14-09-2025

9610WPE408561250006 PE

Physics

Section-1

1)

Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds in the ratio acquired the same maximum heights.
If A is thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal, the angle of projection of B will be

(1) 0°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 45°

2) A body falls freely from rest. It covers as much distance in the last second of its motion as covered
in the first three seconds. The body has fallen for a time of :

(1) 3 s
(2) 5 s
(3) 7 s
(4) 9 s

3) Keeping the banking angle of the road constant, the maximum safe speed of passing vehicles is to
be increased by 10%. The radius of curvature of the road will have to be changed from 20 m to :-

(1) 16 m
(2) 18 m
(3) 24.20 m
(4) 30.5 m

4) A car moves of a constant speed on a road a shown in figure. If NA and NB are normal reactins at A
and B, then :-

(1) NA=NB
(2) NA>NB
(3) NA<NB
(4) Data insufficient

5) A block of mass 10 kg is hold on a vertical wall of lift which is going upward with acceleration of 2
m/s2. Find minimum value of F so that we can hold the block w.r.t. lift. Friction coffecient between

block & wall of lift is 0.5 :- (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 40 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 240 N
(4) 60 N

6) A fly wheel originally at rest is to attain an angular velocity of 36 rad/s in 6 s. The total angle it
turns through which it turns in the 6 s is :-

(1) 54 radian
(2) 108 radian
(3) 6 radian
(4) 216 radian

7) A body of mass 4 kg is moving up an inclined plane rising 1 in 40 with velocity 40 m/sec if

efficiency is 50% the calculate power required.

(1) 38.4 W
(2) 55 W
(3) 78.4 W
(4) 108 W

8) Two drops of equal size are falling through air at terminal speed of 10 cm/s. If the drops coalesce,
the new terminal speed will be :-

(1) 20 cm s–1
(2) cm s–1
(3) 10 × 21/3 cm s–1
(4) 10 × 22/3 cm s–1

9) A fisherman hooks an old log of wood of weight 12 N and volume 1000 cm3. He pulls the log half
way out of water. The tension in the string at this instant is :

(1) 12 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 7 N

10) Rod is released from horizontal position. Find the angular velocity of rod when it becomes
vertical. 10 kg mass is fixed on the other end of the rod as shown in figure. The rod has mass 20kg
and length 10 meter :-

(1)
rad/sec

(2)
rad/sec

(3)
rad/sec
(4) 12 rad/sec

11) A block of mass m = 2kg is moved slowly from bottom to top of the hill as shown with the
tangential force F. If the coefficient of friction between block and hill is 0.5, then work done by the

force will be :-

(1) mgh

(2)

(3) 2 mgh
(4) Can't be calculated

12) Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity of 10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road
the raindrops appear to be coming with a velocity of 20 m/[Link] velocity of cyclist is :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2) m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) m/s

13) A helicopter is rising vertically up with constant velocity of 5 m/s. A ball is projected vertically up
from the helicopter with velocity v(relative to ground). If ball crosses the helicopter 3 sec after it's
projection then v is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 80 m/sec
(2) 20 m/sec
(3) 70 m/sec
(4) 50 m/s

14) A body is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with initial velocity 18 ms–1. It hits the
ground at angle 45º. What is the velocity when it strikes the ground ?

(1) 18 ms–1
(2) 18 ms–1
(3) 9 ms–1
(4) 9 ms–1

15) A spring of force constant K is first stretched by distance a from its natural length and then
further by distance b. The work done in stretching the part b is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A block of mass 20 kg is moved with constant velocity along an inclined plane of inclination 37°
with help of a force of constant power 50 W. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between block and
surface is 0.25, then what fraction of power is used against gravity?

(1) 3/4
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/2
(4) 1/8

Section-2

1) The spring balance A reads 2kg with a block M suspended from it. A balance B reads 5 kg when a
beaker with liquid is put on the pan of the balance. The two balances are now so arranged that the
hanging mass is inside the liquid in the bearker as shown in the figure. In this situation,
(1) The balance A will read more than 2 kg.
(2) The balance B will read more than 5 kg.
(3) The balance A will read less than 2 kg and B will read more than 5 kg.
(4) The balance A and 8 will read 2 kg and 5 kg respectively.

2) A force F (power of F is P = constant) is applied on block A of mass m as shown in figure, F is

parallel to the inclined plane. Then :

(1)
The maximum speed of block A is

(2)
The maximum speed of block A is
(3) The speed of block A first increases and then becomes nearly constant
(4) Speed of block A continuously increases

3) Two particles are projected from the same point with the same speed, at different angles θ1 and θ2
to the horizontal. They have the same horizontal range. Their times of flight are t1 and t2
respectively.

