a
meaningful quantity ?

(1) PQ – R

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) If speed V area A and force F are chosen as fundamental units, then dimension of Young's

modulus will be : (Here Young's modulus = )

(1) FA2V–1
(2) FA2V–3
(3) FA2V–2
0
(4) FA–1V

24) A cyclist starts from the centre O of a circular park of radius one kilometre, reaches the edge P
of the park. Then cycles along the circumference and returns to the centre along QO as shown in the
figure. If the round trip takes ten minutes, the net displacement and average speed of the cyclist (in

metre and kilometre per hour respectively) is:-

(1) 0,1

(2)

(3)

(4) 0, 21.4

25) The displacement of a body is given to be proportional to the cube of time passed. The
magnitude of the acceleration of the body, is-

(1) Increasing with the time

(2) Decreasing with time
(3) Constant but not zero
(4) Zero

26) The length of a seconds hand in a watch is 1cm. Magnitude of change in velocity of its tip in 15
second is :

(1) 0 cm/sec

(2)
cm/sec

(3)
cm/sec

(4)
cm/sec

27) If the displacement of a particle varies with time as :

(1) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t

(2) velocity of particle varies linearly with t
(3) velocity of particle is proportional to
(4) initial velocity of the particle is zero

28) A body starts from rest. What is the ratio of distance travelled during the 4th and 3rd sec.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29)

Some informations are given for a body moving in a straight line. The body starts its motion at t=0.
Information I : The velocity of a body at the end of 4s is 16 m/s.
Information II : The velocity of a body at the end of 12s is 48 m/s.
Information III : The velocity of a body at the end of 22s is 88 m/s

The body is certainly moving with

(1) Uniform velocity
(2) Uniform speed
(3) Uniform acceleration
(4) Data insufficient for generalization

30)
A particle moves along x-axis as

Which of the following is true ?

(1) The initial velocity of particle is 4

(2) The acceleration of particle is 2a
(3) The particle is at origin at t = 0
(4) None of these

31) If three particles start sliding simulaneously from given three inclined planes then

(1) All will reach ground simultaneously

(2)
Particle reaches ground earliest

(3)
Particle reaches ground earliest
(4) None

32) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity 20 m/s from the top of a tower. The height of
tower is 25 m from ground. Find maximum height of ball from ground (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 45 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 25 m

33) A body is thrown vertically upwards from the top A of a tower. It reaches the ground in t1
seconds. If it is thrown vertically downwards from the same tower with the same speed it reaches
the ground in t2 seconds. If it is allowed to fall freely from the same tower, then the time it takes to
reach the ground is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
34)

The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an angle of 15° is 50m. If it is fired with the same speed
at an angle of 45, its range will be;

(1) 60 m
(2) 100 m
(3) 71 m
(4) 141 m

35)

The displacement of a particle as a function of time is shown in the figure. The figure shows that

(1) The particle starts with certain velocity but the motion is retarded and finally the particle stops
(2) The velocity of the particle is constant throughout
(3) The acceleration of the particle is constant throughout.
The particle starts with constant velocity, then motion is accelerated and finally the particle
(4)
moves with another constant velocity

36) Velocity time graph of a car moving along a straight road is shown in figure. Value will

be :-

(1) 300 m
(2) 350 m
(3) 200 m
(4) 150 m

37) An airplane moving horizontally with a speed of 180 kmh–1 drops a food packet while flying at a
height of 490 m. The horizontal range of the food packet is g = 9.8 ms–2.

(1) 180 m
(2) 980 m
(3) 500 m
(4) 670 m
38) The equation of motion of a projectile is What is the range of the projectile?

(1) 18 m
(2) 16 m
(3) 12 m
(4) 21.6 m

39) A particle has initial velocity and acceleration . The magnitude of velocity
after 10 seconds will be :

(1) 5 units
(2) 9 units
(3) 9 units
(4) 5 units

40) A particle is moving along a straight line such that square of its velocity varies with time as

shown in the figure. What is the acceleration of the particle at t = 4 s?

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 1/4 m/s2
(3) 1/2 m/s2
(4) 0

41) Graph between square of the velocity (v) of a particle and distance (s) moved is shown in figure.

The acceleration of the particle in kilometers per hour square is :-

(1) 2250
(2) 3083
(3) –2250
(4) –3083

42) At what angle with the horizontal a ball should be thrown so that its range is related to time of
flight as R = 5 T2. Take g = 10m/s2 :-

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 75°

43)

Displacement of a particle varies with time 't' as S = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4 . The velocity, when
acceleration is zero is :-

(1) 3 m/s
(2) –12m/s
(3) 42 m/s
(4) –9m/s

44) An object is dropped from a height 'h', then the distance travelled in time t, 2t, 3t are in ratio :-

(1) 1:2:3
(2) 1:4:9
(3) 1:3:5
(4) 1:5:9

45) If radius of a spherical bubble starts to increase with time t as r = 0.5t. What is the rate of
change of volume of the bubble with time t = 4s ?

(1) 8π unit/s
(2) 4π unit/s
(3) 2π unit/s
(4) π unit/s

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following species are amphoteric :

(I) Al(OH)3 (II) Ba(OH)2 (III) Zn(OH)2

(1) I only
(2) I, II only
(3) I & III only
(4) II & III only

2) Match the lists-

List-I List-II
 (i) Na+ < F– < O–2 < N3– (a) Electronegativity

(ii) Li+ < Na+ < K+ <Rb+ <Cs+ (b) I.E.

(iii) O < S < F < Cl (c) Ionic size

(iv) Cl– < K + < Ca+2 < Sc+3 (d) Electron affinity
(1) i-c, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a,d
(2) i-b,c, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a,d
(3) i-c, ii-b,c, iii-a,d, iv-d
(4) i-a,d, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c

3) Electronic configuration of four elements A, B, C, D are given below :

A = 1s2 2s2 2p6 B = 1s2 2s2 2p4
C = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 D = 1s2 2s2 2p5 Which of the following is the correct order of increasing
tendency to gain electron :-

(1) A < C < B < D

(2) A < B < C < D
(3) D < B < C < A
(4) D < A < B < C

4) What is the correct order of electronegativity ?

