14-09-2025

7501CMD303021250030 MD

PHYSICS

1) One mole of monoatomic gas is brought from state A to state B such that temperature at A is T0.

Find the heat absorbed along the path ACB

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) If two rods of length L and 2L having coefficients of linear expansion α and 2α respectively
are connected so that total length becomes 3L, the average coefficient of linear expansion of the
composition rod equals:

(1)
α

(2)
α

(3)
α
(4) none of these

3) Two short dipole of dipole moment's P1 and P2 are placed parallel to each other :

then what will force on P2 due to P1

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) Three rods of the same dimension have thermal conductivities 3K, 2K and K. They are arranged as
shown in fig. Given below, with their ends at 100° C, 50° C and 20° C. The temperature of their

junction is

(1) 60° C
(2) 70°C
(3) 50°C
(4) 35°C

5) If a metallic sphere gets cooled from 62°C to 50°C in 10 minutes and in the next 10 minutes gets
cooled to 42°C, then the temperature of the surroundings is

(1) 30°C
(2) 36°C
(3) 26°C
(4) 20°C

6) A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles argon at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the system is

(1) 4 RT
(2) 15 RT
(3) 9 RT
(4) 11 RT

7) Radiation from a black body at the thermodynamic temperature T1 is measured by a small

detector at distance d1 from it. When the temperature is increased to T2 and the distance to d2, the
power received by the detector is unchanged. What is the ratio d2/d1 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

8) Two identical metal plates are given positive charges Q1 and Q2 (< Q1) respectively. If they are
brought close together to form a parallel plate capacitor with capacitance C, the potential difference
between them is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are charged up to 100 volt. A 2 mm thick plate is inserted
between the plates, then to maintain the same potential difference, the distance between the
capacitor plates is increased by 1.6 mm. The dielectric constant of the plate is :

(1) 5
(2) 1.25
(3) 4
(4) 2.5

10) A capacitor is charged by using a battery which is then disconnected. A dielectric slab is then
slipped between the plates, which results in

(1) Reduction of charge on the plates and increase of potential difference across the plates
Increase in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change
(2)
in the charge on the plates.
Decrease in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in stored energy, but no change
(3)
in the charge on the plates
(4) None of the above

11) The plates S and T of an uncharged parallel plate capacitor are connected across a battery. The
battery is then disconnected and the charged plates are now connected in a system as shown in the
figure. The system shown in the equilibrium. All the strings are insulting and massless. The
magnitude of charge on one of the capacitor plates is : [Area of plates = A]

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

12) An infinite number of identical capacitors each of capacitance 1 mF are connected as in the

adjoining figure. Then the equivalent capacitance between A and B is :

(1) 1 μF
(2) 2 μF

(3)

(4) ∞

13) Refer given circuit and consider below statements :

Statement (1) : Charge on capacitor will be zero only

at steady state.
Statement (2) : Charge on capacitor will be zero at each instant.

(1) Both correct

(2) only 1st correct
(3) Both incorrect
(4) only 2nd correct

14) 5 Conducting plates each are placed face to face & equi-spaced at distance d. Area of each plate
is half the previous plate. If area of first plate is A. Then the equivalent capacitance of the system

shown is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) A conductor wire having 1029 free electrons/m3 carries a current of 20 A. If the cross-section of
the wire is 1mm2, then the drift velocity of electrons will be :- (e = 1.6 × 10–19 C)

(1) 1.25 × 10–5 ms–1

(2) 6.25 × 10–3 ms–1
(3) 1.25 × 10–4 ms–1
(4) 1.25 × 10–3 ms–1

16) The total power dissipated in the circuit shown in figure is :-

(1) 10 W
(2) 20 W
(3) 30 W
(4) 40 W

17) The value of effective resistance between A and B is ? (R = 2 kΩ)

(1) kΩ
(2) kΩ
(3) kΩ
(4) kΩ

18) In the circuit, the value of I2 is :-

(1) 0.2 A
(2) 0.3 A
(3) 0.4 A
(4) 0.6 A

19) Consider a thin square sheet of side L and thickness t, made of a material of resistivity ρ. The
resistance between two opposite faces, shown by the shaded areas in the figure is

(1) directly proportional to L

(2) directly proportional to t
(3) independent of L
(4) independent of t

20) Which of the following statements is wrong

(1) Voltmeter should have high resistance

(2) Ammeter should have low resistance
(3) Ammeter is placed in parallel across the conductor in a circuit
(4) Voltmeter is placed in parallel across the conductor in a circuit

21) Find the current through 2Ω :-

(1) zero
(2) 1 amp
(3) 2 amp
(4) 4 amp

22) If the given wire is in equilibrium then the value of current in the conductor is (mass of wire is

m)

(1)
from a to b

(2)
b to a
(3)
from a to b

(4)
from a to b

23) A wire carrying a current i is placed in a magnetic field in the form of the curve

where Force acting on the wire is :-

(1)

(2) iBLπ
(3) 2iBL
(4) Zero

24) If a proton, deutron and α particle on being accelerated by the same potential difference enters
perpendicular to the magnetic field, then the ratio of their kinetic energies is

(1) 1 : 2 : 2
(2) 2 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 2

25) A thick current carrying cable of radius R carries current I uniformly distributed across its cross-
section. The variation of magnetic field B due to the cable with the distance r from the axis of the
cable is represented by

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each
other. The currents flowing in them are I and 2I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction
at the centre will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) When a ferromagnetic material is heated to temperature above is Curie temperature, the
material:-

(1) Is permanently magnetized

(2) Remains ferromagnetic material
(3) Bahaves like a diamagnetic material
(4) Behave like a paramagnetic material

28) Two identical particles having the same mass m and charges +q and –q separated by a distance
d enter in a uniform magnetic field B directed perpendicular to paper inwards with speeds v1 and v2

as shown in figure. The particles will not collide if

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) V1 = V2

29) The magnetic susceptibility of a medium is –0.08, what will be its relative permeability?

(1) 1.8
(2) 1.08
(3) 0.08
(4) 0.92

30) A thin ring of radius r meter has charge Q coulomb uniformly spread on it. The ring rotates
about its axis with a constant frequency of w rad/s. The value of magnetic induction in Wb/m2 at the
centre of the ring is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The current flows from B to A as shown in the figure. The direction of the induced current in the

loop (When current decreases with time) is :-

(1) clockwise
(2) anticlockwise
(3) straight line
(4) none of these

32) A metallic square loop ABCD is moving in its own plane with velocity v in a uniform magnetic
field perpendicular to its plane as shown in the figure. An electric field is induced :-

(1) In AD, but not in BC

(2) In BC, but not in AD
(3) Neither in AD nor in BC
(4) In both AD and BC

33) A transformer is used to light 140 watt 24 volt lamp from 240 volt AC mains, the current in the
main cable is 0.7 amp. The efficiency of the transformer is

(1) 63.8%
(2) 84%
(3) 83.3%
(4) 48%

34) A square coil having total 'n' turns is kept at the centre of a circular loop of radius 'b'. Side of the
square coil is 'a' and it is placed coaxially in the plane of the loop. If 'I' current flows through the
loop, calculate the flux of magnetic field passing through square coil. (Assume a << b) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35)

Assertion (A): The electric field created by time-varying magnetic field is non-conservative.
Reason (R): The line integral of induced electric field in a closed loop is always equal to zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

36) Three inductances are connected as shown below. Assuming no coupling, the resultant

inductance will be

(1) 0.25 H
(2) 0.75 H
(3) 0.01 H
(4) 1 H
37) For an adiabatic process graph between PV & V for a sample of ideal monoatomic gas will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Calculate the current flowing through resistance 1.6 Ω :-

