15-10-2025

7501CMD303033250011 MD

PHYSICS

1) Three tuning forks of frequencies 200, 203 and 207 Hz are sounded together. Find out the beat
frequency.

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 12

2) For a wave y = y0sin (ωt – kx), for what value of λ is the maximum particle velocity equal to two
times the wave velocity?

(1) πy0
(2) 2πy0
(3) πy0/2
(4) 4πy0

3) There is a tank of cross-section area A1 with inclined orifice at its bottom with cross-section area
A2 as shown in the figure. If height of water column in tank is 0.3 m and angle of inclination with

vertical and , then at this instant find the position where tub is to be placed to collect

the water coming out from orifice.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The mathematical forms for three sinusoidal traveling waves are given by
Wave 1 : y(x,t) = (2cm) sin(3x–6t)
Wave 2 : y(x,t) = (3cm) sin(4x–12t)
Wave 3 : y(x,t) = (4cm) sin(5x–11t)
where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Of these waves :

(1) wave 1 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
 wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 1 has the greatest maximum transverse string
(2)
speed.
(3) wave 3 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 3 has the greatest maximum transverse string
(4)
speed.

5) When a turning fork produces sound waves in air, which one of the following is same in the
material of turning fork as well as in air :

(1) Wavelength
(2) Frequency
(3) Velocity
(4) None

6) Pressure variation in mechanical wave depends upon as :

(1) ∝ (Intensity)1/2
(2) Independent of intensity

(3)
∝
(4) None of these

7) Each of properties of sound in column-I primarily depends on one of the quantities in column-II.
Select the correct answer as per code given below the columns.

Column-I Column-II

A Loudness 1 Wave form

B Pitch 2 Frequency

C Quality 3 Intensity

A B C

(1) 1 2 3

(2) 3 2 1

(3) 2 3 1

(4) 2 1 3
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Two waves represented by the following equations are travelling in the same medium
y1 = 5 sin 2π(75 t – 0.25x)
y2 = 10 sin 2π(150 t – 0.50x)
The intensity ratio of the two wave is

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

9) At a pressure of 105 N/m2 the volume strain of water is 5 × 10–5. Calculate the speed of sound in
water density of water is 1 × 103 kg/m3 :

(1) 2.828 × 103 m/s

(2) 1.414 × 103 m/s
(3) 0.707 × 103 m/s
(4) 4.2 × 103 m/s

10) The displacement-time graphs for two sound wave A and B are shown in the figure, then the

ratio of their intensities.

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : 16
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 1

11) Two sound waves having a phase difference of 60° have a path difference of :-

(1) 2λ

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Equation of wave propagating in the same direction are given by :

y1 = 2a sin (ωt – kx) ; y2 = 2a sin (ωt – kx + θ)
The resultant amplitude of the medium particle will be :

(1) 2a cosθ
(2)
(3)

(4)

13) The property of a medium, which is required by particles of that medium to regain their initial
position after getting a disturbance is :

(1) Inertia
(2) Elasticity
(3) Temperature
(4) None of these

14) A steel wire 0.72 m long has a mass of 5.0 × 10–3 kg. If the wire is under tension of 60 N, what is
the speed of the transverse waves on the wire ?

(1) 186 m/s

(2)
(3) 93 m/s
(4) 45 m/s

15) A stretched string produces 4 beats with a tuning fork of frequency 400 Hz. If on increasing the
tension on the wire, number of beats remain unchanged, then the original frequency of the wire will
be

(1) 384 Hz
(2) 404 Hz
(3) 396 Hz
(4) 400 Hz

16) The length, mass and tension of a string are 1000 cm, 0.01 Kg and 10 N respectively. The speed
of transverse waves in the string will be :-

(1) 102 m/s

(2) 104 m/s
(3) 106 m/s
(4) 103 m/s

17) In a gaseous medium on increasing by temperature 1000 K speed of sound becomes tiems of
initial then initial temperature of medium in °C is :-

(1) – 23°C
(2) 27°C
(3) –250°
(4) 423°C
18) A tank is filled up to a height 2H with a liquid and is placed on a platform of height H from the
ground. The distance x from the ground where a small hole is punched to get the maximum range R

is

(1) H
(2) 1.25H
(3) 1.5H
(4) 2H

19) A soap bubble is blown with the help of a mechanical pump at the mouth of a tube. The pump
produces a certain increase per minute in the volume of the bubble, irrespective of its internal
pressure. The graph between the pressure inside the soap bubble and time t will be -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The rate of flow of liquid in a tube of radius r, length ℓ, whose ends are maintained at a pressure

difference P is where η is coefficient of the viscosity and Q is

(1) 8

(2)
(3) 16

(4)

21) The Bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is :-

(1) Zero
(2) Unity
(3) Infinity
(4) Between 0 to 1

22) A rectangular bar of soap has density 800 kg/m3 floats in water of density 1000 kg/m3. Oil of
density 300 kg/m3 is slowly added, forming a lyer that does not mix with the water. when the top
surface of the oil is at the same level as the top surface of the soap. What is the ratio of the oil layer
thickness to the soap's thickness, x/L ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A sample of metal weighs 210 g in air, 180 g in water and 120 g in an unknown liquid (density of
water = 1g/cm3). Then :-

(1) the density of metal is 3 g/cm3

(2) the density of metal is 7 g/cm3
(3) the density of metal is 4 times the density of unknown liquid
(4) the metal will float on water

24) Hydraulic brakes work on the principle of :-

(1) Pascal's law

(2) Thomson's law
(3) Newton's law
(4) Brenoulli's theorem

25) A body's weight is 5N in air and 2N when put in water. The buoyant force is :-

