Assessment 50 Marks.
1. The surgeon performed an axillary sentinel node biopsy in conjunction with a partial
mastectomy. Which anesthesia code should be reported?
A. 01656
B. 01610
C. 01650
D. 01654
2. Does the anesthesia record have to state when the type of anesthesia was MAC?
A. Yes
B. No
[Link] physician unsuccessfully attempts laparoscopic nephrectomy with a partial
ureterectomy. Following the unsuccessful attempt, the physician performs a successful
nephrectomy using an open approach that includes rib resection. Which code is most
appropriate?
A. 50546
B. 50220
C. 50546 & 50220
D. None of the above
[Link] pulmonologist uses ventilation management to treat respiratory failure on
subsequent day of inpatient admission. Which CPT code would be most appropriate?
A. 94002
B. 94003
C. 94004
D. None of the above
[Link] the surgeon performs a partial mastectomy and if the deformity is too big then he
performs an oncoplastic reconstruction of the breast with the 3D Biozorb implant and
pedicled flap 40 sq cm. What is the appropriate coding for this scenario?
A. 19301, 19340 & 14301
B. 19301,14301
C. 19302, 19340 & 14301
D. 19303,19340 & 14301
6.A gastroenterologist performed a sigmoidoscopy in the office as part of routine colon
cancer screening on a non-Medicare patient. Which code is most appropriate?
A. 45330
B. 45307
C. 45320
D. 45321
7.A patient received a total of four single-view chest X-rays on the same date of service. The
first two were performed in the morning by one radiologist, and the second two were
performed in the afternoon by a different radiologist. Which modifier should be appended
on the second X-ray for the morning session?
A. 77
B. 76,77
C. 76
D. 79
8.A patient received treatment for a right Achilles injury; there is no other information on
the injury the patient suffered. Notes indicate that it was a subsequent encounter to treat
the injury. Which ICD-10 code should be reported for this patient?
A. S86.001A
B. S86.002D
C. S86.009D
D. S86.002A
[Link] is the correct CPT® code for computer tomography lung cancer screening of the
thorax without contrast?
A. 71555
B. 71271
C. 71045
D. None of the above
[Link] have a patient that received a total of four single-view chest X-rays on the same date
of service. The first two were performed in the morning by one radiologist, and the second
two were performed in the afternoon by a different radiologist. How should modifiers be
appended for afternoon service?
A. 71045, 71045-76
B. 71045-77, 71045-76,77
C. 71045 x4
D. None of the above
[Link] of the following physical status modifier is used for a moribund patient who is
not expected to survive without the operation?
A. P3
B. P4
C. P5
D. P6
[Link] of the following condition not included in ICD-10-CM I21.23?
A. Acute transmural myocardial infarction of unspecified site
B. Transmural (Q wave) myocardial infarction NOS
C. Type 1 ST elevation myocardial infarction of unspecified site
D. Posteroseptal transmural (Q wave) infarction (acute)
[Link] should I code a patient who has stage-4 pressure ulcers on the left heel?
A. L89.624
B. L89.626
C. L89.620
D. L98.629
14.A physician documents a diagnosis of “allergic rhinitis” only. How will you report this
condition?
A. J30.89
B. J30.9
C. B49
D. J30.2
[Link] of the following conditions is associated with ICD-10-CM code L25.5?
A. Unspecified contact dermatitis due to dyes
B. Unspecified contact dermatitis due to other chemical products
C. Unspecified contact dermatitis due to plants, except food
D. Unspecified contact dermatitis due to other agents
[Link] of the following code is correct code for the diagnosis of “Spontaneous
cerebrospinal fluid leak from skull base”?
A. G96.01
B. G96.02
C. G96.08
D. G96.09
[Link] of the following ICD-10-CM codes represents a partial doubling of the uterus?
A. Q51.11
B. Q51.22
C. Q51.810
D. Q50.32
[Link] physician can diagnose ankylosing spondylitis based upon the patient’s history, a
physical exam, imaging techniques like x-rays and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), as
well as a lab test of inflammatory markers and genetic testing for the presence of HLA-
B27.
A. True
B. False
19.A patient is diagnosed with stage 3 chronic renal disease with eGFR between 45 and 59
ml/minute. How will you report this diagnosis?
A. N18.30
B. N18.31
C. N18.32
D. N18.9
[Link] will you report ICD-10CM code if patient have diagnosis of “Other intervertebral
disc degeneration, lumbosacral region without mention of lumbar back pain or lower
extremity pain”?
A. M51.370
B. M51.371
C. M51.372
D. M51.379
[Link] cardiologist performed a transcatheter pulmonary valve implantation (TPVI) via a
percutaneous approach in a patient. According to the documentation, the cardiologist
placed a stent at the valve site to keep it open before performing the replacement. Which
CPT® code should be coded?
A. 33477, 37426
B. 33477, 92997
C. 33477
D. 92997
[Link] code 36568 or 36569 cannot be reported in conjunction with +76937 or +77001.
A. True
B. False
[Link] procedure code should be used to report Swan-Ganz catheter insertion and
placement?
A. 93533
B. 93530
C. 93532
D. 93503
[Link] the cardiologist places the PICC without imaging guidance on patient younger than 5-
year-old. What CPT should be coded?