(1) 1.4 A
(2) 1 A
(3) 2 A
(4) none of these

39) A D.C supply of 120 V is connected to a large resistance X. A voltmeter of resistance 10

k placed in series in circuit reads 4V. This is an unusual use of voltmeter for measuring very high

resistance. The value of X is -

(1) 390 k
(2) 290 k
(3) 190 k
(4) 300 k

40) The magnitude and direction of current I (in A) indicated in the following circuit is :-
(1) 14 →
(2) 8 →
(3) ← 4
(4) ← 8

41) Reading of A1 and A2 are respectively

(1) 2A, 1A
(2) 1A, 2A
(3) 3A, 3A
(4) 1A, 1A

42) In the circuit shown, the cell is deal. The coil has an inductance of 4 H and zero resistance. F is a
fuse of zero resistance and will blow when the current through it reaches 5 A. The switch is closed at

t = 0. The fuse will blow :-

(1) almost at once

(2) after 2 sec
(3) after 5 sec
(4) after 10 sec

43) A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of length l = 1.0 m is situated in a uniform magnetic
field B = 2T perpendicular to the plane of loop. Resistance of connector is r = 2Ω. Two resistors of
6Ω and 3Ω are connected as shown in figure. The external force required to keep the connector

moving with a constant velocity v = 2 m/s is

(1) 6 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 2 N
(4) 1 N

44) The mutual inductance between a long straight wire and a square loop of side a as shown In

figure will be :-

(1) ℓn

(2) ℓn

(3) ℓn

(4)
ℓn

45) Magnetic field due to semi infinite length wire at point P :-

(1)
Bp = [sinθ + 1]

(2)
Bp = [sinθ]

(3)
Bp = [sinθ + sinθ]

(4)
Bp = [sin 90 + sin 90]
 CHEMISTRY

1) Consider the reaction :

4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O5(g), ΔrH = –111kJ.
If N2O5(s) is formed instead of N2O5(g) in the above reaction, the ΔrH value will be :-
(given, ΔH of sublimation for N2O5 is 54 kJ mol–1)

(1) –165 kJ
(2) +54 kJ
(3) +219 kJ
(4) –219 kJ

2) Smelting of iron ore takes place through this reaction

of Fe2O3 and CO2 are –824.2 kJ mol–1 and –393.7 kJ mol–1 respectively. The reaction is

(1) Endothermic
(2) Exothermic
(3)
(4) None of the above

3)

For the reaction, Fe0.95O (molar mass : M) → Fe2O3. What is the eq. wt. of Fe0.95O?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

4) A 0.004 M solution of Na2SO4 is isotonic with a 0.010 M solution of glucose at same temperature.
The apparent degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 is

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 75%
(4) 85%

5) Identify the mixture that shows positive deviations from Raoult's Law

(1) (CH3)2CO + C6H5NH2

(2) CHCl3 + C6H6
(3) CHCl3 + (CH3)2CO
(4) (CH3)2CO + CS2

6) If solubility of any gas in the liquid at 1 bar pressure is 0.05 mol/lit. What will be its solubility at 3
bar pressure, keeping the temperature constant? (in mol/lit)

(1) 0.15
(2) 0.25
(3) 3
(4) 2.5

7) A certain reaction obeys the rate equation (in the integrated form) = (n – 1) kt
where n is the order of the reation; C0 the initial concentration of reactant and C, the concentration
of reactant after time t. What is the unit of k for n = 3 :-

(1) sec–1
(2) litre mol–1 sec–1
(3) mol litre–1 sec–1
(4) litre2 mol–2 sec–1

8) In the following reaction : xA → yB

where –ve sign indicates rate of disappearance of the reactant. Thus, x : y is :

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 3 : 10

9) Consider the reaction A → B, graph between half life (t1/2) and initial concentration (a) of the

reactant is Hence graph between and time will be

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Conductivity of an aqueous solution of 0.1 M HX (a weak mono-protic acid) is 5 × 10–4 Sm–1.
Given :

Find pKa of HX.

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9

11) The emf of the cell,

Tl(s)|Tl+(aq) (0.0001 M)|| Cu2+(aq)(0.01M) | Cu(s) is 0.83 V
The emf of this cell will be increased by :–

(1) Increasing the concentration of Cu++ ions

(2) Decreasing the concentration of Tl+
(3) Increasing the concentration of both
(4) (1) & (2) both

12) Consider the following reduction processes :

Zn2+ + 2e– → Zn(s); E° = – 0.76 V
Ca2+ + 2e– → Ca(s); E° = – 2.87 V
Mg2+ + 2e– → Mg(s); E° = – 2.36 V
Ni2+ + 2e– → Ni(s); E° = – 0.25 V
The reducing power of the metals increases in the order :

(1) Ca < Zn < Mg < Ni

(2) Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca
(3) Zn < Mg < Ni < Ca
(4) Ca < Mg < Zn < Ni

13)
In the above diagram, the standard electrode potentials are given in volts (over the arrow). The

value of is

(1) 1.7 V
(2) 1.2 V
(3) 2.1 V
(4) 1.4 V

14) During the charging of lead storage battery, the reaction at anode is represented by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) The weight of silver (eq. wt. = 108) displaced by that quantity of current which displaced 5600
ml. of hydrogen at STP is :

(1) 54 g
(2) 108 g
(3) 5.4 g
(4) None of these

16) Electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 (using Pt electrode) produces :–

(1) An increase in pH
(2) A decrease in pH
(3) Either decrease or increase
(4) None

17) For the hypothetical reaction

A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g)
ΔrG° and ΔrS° are 20 kJ/mol and –20 JK–1 mol–1 respectively at 200 K.
If ΔrCp is 20 JK–1 mol–1 then ΔrH° at 400 K is :

(1) 20 kJ/mol
(2) 7.98 kJ/mol
(3) 28 kJ/mol
(4) None of these

18) Heat absorbed in the reaction H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g) is 182 kJ. Bond energies of H—H = 430
kJ/mole and Cl—Cl = 242 kJ/mole.
The H—Cl bond energy is

(1) 763 kJ/mole

(2) 245 kJ/mole
(3) 336 kJ/mole
(4) 154 kJ/mole

19) Which among the following reaction gives directly the value of heat of formation of the product?

(1) Cdiamond + O2(g) → CO2(g)

(2) Smonoclinic + O2(g) → SO2(g)
(3) 2N2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O(g)
(4) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

20) Heat of combustion of C2H6 and C2H2 is –341.1 and –310.0 Kcal mol–1. Which one is best fuel.

(1) C2H6
(2) C2H2
(3) both
(4) None of these

21) In which of the following neutralisation reactions, the heat of neutralisation will be highest?

(1) H2S and NaOH

(2) Ba(OH)2 and H2SO4
(3) LiOH and HCOOH
(4) H2S and H3PO3

22) A hypothetical reaction x → 2y proceeds by the following sequence of steps :-

1/2 x → Z, ΔH1 = q1
Z → 2w, ΔH2 = q2
w →1/2 y, ΔH3 = q3
The value of ΔH of reaction is :-

(1) q1 + q2 + q3
(2) 2q1 + 2q2 + 3q3
(3) 2(q1 + q2 + 2q3)
(4) 2(q1 + q2 + q3)

23) Two liquids A (HNO3) and B (H2O) form a maximum boiling azeotrope when mixed in the ratio of
68% and 32% respectively. It means
(1) A – B interactions are stronger than A – A and B – B interactions
(2) A – B interactions are weaker than A – A and B – B interactions
(3) vapour pressure of solution is more than the pure components
(4) All option are correct

24) Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol volatile component A( = 100 mmHg) and 3 mol of
volatile component B ( = 60 mmHg) is 75 mm. For such case :-

(1) There is positive deviation from Raoult's law

(2) Boiling point has been lowered
(3) Force of attraction between A and B is smaller than that between A and A or between B and B
(4) All the above statements are correct

25) Nitric Acid (70% by mass) has a specific gravity of 1.42. Find the molarity of the acid.