(1) θ1 + θ2 = 90º

(2)
= tanθ1

(3)
= tanθ2​

(4)

4)
One end of massless inextensible string of length is fixed and other end is tied to a small ball of
mass m. The ball is performing a circular motion in vertical plane. At the lowest position, speed of
ball is . Neglect any other forces on the ball except tension and gravitational force.
Acceleration due to gravity is g.

(1) At the highest position of ball, tangential acceleration of ball is 0

(2) At the highest position of ball, tangential acceleration of ball is g
(3) During circular motion, minimum value of tension in the string is 15 mg
(4) During circular motion, minimum value of tension in the string is 21 mg

Chemistry

Section-1

1) Electron affinity order

(1) F+ > Cl+ > Cl > F

(2) Cl > F > F+ > Cl+
(3) Cl+ > F+ > Cl > F
(4) Cl > F > Cl+ > F+

2) If 0.5 mol of CaBr2 is mixed with 0.2 mol of K3PO4, the maximum number of moles of Ca3(PO4) 2
that can be formed is:

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.7

3) Consider the following reaction

2Na + 2NH3 → 2NaNH2 + H2(g)
2NaNH2 + C → Na2CN2 + 2H2(g)
Na2CN2 + C → 2NaCN
51gm dry ammonia gas is passed over excess heated sodium to form sodamide (NaNH2) which is
further reacted with carbon (excess) to finally form NaCN. Find the total volume of H2(g) evolved at
0.5 atm, 273K

(1) 201.6 L
(2) 100.8 L
(3) 403.2 L
(4) 50.4 L

4) The photon emitted due to electronic transition from 5th excited state to 2nd excited state in Li2+, is
used to excite He+ already in first excited state. He+ ion after absorbing the photon reaches in an
orbit having total energy equal to :
(1) – 3.4 eV
(2) – 13.6 eV
(3) – 6.8 eV
(4) – 27.2 eV

5)

For the redox reaction -

Cr2O7–2 + H+ + Ni → Cr3+ + Ni2+ + H2O
The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are -

Ni H+

(1) 1 3 14

(2) 2 3 14

(3) 1 1 16

(4) 3 3 12
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) 15 mL sample of a solution of 0.04 M Sn2+ and X M Fe2+. Both ions are easily oxidized by Cr2O72− in
acidic solution and the redox products are Sn4+, Fe3+ and Cr3+. If 18 mL of 0.1250 M Cr2O72− is
required for oxidation then X is :

(1) 0.410
(2) 0.205
(3) 0.820
(4) 1.640

7) Which of the following element was absent in Mendeleev's periodic table :-

(1) Tc
(2) Si
(3) B
(4) F

8) Which of the following is the correct order of ionization energy?

(1) O2− < F− < Na+ < Mg2+

(2) F− < O2− < Na+ < Mg2+
(3) O2− < Na+ < F− < Mg2+
(4) Mg2+ < Na+ < F− < O2−
9) Element with atomic number 47 belongs to the period ............. and the group ..............

(1) 4th, 12th

(2) 4th, 11th
(3) 5th, 12th
(4) 5th, 11th

10) Which set does not shows correct matching according to modern periodic table:

(1) Cr = [Ar] 3d5 4s1 ; element belongs to 6th group.

(2) Fe2+ = [Ar] 3d6 ; element belongs to 8th group.
(3) Sc3+ = [Ne] 3s2 3p6 ; element belongs to zero/eighteen group.
3 2 rd
(4) 59Pr = [Xe]4f 6s belongs to 3 group

11) Atom Y is found to be twelve times as heavy as an atom of X. If one wished to prepare a
compound in which 7.2 gram of Y would be required to combine with 1 gram of X. What is the
simplest formula of this compound ?

(1) Y5X3
(2) Y3X5
(3) YX
(4) YX4

12) For the atoms Li, Be, B and Na, the correct order of increasing atomic radius is :

(1) B, Be, Li, Na

(2) Li, Be, B, Na
(3) Be, Li, B, Na
(4) Be, B, Li, Na

13)

Column-I Column-II
(Atomic Number) (Block)

P. 8 1. d-block

Q. 12 2. p-block

R. 60 3. s-block

S. 26 4. f-block
(1) P–1, Q–3, R–2, S–4
(2) P–2, Q–3, R–4, S–1
(3) P–3, Q–4, R–1, S–2
(4) P–4, Q–1, R–3, S–2

14) Give the correct initial T for true & F for false statement
(I) For Mn, the order of energy is 3s = 3p = 3d for shell number 3
(II) 32 elements are present in 5th period of long form periodic table
(III) For Zr+2 ion, µm = BM
(IV) General valence shell electronic configuration for ƒ-block elements is (n – 2) ƒ1–14(n – 1) d10 ns2

(1) T T F T
(2) T F F T
(3) F F T F
(4) F T T F

15)

In the formation of X2+(g) from X+(g) , 4 eV energy is absorbed, which would theoretically be equal to :

(1)
2+
(2) IE of X (g)
(3) IE of X(g)
(4)

16) Which of the following order of Ionisation energy is INCORRECT ?