(1) M+ < M2+ < M3+ < M4+

(2) M– < M2– > M3– > M4–
(3) M– > M2– < M3– < M4–
(4) M4– < M2– < M3– < M–

5) Period, group and block of the configuration [Xe] 6s2 4f7 5d1 is :-

(1) 7th, 4th, f

(2) 7th, 3rd, f
(3) 6th, 3rd, f
(4) 6th, 3rd, d

6) If Zeff of Li is "X" then Zeff for Ca according to slator rule will be :–

(1) X
(2) X + 0.9
(3) X + 1.85
(4) X + 1.55

7) In 4th period of periodic table, how many elements have one or more '3d' electrons?

(1) 0
(2) 10
(3) 16
(4) 18

8) If an orbital could contain 3e–, then number of elements in 3rd period would be?

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 12

9) The configuration [Rn] 6d2 7s2 belongs to:-

(1) 7th period, 2nd group, s-block

(2) 7th period, 4th group, d-block
(3) 7th period, 14th group, p-block
(4) 7th period, 3rd group, f-block

10) Which of the following has maximum I.E.?

(1) He
(2) Li+
(3) Be2+
(4) same in all

11) In 4f - series, largest size is of?

(1) Ce
(2) Gd
(3) Eu
(4) Lu

12) The ionisation potential ratio is highest in?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Read the following statement and explanation and answer as per the options given below :
Assertion : The first ionization energy of Be is greater than that of B.
Reason : 2p orbital is lower in energy than 2s

(1) If both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
 If both assertion and reason are correct, and reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect
(4) If assertion is incorrect, but reason is correct

14) Which of the following does'nt agree with the variation in property indicated against it?

(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (ionic radius)

(2) B < C < N < O (I. E1)
(3) I < Br < F < Cl (EA1)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (Metallic radius)

15) Write correct order of following properties :-

(1) HF > HCl > HBr > HI Acidic order

(2) NaOH > KOH > RbOH > CsOH Basic nature
(3) HClO4 > H2SO4 > H3PO4 Acidic order
(4) HOF < HOCl < HOBr > HOI Acidic order

16) The correct order of second I.E. of C, N, O and F are in the order

(1) F > O > N > C

(2) C > N > O > F
(3) O > N > F > C
(4) O > F > N > C

17) Largest in size out of Na+, N3– and F– is

(1) Na+
(2) N3–
(3) F–
(4) All are equal

18) Compare IE of O– S– Se– Te– :-

(1) O– > S– > Se– > Te–

(2) S– > O– > Se– > Te–
(3) S– > Se– > Te– > O–
(4) Te– > S– > Se– > O–

19) Select the correct order of acidic nature of metal oxide :-

(1) MnO > Mn3O4 > Mn2O3 > Mn2O4

(2) CrO < Cr2O3 < CrO3 < CrO2
(3) MnO < Mn2O3 < Mn3O4 < Mn2O7
(4) CrO < Cr2O3 < CrO3 < CrO2

20) Element with atomic number 109 is placed in :

(1) 8th group

(2) 9th group
(3) 13th group
(4) 14th group

21) Which of the following is correct match :-

Atomic Group Period

number number number

A 46 10 6

B 58 3 6

C 56 2 6

D 42 6 5
(1) Only B, C, D
(2) Only A, B, C
(3) Only B, C
(4) Only A, C, D

22) Which of the following diagrams is correct related to electron affinity of halogens :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The IP of Li and K are 5.4 and 4.3 eV respectively. The IP of Na will be :

(1) 9.7 eV
(2) 1.1 eV
(3) 4.9 eV
(4) 5.4 eV

24) In which of the following process energy is absorbed :

(1) Cl + e– → Cl–
(2) N + e– → N–
(3) N– – e– → N
(4) O–2 – e– → O–

25) Which of the following oxide is acidic :

(1) N2O5
(2) Mn2O7
(3) CrO3
(4) All

26) Incorrect order of acidic strength is :

(1) CrO < Cr2O3 < CrO3

(2) HNO2 < HNO3
(3) NO < N2O3 < NO2 < N2O5
(4) H3PO2 < H3PO3 < H3PO4

27) Least polar bond is :

(1) O–F
(2) P–F
(3) Si–N
(4) B–F

28) Minimum radius of oxygen in given compounds:

(1) Li2O
(2) Na2O2
(3) KO2
(4) All are equal

29) Correct order of radius will be :

(1) Vander wall > Covalent > Metallic

(2) Vander wall > Metallic > Covalent
(3) Metallic > Covalent > Vander wall
(4) Covalent > Vander wall > Metallic
30) In an Imaginary periodic table of 10 periods total no. of elements will be:-

(1) 298
(2) 296
(3) 292
(4) 290

31) Which of the following transformation least energy is required:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Which of the following statement is correct regarding following process:-

(i) (ii)
(iii) (iv)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) Select incorrect option among following :-

(1) IE of F > EA of F
(2) IE of F > IE of Cl
(3) IE of O > IE of S
(4) EA of F > EA of Cl

34) The ionic radius of N3–, O2– and Fϴ in Å are respectively :-

(1) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71

(2) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40
(3) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36
(4) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40

35) Which is wrong matching :-

(A) Noble gas (P) 1s2
(B) Normal elements (Q) [Kr]5s2
(C) Transition element (R) [Rn]6d27s2
(D) Inner transition elements (S) [Xe]4f15d16s2

(1) A–P
(2) B–Q
(3) C–R
(4) D–S

36) The subshells which are filled just before and just after the filling of 5p subshell are respectively
:

(1) 5s, 5d
(2) 4d, 6s
(3) 4d, 4f
(4) 6s, 4f

37) Which of the following process is maximum exothermic ?

+ –
(1) O(g) → O(g)
–
(2) N(g) → N(g)
–
(3) He(g) → He(g)
–
(4) P(g) → P(g)

38) Given below is a fraction of periodic table :-

If the atomic no. of Z is 78. then find the atomic no. of V.