(1) 15.8
(2) 1.58
(3) 0.158
(4) 158

26) For producing the effective collisions, the colloiding molecules must posses :

(1) A certain minimum amount of energy

(2) Energy equal to or greater than threshold energy
(3) Proper orientation
(4) Threshold energy as well as proper orientation of collision.

27) According to the following figure the magnitude of the enthalpy change of the reaction A + B →

M + N in kJ/mol is equal to :

(1) 20
(2) 65
(3) 60
(4) 45

28) Order and molecularity of reaction, C12H22O11 + H2O C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 is :-

(1) 1, 2
(2) 2, 1
(3) 1, 1
(4) 2, 2

29) For the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

If the value of would be

(1) 1 × 10–4 mol ℓ–1 s–1

(2) 3 × 10–4 mol ℓ–1 s–1
(3) 4 × 10–4 mol ℓ–1 s–1
(4) 6 × 10–4 mol ℓ–1 s–1

30) Given : = +0.80 V

= –2.37 V
= +0.34 V;
= +0.79 V
Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) AgNO3(aq) can be stored in copper vessel

(2) Cu(NO3)2 aq can be stored in magnesium vessel
(3) CuCl2 can be stored in silver vessel
(4) HgCl2 can be stored in copper vessel

31) Efficiency of the following cells is 84%

A(s) + B2+(aq) A2+ (aq) + B(s), ΔH = –285 kJ
Then the standard electrode potential of the cell will be :-

(1) 2.20 V
(2) 2.40 V
(3) 1.10 V
(4) 1.24 V

32) The enthalpy of combustion at 25°C of H2(g), cyclohexene (C6H10)(ℓ​) and cyclohexane (C6H12)(ℓ) are
–241, –3800 and –3920 kJ/mol respectively. The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene(ℓ) is :

(1) –121 kJ/mole

(2) +121 kJ/mole
(3) –242 kJ/mole
(4) +242 kJ/mole

33) Oxidation state of nitrogen is incorrectly given for :

Compound Oxidation State

 (1) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 –3

(2) NH2OH –1

(3) (N2H5)2SO4 +2

(4) Mg3N2 –3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Which of the following is true about oxidation state of S in Na2S4O6 ?

(1) All S-atoms are in +2.5 state

(2) All S-atoms are in +2 state
(3) Two S-atoms are in 0 state and other two, in +5 state
(4) Two S-atoms are in –1 state and other two, in +6 state

35) MnO4 – + C2O4–2 + H+ → Mn+2 + CO2 + H2O

What are the coefficient of reactants in the balanced form of the equation ?
MnO4– C2O4–2 H+
(1) 2 5 16
(2) 16 5 2
(3) 5 16 2
(4) 2 16 5

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36)
Product will be :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

37)
Which statement is not incorrect for above reaction?
(A) It involves a dehydration reaction
(B) Intermediate carbanion is formed
(C) One of the step is Nucleophilic addition
(D) One of the step is Electrophilic addition

(1) A, B, C
(2) only A, D
(3) only B, C
(4) All

38) Which of the following compound can be prepared in good yield by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–NH–CH3

39)
The major product 'P' formed in this reaction:-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

40) Consider : (A) CH3–CH2–NH2 CH3–CH2–NC

(B)

(C) CH3 – C ≡ C–CH3

(D) PhMgBr
Which reaction among above is incorrect ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

41) Final product D in given reaction :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Which is correct :-

(1)

(Reactivity for hydrolysis)

(2)
(reactivity for SN2)

(3)
(reactivity for hydrogenation)
(4) All

43) (A) (B), Product (B) in this reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Identify the final product in the reaction sequence

C6H12O6(glucose) (A) (B) (C)

(1) α-methyl glycoside

(2) n-hexane
(3) n-heptane
(4) β-methyl cyanohydrin

45) A compound (X) with molecular formula C3H9N reacts with C6H5SO2Cl to give a solid which is
insoluble in alkali. (X) is:

(1) CH3CH2CH2NH2

(2)

(3) CH3–NH–CH2CH3

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following enzymes is required to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?

(1) restriction enzymes (endonucleases)

(2) helicase
(3) DNA ligase
(4) reverse transcriptase

2) Which of the following processes occurs in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes?

(1) post-transcriptional splicing

(2) transcription and translation occur simultaneously
(3) translation in the absence of a ribosome
(4) gene splicing

3) When taken up by a cell, which of the following molecules binds to a repressor so that
the repressor no longer binds to the operator?

(1) inducer
(2) promoter
(3) repressor
(4) corepressor
4) The central rule of molecular biology states that ____.

(1) DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is translated into protein

(2) DNA is translated into protein
(3) DNA is translated into RNA, which is transcribed into protein
(4) RNA is transcribed into protein

5) Which one of the following structures, if missing, would usually prevent translation from starting?

(1) exon
(2) 5′ cap
(3) AUG codon
(4) poly-A tail

6) Which of the following is an example of monosomy in humans?

(1) Turner syndrome

(2) Klinefelter syndrome
(3) Down syndrome
(4) cri-du-chat syndrome

7) In E. coli, what is the function of DNA polymerase III?

(1) to unwind the DNA helix during replication

(2) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands
(3) to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand
(4) to degrade damaged DNA molecules

8) Which component is not directly involved in translation?

(1) GTP
(2) DNA
(3) tRNA
(4) ribosomes

9) Which of the following molecular structures contain codons?

(1) a protein
(2) mRNA
(3) tRNA
(4) rRNA

10) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of a molecule of DNA, which of the

following combinations of base pairs will be found?

(1) A = C
(2) A = G and C = T
(3) A + C = G + T
(4) G + C = T + A

11) Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between ATP and
the nucleotides used during DNA synthesis?

(1) The nucleotides have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose.
(2) The nucleotides have two phosphate groups; ATP has three phosphate groups.
(3) ATP contains three high-energy bonds; the nucleotides have two.
(4) ATP is found only in human cells; the nucleotides are found in all animal and plant cells.

12) Which of the following order is correct in terms of the hierarchy of the organization?

(1) Ecosystem → Biosphere → Population → Community → Organism

(2) Biosphere → Ecosystem → Population → Community → Organism
(3) Ecosystem → Community → Biosphere → Population → Organism
(4) Biosphere → Ecosystem →Community → Population → Organism

13) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following outcomes is predicted by the
logistic equation?

(1) The population growth rate will not change.

(2) The population growth rate will approach zero.
(3) The population size will increase exponentially.
(4) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.

14) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual
per capita death rate of 0.02. Using these birth and death rates, calculate an estimate of the
total number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1,000 individuals in one year.

(1) 120 individuals added

(2) 40 individuals added
(3) 20 individuals added
(4) 400 individuals added

15) Which of the following causes populations to shift most quickly from an exponential to a logistic
population growth?

(1) favorable climatic conditions

(2) removal of predators
(3) decreased death rate
(4) competition for resources

16) Use the graph to answer the following question

In the figure, which of the arrows represents the carrying capacity ?