(1) 7N
(2) 9N
(3) 3N
(4) None of these

26) A boy carries a fish in one hand and a bucket (not full) of water in the other hand. If he places
the fish in the buket, the weight now carried by him (assume that water does not spill) :-

(1) Is less than before

(2) Is more than before
(3) Is the same as before
(4) Depends upon his speed

27) The density of water is 1.0 g/cm3. The density of the oil in the left column of the U-tube shown

below is :-

(1) 0.20 g/cm3

(2) 0.80 g/cm3
(3) 1.0 g/cm3
(4) 1.3 g/cm3

28) Surface tension mainly arises due to :-

(1) gravitational forces

(2) electrostatic forces
(3) cohesive molecular forces
(4) adhesive molecular forces

29) When a big drop splits into 64 tiny droplets then percentage gain in surface energy :-

(1) 25%
(2) 75%
(3) 300%
(4) 400%

30) Two soap bubbles of radii r1 and r2 equal to 4cm and 5cm are touching each other over a
common surface S1S2 (shown in figure). What is the radius of common surface?
(1) 4 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 4.5cm

31) Area of liquid film is 6 × 10 cm2 and surface tension is T = 20 dyne/cm. What is the work done to
change area upto 12 × 10 cm2 :

(1) 120 joule

(2) 120 erg
(3) 1200 joule
(4) 2400 erg

32) The liquid rises in a capillary tube (radius r) to a height h. If a capillary tube of the same radius
is taken whose length is less than h, then :-

(1) the liquid will rise to whole of the length of the tube and curvature will be flat
(2) the liquid will come out of the tube like fountain
the liquid will rise to whole of length of the tube and will spread with greater radius of
(3)
curvature
(4) the liquid will rise to a height less than length of tube

33) A non-viscous fluid of constant density of 1000 kg/m3 flows in a streamline motion along a tube of

variable cross-section. The area of cross-section at positions P and Q are

2 2
40 cm and 20 cm respectively. If velocity of fluid at P is 3 m/s then find velocity of fluid at Q.

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

34) At what speed, the velocity head of water is equal to pressure head of 40 cm of Hg

(1) 10.3 m/s

(2) 2.8 m/s
(3) 5.6 m/s
(4) 8.4 m/s

35) In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3%

and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows % error is P is :

(1) 14%
(2) 10%
(3) 7%
(4) 4%

36) A physical quantity X is given by X = The percentage error in the measurements of k,ℓ, m
and n are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The value of X is uncertain by

(1) 8 %
(2) 10 %
(3) 12 %
(4) None of the above

37) The rate of flow of a liquid through a capillary tube of radius r is V when the pressure difference
across two ends of capillary is P. If pressure difference is increased by 3P and radius is reduced to
r/2, then the rate of flow becomes :-

(1) V/9
(2) 3V/8
(3) V/4
(4) V/3

38) A sound wave of frequency 500 Hz covers a distance of 1000 m in 5 seconds between points X
and Y. The no. of waves between X and Y are:-

(1) 500
(2) 1000
(3) 2500
(4) 5000

39) The equation of transverse wave in stretched string is y = 5 sin 2π Where distances
are in cm and time in second. The wavelength of wave is :

(1) 15cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 50 cm
40) The energy in the superposition of waves:

(1) Is lost
(2) Increases
(3) Remain same, only redistribution occurs
(4) None of the above

41) Two coherent source having intensity in the ratio 2x produce an interforce pattern.

The ratio of is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Statement-1: Two longitudinal waves given by equations : y1(x, t) = 2a sin (ωt – kx) and y2(x, t)
= a sin (2ωt – 2kx) will have equal intensity.
Statement-2: Intensity of waves propagating in same medium is proportional to square of
amplitude only.

(1) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 true; statement-2 is the correct explanation of statement-1
(4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true; statement -2 is not correct explanation of statement-1.

43) Two wave are represented by equation

y1 = a sinωt y2 = a cosωt
the first wave.

(1) leads the second by π

(2) lags the second by π
(3) leads the second by π/2
(4) lags the second by π/2

44) If physical quantity x is represented by x = [MaLbT–c] and the maximum percentage erros in M, L
and T arc α%, β% and γ% respectively, then the total maximum error in x is :

(1) (αa + βb – γc) × 100%

(2) (αa + βb + γc) × 100%
(3) (αa – βb – γc) × 100%

(4)
45) A physical quantity x is calculated from the relation x = a3b2/ . Calculate percentage error in
x, if a, b, c and d are measured respectively with an error of 1%, 3%, 4% and 2%.

(1) 12
(2) 20
(3) 25
(4) 30

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which of the following alkenes on ozonolysis give a mixture of ketones only?

(a) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) b and d
(4) c and d

2) Arrange the following alkanols A, B and C in order of their reactivity towards acid catalysed
dehydration:-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(1) A > B > C

(2) B > A > C
(3) B > C > A
(4) C > B > A

3) The major product in the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Liquid hydrocarbons can be converted to a mixture of gasesous hydrocarbons by :-

(1) Hydrolysis
(2) Oxidation
(3) Cracking
(4) Distillation under reduced pressure

5)

A single compound of the structure :-

is obtainable from ozonolysis of which of the following cyclic compounds ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) 1–Bromo–3–chloro cyclobutane on reaction with 2–equivalent of sodium in ether gives

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Reactivity order of the following compounds for hydrochlorination (HCl) is :-

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > III > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) III > I > II

8) Ethylene reacts with Br2 water in presence of NaCl, gives -

(1) 1,2-Dibromoethane
(2) 2-Bromoethanol
(3) 1-Bromo-2-Chloroethane
(4) All of these

9) The increasing order of the rate of HCN addition to compound A to D is

A. HCHO B. CH3COCH3 C. PhCOCH3 D. PhCOPh

(1) A < B < C < D

(2) C < D < B < A
(3) D < C < B < A
(4) D < B < C < A

10) Arrange the following in their correct order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution

reaction (ESR) ?