(1) 26
(2) 28
(3) 25
(4) 27

39)

Correct order of size will be :-

(1) Co < Rh ≈ Ir
(2) Co < Rh < Ir
(3) Co < Ir < Rh
(4) Co > Rh > Ir

40) Match the column :

Element Successive value of I.E.

(outer mast shell e– conf.) (ev/atom)

(A) 3s1 (P) 22, 25, 36, 42, 250

(B) 3s2 (Q) 18, 26, 32, 240, 260

(C) 3s23p1 (R) 20, 24, 210, 230

 (D) 3s23p2 (S) 15, 180, 200, 220

Match the type of element, with the corresponding successive value of I.E :
(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q
(3) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q

41) Configuration (n – 2)f14 (n – 1)d2 ns2 belongs to which block and period :- (If n + 1 = 7)

(1) d-block ; 6th period

(2) d block ; 7th period
(3) f-block ; 6th period
(4) s-block ; 7th period

42) Match the column-I and II-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Be–Al (i) Diagonal relationship

s and p-block element

(b) (ii) p-block element
except noble gas

(c) Elements of 3rd period (iii) Typical elements

(d) ns2np1 to ns2np5 (iv) Normal elements

(1) a - i, b - iv, c - ii, d - iii
(2) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(3) a - i, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii
(4) None of these

43) Match the oxide given in column A with its property given in column B:

Column-A Column-B

(i) Na2O (a) Neutral

(ii) Al2O3 (b) Basic

(iii) N2O (c) Acidic

(iv) Cl2O7 (d) Amphoteric

Which of the following options has all correct pairs?
(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(c)
(2) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
(3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(4) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
44) Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group, the atomic numbers of elements placed above
and below Ag will be:

(1) 37, 67
(2) 29,79
(3) 39, 69
(4) 29, 65

45) Which one is a triad :-

(1) Ca, Sr, Ba,

(2) S, Se, Te
(3) Si, Ge, Sn
(4) All of these

BIOLOGY

1) How many of the following will be present in a prokaryotic cell ?

Basal body, Cell Membrane, Chromatophore, Lysosome, Ribosome, Nucleolemma, Cytoplasm.

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Seven

2) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

(2) Anything less than a complete structure of cell does not ensure independent living.
(3) Anton von Leuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell.
(4) All organisms are composed of a single cell.

3) According to the size of the organism, which sequence is not correct :

(1) Eukaryotic cell > Typical Prokaryotic Cell > PPLO > Virus
(2) Virus < PPLO < Typical Prokaryotic Cell < Eukaryotic cell
(3) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Typical Prokaryotic Cell > Virus
(4) PPLO < Eukaryotic cell < Typical Prokaryotic Cell < Tissue

4) The stroma of chloroplast contains :-

(a) enzymes for Krebs cycle.
(b) ribosomes similar in size and density to that of mitochondria.
(c) enzymes for dark reaction of photosynthesis.
(d) DNA similar to the nuclear DNA.
Choose the correct :-
(1) b and c
(2) a and d
(3) a and b
(4) b, c and d

5) Choose the correct combination of labelling for below diagram :-

A = Radial spoke, B = Peripheral microtubule,

(1)
C = Interdoublet bridge, D = Central sheath
(2) A = Peripheral microtubule, B = Interdoublet bridge, C = Radial spoke, D = Central sheath
A = Central sheath, B = Radial spoke,
(3)
C = Peripheral microtubule,D = Interdoublet bridge
A = Interdoublet bridge, B = Central sheath,
(4)
C = Radial spoke, D=Peripheral microtubule

6) Cilia differ from eukaryotic flagella :

(A) in number of microtubules
(B) in having non coordinated movement
(C) in working like oars
(D) in having 9 + 0 arrangement of microtubules
Choose the correct option from the following :

(1) Only C
(2) A, B and C
(3) B and D
(4) Only D

7) Assertion : The nuclear pores are the passage through which movement of RNA and protein
molecules takes place in both direction between cytoplasm and nucleoplasm.
Reason : The fusion of two membranes of nucleus occur at nuclear pores.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
8) Assertion :- Proteins shows lateral movement in the lipid bilayer.
Reason :- Lipid bilayer is quasi-fluid in nature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) Assertion : Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction.

Reason : Other constrictions may also occur on some chromosomes

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Assertion : The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal
cells.
Reason : Various chemical reactions occur in cytoplasm to keep the cell in the living state.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Which of the following options is correct regarding given structure of chromosome ?

Chromatid Kinetochore Centromere

(1) 2 2 4

(2) 2 2 1

(3) 4 1 2

(4) 4 2 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) What does A, B and C represent in the given figure of a chromosome. Choose the correct match
?

A B C
Primary
(1) Centriole Satellite
constriction
Secondary
(2) Centriole Satellite
constriction
Secondary
(3) Centromere Satellite
constriction
Primary
(4) Centromere Satellite
constriction
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Identify the type of ribosome as showing in the figure and select the incorrect statement
regarding this :-

(1) This ribosome attaches to ER surface.

(2) They are present in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cell
(3) They are made of two subunit 50 s and 30s
(4) All of the above

14) Assign the following substances to cell wall, flagella, slime layer and pili of bacteria in proper
sequence :
(a) Glycoprotein (b) Pilin
(c) Murein (d) Flagellin

(1) a,b,c,d
(2) c,d,a,b
(3) c,a,b,d
(4) c,b,d,a

15) The site of respiratory ETS in bacteria is :-

(1) Chromatophores
(2) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(3) Mitochondrial matrix
(4) Mesosomes

16) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Mitochondria divide by fission

(2) Chromatin is stained by basic dye
(3) Ribosomes first observed by Robert Brown
(4) In cilia the arrangement of microtubule is 9 + 2

17) Which of the following is not true for mitochondria and chloroplast both ?

(1) Both are semi autonomous cell organelle

(2) Both have double stranded DNA
(3) Both have 80s ribosome
(4) Both are showing protein synthesis.

