SCIENCE REVIEWER

1. Which adhesive type is known for its ability to bond dissimilar materials such as metal to plastic?
A. Polyurethane
B. UV-curing adhesive
C. Acrylic adhesive
D. Epoxy

2. Which adhesive type is often used for sealing and bonding in automotive and plumbing applications due
to its flexibility and resistance to vibration?
A. Contact adhesive
B. Thermoset adhesive
C. Polyurethane
D. Rubber cement

3. Which adhesive type is often used for woodworking due to its strong bond and water resistance?
A. Hot glue
B. Polyvinyl acetate
C. Silicone adhesive
D. Rubber cement

4. What is the primary purpose of surface preparation before applying adhesives?

A. To increase the cost of the project
B. To remove any existing adhesive residue
C. To ensure proper adhesion and bond strength
D. To speed up the application process

5. When selecting materials, considering the properties of the material is important. Which of the following
is NOT typically considered a property of a material?
A. Density
B. Color
C. Availability
D. Strength

6. Which factor is essential to consider when evaluating the availability of a material for a project?
A. The material's melting point
B. The material's cost
C. The material's processing requirements
D. The material's environmental impact

7. In material selection, what does "processing of material" refer to?

A. How the material responds to stress
B. The ease of shaping and forming the material
C. The cost of the material
D. The color of the material

8. Which of the following is an example of a material property that is important to consider when selecting
materials?
A. Availability in the local market
B. Ease of transportation
C. Tensile strength
D. Brand reputation
 SCIENCE REVIEWER
9. Bending tests are useful for assessing a material's behavior under what type of loading conditions?
A. Axial
B. Torsional
C. Flexural
D. Compressive

10. In compression testing, what type of material behavior is often associated with failure under high axial
loads?
A. Creep deformation
B. Torsional failure
C. Ductile fracture
D. Brittle fracture

11. What type of testing, sometimes called flexure testing or transverse beam testing, measures the behavior
of materials subjected to simple beam loading?
A. Tensile Test
B. Compression Test
C. Brinell Hardness Test
D. Bend Test

12. What is the primary purpose of a Compression Test in mechanical testing?

A. To measure hardness
B. To assess tensile strength
C. To evaluate ductility
D. To determine compressive strength

13. In this test, hardness is measured by pressing a hard steel ball into the surface of the test piece, using a
known load.
A. Tensile Test
B. Compression Test
C. Brinell Hardness Test
D. Bend Test

14. Which of the following is NOT a common method of cleaning the surface before applying adhesives?
A. Applying a thin layer of oil
B. Solvent wiping
C. Sanding
D. Abrading

15. What type of surface is more challenging to bond with adhesives and requires special surface preparation
techniques?
A. Smooth and clean surfaces
B. Porous and rough surfaces
C. Metal surfaces
D. Surfaces with existing adhesive residue

16. What is the primary objective of non-destructive testing (NDT)?

A. To destroy materials for analysis
B. To assess the ductility of materials
C. To measure the hardness of materials
D. To evaluate material properties without causing damage
 SCIENCE REVIEWER
17. What aspect of materials does non-destructive testing primarily focus on?
A. Chemical composition
B. Mechanical properties
C. Optical characteristics
D. Electrical conductivity

18. What is a key advantage of non-destructive testing over destructive testing methods?
A. Non-destructive testing provides faster results
B. Non-destructive testing is more cost-effective
C. Non-destructive testing allows for repeated testing on the same material
D. Non-destructive testing preserves the structural integrity of the material

19. Ultrasonic testing is based on the principle of:

A. Magnetization
B. Sound waves
C. Penetrating dyes
D. X-ray absorption

20. What test is used in evaluating materials for boilers, gas turbines, jet engines, ovens, or any application
that involves high temperatures under load?
A. Creep Test
B. Vicker's Hardness Test
C. Brinell Hardness Test
D. Bend Test

21. When selecting materials based on properties, which factor is crucial for determining a material's
response to external forces?
A. Hardness
B. Color
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Odor

22. Which property is essential for materials used in applications where electrical conductivity is crucial?
A. Thermal expansion
B. Electrical conductivity
C. Transparency
D. Brittleness