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) III > I > IV > II
(3) III > II > I > IV
(4) III > I > II > IV

11)
Compound (A) is :

(1) Ph–CH2–CH=CH–CH2Br

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Match column-I and column-II and select the answer :

Column-I Column-II

(a) (p) HBr followed by hydrolysis

(b) (q) Br2/CCl4

 (c) (r) NBS

(d) (s) HBr

(1) (a-s), (b-r), (c-q), (d-p)

(2) (a-p), (b-r), (c-q), (d-s)
(3) (a-s), (b-q), (c-r), (d-p)
(4) (a-q), (b-r), (c-s), (d-p)

13) Which of the following on heating with aqueous KOH, produces acetaldehyde ?

(1) CH2ClCH2Cl
(2) CH3CHCl2
(3) CH3COCl
(4) CH3CH2Cl

14) If isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride both react with Na in presence of dry ether which
alkanes are obtained.

(1) n-Butane
(2) 2-Methyl butane
(3) 2, 3-Dimethyl butane
(4) All of them

15) CH3–C≡CH A + B. A & B are :-

(1) CH3–C≡C–CH3 and MgBrOH

(2) CH4 and CH3 – C ≡ CMgBr

(3)
and MgBrOH
(4) None of these

16)
A and B are –

(1)
(2)

(3) CH3CH2CHO (both)

(4)

17)
A & B are respectively :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18)
Product is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) (1) and (3) both

19) What is relation ship between A & B ?

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Identical
(4) No reaction

20) What is the main product of monobromination of methyl cyclopentane –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which is free radical reactions :-

I.

II.
III.
IV.

(1) Only II
(2) I, II, III
(3) I, III, IV
(4) III, IV

22) The intermediate during the addition of HCl to propene in the presence of peroxide is -

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) In which of the following, addition of HBr does not take place against Markownikoff's rule
or Anti-Markownikoff rule :-

(1) Propene
(2) But-1-ene
(3) But-2-ene
(4) 2-Methyl pent-2-ene

25) In the following reaction,

The major product (A) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) The reagent used for the preparation of propan-1-ol from propene is:-

(1) Hg(OAc)2/H2O followed by NaBH4

(2) H2SO4/H2O
(3) B2H6 followed by H2O2, NaOH
(4) All of these

27) product, Product have :

(1) 2 mole methyl glyoxal and 1 mole glyoxal

(2) 2 mole glyoxal and 2 mole di methyl glyoxal
(3) 3 mole glyoxal
(4) All of these

28) Which of the following reaction is Electrophilic substitution reaction :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

29)
The reagent used is :-

(1) BH3-THF, NaOH-H2O2

(2) Hg(CH3COO)2,H2O, NaBH4
(3) H2SO4, H2O
(4) H2O2/FeSO4
30)
Which reagent is more suitable for above conversion?

(1) HCl + ZnCl2

(2) Anhyd. AlCl3 + HCl
(3) H2SO4
(4) Red hot tube

31) The compound which will react fastest by SN1 mechanism is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

32) Arrange the halogens F2, Cl2, Br2, I2 in the order of their increasing reactivity with alkanes :

(1) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2

(2) Br2 < Cl2 < F2 < I2
(3) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2
(4) Br2 < I2 < Cl2 < F2

33) In which of the following will attack at m-position ?

(1) I, II, III

(2) II & IV
(3) II & III
(4) IV only

34) Which of the following compound will not undergoes Friedel-Craft’s reaction easily ?

(1) Benzene
(2) Toluene
(3) Xylene
(4) Nitrobenzene

35) Identify the product B in the reaction sequence :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) major product [P] of the reaction is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37)
Identify A & B respectively

(1) CH3–CH3 and CH2=CH2

(2) CH2=CH2 and CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3 and CH3–CH3
(4) CH3–CH3 and CH3–CH2–CH3

38) Rate of SN1 in given compound is :-

(1) A > B > C

(2) C > B > A
(3) A > C > B
(4) B > A > C

39)

The SN reactivity order for halides:

2

(1) R - F > R-Cl > R-Br > R -I

(2) R - I > R - Br > R -Cl > R - F
(3) R- Br > R - I > R - Cl > R - F
(4) R - Cl > R - Br > R - F > R - I

40) Correct reactivity order towards SN2 is–

(1) IV > I > II > IV
(2) IV > II > I > III
(3) III > II > I > IV
(4) IV > II > III > I

41) The number of water molecules in Mohr’s salts.

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

42) Most stable ion in aqueous solution is :

(1) Cr+3
(2) Mn+3
(3) Ti+3
(4) V+3

43) The complex exhibits lowest energy absorption band is :

2–
(1) [NiCl4]
(2) Ni(CO)4
2–
(3) [Ni(CN)4]
2+
(4) [Ni(H2O)6]

44) In correct order of splitting energy is :

–4 –2
(1) [NiF6] < [NiF6]
+3 +3
(2) [Fe(H2O)6] < [Ru(H2O)6]
+3 +3
(3) [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(en)3]
–2 –4
(4) [Ni(CN)4] < [Ni(CN)6]

45) IUPAC name of turn bull blue is :

(1) Iron (II) hexacynidoiron (III)

(2) Iron (III) hexacynidoiron (II)
(3) Iron (II) hexacynidoferrate (III)
(4) Iron (III) hexacynidoferrate (II)

BIOLOGY

1) Select the correct match from followings ?