(1) arrow A
(2) arrow B
(3) arrow C
Carrying capacity cannot be found in the figure because species under density-dependent
(4)
control never reach carrying capacity.

17) How many phosphodiester bonds are present in a DNA molecule if its one strand has 60
nucleotides ?

(1) 120
(2) 59
(3) 119
(4) 118

18) Which of the following graphs illustrates the population growth curve starting with a single
bacterium growing in a flask of ideal medium at optimum temperature over a two-hour period ?
Assume resources do not become limiting over this time frame.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

19) Who described the first action spectrum of photosynthesis ?

(1) Julius Von Sachs

(2) Cornelius Van Niel
(3) T. W. Engelmann
(4) Jan Ingenhousz

20) Which of the following shows Kranz anatomy :-

(1) Sugarcane
(2) Maize
(3) Sorghum
(4) All of these

21) In photosynthesis, the electrons that are moved from photosystem- II must be replaced. This is
achieved by electrons available :-

(1) From the photosystem-I

(2) From the NADPH2
(3) From the splitting of water
(4) From the cytochrome

22) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of chemiosmotic hypothesis. Identify the A, B, C and D
and select the right option about them:-
Options :-

A B C D

(1) Thylakoid membrane PQ PS-II PS-I

(2) Thylakoid membrane ETS PS-II PS-I

(3) Thylakoid membrane ATP Synthase PS-I PS-II

(4) Stroma lamellae ATP Synthase PS-I PS-II

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) C4 plants consume _____ molecules of NADPH.H+ to fix 4 CO2, while C3 plants require _____
molecules of NADPH.H+ for fixation of same amount of CO2 :-

(1) 8, 8
(2) 4, 4
(3) 6, 6
(4) 8, 12

24)

Cyclic photophosphorylation occurs in which wavelength of sunlight :-

(1) 680 nm wavelength

(2) Above 680 nm wavelength
(3) Below 680 nm wavelength
(4) All of these

25) Consider the following four statements (a–d) and select which includes the correct ones only :-
(a) The splitting of water is associated with the PS–II.
(b) During Photophosphorylation ATP are form in down hill process.
(c) When only PS–II is functional the electron is circulated with in the photosystem.
(d) In noncyclic phosphorylation only PS–II is involves.

(1) Statement a, b, c
(2) Statement a, b
(3) Statement a, b, c, d
(4) Statement a, c, d

26) Select the correct statements about sickle cell anaemia.

(A) There is a change in gene for beta globin.
(B) In the beta globin, there is valine in the place of Lysine.
(C) It is an example of point mutation.
(D) In the normal gene U is replaced by A.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (B), (C) and (D) only

(2) (B) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B) and (D) only
(4) (A) and (C) only

27) Histone proteins are rich in which set of amino acid?

(1) Methioninc & cysteine

(2) Proline & glycine
(3) Lysine & Arginine
(4) Tryptophin & tyrosine

28) Assertion (A): The possibility of a female becoming haemophilic is extremely rare
Reason (R): A female to be haemophilic, her mother should be haemophilic and father should be
carrier

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

29) If the sequence of coding strand in transcription unit is :-

5´ - ATG CAT GCA TGC ATG CAT-3
What will be sequence of m-RNA ?

(1) 5´ UAG GUA CGU ACG UAC GUA 3´

(2) 5´ AUG CAU GCA UGC AUG CAU 3´
(3) 3´ AUG CAU GCA UGC AUG CAU 5´
(4) 3´ UAC GUA CGU ACG UAC GUA 5´

30) Which of the following RNA polymerase enzyme catalyses the formation of precursor of m-RNA
(hnRNA) ?

(1) RNA ligase

(2) DNA polymerase
(3) RNA polymerase - ΙΙ
(4) RNA polymerase - ΙΙΙ

31) If m-RNA base sequence is 5' AUG GAC GCG AUC UGC 3'. What is the possible number of
codons in case of non-overlapping and overlapping repectively ?

(1) 4, 13
(2) 5, 13
(3) 4, 12
(4) 13, 5

32) Polypeptide synthesis require energy during :-

P – An amino acid activation
Q – Binding of large ribosomal subunit
R – Binding of tRNA to P site
S – Binding of tRNA to A site

(1) P, Q, R, S
(2) P, Q, R
(3) P, R, S
(4) Only P, S

33) The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes by Taylor was
shown in :

(1) [Link]
(2) Vicia faba
(3) λ phage
(4) Mangifera indica

34) In the given picture correctly identify A, B and C

(1) A = Sigma factor, B = Rho factor, C = Stop codon

(2) A = RNA polymerase, B = Sigma factor, C = Stop codon
(3) A = Rho factor, B = RNA polymerase, C = Terminator
(4) A = RNA polymerase, B = Sigma factor, C = Rho factor

35) Given below are two statements, one is label3eed as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
as Reason(R).
Assertion (A) : In HGP, DNA fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequencers that
worked on the principle of sanger's method.
Reason (R) : HGP was a mega project.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

36) Match the terms in column I with their description in column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

(A) Dominance (i) Many genes govern a single character

In a heterozygous organism only one allele

(B) Co-dominance (ii)
expresses itself

In a heterozygous organism both alleles

(C) Pleiotropy (iii)
express themselves fully

A single gene inheritance influences many

(D) Polygenic (iv)
characters
(1) A→(iv); B→(i) ; C→(ii); D→(iii)
(2) A→(iv) ; B→(iii) ; C→(i); D→(ii)
(3) A→(ii) ; B→(i) ; C→(iv) ; D→(iii)
(4) A→(ii); B→(iii) ; C→(iv) ; D→(i)

37) The age pyramid for human population is shown below.

Which of the following conclusion can be drawn from the given age pyramid ?

(1) It represents that the population is growing

(2) It shows that the population is stable
(3) It shows that the population is declining
(4) It shows that the population is fluctuating

38) Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect to dihybrid cross.
(1) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosomes show higher recombinations.
(2) Genes far apart on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.
Genes loosely linked on the same chromosome show similar recombinations as the tightly linked
(3)
ones.
(4) Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

39) Satellite DNA is important because it

(1) does not code for proteins and is same in all members of the population
(2) codes for enzymes needed for DNA replication
(3) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism in
(4)
an individual, which is heritable from parents to children

40) Which of the following is not an adaptation of parasites for assurance of parasite host interaction

(1) Loss of sensory organs

(2) Presence of adhesive organs
(3) Loss of digestive system
(4) Low reproductive potential

41) In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify
the type of given pedigree.

(1) Autosomal recessive

(2) X-linked dominant
(3) Autosomal dominant
(4) X-linked recessive

42) Phytophagous insects show which of the following interaction :

(1) Predation
(2) Competetion
(3) Mutualism
(4) Commensalism

43) At how many locations, SNPs are present in human beings ?

(1) 1.4 billion
(2) 1.4 million
(3) 3 × 109 bp
(4) 3 × 104 bp

44) Match the column and choose the correct answers,

Column-I Column-II

(A) Ectoparasite (a) Barnacle

(B) Parasite (b) Copedods

Brood
(C) (c) Cuscuta
parasitism

(D) Competition (d) Cuckoo

(1) A→b ; B→c ; C→d ; D→a
(2) A→b ; B→c ; C→a ; D→d
(3) A→a ; B→b ; C→d ; D→c
(4) A→b ; B→d ; C→c ; D→a

45) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : C3 plants respond to higher CO2 concentration by showing increased rates
of photosynthesis leading to higher productivity. throughout their life.
Statement-II : C4 plants respond to lower temperature and show higher rate of photosynthesis.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

46) Widal test is used to diagnose the disorder :-

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Dengue
(3) Cholera
(4) Typhoid

47) Which of the following statements is/are correct about typhoid ?