A. 36568
B. 36569
C. 76937
D. 77001
[Link] CPT code is used when the cardiologist took an electrocardiogram with the
patient at rest after applying seven specialized alternans sensors to the patient in addition
to seven conventional electrocardiogram electrodes to assess the risk of ventricular
arrhythmia and then cardiologist recorded another electrocardiogram of the patient at
stress?
A. 93025
B. 93024
C. 93040
D. 93005
[Link] should a modifier 52 be reported with Holter monitor codes 93224-93227?
A. When the recording is greater than 12 hours but less than 24 hours
B. When less than 12 hours of recording is performed
C. When the recording is less than 48 hours
D. When the recording is less than 36 hours
[Link] CPT code is used for follow-up of Transthoracic echocardiography for congenital
cardiac anomalies?
A. 93304
B. 93303
C. 93306
D. None of the above
[Link] ICD 10 CM code used when the cardiologist documents patient has hypertension
with both heart and kidney involvement. The patient has stage 3 CKD. The patient also has
acute systolic congestive heart failure?
A. I13.0
B. N18.30
C. I50.21
D. All of the above
[Link] is the correct CPT code when a cardiologist performed a tilt table test to evaluate
a patient who has been experiencing symptoms of syncope?
A. 33216
B. 33217
C. 93660
D. 33220
30.A cardiologist performed a complete stress test on a submaximal treadmill. They
performed continuous electrocardiographic monitoring, supervision, and report. Which
CPT® code should be reported for this service?
A. 93005
B. 93000
C. 93015
D. 93018
[Link] vestibular test with recording, bilateral; bithermal (i.e., one warm and one cool
irrigation in each ear for a total of four irrigations 92537 when billed. How many Units are
billed to support the code?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4
[Link] E/M service that results in the initial decision to perform a surgery may be identified
by adding which Modifier?
A. 24
B. 59
C. 57
D. 25
[Link] and management (E/M) coding for office and outpatient visits is based on
medical decision making (MDM) and time?
A. True
B. False
[Link] otolaryngologist uses extensive cautery and/ or packing to control anterior bleeding.
Which Code should be used?
A. 30901
B. 30905
C. 30906
D. 30903
[Link] a provider removed a piece of popcorn kernel from a patient’s tonsils. What is the best
CPT code to use in this encounter?
A. 42804
B. 42806
C. 42808
D. 42809
[Link]’s the CPT® code to report for the resection of a lesion of the buccal mucosa for
simple Repair?
A. 40810
B. 40812
C. 40814
D. 40816
[Link] the otolaryngologist performs an FNA of a right thyroid nodule in addition to an
FNA of a nodule of the right thyroid isthmus — both using ultrasound guidance (US).
What is the correct code to report.
A. 10021, +10004
B. 10011, +10012
C. 10005, +10006
D. None of the above
[Link] physician removes impacted cerumen in the right ear to access the TM for a
diagnostic examination. Which code would you report?
A. 99213-25, 69210-52
B. 99213
C. 99213-25, 69210
D. 99213-25, 69210-RT
[Link] codes should you report for a nasal endoscopy with a total ethmoidectomy in
addition to a sphenoidotomy with tissue removal? Also, should you bill for a polypectomy
separately?
A. 31259- RT, Yes
B. 31257-RT, NO
C. 31259-RT, NO
D. 31257-RT, YES
[Link] the Surgeon performs control of epistaxis by performing anterior and posterior
packing. What is the appropriate code one should use?
A. 30901
B. 30903
C. 30905
D. None of the above.
[Link] is the power house of a cell ?
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgi Apparatus
(C) Xylem
(D) None of the above
42. What does the suffix '-logist' (as in oncologist) mean?
A. Someone who studies a certain field
B. act of cutting, incision
C . a field in medicine
D. None of the above
[Link] of the following prefixes means 'away'?
[Link]- or 'ad, (as in adduction)
B. an- (as in analgesia)
C. ab- (as in abduction)
D. None of the above
[Link] suffix '-tomy' (as in gastrotomy) means ...
A. someone who studies a certain field
B. act of cutting, incision
C. a field in medicine
D. None of the above
[Link] prefix for 'through', 'during', or 'across' is ...
[Link]- (as in dialysis)
[Link]- (as in interarticular ligament)
C. para-
D. None of the above
[Link] does the prefix 'macro-' (as in macrophage) mean?
A. small/smallness, millionth
B. thousandth
[Link], long
D. None of the above
[Link] of the following prefixes means 'dead'?
A. pneumo- (as in pneumonia)
B. necro- (as in necrosis)
[Link]- (as in neurotransmitter)
D. None of the above
48. The prefix 'para-' means ...
A. alongside of, abnormal
[Link], during, across
[Link], among
D. None of the above
49. Which of the following prefixes means 'small' or 'millionth'?
A. milli- (as in milliliter)
[Link]- (as in macrophage)
[Link]- (as in microscope)
D. None of the above
50. What does the prefix 'neuro-' (as in neurotransmitter) mean?
[Link], corpse
[Link] or pertaining to nerves and the nervous system
[Link] or pertaining to the lungs
D. None of the above .