(1) Mustard-Fibrous root

(2) Wheat-Prop root
(3) Mustard-Tap root
(4) Monstera-Fibrous root

2) Pneumatophores are characteristic feature of :-

(1) Halophytes
(2) Mesophytes
(3) Epiphytes
(4) Xerophytes

3) Sweet potato is homologous to

(1) Turnip
(2) Potato
(3) Colocasia
(4) Ginger

4) A horizontal underground stem is a :-

(1) bulb
(2) Corm
(3) rhizome
(4) rhizoid

5) Cladode is :

(1) One internode long phyllode

(2) One internode long thorn
(3) One internode long phylloclade
(4) One internode long sucker

6) Which statement is not true about pneumatophore?

(1) It is positively aerotropic

(2) Root cap is absent
(3) Root hairs are absent
(4) They are photosynthetic due to aerial and positively phototropic

7)

A list of some of plants is given below :-

Potato, Ginger, Turmeric, Colocasia, onion, Zaminkand

How many above plants have underground stem-corm?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Three
(4) Two

8) In which of the following leaves store food?

(1) Corm of zaminkand

(2) Tuber of potato
(3) Rhizome of ginger
(4) Bulb of onion

9) The lateral branches originate from the under ground portion of main stem grow horizontally
beneath the soil and then come out oblique upward giving rise to leafy shoots in all of the following
except :-

(1) Banana
(2) Chrysanthemum
(3) Jasmine
(4) Pineapple

10) Phylloclades are :-

(1) Leaf modification

(2) One internode long stem
(3) Modified petioles
(4) Green succulent stems of indefinite growth

11) Lenticels present on pneumatophore usually ?

(1) Uptakes CO2 and releases O2

(2) Uptakes both CO2 and O2
(3) Uptakes O2 and releases CO2
(4) Uptakes water as then present in halophyte

12) In which of the following stem is most reduced?

(1) Rhizome
(2) Corm
(3) Bulb
(4) Phylloclade

13) The given diagram show :-

(1) Sucker of turmeric

(2) Corm of colocasia
(3) Rhizome of ginger
(4) Bulb of onion

14) A whorl of more than two leaves at each node is found in

(1) Nerium, Psidium

(2) Alstonia, Calotropis
(3) Ocimum, Alstonia, Guava
(4) Alstonia, Nerium

15)

Match column I and II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Swollen Leaf base I Phyllod

(b) Leaf like petiole II Cladode

(c) Single internode III Pulvinous

Green succulent
(d) IV Phylloclade
stem
(1) a - II, b - III, c - I, d - IV
(2) a - III, b - I, c - II, d - IV
(3) a - III, b - IV, c - I, d - II
(4) a - III, b - I, c - IV, d - II

16) According to the given diagram's find out the correct match ?

(A) (i) Whorl

 (B) (ii) Alternate

(C) (iii) Palmate compound

(D) (iv) Opposite

A B C D

(1) iii iv ii i

(2) ii iv i iii

(3) ii iv iii i

(4) i ii iii iv

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) When large bract completely encloses whole inflorescence then it is called :-

(1) Glume
(2) Bracteole
(3) Spike
(4) Spathe

18) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the option given :-

Column I Column II Column III

The main axis continues to

a 1 grow, the flowers are borne K Racemose
laterally
 The main axis terminates in
b 2 a flower, hence is limited in L Cymose
growth

(1) a-1-L, b-2-K

(2) a-2-L, b-1-K
(3) a-1-K, b-2-L
(4) a-2-K, b-1-L

19) Which of the following is erroneous pair ?

(1) Racemose inflorescence - Radish

(2) Twisted aestivation in petals - Cotton
(3) Cruciform corolla - mustard
(4) Diadelphous androecium - Tomato

20) Actinomorphic flower is not found in :-

(1) Mustard
(2) Datura
(3) Chilli
(4) Gulmohur

21) Aestivation of petals in the flower of cotton is correctly shown in :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) When the largest petals overlaps the two lateral petals which in turn overlap the two smallest
anterior petals, this type aestivation is known as:-

(1) twisted
(2) valvate
(3) imbricate
(4) vexillary

23) Inferior ovary is present in :-

(1) Hypogynous flower

(2) Perigynous flowers
(3) Flower of potato
(4) Epigynous flower

24) Which is correct pair with respect to their edible part :-

(1) Tomato – Thalamus

(2) Mango – Seed
(3) Mago – mesocarp
(4) Banana – Epicarp

25) Caryopsis fruit, feathery stigma, Glumes, lodicules and culm stem are found in the members of
family :-

(1) Compositae
(2) Poaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Fabaceae

26) Select correctly matched pair/pairs :-

(1) Monoadelphous stamen – Chinarose

(2) Diadelphous stamen – Pea
(3) Polyadelphous stamen – Citrus
(4) All the above

27) Oblique septa in Gynoecium at 45o, swollen placenta, epipetalous stamen, Berry present in

(1) China rose

(2) Pea
(3) Brinjal
(4) Citrus

28) Tetradynamous condition of stamens occur in the members of

(1) Brassicaceae
(2) Malvaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Liliaceae
29) Epipetalous conditon is indicated by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Correctly identify the diagram given below and its correctly match example :-

(1) Marginal - gram

(2) Axile - citrus
(3) Basal - wheat
(4) Argemone

31) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) A-Plumule, B-Micropyle, C-Radicle, D-Hilum

(2) A-Cotyledon, B-Micropyle, C-Radicle, D-Plumule
(3) A-Radicle, B-Micropyle, C-Hilum, D-Plumule
(4) A-Hilum, B-Radicle, C-Micropyle, D-Plumule

32) Given below is the diagram of monocotyledon seed. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C, D with
correct ploidy.
 Part A Part B Part C Part D

(1) 3n 2n 2n 2n

(2) n n n n

(3) 3n 3n 3n 3n

(4) 3n n n 2n
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

33) Study carefully the given floral diagram and select the option which correctly represents the

related floral formula :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Complete the floral formula by choosing correct option

% K(5)____A(9)+1 G1

(1) C1+2+2
(2) C1+2+(2)
(3) C1+2+3
(4) C5

35) Which of these is an example for zygomorphic flower with vexillary aestivation ?