(1) B > Tℓ > Ga > Aℓ > In

(2) Pb > Sn
(3) Sc > Y > La
(4) Ga > Zn

Section-2

1) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) Proton has high value of e/m as compared to He-nucleus

If the uncertainties in the position and momentum are equal then the uncertainty in the velocity
(2)
=
If for some reason the potential energy of an electron in the Ist shell of H-atom becomes
(3)
–54.4 eV then the I.E. of the electron is +27.2 eV
If for some reason the potential energy of an electron in the 1st shell of H-atom becomes –54.4
(4)
eV then the energy required to remove the electron from the 2nd shell will be 6.8 eV

2) Which of the following is correct order of electronegativity :

(1) Cs > Rb > Na

(2) Li < Be < B
(3) C < N < O
(4) Cl > F > Br
3) The option(s) with only amphoteric oxides is(are)

(1) Cr2O3, BeO, SnO, SnO2

(2) Cr2O3, CrO, SnO, PbO
(3) NO, B2O3, PbO, SnO2
(4) ZnO, Al2O3, PbO, PbO2

4) Choose the correct statement(s)

(1) In Moseley's equation, square root of frequency is directly proportional to atomic number
(2) Silver and gold have nearly same atomic radius
(3) Sc <Y< La (correct order of atomic size)
(4) Atomic number of mercury (Hg) is 80

Biology

Section-1

1) Which of the following diseases is not transmitted by the vector shown in the figure?

(i) Malaria (ii) Yellow fever (iii) Typhoid (iv) Sleeping sickness (v) Kala azar

(1) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

(2) (i), (iii) & (v)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) (iii), (iv) & (v)

2) Refer to the given dichotomous key and identify P, Q, R, S, T and U.

I. (a) It is a communicable disease. - Go to II
(b) It is a non-communicable disease. - Go to V
II. (a) Direct transmission - Go to III
(b) Indirect transmission - Go to IV

III. (a) Spreads through sexual contact -

(b) Spreads through physical contact and use of infected articles -

IV. (a) Transmitted through vectors -

(b) Spreads through contaminated food and water -

V. (a) Uncontrolled proliferation of cells -

 (b) Hypersensitivity to certain antigens such as dust, pollen, etc. -

(1) P - Gonorrhoea, Q - Herpes, R - Malaria, S - Cholera, T- Cancer, U-Hay fever

(2) P- Syphilis, Q - Small pox, R - Elephantiasis, S-Tetanus, T- Cancer, U-AIDS
(3) P- Hepatitis - B, Q - Syphilis, R - Tuberculosis, S-Kala azar, T-Plague, U-Cretinism
(4) P - AIDS, Q - Rabies, R - Sleeping sickness, S- Dengue, T-Yellow fever, U-Conjunctivitis

3) Match the column I (diseases) with column II (causative agents) and select the correct answer
from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(a) Plague (i) Rubeola virus
(b) Whooping cough (ii) Wuchereria bancrofti
(c) Measles (iii) Salmonella typhi
(d) Elephantiasis (iv) Yersinia pestis
(v) Bordetella pertussis
(vi) Entamoeba gingivalis
a b c d
(1) (iv) (v) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (v) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)
(4) (vi) (iii) (v) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Which of these statements listed below is true about common cold ?

(1) Common cold is not contagious.

(2) Common cold usually takes two months to clear up.
(3) The common cold virus can leave the body through the mucus of infected people.
(4) All of these

5) What is the difference between antigens and antibodies?

(1) Antigens are made by prokaryotes. Antibodies are made by eukaryotes.