(a) Sustained high fever
(b) Weakness
(c) Stomach pain
(d) Constipation
(e) Headache and loss of appetite
(f) Coughing
(1) Only a, c, d
(2) Only d, e, f
(3) a, b, c, d and e
(4) a, b, c but d, e, f are not

48) Read the statements A and B carefully and choose the correct option.
Statement-A : Common cold is a bacterial disease.
Statement-B : Common cold is one of the most infectious ailment in humans caused by Rhino virus.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct

(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

49) In common cold, which part of respiratory system is not infected?

(1) Nose
(2) Respiratory passage
(3) Lungs
(4) All of these

50) Select on option which represents correct sequence of stages in the life cycle of plasmodium.
(A) Sporozoites are injected in human blood, through mosquito bite.
(B) Sexual stages develop in red blood cells.
(C) Female mosquito takes in gametocytes with blood meal.
(D) The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells.
(E) Parasites reproduce asexually in RBCs, bursting RBCs and causing cycles of fever.
(F) Fertilization and development take place in mosquito's gut.

(1) A,D,E,B,C,F
(2) A,B,C,D,E,F
(3) A,D,E,C,B,F
(4) A,E,D,B,C,F

51)

Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. infection of Entamoeba histolytica :

(1) Houseflies act as mechanical carriers and serve to transmit the parasite from faeces
(2) It is a parasite of small intestine of man
(3) It is a protozoan parasite of human
(4) It is characterised by constipation and abdominal pain

52) Which of the following is the symptom of ascariasis?

(A) Internal bleeding and muscular pain
(B) Fever and anemia
(C) Blockage of intestinal passage

(1) only A
(2) A & B
(3) B & C
(4) A, B & C

53) Which is related with ringworm ?

(a) Microsporum
(b) Trichophyton
(c) Epidermophyton

(1) a
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) a,b,c

54) In full blown AIDS, encephalitis is caused by :-

(1) Candida albicans

(2) Pneumocystis carinii
(3) Mycobacterium avium
(4) Toxoplasma gondii

55) "Don't die of ignorance" is being said for which of the following disease :-

(1) Cancer
(2) Typhoid
(3) AIDS
(4) Common cold

56) How many of the following is/are mode of transmission of AIDS ?

(a) Sexual contact with infected person.
(b) By sharing food
(c) Transfusion of contaminated blood
(d) By sharing infected needles (e) Drug addicts who take drugs intravenously

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

57) Which cell acts as factory of HIV :-

(1) Macrophage
(2) TH cells
(3) TK cells
(4) both 1 and 2

58) AIDS is the global issue of concern and pandemic disease which requires concern of the society.
Some preventive measures taken by NACO to control it's. Spread extensively which does not include
:-

(1) Screening of blood

(2) Use of disposable syringes
(3) Safer sex using condoms
(4) Vaccination

59) Following diagram of HIV shows A, B, C and D (respectively) :-

(1) ss-RNA, Reverse transcriptase, lipid bilayer GP-120

(2) GP-120, ss-RNA, Reverse transcriptase, lipid bilayer
(3) Reverse transcriptase, ss-RNA, Lipid bilayer GP-120
(4) GP-120, Lipid bilayer, ss-RNA, Reverse transcriptase

60) GP-120 present on HIV has complementary sequence to :-

(1) CD-4 receptor's

(2) CD-8 receptors
(3) GP-41
(4) P-17

61)

Read the following statements carefully and choose incorrect statement:-

(1) There is always a time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms.
(2) AIDS is not a congenital disease
(3) MALT constitutes about 50% of lymphoid tissues
Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environment for the maturation of B-lymphocytes
(4)
only

62) The figure below shows steps A, B & C of replication of retrovirus. Select the option giving
correct Identification

(1) B–Incorporation of viral DNA into host genome with intregase enzyme
(2) C–Production of new viral DNA by infected cell
(3) A–Replication of viral RNA by protease enzyme
(4) C–Viral RNA replication by reverse transcriptase enzyme

63) Tumor promoter is–

(1) Factor which cause neoplastic transformation

(2) Factor which activates growth of oncogenically transformed tissue
(3) Estrogen in breast cancer.
(4) Both (2) and (3)

64)

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

(1) Psoriasis
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Alzheimer's disease
(4) Vitiligo

65) The body is able to differentiate "Self" and "non self". Rejection of non self organs can be
prevented by ?

(1) Cell mediated immune response

(2) Humoral immune response
(3) Antihistaminics
(4) Immunosuppressant

66) All are the sexually transmitted diseases except :–

(1) Syphillis
(2) Gonorrhoea
(3) Hepatitis–B
(4) Polio

67) Statement-I :- Among non-infectious diseases, AIDS is the major cause of death.
Statement-II :- Some of the infectious diseases like cancer are fatal.
Choose the correct answer from the given options :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

68) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): More and more children in metro cities of India suffer from allergies and asthma.
Reason (R): Children in metro cities of India are provided protected environment early in life.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect

69) Drugs used to reduce the symptoms of allergy :-

(1) Anti-histamines
(2) Steroids
(3) Adrenaline
(4) All of the above

70) Fish like reptile (Ichthyosaurs) which go back into the water from it's land ancestors evolved
before how many years :-

(1) 400 million years

(2) 100 million years
(3) 200 million years
(4) 150 million years

71) Select the correct sequence of evolution :-

(1) Sauropsid → thecodont → lizard

(2) Synapsid → pelycosaurs → bird
(3) Sauropsid → thecodont → crocodile
(4) Synapsid → thecodont → mammals

72) Connecting link between ape & man :

(1) Australopithecus
(2) Apes
(3) Tree shrews
(4) Prosimians

73)

Arrange the following human ancestors in increasing order of brain capacities :-

(A) Neanderthal man
(B) Homo erectus
(C) Cromagnon man
(D) Homo habilis

(E) Australopithecus
(1) E→D→B→A→C
(2) E→B→D→A→C
(3) E→A→B→D→C
(4) E→A→D→B→C

74) Direct ancestor of Homo sapiens

(1) Cromagnon
(2) Homo habilis
(3) Homo erectus
(4) Neanderthal man

75) In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average
weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weight from 2 to 2.5 kg or
4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place ?

(1) Directional selection

(2) Stabilizing selection
(3) Disruptive selection
(4) Cyclical selection

76) Select the incorrect options :

(1) In ZIFT : embryo upto 8 cells placed in fallopian tube

(2) In GIFT : ovum is placed in fallopian tube
(3) In IUT : Embryo upto 8 cells placed into uterus
(4) Invivo fertilisation : Fertilisation inside body

77) Which is not true for non-steroidal drug developed by CDRI, Lucknow ?