(1) Pea
(2) Mustard
(3) Canna
(4) Cassia

36) Which of the following option have example of primary meristem

(1) Apical meristem, Intrafascicular cambium

(2) Intercalary meristem, cork cambium
(3) Intercalary meristem, interfascicular cambium
(4) Intra fascicular cambium, interfascicular cambium

37) The secondary meristem originates from

(1) Pro-meristem
(2) Primary meristem
(3) Primary permanent tissue
(4) Secretory tissue

38) Which of the following statements is not correct ?

(A) Apical meristems are primary meristem while intercalary meristem are secondary
(B) Intrafasicular cambium are primary tissue while interfasicular cambium are secondary meristem
(C) Apical and intercalary meristem both are primary
(D) Collenchymatous cell donot have protoplasm at maturity

(1) A & D
(2) A & B
(3) B & D
(4) C & D

39)

Given diagram represents L.S. of shoot. Labelled structure 'x' is:-

(1) Axillary bud

(2) Vascular tissue
(3) Leaf primordium
(4) Meristematic zone

40) The central region of root apex containing less active cells is known as :-

(1) Plerome
(2) Dermatogen
(3) Periblem
(4) Quiescent zone

41) Aerenchyma is found in ______ and helpful to plants by_____

(1) Lithophytes, maintain osmoregulation

(2) Xerophytes, absorbing water from soil
(3) Hydrophytes, providing buoyancy
(4) Epiphytes, giving flexibility

42) Identify the tissue shown below as well as the related right place of its occurence in a plant and

select the right option for the two together.

Site of
Tissue
occurrence

Seed coat
(1) Sclerenchyma
of legumes

Pulp of
(2) collenchyma
guava

Petiole of
(3) Collenchyma
leaf

Fruit wall of
(4) Parenchyma
nuts
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Tissue found in pulp of guava and pear which provide them gritty texture, is

(1) Parenchyma
(2) Collenchyma
(3) Sclereids
(4) Sclerenchyma fibre

44) Primary xylem is of two types, they are-

(1) Protoxylem and metaxylem

(2) Xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres
(3) Tracheids and vessels
(4) Simple xylem and complex xylem

45) Examine the diagram below and select the right option given the four parts A, B, C & D correctly

identify.

A B C D

Sieve tube Phloem Companion

(1) Sieve pore
element parenchyma cell

Sieve tube Phloem Caompanion

(2) Sieve pore
element parenchyma cell

Companion Sieve tube Phloem

(3) Sieve pore
cell element parenchyma

Phloem Caompanion Sieve tube

(4) Sieve pore
parenchyma cell element

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III.

Column - I Column - II Column - III

Formation
Proliferative 14th
(A) (a) (i) of corpus
phase day
luteum

Development
Secretory Ist - 4th
(B) (b) (ii) of graafian
phase day
follicle

15th - Shedding
Menstruation
(C) (c) 28th (iii) of
phase
day endometrium

Release of
Ovulatory 5th - 13th
(D) (d) (iv) secondary
phase day
oocyte
(1) A → c → i; B → d → ii, C → a → iv, D → d → ii
(2) A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii, D → a → iv
(3) A → b → iii; B → b → iii, C → d → ii, D → a → iv
(4) A → a → iv; B → d → ii, C → d → ii, D → c → i

47) How many structures in the list given below are haploid ?
Spermatid, secondary oocyte, primary spermatocyte, ovum, sperm, oogonia, spermatogonia, polar
body

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

48) Which of the following structure help in fertilisation of sec. oocyte ?

(1) Centriole of ovum

(2) Acrosome
(3) Tail of sperm
(4) Mitochondria of sperm

49) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its function ?

(1) Epididymis – Maturation and storage of sperms

(2) Fallopian tube – Collection of secondary oocyte
(3) Seminal vesicle – Its secretions contain a sugar
(4) Corpus luteum – Secrete h.C.G. for maintenance of the endometrium

50) Which of the following statement correctly represent ovulation.

(1) Triggered by high level of oxytocin

(2) Ovulation occurs approximately 14 days of menstrual cycle
(3) Ovulation is triggered by copulation
(4) Ovulation occurs approximate 24 hours after copulation

51) In which stage of development the embryonic cells form the germinal layers by the movement?