(2) Antigens are recognised by the immune system. Antibodies are immunoglobulins.
(3) Antibodies are made by leucocytes. Antigens are made by erythrocytes.
(4) None of these

6) Species of bacteria that causes food poisoning

(1) Staphylococcus aureus

(2) Bacillus cereus
(3) Aspergillus niger
(4) Both (1) and (2)

7)

Match the following diseases with their correct pathogens:

Diseases Pathogens
1. Kala Azar A. Bacillus anthracis
2. Pneumonia B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Tuberculosis (TB) C. Salmonella typhi
4. Typhoid D. Entamoeba histolytica
5. Amoebic Dysentery E. Leishmania
6. Anthrax F. Diplococcus pneumoniae
(1) 1-E, 2-F, 3-B, 4-C, 5-D, 6-A
(2) 1-D, 2-F, 3-C, 4-A, 5-B, 6-E
(3) 1-E, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A, 5-C, 6-F
(4) 1-F, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D, 5-E, 6-B

8) Connecting link between annelida and arthropoda is

(1) Peripatus
(2) Lung fish
(3) Duck billed platypus
(4) Sea horse

9) Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. common cold

(1) Rhinovirus causes common cold

(2) Rhinovirus infects the nose, respiratory passage and lungs
Common cold is characterised by nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness,
(3)
cough, headache, tiredness etc.
Droplets resulting from cough or sneezes of an infected person are inhaled directly or
(4)
transmitted through contaminated objects and can cause infection in a healthy person

10) Refer the given statements and select the correct ones.
(i) Fossils are remains of hard parts of life forms in Rocks.
(ii) A study of fossils in different sedimentary layers indicates the geological period in which they
live.
(iii) Radio isotopes are often used to determine the age of the fossils.
(iv) Ginkgo is a living fossil.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) None of these

11) In human blood group AB:

(1) Anti A and Anti B antibodies are present
(2) Anti A and Anti B antibodies are absent
(3) Anti A antibody is present
(4) Anti B antibody is present

12) If a dihybrid pea plant heterozygous for flower colour (red dominant over white) and seed shape
(round dominant over wrinkled) under goes selfing, the types of gametes produced are

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 16

13) Which of the following concept is attributable to Charles Darwin?

(1) Use and disuse of organs is of great importance in evolution

(2) Every cell must come from a pre-existing cell
(3) In the struggle for existence, the fittest would survive
(4) The gametes will carry only one of a pair of contrasting characters

14) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Infection
1 Bacteria a Plasmodium i
of lungs

Wuchereria Fever
2 Virus b ii
bancrofti with chill

Haemophilus Inflammation
3 Protozoa c iii
influenzae of lower limbs

Infection of
4 Helminth d Rhino virus iv upper respiratory
tract
(1) 2-c-i, 1-d-iv, 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii
(2) 3-a-ii, 4-b-iii, 2-c-iv, 1-d-i
(3) 4-b-iii, 3-a-ii, 1-c-i, 2-d-iv
(4) 4-b-iii, 3-a-i, 1-c-ii, 2-d-iv

15) A yellow and round seeded pea plant has genotype YyRr. Total type of gametes produced shall
be

(1) Yy, Rr
(2) YR, yR, Yr, yr
(3) YR, yr
(4) Y, y, R, r
16) In nature, the process by which different organisms evolve similar traits is called:

(1) Generic drift

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Artificial selection

Section-2

1) correct about bone marrow is :-

(1) Primary lymphoid organ

(2) Main lymphoid organ where all blood cells excluding lymphocytes are produced
(3) Provide micro environment for the development of T-cells
(4) Produces B-cells

2) Which of the following option is true about the viruses ?

(1) Virus have either DNA or RNA as their genetic material.

(2) Virus uses host machinary to produce their own proteins.
(3) Vaccines can be prepared using viruses.
(4) Virus can most of the effect any living cell.

3) Choose the incorrect statement(s).

(1) Recessive trait can only be expressed in homozygous conditions.

(2) Recessive trait is always expressed in heterozygous condition.
(3) Dominant trait is expressed only in homozygous conditions
(4) Dominant trait cannot be expressed in heterozygous condition.

4) Which of the following statements are true regarding Law of segregation ?

(1) Alleles separate from each other during gametogenesis

(2) Alleles do not mix in the hybrids.
(3) Law of segregation is also called as law of purity of gametes.
(4) Law of segregation was given by Mendel.
 ANSWER KEYS

Physics

Section-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
A. 3 2 3 3 3 2 3 4 4 2 2 2 2 1 4 1

Section-2

Q. 17 18 19 20
A. 2,3 1,3 1,2,4 1,3

Chemistry

Section-1

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
A. 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 1 4 3 2 1 2 3 4 4

Section-2

Q. 37 38 39 40
A. 1,2,3,4 2,3 1,4 1,2,3,4

Biology

Section-1

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56
A. 4 1 1 3 2 4 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 3 2 2

Section-2

Q. 57 58 59 60
A. 1,4 1,2,3,4 2,3,4 1,2,3,4