23. In structural applications, which property is vital for materials to resist deformation and breaking under
load?
A. Ductility
B. Elasticity
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Transparency

24. Which of the following is a type of adhesive that cures when exposed to ultraviolet (UV) light?
A. Epoxy
B. Cyanoacrylate
C. UV-curing adhesive
D. Silicone
 SCIENCE REVIEWER

25. What is the main principle behind magnetic methods in non-destructive testing?
A. Detection of temperature variations
B. Measurement of electrical conductivity
C. Response to magnetic fields in the material
D. Reflection of X-rays

26. Which non-destructive testing method involves the application of a colored dye to the surface of a
material to detect surface-breaking defects?
A. Visual Inspection
B. Dye-penetrant
C. Magnetic Methods
D. Thermal and Electrical Test

27. What property of a material is evaluated through the Impact Test?

A. Creep resistance
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
D. Elasticity

28. When selecting materials for optical devices, which property is often critical for allowing the passage of
light without distortion?
A. Transparency
B. Hardness
C. Electrical conductivity
D. Thermal expansion

29. Why is the local availability of materials important in construction projects?

A. To improve aesthetics
B. To reduce transportation costs
C. To increase electrical conductivity
D. To enhance thermal conductivity

30. What characteristic of raw materials contributes to the ease of production and processing into a finished
product?
A. Material Cost
B. Availability
C. Manufacturability
D. Quantity

31. Magnetic methods in non-destructive testing are particularly useful for detecting defects like:
A. Internal voids
B. Surface cracks
C. Thermal variations
D. Electrical conductivity issues

32. Which non-destructive testing method is most effective in identifying surface defects such as cracks,
scratches, and corrosion?
A. Dye-penetrant
B. Magnetic Methods
C. Visual Inspection
D. Ultrasonic Testing
 SCIENCE REVIEWER
33. Which testing method involves applying repeated stress to a material to assess its endurance limit and
fatigue strength?
[Link] Test
B. Fatigue Test
C. Brinell Hardness Test
D. Vicker's Hardness Test

34. What is the purpose of using solvents in surface preparation before applying adhesives?
A. To add color to the surface
B. To soften and remove contaminants
C. To speed up the curing process of the adhesive
D. To reduce the bond strength

35. What term describes a material's ability to prevent natural chemical or electro-chemical attack by
atmosphere, moisture, or other agents?
A. Corrosion resistance
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Malleability
D. Density

36. What term describes the ability of a material to deform plastically without fracturing and retain the new
shape when the load is removed?
A. Corrosion resistance
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Malleability
D. Density

37. What does density, in terms of material properties, provide information about?
A. Resistance to corrosion
B. Ability to conduct heat
C. Ability to deform plastically
D. Mass per unit volume

38. When evaluating a material for its ability to withstand rubbing effects, which property becomes a key
consideration?
A. Corrosion resistance
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Malleability
D. Wear Resistance

39. Which material is widely used in cylinder head construction due to its lightweight nature, good thermal
conductivity, and excellent machinability?
A. Aluminum alloys
B. Cast Iron
C. Alloyed Cast Iron
D. High-temperature alloy steel

40. What material is specifically preferred for its ability to resist wear, conduct heat, and retain lubricating
oil on its surface in cylinder liner construction?
A. Alloyed Cast Iron
B. High-temperature alloy steel
C. Cast Iron
D. Aluminum alloys
 SCIENCE REVIEWER

1. What are the most common metals determined to be the best metals utilized for shipbuilding?
A. Chromium & Titanium B. Silver & Gold
C. Nitrogen & Oxygen D. Steel & Aluminum Alloy

2. What is the primary raw material used in the production of pig iron?
A. Iron Ore B. Steel
C. Copper D. Aluminum

3. What is the main component extracted from iron ore during the production of pig iron?
A. Iron oxide B. Carbon dioxide
C. Silicon dioxide D. Calcium carbonate

4. It is usually considered undesirable impurity in steel rather than an alloying element causing brittleness and
reduce weldability.
A. Chromium B. Sulfur
C. Oxygen D. Molybdenum