(1) It contains centchroman that acts as selective estrogen receptor modulator

(2) It is once a week pill called Saheli
(3) Very few side effects and high contraceptive value
Underlying principle of Saheli is suppression of ovulation and complete absence of menstrual
(4)
cycle
78) Cellular changes associated with the progression from normal to malignant include
a. Increased mitotic rate
b. Acquisition of new membrane antigens
c. Loss of contact inhibition d. Metastasis

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, b, c only
(3) a and c only
(4) c only

79) In the given list how many factors can be used for the treatment of cancer : Vincristine, Taxol,
Iodine-131, N-nitrosodimethylene, soot

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

80) Read the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) Benign tumors normally remain confined to their original location.
(B) Malignant Tumors grow very rapidly, invading and damaging the surrounding normal tissues.
(C) Metastasis is the most feared property of malignant Tumors.
(D) Proto-oncogene when activated under certain conditions, could lead to oncogenic
transformation of cells.
How many of the above statements are true :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

81) Which of the following is most feared property of malignant tumours :-

(a) Oncogenic transformation
(b) Absence of contact inhibition
(c) Metastasis

(1) a only
(2) a, b only
(3) c only
(4) a, b, c

82) Cancer detection is based on :-

(a) Biopsy
(b) Histopathological studies of tissue
(c) Blood test
(d) Bone marrow test

(1) a, b
(2) a, c & d
(3) a, b & c
(4) a, b, c & d

83) Which of the following pair is not matched correctly :-

(1) Amphetamine ⇒ synthetic stimulants

(2) Barbiturate ⇒ sedative
(3) Benzodiazepines ⇒ used in sleeping pills
(4) Heroin ⇒ Natural stimulant

84) Which of the following option is correct about given below ?

(1) Atropa belladona

(2) Datura
(3) Hallucinogen
(4) 2 and 3 both

85) Which drug is not normally used as medicines to help patients cope with mental illnes like
depression and insomnia ?

(1) Barbiturates
(2) Benzodiazepines
(3) Amphetamines
(4) LSD

86) Natural cannabinoids are obtained from the ____ of Cannabis sativa.

(1) Flower tops

(2) Inflorescences
(3) Leaves
(4) Resin

87) The drugs, which are commonly abused are opioid, cannabinoids and coca alkaloid. Majority of
these are obtained from......... while some are obtained from .........

(1) Fungi, non-flowering plants

(2) Flowering plants, fungi
(3) Fungi, flowering plants
(4) Non flowering plants, fungi

88) Read the following statements (A-D).

(A) When blood pressure is increased ANF is secreted which causes dilation of blood vessels.
(B) Gastrin acts on the gastric glands and stimulates the secretion of hydrochloric acid and
pepsinogen.
(C) Gastric inhibitory peptide inhibits gastric secretion and motility.
(D) Secretin acts on exocrine pancreas and stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions.
How many of the above statements are true :-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

89) Identify the correct match from column I, II and III.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(I) ADH (a) Thyroid (i) Tetany

Diabetes
(II) Thyrocalcitonin (b) Hypothalamus (ii)
mellitus

Anterior Diabetes
(III) Insulin (c) (iii)
pituitary insipidus

Growth
(IV) (d) Pancreas (iv) Dwarfism
hormone
(1) I-b-ii, II-a-i, III-d-iii, IV-c-iv
(2) I-b-iii, II-a-i, III-d-ii, IV-c-iv
(3) I-c-iii, II-a-i, III-d-ii, IV-b-iv
(4) I-c-ii, II-a-i, III-d-iii, IV-b-iv

90) Read the following statement :-

(A) Acromegaly is due to hyper secretion of STH in childhood stage
(B) In adulthood stage hypo thyroidism cause "Gull's disease"
(C) Hyper secretion of glucocorticoids cause "Cretinism"
(D) At the time of physical labour or fasting taking of insulin injection can cause 'Insulin shock' in
diabetic patient
Which of the statement true (T) and false (F)?

(1) A & B (T) and C & D (F)

(2) B & C (T) and D & A (F)
(3) C & D (T) and A & B (F)
(4) B & D (T) and A & C (F)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 3 2 3 4 2 4 1 3 1 2 4 4 4 4 2 3 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 3 4 3 1 4 3 4 1 1 4 3 1 3 4 2 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 3 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 1 3 4 1 4 2 3 4 4 2 1 2 1 2 1 2 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 1 4 1 4 4 1 2 3 4 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 2 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 2 3 1 4 2 2 4 3 4 3 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 1 4 2 4 3 4 2 3 2 3 2 4 1 4 3 4 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 2 1 2 4 3 4 3 1 2 4 4 4 3 2 1 4 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 4 3 4 4 1 1 4 3 3 1 1 3 2 3 4 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 4 4 4 2 2 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) dQ = dU + dW

0 0 0 0
= 1 × R × (4T – T ) + 1 × P × V

0 0 0
= RT + RT = RT

2) Δℓ = Δℓ1 + Δℓ2
3Lαav ΔT = L α ΔT + 2L (2α)ΔT

⇒ αav = α

3)

4) i1 + i2 + i3 = 0

5)
For 62° C to 50°C

--------(1)

--------(2)
From equation (1) & (2)
QS = 26°C

6) u = n1w1T + n2w2T

= 11 RT

7) We use

From (1) and (2), We get

8) Within the plates electric fields due to charges Q1 and Q2 are

and
As these fields are in opposite directions and Q1 > Q2, the net electric field within the plates is

E = E 1 – E2 =

Hence V = Ed = (Q1 – Q2) =

9)

Ed = V = (d + 1.6–2)E + .2

10) Due to slab.

C → KC, E = CV2
V → V/K , E = E/K
Q = CV = constant
V → Decrease, Energy decrease.
Q → Remain constant

11)

12) C = 1μF

Ceq. = C +

= =
= 2C = 2 μF
It is Geometric progression
sum of infinite terms

S∞ = Here a = C, r = 1/2

13)

No current will be there in capacitor branch.

14)

All capacitor are in series combination.

15) = 1.25 × 10–3 ms–1

16) 2 + 4 = 6W
3Ω || 6Ω = 2Ω
Req = 2 + 8 = 10Ω

Power dissipated is = = = 40 Watt

17)

Req = r ,
rR + 2Rr + 2R2 = r2 + Rr
r2 – 2Rr – 2R2 = 0

18) In parallel combined

I1 : I2 : I3 =
I1 : I2 : I3 = 3 : 2 : 1

I2 =

=
= 0.4 A

19)

20)

Ammeter is placed in parallel across the conductor in a circuit

21)

zero

22)

23) = 2L

so F = iB

F = 2iBL
24) Kinetic energy in magnetic field remains constant and it is (V =
constant)

25) Magnetic field inside the conducting cylindrical cable . Here, R is the radius of
the cylindrical cable, r is the distance from the axis of the cylinder, I is the current carrying in
the cylindrical cable.

The graph of magnetic field B with r is a straight line passing through origin. For a point

outside the cylinder .

The graph of magnetic field (B) with r is a rectangular hyperbola passing through the outer

surface of the cylinder. The variation of the magnetic field B due to the
cable with the distance r from the axis of the cylindrical cable is as shown in the figure.

26) The magnetic field (B) at the centre of circular current carrying coil of radius R and
current I is

Similarly, if current is 2I, then magnetic field

So, resultant magnetic field

27)

Behave like a paramagnetic material

28) The particles will not collide if

d > 2 (r1 + r2)

or

or
 29)

We know that
Relative permeability = magnetic susceptibility + 1

30) I =

31) Question Explanation -

The question asks to determine the direction of the included current in a loop when the
current flowing from point A to B decreases with time. The setup involves electromagnetic
induction, and we need to apply Lenz's Law to find the direction of the induced current.

Concept -

This question pertains to Electromagnetic Induction. According to Lenz's Law, the induced
current will always oppose the change in the magnetic flux. When the current decreases in the
wire, the magnetic flux created by the current will decrese, and the loop will induce a current
in such a direction as to try to oppose that decrease.

Formula Used -

A. Induced EMF (Faraday's Law) :

Where is the magnetic flux. and is the rate of change of flux.