18) Enzyme, which are associated in converting fats into carbohydrates, are present in :-

(1) Lysosome
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Microsome
(4) Glyoxysomes

19) In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is :-

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Nucleus
(3) Mesosome
(4) Cell wall

20)

Match the columns : -

Column-I Column-II
(A) Aleuroplast (i) Carotenoids
(B) Amyloplast (ii) Carbohydrates
(C) Elaioplast (iii) Fats & Oils
(D) Chromoplast (iv) Proteins
(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

21) In humans NOR (Nucleolar Organizer region) is found in chromosome number :-

(1) 13, 14, 15, 16 and 17
(2) 13, 14, 15, 20 and 21
(3) 12, 13, 14, 15 and 16
(4) 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22

22) Which of the following clues would tell you whether a cell is prokaryotic or Eukaryotic?

(1) the absence or presence of a rigid cell wall

(2) whether or not the cell nucleus have membrane
(3) whether or not cell carries out the cellular metabolism
(4) whether or not cell contains DNA

23) Microbodies are present in :-

(1) Only plant cells

(2) Only animal cells
(3) Both plant and animal cells
(4) Prokaryotic cells

24) Select the wrong statement from the following :-

(1) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mitochondria

(2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner and an outer membrane
Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space bounded
(3)
by the thylakoid membrane
(4) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA

25) Nucleoli are rich in

(1) DNA and rRNA only

(2) DNA, rRNA and proteins
(3) DNA only
(4) rRNA only

26) Quantasomes are present in :-

(1) Chloroplast
(2) ER
(3) Lysosome
(4) Mitochondria

27) Who concluded that the presence of cell wall is a unique character of the plant cells ?

(1) Schleiden
(2) Schwann
(3) Rudolf Virchow
(4) Robert Brown

28) Highest arm ratio occur in which chromosome :-

(1) Submetacentric
(2) Acrocentric
(3) Metacentric
(4) V shaped chromosome

29) Choose the correct combination for given flow chart :-

A B C

Transport Plasma Secretory

(1)
vesicle membrane vesicle

Secretory Transport Plasma

(2)
vesicle vesicle membrane

Transport Secretory Plasma

(3)
vesicle vesicle membrane

Secretory Plasma Transport

(4)
vesicle membrane vesicle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

30)
Choose the correct combination for above diagram :-

A = Golgi body, B = Autophagosome

(1)
C = Heterophagosome, D = Residual body
A = Golgi body, B = Secondary lysosome,
(2)
C = Autophagosome, D = Heterophagosome
A = Golgibody, B = Heterophagosome,
(3)
C = Tertiary lysosome, D =Autophagosome
 A = Autophagosome, B = Heterophagic vacuole,
(4)
C = Residual body, D =Golgi body

31) Which of the following components of a 'typical plant cell' are organized correctly?

(1) Plasma membrane → primary cell wall → secondary cell wall → Middle lamella → cytoplasm
(2) Cytoplasm → plasma membrane → Middle lamella → secondary cell wall → primary cell wall
(3) Plasma membrane → cytoplasm → secondary cell wall →primary cell wall → middle lamella
(4) Middle lamella → primary cell wall → secondary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm

32) A student performed cell fractionation of a tissue and forget to label his tubes. The contents of
one tube when studied showed organelles bounded by membrane with activity of catalase enzyme.
These organelles could be :-

(1) SER
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Lysosome
(4) Peroxisome

33) Higher plant cells and animal cells are different in how many respects ?

(A) Plastids

(B) Large central vacuole

(C) Centriole

(D) Stored food

(E) Cell wall

(F) Ribosome

(G) Mitochondria
(1) Six
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) Two

34) Assertion : 40-60 chloroplast are present in mesophyll cells.

Reason : Each chloroplast has grana and stroma.

(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion and Reason both are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct

35) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Column I Column II
 Intracellular and
(A) RER (i)
extracellular digestion

(B) SER (ii) Lipid synthesis

Golgi Protein synthesis

(C) (iii)
complex and secretion

Materials secreted
(D) Lysosomes (iv)
out of the cell
(1) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(2) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)

36) Find the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Membrane of
(i) human Lipids 52%
erythrocyte

Singer and Fluid mosaic

(ii) 1972
Nicolson model

Rigid Living
(iii) Cell wall
structure structure

Options :-
(1) (i) only
(2) (iii) only
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (ii) only

37) Golgi apparatus can be identified as :-

(1) Smallest organelle

(2) Cart wheel like structure
(3) Densely stained reticular structure near the nucleus
(4) Network of proteinaceous filaments

38) Choose the correct match :-

I II

(1) Mitochondria 4.1 micro-metre diameter

(2) DNA Acidic Dye

(3) Chromatin Flemming

 Electron
(4) 1850s
microscope
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Statement one: Typically mitochondria is sausage shaped or cylindrical.

Statement two : Inner membrane of mitochondria divides It's lumen in two aqueous compartments
i.e., the outer compartment and the inner compartment.

(1) Both statement one and two are correct

(2) Statement one is correct but statement two is incorrect
(3) Statement one is incorrect but statement two is correct
(4) Both statement one and two are incorrect

40) Statement-I :- Eukaryotic cells possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope.
Statement-II :- In prokaryotic cells there is an extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm
through the presence of membrane bound cell organelles.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect

41) Read both statement and select the correct option :

Statement - I During different stages of cell division, cell show structured chromosomes in place of
the nucleus
Statement - II The telocentric chromosome has a terminal centromere

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

42) Svedberg's unit is :-

(1) Direct measure of density and size

(2) Indirect measure of volume and weight
(3) Indirect measure of density and size
(4) Direct measure of density and volume

43) (i) Capsule protects the bacteria from ....(A).... and also helps in ......(B)..... formation.
(ii) Bacterial cell wall can be removed by .....(C)..... enzyme.
A, B and C and choose correct answer :
 A B C

(1) WBC Colony Lysozyme

(2) Lysozyme WBC Colony

(3) Colony Lysozyme WBC

(4) WBC Lysozyme Colony

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) The physico -chemical approach to study biology is referred as

(1) Systema biology

(2) Reductionist biology
(3) Physical chemistry
(4) - taxonomy

45) Following diagram is of ________ whose size varies from _________

(1) Eukaryotic cell, (1 - 2)

(2) Prokaryotic cell, (1 - 2)
(3) Eukaryotic cell, 10 - 20
(4) Typical bacteria cell, 10 - 20

46) Which of the following diseases are occupational respiratory disorders ?