5. It is a powerful alloying element in steel which strongly increases the hardenability of steel & markedly
improves the corrosion resistance of alloys in oxidizing media.
A. Chromium B. Aluminum
C. Nitrogen D. Air

6. It is incorporated into steel in minute quantities to serve as a deoxidizing agent.

A. Oxygen B. Manganese
C. Silver D. Aluminum

7. It is a mineral aggregate that can be converted economically into iron.

A. Iron Ore B. Gangue
C. Gold D. Asphalt

8. In what distinct operation of manufacturing Pig iron where iron ores are crushed into pieces of size of 25 mm
diameter?
A. Roasting B. Calcining
C. Dressing D. Quenching

9. In what operation of manufacturing process where iron ores after dressing consists in heating ores in presence
of air so that they are oxidized?
A. Cooling B. Casting
C. Drying D. Calcination

10. This process consists of making the ores hot & dry.
A. Roasting B. Saute
C. Forging D. Hot Rolling

11. The process of separating the metal from the ore.

A. Smelting B. Calcining
C. Drawing D. Thermal conductivity

12. In simple terms, describe the main component extracted from iron ore during the production of pig iron.
A. Aluminum oxide B. Iron oxide
C. Silicon dioxide D. Calcium carbonate

13. This can be conveniently converted into steel by melting in an electric arc furnace or used in cupolas to
produce heavy duty irons.
A. Spongy iron B. Scrap iron
C. Recycled iron D. Cast iron
 SCIENCE REVIEWER

14. These are classified as steels which contain about 0.1% C with 0.3- 0.4 % Mn and are cooled worked low
carbon steels.
A. Conventional Low Carbon Steels B. Conventional Mild Steels
C. Stainless Steels D. High Alloy Steels

15. It is a way of using controlled heating and cooling procedure to change metal’s physical properties and
improve them to be used in a large range of industries.
A. Heat Treatment B. Hair Treatment
C. Spa D. Manufacturing

16. It is a heat treatment process that relies on slow-cooling to achieve its desired effect, and it is influenced by a
number of factors including the internal stress induced into the parts from the various manufacturing methods.
A. Hardening B. Tempering
C. Cooling D. Stress Relief

17. It is a specific process of heat treatment that alters the properties of metal because it increases ductility and
reduces hardness of a metal.
A. Annealing B. Hardening
C. Tempering D. Drying

18. It's a heat treatment technique employed to enhance the ductility and toughness of a metal that has undergone
thermal or mechanical hardening processes.
A. Quenching B. Normalizing
C. Malleability D. Ductility

19. It is a type of heat treatment process, which involves rapid cooling of a metal to adjust the mechanical
properties of its original state.
A. Drying B. Swimming
C. Quenching D. Tempering

20. It is a process of heat treatment, which is used to increase the toughness of iron-based alloys.
A. Tempering B. Crystallizing
C. Hardening D. Cooling

21. What tempering color appears at a very precise temperature when steel can be used as screw drivers, and
wrenches?
A. Faint yellow B. Red
C. Orange D. Dark Blue

22. It is a thermochemical process in which alloying elements, mostly carbon or nitrogen are added to the surface
of a metal up to a specific depth, only the outer case becomes hard through this process.
A. Case Hardening B. Flame Hardening
C. Casting D. Drawing

23. It is a process of heating the surface layers of steel above the transformation temperature by means of a high
temperature flame and then quenching.
A. Casting B. Induction Hardening
C. Surface Hardening D. Flame hardening

24. Several common groupings of low-alloy steels used for building ship hulls, submarines, bridges and off high
way vehicles.
A. HY80,HY90,HY100 steels B. ASTM:A514,A517,& TI steels
C. Stainless steels D. Carbonized steels

25. What type of an alloy of iron which contain 10.5% chromium?

A. High Alloy steel B. Low Alloy Steel
C. Tool Steel D. High Speed steel
 SCIENCE REVIEWER

26. This type of steel is used to make other products, for cutting, stamping. punching and machining other metals,
plastics and wood.
A. High speed steel B. Tool steels
C. Shock resisting D. Carbon steel