(1) Morula
(2) Blastula
(3) Gastrula
(4) Zygote

52) Each testis is connected with the wall of scrotum through a flexible and fibrous structure which
is called :

(1) Spermatic fascia

(2) Gubernaculum
(3) Dartos muscles
(4) Cremaster muscles
53) Placenta contains :

(1) Only chorionic villi

(2) Chorionic villi and uterine tissue
(3) Trophoblast and Amnion
(4) Only uterine tissue

54)

Match the column-A with column-B :-

Column-A Column-B

Transfer of sperms in the

(A) (i) Ejaculation
female genital tract

Sperms released
(B) (ii) Spermiation
from seminiferous tubules

Expulsion of semen from

(C) (iii) Insemination
body of male
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii

55) Read the following statement :-

(A) After castration, testosterone level is increased in blood
(B) 60% part of semen is formed by seminal vesicle
(C) Dartos muscles are found in scrotum
(D) Total length of epididymis is 6mt in human
How many statement are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

56) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the
incorrect ones only. (a) Each testicular lobule contains 750 highly coiled seminiferous tubules, in
which sperms are produced.
(b) Sertoli cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation.
(c) The regions outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces, contain small blood
vessels, Leydig cells, and some immunologically competent cells.
(d) The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes, necessary for
spermatogenesis.

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d).

(2) Statements (a), (b).
(3) Statements (a), (b) and (c).
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d).

57) Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its function.

(1) Ovary Synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones.

(2) Fimbriae Collection of the ovum after ovulation

(3) Seminal vesicle Produces a sugar containing fluid to nourish sperm.

Bartholin
(4) Secrete alkaline fluid to destroys the acidity of the urethra.
glands
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) The cellular layer that disintegrates and regenerates again and again in humans is :-

(1) Myometnium
(2) Germinal epithelium of ovary
(3) Tunica albugenia of testis
(4) Endometrium of uterus

59) Capacitation of sperm occurs in

(1) Vagina
(2) Seminal vescicle
(3) Prostate
(4) Cowpers gland

60) Which of the following release inhibin to control spermatogenesis ?

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Sustentacular cells
(4) Theca interna

61) Hormone that initiates ejection of milk, and stimulate milk production are respectively :-

(1) Prolactin, Oxytocin

(2) Prolactin, Dopamine
(3) Oxytocin, Prolactin
(4) ADH, Oxytocin

62) Which of following decreases the blood pressure :-

(1) Thyroxine
(2) Atrial natriuretic factor
(3) Aldosterone
(4) Nor-adrenaline

63) Adrenal cortex regulates .............

Thyroid gland regulates .............
Parathyroid regulates .............
Read above incomplete sentences and find out correct option to complete them :-

(1) BMR, Ca+2 metabolism, release of MSH

(2) Metabolism, BMR, release of few amount of sex steroids
(3) Pigmentation, growth, release of growth hormone
(4) Electrolytic balance, BMR, Ca+2 metabolism

64) Find out correct match between Column-I & II :-

Column-I Column-II

P Addison disease i Oestrogen

Q Osteoporosis ii PTH

R Tetany iii Adrenal cortex hormones

S Endmic goiter iv Thyroxine

P Q R S
(1) ii iii i iv
(2) iii i ii iv
(3) i iii ii iv
(4) iii iv iii i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

65) Secondary messenger is not generated by :-

(1) Somatotropic hormone

(2) Hypothalamic hormones
(3) All pituitary hormone
(4) Iodothyronine

66) Which hormone is produced by juxtaglomerular cells of kidney ?

(1) Secretin
(2) Erythropoietin
(3) Somatostatin
(4) Rennin and pancreatic polypeptide

67) Which one is an organised endocrine gland ?

(1) Kidney
(2) GIT
(3) Liver
(4) Pineal

68) Which of the following pair is correct match of a hormone with a disease resulting from its
deficiency ?

(1) Relaxin – Gigantism

(2) Prolactin – Cretinism
(3) Parathormone – tetany
(4) Insulin – Diabetes insipidus

69) Which of the following disease is characterised by increase basal metabolic rate, protrusion of
eye balls and weight loss?

(1) Hashimoto disease

(2) Myxoedema
(3) Grave's disease
(4) Cretinism

70) Which one is not a secondary messenger?

(1) IP3
(2) Ca+2
(3) cAMP
(4) ATP

71) Find out the incorrect statement :-

(A) In male, ICSH stimulates synthesis & secretion of androgens from testes.
(B) Vasopressin acts on distal tubules for reabsorption of H2O.
(C) Neurohypophysis hormones are regulated by releasing and inhibiting hormones of
hypothalamus.
(D) Hypothyroidism occurs due to development of Nodules.

(1) A & C are incorrect

(2) B & D are incorrect
(3) C & D are incorrect
(4) A & D are incorrect

72) Following is a diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.

 Which of the following statement does not support the hormone action
depicted.

(1) It explains the action of a hormone which interacts with membrane bound receptors.
(2) It explains the action of a hormone which interacts with intracellular receptors in nucleus.
The hormone regulates chormosome function by the interaction of hormone receptor complex
(3)
with genome.
(4) This hormone does not generate a second messenger

73) The hormone glucagon :-

(1) Has the opposite effect as that of insulin

(2) Is produced in the beta cells of pancreas
(3) Converts glucose into glycogen
(4) Is used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus

74) Glucocorticoids stimulates ?

(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Lipolysis
(C) Proteolysis

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) All A, B and C

75) Which of the following is not true for thymus ?

(1) Throne of immunity

(2) Contains corpuscles of hassalls
(3) Single lobed
(4) Training school of T-lymphocytes

76) Assertion (A) :- Parathyroid glands secrete a peptide hormone called parathyroid hormone
(PTH).
Reason (R) :- PTH decrease the Ca+2 levels in the blood.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

77) Assertion (A) :- Thyroid hormones is increased to abnormal high levels leading to a condition
called hyperthyroidism.
Reason (R) :- Exopthalmic goiter is a form of hypothyroidism.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

78) Statement-I: Melatonin helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake cycle, body
temperature.
Statement-II: Thymosins play a major role in the differentiation of B-Lymphocytes.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect

79) If receptor molecule is removed from target organ for hormone action, the target organ will:

(1) Continue to respond but require higher concentration of hormone.