(1) Asthma and emphysema

(2) Emphysema and fibrosis
(3) Silicosis and asbestosis
(4) Dysentery and silicosis

47) Which of the following has least diameter?

(1) Primary bronchi

(2) Terminal bronchioles
(3) Secondary bronchioles
(4) Respiratory bronchioles

48) Which one is not the function of nasal chamber ?

(1) Filtration of air

(2) Humidification of air
(3) Gaseous exchange
(4) Olfaction

49) Choose the correct match :-

(1) TV = 5500 ml
(2) IRV = 3000 ml
(3) ERV = 2100 ml
(4) IC = 2000 ml

50) Respiratory center of brain is stimulated by :-

(1) CO2 concentration in arterial blood

(2) H+ concentration in venous blood
+
(3) Both CO2 and H concentration in venous blood
(4) O2 concentration in venous blood

51) Respiratory process is regulated by certain specialized centres in the brain. One of the
following listed centres can reduce the inspiratory duration upon stimulation :-

(1) Medullary inspiratory centre

(2) Pneumotaxic centre
(3) Apneustic centre
(4) Chemosensitive centre

52) Read the following symptoms of a respiratory disorder :-

(i) It is chronic disorder (ii) Smoking is a major cause of it
(iii) Damage of alveolar membrane (iv) Inflammation in bronchi
(v) Fibrosis occurs in alveoli (vi) respiratory surface area decreases
(vii) Mostly stone mines workers are suffered by it
How many symptoms are correct for emphysema?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

53) Which factor can not affect oxyhaemoglobin formation?

(1) CO2
(2) O2
(3) H+
(4) H2O

54) Total thickness of diffusion membrane is :-

(1) More than a millimetre

(2) More than 10 millimetre
(3) Less than a millimetre
(4) Between 1 millimetre and 2 millimetre

55) Maximum amount of oxygen that can be transported by 500 ml of blood is

(1) 25 ml
(2) 75 ml
(3) 100 ml
(4) 20 ml

56) Which of the following statements is not true :-

(1) The partial pressure of oxygen in deoxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg

(2) The partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg
(3) The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar air is 104 mm Hg
(4) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in deoxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg

57) On the accompanying graph, the shift from curve A to curve B could be caused by :-

(A) Foetal haemoglobin

(B) Increased Temperature
(C) CO poisoning
(D) Increased 2,3 DPG
(E) Increased lactic acid content in the muscles

(1) Only A
(2) A and E
(3) B,D,E
(4) A,B,C,D and E

58) Read the following four statement (a-d)

(a) Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli
(b) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues
(c) Nearly 20-25% of CO2 is transported by blood plasma as bicarbonate
(d) About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC in the blood
How many of the above statements are correct:-

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

59) When oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve shift towards right side which of following will be
correct ?

(1) P50 value decrease

(2) oxyhaemoglobin dissociation promotes
(3) oxyhaemoglobin formation promotes
(4) P50 value unchanged

60) In an accident a man dies immediately although their was no injury to brain, kidney, stomach
and heart. The probable cause of death may be :-

(1) Larynx got punctured

(2) Diaphragm got punctured
(3) Digestion stop
(4) Cogulation of R.B.C.

61) "Methemoglobin" refers to

(1) A colourless respiratory pigment

(2) Oxidized haemoglobin
(3) Oxygenated haemoglobin
(4) Deoxygeneted haemoglobin

62) Given below graph shows spirogram of a healthy person. Which one is volume or capacity
represented in shaded part ? and what is its value? choose the correct option which includes both

correct ones only?

(1) Expiratory capacity = 1600 ml

(2) Function residual capacity = 2300 ml
(3) Inspiratory capacity = 3500 ml
(4) Vital capacity = 4600 ml
63) If a person inhale normally without any extra effort after a forceful exhalation, which
pulmonary volumes will be inhaled :

(1) TV + IRV + ERV

(2) TV + FRC
(3) TV + IRV
(4) TV + ERV

64) Which of the following muscle or structure have no role in normal expiration?

(1) IICM
(2) Abdominal muscle
(3) Auricular muscle
(4) All of the above

65) Arrange the following in an decreasing order of volume :-

(i) Expiratory capacity
(ii) Inspiratory capacity
(iii)Tidal volume
(iv) Residual volume

(1) ii > i > iv > iii

(2) iv > ii > i > iii
(3) i > ii > iv > iii
(4) iv > i > iii > ii

66) Which of these is incorrect regarding normal expiration ?

(1) Volume of thorax decreases

(2) Ribs and sternum are raised
(3) Diaphragm relaxes and arches upwards
(4) All of these

67) Read the following statements (i to v) :-

(i) Anatomically setup of lungs in thoracic chamber in such a manner that any change in the
volume of lung cavity will be reflected in the thoracic cavity.
(ii) Due to contraction of diaphragm, volume of thoracic cavity increases at dorsoventral axis.
(iii) Due to contraction of EICM, volume of thoracic cavity increases at dorsoventral axis.
(iv) At the time of expiration intra pulmonary pressure slightly decreases than atmospheric pressure.
(v) At the time of inspiration, intra pulmonary pressure slightly decreases than atmospheric
pressure.
How many statements are incorrect from following ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One
68) Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing :

(1) Inspiration is a passive process where as expiration is active

(2) Inspiration is a active process where as expiration is passive
(3) Inspiration and expiration both are active processes
(4) Inspiration and expiration both are passive processes

69) Arrange the following points of respiration in correct sequence :-

(a) Breathing
(b) Diffusion of gases between blood and tissue
(c) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
(d) Utilisation of O2 by the cell
(e) Transport of gases by the blood

(1) abcde
(2) acbde
(3) acebd
(4) adceb

70) What would happen when blood is acidic

(1) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin increases

(2) Red blood corpuscles are formed in higher number
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin decreases
(4) There is no change in oxygen binding nor number of RBC

71) Observe the figure given below and identify the label ‘A’ and nature of tissue associated with it.