27. These are best suited to moulding chemically aggressive plastics, sometimes in food industry
A. Plastic Mold Steels B. Powder Metallurgy tool steels
C. Plasticity D. Elasticity

28. These uses “gas atomization” where a stream of liquid steel is passed through nitrogen sprays that instantly
solidify the steel into fine powder.
A. Powder Metallurgy tool steels B. Plastic Mold steels
C. Spongy Iron D. Carbon steel

29. What is a hard, malleable, ductile metal whose common applications include cryogenic equipment such as
tanks, hot section aerospace equipment such as combustion chamber components and marine equipment.
A. Nickel B. Silver
C. Gild D. Chromium

30. It is an important metal used in wide range of applications due to its low weight and ease of machining. It is a
good conductor of heat and electricity.
A. Silver B. Crystals
C. Glasses D. Aluminum

31. What is an alloy of copper & Zinc?

A. Brass B. Bronze
C. Iron D. Steel

32. What is an alloy of copper and Tin?

A. Steel B. Steel Bronze
C. Brass D. Pewter

33. What is used in Maritime paints as an anticorrosive agent?

A. Lead B. Zinc
C. Phosporous D. Nitrogen

[Link] is used in propeller shafts, marine hardware, decorative fittings, shafting, propeller shafts and turn buckles, it
can hold its form under extreme heat, extreme pressures, and through severe wear & tear.
A. Naval Brass B. Carbon
C. Tungsten D. Molybdenum

35. What non-ferrous metal has properties which include high thermal conductivity, high electrical conductivity,
good corrosion resistance, & high ductility?
A. Carbon B. Copper
C. Zinc D. Silver

36. What protects stainless steel from corrosion?

A. Presence of chromium B. Alloy of iron
C. Mixture of apple & pineapple D. Carbon content

37. This furnace type is suitable for locations where electric power can be generated economically and
inexpensively.
A. Electric Reduction Furnace B. Electric Generation Furnace
C. Electric shock Furnace D. Electric Stove

38. It is an excellent substitute for steel scrap used by electric steel melting furnaces.
A. Low carbon Iron B. Tool Steel
C. Spongy Iron D. High Carbon steel
 SCIENCE REVIEWER

39. In the primary steelmaking process, which method involves incorporating recycled steel scrap into the molten
iron within the furnace?
A. Basic Oxygen Steel Making B. Electric Ark Furnace
C. Bessemer Process D. Open Hearth processes

40. In which stage of iron making might processes like degassing, stirring, ladle injection, or argon bubbling be
involved?
A. Drawing B. Primary steel making
C. Casting D. Secondary Steel Making
 SCIENCE REVIEWER

1. What is made up of very tiny particles and these particles are so small that we cannot see them with naked eyes?

A. Matter B. Molecule
C. Dust D. Atom

2. This consists of particles with extremely high kinetic energy, examples are stars which are in superheated forms.
A. Gasses B. Liquids
C. Plasma D. BEC

3. What is the negatively charged component of an atom ?

A. Proton B. Nucleus
C. Electron D. Neutron

4. What are the components of an atomic nucleus ?

A. Electrons & Neutrons. B. Proton & Neutron
C. Electron & Protons D. Proton & Electron

5. In what state of matter where particles are tightly or closely packed?

A. Solid. B. Plasma
C. Liquid D. BEC

6. These steels usually have a carbon content of less than 0.25 wt %.

A. High - Carbon steel B. Low- carbon steel
C. Bronze D. Brass

7. This type of carbon steel has properties of having high hardness and strength but low in ductility.
A. Low carbon steel B. galvanized iron
C. High carbon steel D. Medium carbon steel

8. Micro-structures of Medium Carbon Steel are considered as ______________.

A. Martensite B. Ferrite
C. Pearlite D. Stainless

9. These carbon steels contain 0.60 - 1.25 % by wt carbon.

A. Low- carbon steel. B. High Carbon steel
C. Medium Carbon steel D. Hexagonal closed Packed

10. Which of the following applications must be made of a high carbon steel?
A. Automobile panels B. Crankshaft
C. Cutting tool D. Pipes