A. Lenz's Law : The direction of the induced current opposes the changes in magnetic flux.

Explanation -

A. When the current from A to B decreases, the magnetic field produced by the current also
weakens.
B. To oppose the decrease in the magnetic field, the induced current in the loop will flow in such
a direction as to create a magnetic field that strengthens the original magnetic field.
C. The induced current will flow in the clockwise direction in the loop to oppose the reduction
in the magnetic flux.

Level - Easy

32) Both AD and BC are straight conductors moving in a uniform magnetic field and emf will
be induced in both. This will cause electric fields in both, but no net current flows in the
circuit.

33)

34)

35)

36) L2 and L3 are in parallel. Thus their combination gives

The L′ and L1 are in series, thus the equivalent inductance is L = L1 + L′ = 0.75 + 0.25 = 1H.

37) For monoatomic gas n = 5/3

5/3
PV = const
PV V2/3 = const
let PV = y and v = x
∴ yx2/3 = const

38) ⇒

39)

40)
41)

by simplification

Rq = 6Ω ⇒ I =

& I1 + I2 = I = 3
⇒ I1 = 2A
I2 = 1A

42)

For I = 5A, t = 10 sec

43) Motional emf e = Bvl ⇒ e = 2 × 2 × 1 = 4V

This acts as a cell of emf E = 4V and internal resistance r = 2Ω.
This simple circuit can be drawn as follows

Current through the connector i = = 1A

∴ magneitc force on connector Fm = Bil = 2×1×1=2N
(Towards left)

44)
dϕ = BdA

=ϕ=
 MI = ℓn

M= ℓn

45) = [sinθ + sin90°] ⊗

CHEMISTRY

46) 4NO2 + O2 → 2N2O5 ΔH1 = – 111 kJ

N2O5(s) → N2O5(g) ΔH2 = 54 kJ
–––––––––––––––––––––––
4NO2 + O2 → 2N2O5(s) ΔH3 = ?
3 = 1 + 2(–2)
ΔH3 = ΔH1 + 2(–ΔH2)
= – 111 + 2 (–54)
ΔH3 = – 219 kJ

47)

= 476.3 kJ/mole

48)

x = 0.85

Equivalent weight =

49)
i × 0.004 = 0.010
i = 2.5 = or 75%

50) (CH3)2CO + CS2 Exhibits positive deviations from Raoult’s Law

51) p = KH × solubility (x)

⇒ 1 = KH × 0.05 ....(i)
⇒ 3 = KH × x ....(ii)

⇒
∴ x = 0.05 × 3 = 0.15 mol/litre
52) = (n – 1) kt
put n = 3 = 2 kt

concentration i.e. =

= K × second
k = ℓ mol–2 sec–1
2

53) xA yB

ROR =

Taking log on both sides

...(i)
from question

...(ii)
compare the equation (i) & (ii)

=2
x:y=2:1

54)
t1/2 ∝ a1–n
1–n = 1 ⇒ n = 0
0th order reaction
rate = k

55) α =

=
Ka = α2C = 10–9
pKa = 9
56) Tl + Cu+2 → Tl+ + Cu
s 10–2M 10–4M s

E = E° +

57) Higher the oxidation potential better will be reducing power.

58)

59)

During charging, the lead storage battery behaves like an electrolytic cell. So, at anode the
reaction is

60) (Equivalent)Ag = (Equivalent)H2

w = 54 gm

– –
61) 4OH → 2H2O + O2 + 4e (At anode)
[OH–] ↓, pOH ↑ , pH ↓

62)

= 16 + 4 = 20 kJ/mole

63)

+182 = (430 + 242) – (2 × B.E.H—Cl)

∴ B.E.H—Cl = 245 kJ/mol

64) One mole substance formed from its elements in their most abundant naturally occurring
form/stable state is known as Heat of formation.
65)

Calorific value =

66) H2SO4 and Ba(OH)2 are strong acid and base respectively.

67) ΔH = ΔH1 + ΔH2 + ΔH3

= 2q1 + 2q2 + 4q3

68)

Maximum boiling azeotrope are show negative deviation in raoult law so the interactions
between solute and solvent is grater than solute - solute and solvent - solvent.

69)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question gives a mixture of two volatile liquids A and B with known
pure component vapour pressures and mole amounts. It asks which statements about the
mixture's vapour pressure behavior and intermolecular forces are correct based on the
observed total vapour pressure.

Underlying Concept: The problem uses Raoult's law to predict the total vapour pressure of
an ideal liquid mixture based on mole fractions and pure component vapour pressures.
Deviations from Raoult's law occur when intermolecular forces between different components
differ from those within the pure components. Positive deviation means the mixture's vapour
pressure is higher than predicted, indicating weaker A-B attractions and a lowered boiling
point.

Relevant Formulas: Raoult's Law for total vapour pressure of an ideal mixture: \[ P_{total} =
x_A P_A^0 + x_B P_B^0 \] where are mole fractions, and are pure component
vapour pressures.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Calculate mole fractions: \[ x_A = \frac{1}{1+3} = 0.25,

\quad x_B = \frac{3}{4} = 0.75 \]
Step 2: Calculate theoretical vapour pressure by Raoult's law: \[ P_{theo} = (0.25)(100) +
(0.75)(60) = 25 + 45 = 70 \text{ mmHg} \]
Step 3: Compare with observed pressure: \[ P_{obs} = 75 \text{ mmHg}> P_{theo} = 70
\text{ mmHg} \] This means there is a positive deviation from Raoult's law.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that a positive deviation indicates weaker intermolecular
attractions between different components, causing easier evaporation and higher total vapour
pressure, which also lowers the boiling point.

Common Mistakes: Students may incorrectly calculate mole fractions or confuse positive
deviation with negative deviation (where vapour pressure is lower than predicted). Or they
may forget to compare observed and theoretical vapour pressures.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that deny positive deviation or claim stronger
attraction between different molecules contradict the fact that observed pressure is higher
than predicted, which only happens if A-B forces are weaker than A-A or B-B.

70)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to find the molarity of nitric acid (HNO₃) when the
acid solution is 70% by mass and has a specific gravity (density relative to water) of 1.42.
Molarity is the number of moles of solute (HNO₃) dissolved per liter of solution.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves understanding concentration units in chemistry.

Specifically, it deals with converting percentage composition by mass and density (specific
gravity) of a solution into molarity, which is moles of solute per liter of solution. The concept
includes using density to find mass of solution, percentage to find mass of solute, and molar
mass to convert mass to moles.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Calculate the mass of 1 liter of solution using density:

Step 2: Calculate the mass of HNO₃ in this solution using the percentage by mass:

Step 3: Convert the mass of HNO₃ to moles using its molar mass (63 g/mol):

Therefore, molarity (moles per liter) is approximately 15.8 M.

Tips and Tricks: Specific gravity can be treated as the density in g/mL since water is 1 g/mL.
Converting percent by mass to actual mass in solution volume is crucial before calculating
molarity.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the percentage is volume percent rather than mass percent,
forgetting to use the density to find the total mass of solution for 1 L, or not converting mass of
solute to moles properly.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers like 1.58 or 0.158 likely come from misreading
percentage or incorrect unit conversion. The option 158 is too high and likely results from an
error in decimal placement or misunderstanding molarity units.

71)

Explanation
 A. Effective collisions lead to a reaction.
B. For this, molecules need enough energy (threshold energy) and the correct alignment.

Concept

A. Collision theory: Reactions occur when molecules collide with sufficient energy and proper
orientation.

Answer option 4, (Threshold energy as well as proper orientation of collision).

72) Question Explanation:

We have to find ΔH of the reaction.