Choose the correct option

(1) Basement membrane – Non-cellular layer mesothelium

(2) Blood capillary – Mesothelium
(3) Alveolar wall – One-celled thick squamous epithelium
(4) Alveoli – Stratified endothelium

72) Oxygen is utilised by the organisms to ?

(1) Directly breakdown simple molecules

(2) Indirectly break down simple molecules
(3) Directly break down of complex molecules
(4) Indirectly breakdown of complex molecules
73) During normal breathing, pressure gradients is created between the atmosphere and the alveoli
with the help of -

(1) External intercostal muscles and diaphragm

(2) Diaphragm and abdominal muscles
(3) Internal intercostal muscles and abdominal muscles
(4) None of these

74) In given diagram, identify what is depicted by P, Q & R.

(1) P-Asthma, Q-Occupational respiratory disorders, R-Emphysema

(2) P-Emphysema, Q-Asthma, R-Occupational respiratory disorders
(3) P-Asthma, Q-Emphysema, R-Occupational respiratory disorders
(4) P-Hypoxia, Q-Asthma, R-Emphysema

75) Which statements is incorrect ?

(1) Volume of air remaining in the lungs after a normal breathing is 2300 ml
(2) Inspiration can occur if the pressure within the lungs is less than atmospheric pressure
(3) A healthy man can inspire or expire approximately 6000 to 8000 ml of air per minute
When the PCO2 is high and PO2 is low as in the alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-
(4)
haemoglobin takes place

76) Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the mid-thoracic cavity, which divides at the level of-

(1) Last thoracic vertebra into right and left 1º bronchi

(2) Third lumbar vertebra into right and left 1º bronchiole
(3) Fifth thoracic vertebra into right and left 1º bronchiole
(4) Fifth thoracic vertebra into right and left 1º bronchi

77) Two friends are eating together at a dining table when one of them suddenly starts coughing
while swallowing food. This occurs due to improper movement of

(1) Tongue
(2) Epiglottis
(3) Diaphragm
(4) Neck
78) Which of the following blood vessel have blood with 95 mm of Hg ?

(1) Systemic venules

(2) Pulmonary vein
(3) Pulmonary artery
(4) Systemic vein

79) The maximum volume of air you can forcefully exhale after taking the deepest possible breath is
called

(1) Tidal volume

(2) Total respiratory volume
(3) Residual volume
(4) Vital capacity

80) Assertion : CO2 is produced during the breakdown of nutrients.

Reason : Process of exchange of CO2 and O2 at cellular level is known as breathing.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

81) A cartilaginous box which helps in sound production is called

(1) Trachea
(2) Larynx (Sound Box)
(3) Pharynx
(4) Throat

82) Read the following four (A-D) statements.

(A) Chest expands because air enters into the lungs.
(B) Air enters into the lungs because chest expands.
(C) The muscles of the diaphragm contracts because air enters in the lungs.
(D) A healthy human breathes 12-16 times/minute.
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

83) Given below is the diagrammatic representation, explaining mechanism of breathing.

 Choose the correct option w.r.t. given diagram.

Diaphragm becomes dome shaped due to contraction of its muscles and decreases the volume of
(1)
thoracic cavity
(2) Volume of thoracic cavity decreases due to contraction of external intercostal muscles
(3) Diaphragm is relaxed and arched upwards which decreases the volume of thoracic cavity
(4) Contraction of external intercostal muscles shifts the ribs inwards and downwards

84) Bohr effect is :-

(1) The effect of CO2 on haemoglobin

(2) The effect of CO2 on oxyhaemoglobin
(3) The effect of CO2 on RBCs
(4) The effect of O2 on haemoglobin

85) Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some airways remains in the lungs which can never
be expelled because ?

(1) There is a positive intrapleural pressure

(2) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure
(3) There is a negative pressure in the lungs
(4) There is a negative intra pleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

86) A large proportion of oxygen remains unused in the human blood even after its uptake by the
body tissues. This O2

(1) acts as a reserve during muscular exercise

(2) raises the pCO2 of blood to 75 mm of Hg.
(3) is enough to keep oxyhaemoglobin saturation at 96%
(4) helps in releasing more O2 to the epithelial tissues.

87) Which of the following structures is not the part of bronchial tree ?

(1) Terminal bronchioles

(2) Secondary bronchioles
(3) Tertiary bronchioles
(4) Respiratory bronchioles

88) In the given structures, how many have incomplete cartilagenous rings ?
Tracheae, primary bronchi, secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, initial bronchioles.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

89) Oxyhaemoglobin induce dissociation of CO2 from bicarbonate due to :-

(1) Oxyhaemoglobin acts as a stronger base than KOH.

(2) Oxyhaemoglobin acts as stronger acid than H2CO3.
(3) Oxyhaemoglobin has more affinity with CO2.
(4) Oxyhaemoglobin is basic in nature.

90) Which event initiate the process of inspiration ?

(1) Increase Intra pulmonary pressure.