11. What type of crystalline structure do iron (Fe) possess ?

A. Cubic Face- Centered B. Hexagonal close- packed
C. Cubic Body -Centered. D. Rectangular

12. What is a soft, slippery, grayish-black solid that conducts electricity?

A. Carbon B. Chlorine
C. Oxygen D. Graphite

13. What are the two latest discovered allotropes of carbon?.

A. Graphene & carbon nanotubes B. Air & water
C. Oxygen & nitrogen D. Plasma & Bose - Einstein Condensate

14. It comes from the Greek words meaning light bringing.

A. Sulfur B. Phosphorus
C. Carbon D. Oxygen
 SCIENCE REVIEWER

15. What property of a material by virtue of which a material deformed under the influence of load but after the
removal of the deforming load the object tends to recover its original dimension ?
A. Plasticity B. Hardness
C. Elasticity D. Strength

16. What quantity contains information about the magnitude of force causing deformation, defined as Force per unit
area ?
A. Stress B. Ultimate strength
C. Strain D. Area

17 .What property of a material can be defined which permits a material to be drawn out in the form of wire ?
A. Malleability B. Ductility
C. Hardness D. Color

18. .What do you call strain that occurs when forces are contracting an object, causing its shortening?
A. Compressive strain B. Shear strain
C. Tensile strain D. Elongation

19. What point represents the maximum stress that a material can endure before failure?
A. Ultimate Stress Point. B. Stress
C. Yield Point D. Strain

20. The failure occurs or takes place without any significant deformation.
A. Ductility B. Breaking
C. Fracture D. Brittleness

21. Change in Length divided by the original Length.

A. Force B. Stress
C. Strain D. Elongation

22. It is a type of Stress where the external forces act parallel to one another, but not in line with each other.
A. Tensile stress B. Allowable stress
C. Compressive stress D. Shear Stress

23. It is the point in the stress-strain curve at which the failure of the material takes place.
A. Elastic Limit B. Fracture or Breaking point
C. Proportional Limit D. Nucleus

24. What law states that the strain in a solid is proportional to the applied stress within the elastic limit of that
solid?
A. Pythagorean Theorem B. Law of Positivity
C. Hooke’s Law D. Archimedes Principle

25. It is the ability of a material to resist penetration.

A. Hardness B. Toughness
C. Plasticity D. Elasticity

26. Which of the following is the formula for finding Stress of a material?
A. Stress = Force/Area B. Stress = Volume/Area
C. Stress = Strain D. Stress = mass x volume

27. Which of the following is an S.I. unit for stress?

A. Newton B. pounds
C. Pascal D. foot

28. What stress is produced when any change in the temperature of the material occurs?
A. Tensile stress B. Stress tablet
C. Compressive stress D. Thermal stress
 SCIENCE REVIEWER

29. What refers to the amount /speed of heat transmitted through a material?
A. Thermal stress. B. Thermal conductivity
C. Thermal expansion D. Heat

30. Which of the following is the Linear Coefficient of Thermal Expansion of Iron?
A. 0.0060 B. 0.0046
C. 0.0059 D. 0.0000

31. Which of the following is an example of the most commonly known application of thermal stress?
A. Thermometer B. Convection
C. Themostat D. Refrigerator

32. Which of the following metals have high thermal conductivity and exhibit high electrical conductivity?
A. Aluminum B. Lead
C. Iron D. Platinum

33. Thermal stress is a mechanical process that occurs due to the change in the _______________ of an object.
A. external temperature B. room temperature
C. internal temperature D. cold temperature

34. Why does heat transfer occur at a higher rate across materials with high thermal conductivity?
A. Because the materials absorb more heat B. Because the materials have higher heat
capacity
C. Because the materials have a lower density D. Because the materials allow heat to flow
more easily through them.