Solution:
ΔH = (Ea)f – (Ea)b
(Ea)f = x, (Ea)b = x + y
ΔH = (Ea)f – (Ea)b
ΔH = x – (x + y) = –y
ΔH = –45 KJ/mol
|ΔH|= magnitude is = 45 KJ/mol

Final Answer: Option 4

= 45 KJ/mol

73) Reaction is pseudo first order reaction, order is one and molecularity is two.

74) N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3

= 3 × 10–4 mol litre–1 sec–1

75)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which metal container (vessel) can safely store a
given aqueous solution of metal ions without the vessel corroding. It provides standard
electrode potentials and asks to determine which statements about storing certain solutions in
specific metal vessels are correct or not.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves redox reactions and standard electrode
potentials (E°). Corrosion of a metal vessel by an ion solution depends on the spontaneity of
the reaction where the vessel's metal oxidizes and the ion reduces. If the overall cell potential
for the reaction is positive, corrosion occurs; if negative, the vessel remains safe.

Relevant Formulas: The cell potential is given by:

where: - is the reduction potential of the solution's metal ion, -
is the reduction potential of the metal making the vessel.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Given the standard reduction potentials: - V-

V- V- V
Check each statement:
1. AgNO₃ in Cu vessel:

=> Vessel corrodes (not safe).

2. Cu(NO₃)₂ in Mg vessel:

=> Vessel corrodes (not safe).

3. CuClâ‚‚ in Ag vessel:

=> Vessel does not corrode (safe).

4. HgClâ‚‚ in Cu vessel:

=> Vessel corrodes (not safe).

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

Tips and Tricks: Compare the reduction potentials: the vessel metal must have a more
positive reduction potential than the ions in solution to be safe.

Common Mistakes: One common mistake is to confuse oxidation and reduction potentials or
to reverse the order when calculating E°cell.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Statements 1, 2, and 4 predict a positive cell potential,
meaning the metal of the vessel will oxidize and corrode, hence those storage combinations
are unsafe.

76) Efficiency =
ΔG = –nFE

77)

78)
79)

80)

81)

82)

Explaining the Question :- Analyze the reaction and determine which statements about its
mechanism are correct.
Concept:- Intramolecular Aldol condensation reaction.
Solution :-
(A) It involves a dehydration reaction – correct.
(B) Intermediate carbanion is formed – correct.
(C) One of the step is Nucleophilic addition – correct.
(D) One of the step is electrophilic addition – Incorrect.
Final Answer :- Option (1)

83) NCERT-XII, Part-II, Edition 2023-24, Pg. # 264

84)

85) Lindlar catalyst give cis alkene

86)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

87)

NSR and α-H for alkenes

 88)

89) Asking about :- Product 'C' of be action sequence.

Concept :- Be action of glucose with HCN, Hydrolysis of Nitrile in acidic medium; Reduction
by red P+ HI
Sol. Explanation :-

BIOLOGY

91)

reverse transcriptase

92)

transcription and translation occur simultaneously

93)

inducer

94)

DNA is transcribed into RNA, which is translated into protein

95)

AUG codon

96)

Turner syndrome

97)

to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand

98)

DNA

99)

mRNA

100)

A+C=G+T

101)

The nucleotides have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose.

102)

Biosphere → Ecosystem →Community → Population → Organism

103)

The population growth rate will approach zero.

104)

40 individuals added

105)

competition for resources

106)
arrow C

107)

Answer option 4 that is 118

108)

109)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 207

110)

All of these

111) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 212

112)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 214

113) NCERT XI pg.# 218, 219

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 140

115)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 139, 140

116) Asking About :

Statement about sickle cell Anemia

Concept :
SCA → Autosomal recessive disorder
→ Glutamic acid replaced valine
Solution / Explanation :
Point Mutation, change in β - chain.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

117)

Lysine & Arginine

118)

NCERT [Link]. 74

119)

Explanation: The mRNA sequence is complementary to the template strand of DNA and
identical to the coding strand, except that uracil (U) replaces thymine (T). Therefore, the
mRNA sequence is the same as the given coding strand with T replaced by U.

Correct Answer: (2) 5´ AUG CAU GCA UGC AUG CAU 3´

120)

RNA polymerase - ΙΙ

121)

5, 13

122)

Concept :- Translations
Solution :- During Process of Translation energy needed for
(P) Amino acid activation - Attaching amino acid with t- RNA required ATP
(R) T-RNA to P-site - initial t-RNA binding during ignition need of GTP.
(S) t-RNA to A site - subsequent t-RNA binding during elongation need -GTP
⇒ Binding of large ribosomal sub unit does not need energy .
Answer :- 3 P, R, S

123)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

124)

A = RNA polymerase, B = Sigma factor, C = Rho factor

125)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

126)

A→(ii); B→(iii) ; C→(iv) ; D→(i)

127)

It shows that the population is declining

128)

Tightly linked genes on the same chromosome show very few recombinations.

129)

shows high degree of polymorphism in population and also the same degree of polymorphism
in an individual, which is heritable from parents to children

130)

Low reproductive potential

131)

Autosomal recessive

132)

Predation

133)

1.4 million

134)

A→b ; B→c ; C→d ; D→a

135) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

136) Explanation: The Widal test is a serological test used to diagnose typhoid fever, also
known as enteric fever. It detects antibodies against Salmonella typhi, the bacteria that causes
typhoid.

Correct Answer: 4. Typhoid

137)

Explain Question : to identify correct about typhoid

Concept : bacterial disease

Explanation : Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation,
headache and loss of appetite are some of the common symptoms of this [Link] answer :
3

138) NCERT Reference:

Zoology-XII Page No. 147

139)

Lungs

140)

Correct option is 1

141)

It is a parasite of small intestine of man

142)

A, B & C

143)

a,b,c

144) Module 6 Pg. # 23

145) NCERT XII Pg. # 156

146)

NCERT Pg.# 154 (E)

 147)

NCERT XII (E), Pg. # 156

148)

NCERT XII Pg. # 156

149)

NCERT XII Pg. # 156

150)

NCERT XII Pg. # 156

151) NCERT Pg. # 154, 155

152)

NCERT-XII, Page # 155

153)

NCERT Pg. # 154, 155

154) Question Explanation : The question asks which one among the listed conditions is not
an autoimmune disease.
Solution :
The correct answer is option 3.
Autoimmune Disorders – Involve immune system attacking [Link] Disorders –
Affect nerve cells without autoimmunity.

A. Psoriasis, Rheumatoid arthritis, and Vitiligo are autoimmune diseases.

B. Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder, not autoimmune.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct : Alzheimer's disease.

155)

Immunosuppressant

156)

NCERT XII, Pg # 63
157)

Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

158)

NCERT PAGE : 153

159) NCERT Page No. # 153

160)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 124

161)

Sauropsid → thecodont → crocodile

162)

Australopithecus

163)

E→D→B→A→C

164)

Homo erectus

165)

Stabilizing selection

166)

In IUT : Embryo upto 8 cells placed into uterus

167)

Underlying principle of Saheli is suppression of ovulation and complete absence of menstrual

cycle

168) NCERT Pg. # 154, 155

169) Module-6, Pg.#30,31

170) NCERT Pg. # 154, 155

171) NCERT Pg. # 157 (E), 169 (H)

172) NCERT Pg. # 157 (E), 169 (H)

173) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 26,35

174) NCERT-XII Pg. # 159 (E)

175) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 159

176) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 159

177) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 158

178) NCERT-XI Pg. # 337, 338

179) NCERT Pg. # 157 (E), 169 (H)

180) NCERT Pg. # 157 (E), 169 (H)