(2) Decreased intra pulmonary pressure.
(3) Increased intrapleural pressure
(4) Elastic recoil of lungs leads to decreased intra-pulmonary pressure.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 4 2 2 3 3 2 4 3 4 2 2 1 1 4 3 3 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 4 4 1 4 2 1 4 2 3 2 3 2 1 1 3 2 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 1 1 3 4 3 4 4 3 3 3 3 2 3 4 2 3 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 3 2 4 4 1 3 2 4 2 1 4 3 3 2 1 1 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 4 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 1 2 1 2 1 2 2 2 3 1 2 4 3 3 4 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 3 3 2 1 2 2 3 1 4 4 2 4 1 4 3 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 1 2 3 3 4 3 2 1 2 2 4 3 3 4 1 2 2 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 4 4 1 2 2 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 3 2 4 1 4 1 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) [c] = [T2]
[b] = [V] [T2] = [LT]

[a] = = LT–2

2)

The unit of planck's constant is joule second

or =
= 8 times

∴ n=8

3) is dimensionally equal to P ⇒ a = [M1L5T–2]

4)

ct2 must have dimensions of L

⇒ c must have dimensions of L/T2 i.e. LT–2.

5)

∴F=

∴G=

⇒G= ∴ mr2 = I

G= =

[G] = [F]1[L]6[I]–2

6)

=
7)

=0
so cos θ = 0
θ = 90°

8)

So,

9)

10) A + B ≤ C ≤ A–B
8N is in range of 2N and 9N So set 2N1 9N1 8N can produce zero resultant

11)
Let P makes angle g from Z-axis

∴
Here Pz = and

|P| =
12) (i)

(ii)

(iii)

13)
–8 + 12 + 8a = 0
8α = –4 → a = –1/2

14) ⇒ a = 2b

15) Length of projection on xy plane is =

16) ⇒ 2 × 5 × sinθ = 8
⇒ sin θ = 8/10 = 4/5

Therefore

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
17) Bx = M L T ⇒ B[M L1T ] = M L T
0 0
B = M L–1T
0 0 0 0 0
Dt = M L T ⇒ D = M L T–1
0

= M L1T–1

18) Unit of energy = Kg-m2/sec2

19)

Use E = hυ ⇒
20) dimensionless

α= ⇒ [α] =

a = [MLT–2] and P =
0 0

2
⇒ [β] = = [M L T ]

21)

The dimension of A is not equal to the dimension of C.

Hence it is not possible to subtract AC from A2.

22) As per principle of Homogeneity,

Two different physical quantities can't be added or subtracted.

23)

y = stress/strain

y= = FA–1V°

24) Net displacement of the cyclist is zero, since the initial position coincides with the final
position.
Average speed of the cyclist

= km/min

= km/min

= × 60 km/hr = 21.4 km/hr.

25)
 X ∝ t3
V ∝ t2
a ∝ t

26)
speed of second hand

change in velocity :- V= ×

27) Concept: Velocity is the time derivative of displacement:

Formula :

ν=
Calculation/Explanation :
Given:

Squaring both sides:

Differentiating w.r.t. t:

Since ν = 2t + 6, velocity is a linear function of t.

Final Answer: Option (2): Velocity of the particle varies linearly with t.

28)

29)

Here average acceleration =

But we can't say certainly that body have uniform acceleration.

30)

∵ x = 4t – 8 + at2 + 4a – 4at

∴ v= = 4 + 2at – 4a

∴ acceleration f =
 31) T = more θ less will be the time

32)

H = 25 +

33)

Upward motion : – h = ut1 – ....(1)

Downward motion : h = ut2 + ....(2)

from equation (1) & (2)

u (t1 + t2) = g u = g (t1 – t2)

put it into equation (2)

h = g (t1 – t2)t2 + h= gt1t2 .........(3)

when drop the body

h = gt2
compare with equation (3)

t=

34)

∴
R2 = 100 m

35)

The slope of displacement-time graph goes on decreasing, it means the velocity is decreasing
i.e. It's motion is retarded and finally slope becomes zero i.e. particle stops.

36) = area under the v-t graph

= (20 + 10) × 20 = 300 m

37)

38)

The range of the projectile is 16 .

39)
Hence units

40)

∵ v2 = t ∴

at t = 4 sec.

41) v2 = u2 + 2as

a = – 3083

42)

∵ R = 5T2

cosθ = sinθ ⇒ θ = 45°

43) S = t3–6t2+3t+4

and
when acceleration a = 0
6t – 12 = 0 ⇒ t = 2 sec
at this time
v = 3(2)2 – (12×2)+3
= 12–24+3 = –9m/s
 44)
h1:h2:h3 = 1:4:9

45)

r = 0.5t
at t = 4 sec

r = 2m

= 4π(2)2.
= 8π unit/s

CHEMISTRY

46) Explanation : Amphoteric hydroxide is asked

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
Al(OH)3 & Zn(OH)2 are amphoteric in nature
Ba(OH)2 ⇒ basic hydroxide

Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

47)

i-c, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a,d

48) NCERT XIth Pg # 87, Table 3.7

49)

EN +ive charge

50)

Period, group and block of the configuration [Xe] 6s2 4f7 5d1 is 6th, 3rd, f .
51)

If Zeff of Li is "X" then Zeff for Ca according to slator rule will be X + 1.55 .

52)

In 4th period of periodic table, 16 elements have one or more '3d' electrons .

53)

If an orbital could contain 3e–, then number of elements in 3rd period would be 12 .

54)

7th period, 3rd group, f-block

55)

Be2+ has maximum I.E.

56)

In 4f - series, largest size is of Eu.

57)

The ionisation potential ratio is highest in .

58)

If assertion is correct, but reason is incorrect

59)

B < C < N < O (I. E1)

60)

HClO4 > H2SO4 > H3PO4 Acidic order

61)

The correct order of second I.E. of C, N, O and F are in the order O > F > N > C .
62)

Largest in size out of Na+, N3– and F– is N3– .

63)

S– > Se– > Te– > O–

64) MnO > Mn3O4 > Mn2O3 > Mn2O4

65)

Element with atomic number 109 is placed in 9th group .

66)

Answer (B, C, D) .

67)

Correct related to electron affinity of halogens

68)

The IP of Li and K are 5.4 and 4.3 eV respectively. The IP of Na will be 4.9 eV .

69)

N + e– → N–

70)

N2O5, Mn2O7, CrO3

71)

H3PO2 < H3PO3 < H3PO4

72)

Least polar bond is O – F .