35. It is a form of energy, a measurable quantity that a body possesses.

A. Heat B. Coldness
C. Temperature D. Energy

36. It refers to the degree of hotness and in fact it depends on the extent of the molecular activity referred to.
A. Hotness B. Temperature
C. Coldness D. Pressure

37. Thermal conductors __________ on heating and contract on cooling.

A. expand B. becomes cooler
C. contract D. increases heat

38. Which of the following Exhibit high thermal conductivity?

A. Carbon B. Oxygen
C. Copper D. Hydrogen

39. What happens to the average amplitude of atoms within a material when heat is added?
A. It increases B. It decreases
C. It remains constant D. It remains inconstant

40. What defines the rate at which shape or physical dimensions of an object changes according to change in
temperature?
A. Pressure applied B. Type of material
C. Force applied D. Coefficient of thermal expansion
1. A single, living individual in a certain community.
A. Community B. Population
C. Biosphere D. Organism

2. What are some biological factors that influence human reproduction?

A. Sex, age, weight of women B. Societal stress
C. occupational exposures D. Legal contraceptives

3. Which of the following are considered as human population characteristics?

A. Hand,feet,arms B. Natality, mortality, population density
C. Social, emotional, political D. Food, drinks, ice

4. The number of individuals per unit area or unit volume.

A. Dispersion B. Size
C. Density D. Distribution

5. In what way do we consider that the environment attains its carrying capacity?
A. Ecosystem can support only part of the B. Ecosystem can sustain only a population in
population. an unbalanced environment.
C. Ecosystem can sustain a level of population D. Failure of the ecosystem to support the
under an ideal set of conditions. population.

6. How does emigration affect the population size?

A. Movement of the organism from one place to B. Addition of organism through reproduction
another of the population
C. Decrease in population due to loss of D. Losing a member of the population through
individuals that move out death

7. How does immigration affect the population size?

A. Movement of the organism from one place to B. Addition of organism through reproduction
another of the population
C. Decrease in population due to loss of D. Losing a member of the population through
individuals that move out death

8. What type of country typically experiences a per capita income exceeding $10,000 based on its level of economic
development?
A. Less-developed B. More-developed
C. Under-developed D. Over-developed

9. It is the study of population and their characteristics, how those characteristics affect growth, and the
consequences of that growth.
A. Population Density B. Demography
C. Population Increase D. Carrying Capacity

10. Which factor is not typically considered a consequence of rapid population growth?
A. Increased strain on resources B. Increased urbanization
C. Higher economic productivity D. Greater environmental pressure

11. How do environmental problems impact the human population?

A. It supplies the needs of the population B. Humans suffer because of natural calamities
C. It affect the health due to disease cause by D. Humans are not affected by pollution anyway
pollution

12. How did social factors affect population growth?

A. People make decisions based on history B. People usually based their life on religious
considerations
C. Humans are social animals who have D. Humans take technology to control
freedom of choice. population
13. Which is not a factor in an analysis of standard living?
A. Economic well-being B. Health conditions
C. Social status and mobility D. Religious outlook

14. Political factors that influence human population growth.

A. Government do not provide information on B. Government do not provide free or low-cost
family planning and material and child health contraceptives
C. One- child policy in China D. Health centers do not provide pre- natal care
for pregnant women

15. In the process of human reproduction, the genetic material from the male and female combine.
A. Zygote B. Embryo
C. Fetus D. Placenta

16. The discipline and practice of applying value to human behavior resulting in meaningful conduct.
A. Philosophy B. Ethics
C. History D. Psychology

17. It involves the application of traditional ethical principles to the utilization of computer technology.
A. Government ethics B. Political Ethics
C. Cultural Ethics D. Computer Ethics

18. In the ethical analysis “Identify and describe clearly the fact”, how do we identify the facts?
A. Search for the available facts on the internet B. Accept the available facts as long as it has a
source
C. Ask who did what to whom and where, when D. Rely facts on the information technology that
and how is available

19. How can information technology contribute to personal advancement?

A. By reducing professional workloads B. By enabling better communication and access
to information
C. By automating social interactions D. By replacing traditional entertainment
methods

20. How does multitasking in the use of information technology affect us?
A. Loss of focus that results in lower B. Works done easily
productivity
C. Works done faster D. Increase in work efficiency

21. What is an example of adhering to the computer ethics principle 'Thou shall not use the computer to harm others’?
A. Posting unnecessary comments on someone’s B. Cyber bullying
account
C. Posting your personal and private problems D. Posting inspirational messages

22. Is it necessary to adhere to ethical principles in information technology, and what are the reasons for doing so?
A. Yes. We are interacting with persons with dignity, emotions and intellect that we must not abuse.
B. Yes. Anyone could just follow the ethics.
C. No. Everyone could just use the information technology just for fun and entertainment.
D. No Information technology is for everyone!