(2) Continue to respond but in opposite way.
(3) Continue to respond without any difference.
(4) Not respond to hormone.

80) Which of the following corticoid hormone is associated with osmoregulation?

(1) ADH
(2) Aldosterone
(3) Thyroxine
(4) Both (1) and (2)

81)

Development of beard and moustaches in a female is due to :-

(1) Increase effect of ovarian estrogen

(2) Increase effect of placental estrogen
(3) Increase effect of harmones of zona reticularis
(4) Increase effect of Progesterone

82) The origin of pineal gland is :-

(1) Ecto-mesodermal
(2) Ectodermal
(3) Mesodermal
(4) Endodermal

83) Assertion : MSH & Melatonin are antagonistic hormones.

Reason : MSH help in the wide distribution of melanin in melanocytes while melatonin collects the
melanin at one place in melanocyte.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

84)

Which gland undergoes atrophy in response to advancing age

(1) Pituitary gland

(2) Thyroid gland
(3) Thymus gland
(4) Adrenal gland

85) The adrenal cortex can be divided into three layers. Select the correct sequence from inner to
outer :-
(A) Zona glomerulosa
(B) Zona reticularis
(C) Zona fasciculata

(1) A → C → B
(2) B → C → A
(3) A → B → C
(4) C → B → A

86) Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement A :- The testis secretes androgens which stimulate spermatogenesis.
Statement B :- The atrial wall of the heart produces atrial natriuretic factor which increases the
blood pressure.
Options :-

(1) Statement A is correct, Statement B is incorrect.

(2) Both the statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement A is incorrect, Statement B is correct.
(4) Both the statements are correct.

87) Match the following with respect to GIT ?

Source Function
 a. Gastrin 1. Stimulates bile release

b. Secretin 2. Secretion of pepsinogen

c. CCK 3. Inhibits gastric motility

d. GIP 4. Secretion of water and bicarbonate

(1) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(2) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(3) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(4) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

88) Chemically epinephrine is

(1) Amino acid derivative

(2) Peptide hormone
(3) Steroid hormone
(4) Iodothyronines

89) Match the following :-

Column I Column II

(a) T4 (i) Hypothalamus

(b) PTH (ii) Thyroid

(c) GnRH (iii) Pituitary

(d) LH (iv) Parathyroid

(1) a → ii, b → iv, c → i, d → iii
(2) a → iii, b → ii, c → iv, d → i
(3) a → iv, b → ii, c → iii, d → i
(4) a → iv, b → i, c → iii, d → ii

90)

Identify A to D and choose the correct option:

(1) A-Hormone, B-receptor, C-Cell membrane D-Secondary messenger

(2) A-Hormone, B-receptor, C-Cell membrane D-primary messenger
(3) A-Receptor, B-Hormone, C-Cell membrane D-primary messenger
(4) A-Receptor, B-Hormone, C-Cell membrane D-Secondary messenger
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 3 4 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 3 2 3 3 1 1 3 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 2 2 1 3 3 2 3 3 2 4 3 4 1 1 3 3 3 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 3 3 4 3 3 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 2 2 2 4 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 3 3 4 3 3 4 2 2 2 1 1 4 1 2 3 1 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 1 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 1 3 3 4 4 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 4 3 2 4 3 1 1 4 2 (1) 3 2 1 1 3 1 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 3 1 3 2 4 2 4 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 2 4 2 4 2 4 3 3 4 3 1 1 4 3 2 2 1 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 2 1 3 2 1 2 1 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
Divide 1 second into 3, 4 or 7 equal divisions.

Eliminate common time instants. Total maxima in one second 3 + 3 + 6 = 12.

2)

umax = 2v
y0 2πn = 2.n.λ
λ = πy0

3)

4) vwave =
vparticle = Aω
On comparing

vw1 = 2m/s vw2 = 3 m/s vw3 =

vp1 = 12 cm/s vp2 = 36 cm/s vp3 = 44cm/s

5) Frequency of any wave is the property of source if source is same then frequency remain
same.

6) ∴ P0 = BkA
∴ Intensity of wave I ∝ A2

So

7) By theory
8) a1 = 5 ω1 = 150π, n1 = 75
a2 = 10 ω2 = 300π, n2 = 150

9)

Answer

10) =1:1

11)

12) A =
a1= a2 = 2a, ϕ = θ

13) Question Explanation: Property to regain position.

Concept: Wave Propagation in a Medium.

Solution: For wave propagation, a medium needs two key properties. Elasticity provides the
restoring force that pulls the particles back to their original (equilibrium) position after being
disturbed. Inertia is the property that causes the particles to overshoot their equilibrium
position and continue oscillating. The question specifically asks for the property that helps
regain the initial position.

Final Answer:(2)

14)

93 m/s
15)
increases so ans is 396.

16)

µ = 0.001 Kg/m
V = 100 = 102 m/s

17)
T + 1000 = 5T
4T = 1000
T = 250 K
T = – 23°C

18) As x = ⇒t=
Velocity of efflux v =
Hence R = vt =

For range to be maximum =0

which gives x =
Alternatively :
Maximum range is also equal to average of two heights

x=

19) ∴
As radius of soap bubble increases with time

20)
 Answer

21) Asking About:

We need to determine the bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid and choose the correct
option from the given choices.
Concept: Balk Modulus (K)
3) Formula:

Calculation :
Since for an incompressible liquid, dV = 0, we get:

5) Final Answer:

This means the bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is infinity.