73)

Minimum radius of oxygen in given compounds KO2

74)

Vander wall > Metallic > Covalent

75)

In an Imaginary periodic table of 10 periods total no. of elements will be 290 .

76) transformation least energy is required .

77)

78)

EA of F > EA of Cl

79)

1.71, 1.40, 1.36

80)

(A) Noble gas (P) 1s2

(B) Normal elements (Q) [Kr]5s2
(D) Inner transition elements (S) [Xe]4f15d16s2

81)

The subshells which are filled just before and just after the filling of 5p subshell are
respectively 4d, 6s .

82)

O(g)+ → O(g)– process is maximum exothermic .

83) Apply magic no. concept At no of Z = 78. So it is a d-block element which falls post-
lanthanoid series. Magic No. of post lanthanoid series (d-block gp) is 18,32,32
 ∴ (Z – 32) = Y
78 – 32 = 46
(Y – 18) = X
46 – 18 = 28
In a period ; on moving R → L, At. No decrease by 1.
so at. no of V will be 26.

84)

Correct order of size will be Co < Rh ≈ Ir .

85)

A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P

86)

d-block ; 6th period .

87)

a - i, b - iv, c - iii, d - ii

88)

(i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)

89) Z = 103 is an actinide

90)

Ca, Sr, Ba,

S, Se, Te
Si, Ge, Sn

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT, Page No. # 128-129

92) NCERT-XI Pg. # 125 IInd and IIIrd para

93)

Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Typical Prokaryotic Cell > Virus
94)

The stroma of chloroplast contains

(b) ribosomes similar in size and density to that of mitochondria.
(c) enzymes for dark reaction of photosynthesis.

95)

A = Peripheral microtubule, B = Interdoublet bridge, C = Radial spoke, D = Central sheath

96)

(C) in working like oars .

97) NCERT Pg. # 138

98)

NCERT Pg. # 131, 132

99) NCERT-139

100) NCERT Page No. 126, 8.3

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139, 2nd para and Fig. 8.12

102)

Answer (3).

103)

This ribosome attaches to ER surface.

104)

(c) Murein, (d) Flagellin, (a) Glycoprotein, (b) Pilin

105)

The site of respiratory ETS in bacteria is Mesosomes.

106)

Ribosomes first observed by Robert Brown

107)

Both have 80s ribosome

108)

Enzyme, which are associated in converting fats into carbohydrates, are present
in Glyoxysomes.

109)

In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles eukaryotic cell is Plasma membrane.

110)

A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

111) Module Pg. # 164

112) NCERT-XI Pg. # 129, XI para II line

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 140

114)

Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal compartment, the thylakoid space
bounded by the thylakoid membrane

115)

DNA, rRNA and proteins

116)

Quantasomes are present in Chloroplast.

117) NCERT Pg. # 126

118)

Highest arm ratio occur in Acrocentric.

119)

Answer (3).

120) Biology Module # 06, Page # 175(Diagram)

121)

Middle lamella → primary cell wall → secondary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm

122)

These organelles could be Peroxisome.

123)

Higher plant cells and animal cells are different in five respects .

124)

Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct .

125)

A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)

126) NCERT page 131,132

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 133-134, [Link]

128)

NCERT Page # 94

129)

Both statement one and two are correct

130) NCERT, Pg # 129

131) NCERT XI Pg.# 101

132) NCERT Pg # 136

133)

Answer (1)

134) NCERT Pg. No. 83

135) NCERT Pg No. 90

136)

Fibrosis, silicosis and asbestosis

137)

Respiratory bronchioles has least diameter.

138)

Gaseous exchange is not the function of nasal chamber.

139)

The correct match is IRV = 3000 ml.

140)

CO2 concentration in arterial blood

141)

Pneumotaxic centre

142)

Four symptoms are correct for emphysema.

143) NCERT page: 274

144)
Total thickness of diffusion membrane is less than a millimetre.

145)

Maximum amount of oxygen that can be transported by 500 ml of blood is 100 ml.

146)

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in deoxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg.

147)

(A) Foetal haemoglobin

148)

Three of the above statements are correct.

149)

oxyhaemoglobin dissociation promotes

150)

Diaphragm got punctured

151)

Oxidized haemoglobin .

152)

Inspiratory capacity = 3500 ml

153)

TV + ERV pulmonary volumes will be inhaled.

154)

All of the above

155)

ii > i > iv > iii

156)

Ribs and sternum are raised

157)

Three statements are incorrect.

158)

Inspiration is a active process where as expiration is passive

159)

(a) Breathing
(c) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
(e) Transport of gases by the blood
(b) Diffusion of gases between blood and tissue
(d) Utilisation of O2 by the cell

160) Ncert Pg No: 189

161)

Alveolar wall – One-celled thick squamous epithelium

162)

Indirectly break down simple molecules

163)

Intercostal muscles and diaphragm

164)

Ncert Page 274 and 275.

165)

When the PCO2 is high and PO2 is low as in the alveoli, dissociation of CO2 from carbamino-
haemoglobin takes place

166)

Fifth thoracic vertebra into right and left 1º bronchi

167)

This occurs due to improper movement of Epiglottis.

168)

Pulmonary vein blood vessel have blood with 95 mm of Hg .

169)

The maximum volume of air you can forcefully exhale after taking the deepest possible breath
is called Vital capacity.

170)

Assertion is true but Reason is false.

171)

A cartilaginous box which helps in sound production is called Larynx (Sound Box)

172)

Two of the above statements are incorrect .

173) NCERT Page 271

174)

The effect of CO2 on oxyhaemoglobin

175)

There is a negative intra pleural pressure pulling at the lung walls

176)

acts as a reserve during muscular exercise

177)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 271

178) NCERT XI, Pg.# 269 para. 1 (E)

 Pg.# 270 para. 2 (H)

179)

Oxyhaemoglobin acts as stronger acid than H2CO3.

180)

Explaining Question:
Which Event initiate the process of inspiration?
Concept: This question is based on Mechanism of Breathing
Solution: Decreased Intro pulmonen pressure facilitates margent of air inside Lungs