23. How does the use of information technology affect our ability to focus?
A. It allows abrupt shifting of mind from one information to another that our natural brain is remodeled,
losing our focus and retention of information.
B. Ability to focus is enhanced with multitasking.
C. The frequent use of information technology allows us to focus more on our work.
D. Too much use of information technology has no effect on our ability to focus.
24. What is the influence of computers and smartphones on the Filipino culture's traditional values of friendliness and
close-knit family bonds?
A. Close family ties are not affected by the use of information technology.
B. Family relationships are threatened because of too much technology that instead of spending time
with family and friends technologies are often and more likely to be chosen by everyone.
C. Filipino culture is preserved by technology.
D. Too much technology is being enjoyed by families making them happy.

25. How can one address the challenges posed by excessive technology use and its adverse effects?
A. Do not use technology at all.
B. Choose the technology that you need most.
C. Be responsible and have critical thinking over the technologies and that you must take full control
and management of the technologies around you.
D. Use whatever technologies you prefer and suffer the consequence of its negative effect.

26. Negative effect of information technology to the family.

A. There is a close relationship during dinnertime using cellphones
B. Family focus on watching in the television in the same house
C. Sleeping late at night enjoying YouTube channels
D. There is less interaction among family members who are busy on television, Facebook, etc.

27. The dynamic between a student and an educator, particularly in the context of information technologies.
A. Strong relationship B. Intimate relationship
C. Weak relationship D. Good relationship

28. _____________ use of information technologies weakens the prevalence of Cultural Practices.
A. Unwise B. Appropriate
C. Wise D. Exact

29. ____________ encourages poor grammar, usage, and spelling.

A. Social media B. Typewritten
C. Hand writing D. Stenography

30. What are some positive impacts of Information Technology on human relationships and modern living?
A. Vanishes actual experience B. Disregards tradition
C. Youngsters are being addicted to smart D. Online business transactions and easy internet
gadgets education

31. Engaging in the social media most of the time causes negative effect such as,
A. Isolation/loneliness B. Easy for learning
C. Connectivity to other people D. Fast communication
32. What are some adverse effects of technology on human relationships?
A. Technology does not deliver the personal B. Bridges Global Gap
truth and feelings.
C. Ease communication D. Saves Time

33. How can the science of information technology help address ethical concerns in modern society?
A. Developing faster processors B. Creating advanced algorithms
C. Providing frameworks for ethical decision- D. Improving data storage solutions
making

34. What is the effect of causal relations in social media?

A. Close relationships B. Genuine friendship
C. Difficult to foster meaningful relationship D. Greater number of friends

35. Young adults with a strong Facebook presence tended towards the following choices EXCEPT:
A. Narcism B. Antisocial tendencies
C. Aggression D. Attentiveness
36. Overuse of social media was identified as not causing ____________.
A. Anxiety and depression B. Loneliness
C. Isolation D. Beneficial effect to education

37. Sign of unhealthy social networking.

A. Good time management B. Withdrawal symptoms
C. Faithfulness in relationships D. Self discipline

38. In what way information technology promotes professional advancement?

A. It could make your work faster and easier.
B. It could make you smarter.
C. It could supply information, efficiency and accuracy necessary for professional growth considering
boundaries for family, leisure and work.
D. Convenience in work anytime and anywhere.

39. How does technology help us with our social advancement?

A. It allows us to communicate to every individual around the world.
B. It gives us access to information about other people we don’t know.
C. It makes us aware of other people’s lives.
D. Social awareness is being nurtured in us so that we could help our society resolve social concerns,
especially with technology.

40. In what way does information technology help you in your personal advancement?
A. Providing accessible information and sites as a source of personal knowledge.
B. Providing reliable information that could give us knowledge if taken with responsibility and liability
C. It entertains us in a variety of ways.
D. It makes our personal life accessible to the public.