6) Correct Option:
Option 3 : Infinity

22)

W = Th1 + Th2
d(AL)g = ρw[A (L – x)]g + ρoil (Ax)g
d × L = ρw (L – x) + ρoil x
(ρw – d)L = (ρw – ρoil) x

23) 1. Question Explanation

A metal sample weighs 210 g in air, 180 g in water, and 120 g in an unknown liquid. We use
Archimedes' principle to determine the density of the metal.
2. Concept-Based (Archimedes' Principle and Density Calculation)

A. Buoyant force = Weight of liquid displaced

B. The apparent weight loss in a liquid is equal to the buoyant force exerted by the liquid
C. Density is given by:

3. Formula Used
1. Loss of weight in water: Buoyant force = Weight in air − Weight in water

2. Density of metal:

24) Question Explain :-

Hydraulic brakes use an incompressible fluid to transmit force from a pedal to brake pads. We
need to determine which fundamental law governs this pressure transmission mechanism in
hydraulic systems,

Concept Based :-
Pascal's law
Formula Used :-
Pascal's Law :-

since pressure remains constant,

This allows a small force to generate a larger output force. i.e. ΔP1 = ΔP2

then

Calculation :-
When the drive presses the brake pedal, pressure is transmitted uniformly through brake fluid.
The pressure applies force to larger pistons near the brake pads, amplifying braking power.

Answer : 1

25) B = Wair – Wwater = 5 – 2 = 3 N

26) Internal forces will not play any role.

27)

Using Pascal's law

Patm + ρoil g(10) = Patm + ρwg(8)

ρoil = ρw = 0.8 g/cm3

28) Asking about: The primary cause of surface tension. Concept: Molecular forces,
specifically cohesive forces between like molecules in a liquid.

Formula: Surface tension (force per unit length), but this describes how it's measured
not why it occurs.
Explanation: At the surface of a liquid, molecules experience an imbalance in cohesive forces
because they are not surrounded by similar molecules on all sides - only from below and the
sides, not above. This leads to a net inward force that causes the surface to behave lke a
stretched elastic sheet. This phenomenon is surface tension, and it is caused primarily by
cohesive molecular forces within the liquid.
Gravitational and adhesive forces are not the primary cause. Electrostatic forces are part of
intermolecular interactions but are not district from cohesive forces in this constext.
Final Answer: Cohesive molecular forces.
Correct option (3)

29)
 Concept:
Surface energy is proportional to surface area. When a drop splits, the surface area increases,
leading to a gain in surface energy.
Formula :

• Volume conservation:

• Surface area change: ΔA = 64 × 4πr2 – 4π(4r)2

• Energy change: ΔE = T × ΔA

Calculation:

From volume conservation: R = 4r

Change in surface area:

ΔA = 64 × 4πr2 – 4π(4r)2 = 256πr2 – 64 πr2 – 192πr2

Percentage gain in energy :

Percentage gain = = 300%

30)

31)

W= T (2ΔA)
W = 20[2 × (12 × 10 – 6 × 10)]

W = 2400 erg

32)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks what happens if a capillary tube, which normally
causes liquid to rise to a height h due to surface tension, is instead made shorter than that
height h. Specifically, it wants to know how the liquid behaves inside this shorter tube.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves the concept of capillarity, where a liquid rises in
a narrow tube due to surface tension. The liquid rises until the upward surface tension force
balances the weight of the liquid column. The shape (curvature) of the liquid's meniscus inside
the tube affects the pressure difference and height to which the liquid rises.

Relevant Formulas: The height of capillary rise is given by \[ h = \frac{2T \cos \theta}{r \rho
g} \] where: - is the height the liquid rises, - is the surface tension of the liquid, - is the
contact angle between liquid and tube wall, - is the radius of the capillary tube, - is the
density of the liquid, - is the acceleration due to gravity.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the meniscus shape (curvature) adjusts to maintain
equilibrium when the tube length is restricted; the radius of curvature increases in a shorter
tube.

Common Mistakes: Assuming the liquid will rise out of the tube like a fountain, or that the
curvature remains the same regardless of tube length.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 1) 'The liquid will rise to whole of the length of the tube
and curvature will be flat': The curvature cannot be completely flat because surface tension
must maintain some curvature. 2) 'The liquid will come out of the tube like fountain': The
liquid cannot rise higher than the equilibrium capillary height. 3) 'The liquid will rise to whole
of length of the tube and will spread with greater radius of curvature': This is correct because
when the tube is shorter, the meniscus spreads out, increasing the radius of curvature. 4) 'The
liquid will rise to a height less than length of tube': Incorrect, since the tube limits the height if
shorter than h, liquid will fill whole tube length.

33)

APVP = AQVQ
40 × 3 = 20 × VQ
VQ = 6 m/s

34) = P = 40 cm of Hg

= 10.3 m/s

35)

Answer 14%

36) X =

⇒ % uncertanity = 3(1) + 2(2) + 3 + (4) = 12%

37)
V' = V/4

38)

Answer 2500

39)

Answer 50 cm

40)

Remain same, only redistribution occurs

41) Given
Imax =
Imin =

42) Question Explanation :

We are given two longitudinal wave equations and need to compare their intensities. We must
also analyze whether intensity depends only on amplitude and check the validity of both
statements.

Concept :
This question is based on Wave Intensity and Amplitude Relationship.

Solution :
Wave intensity (I) is proportional to the square of amplitude (A) and the square of frequency
(ω):
I ∝ A2ω2
If two waves have different frequencies but same amplitude, their intensities will not be the
same.

I = kA2ω2
where k is a proportionality constant.

Given wave equations:

y1 = 2a sin(ωt – kx), y2 = a sin(2ωt – 2kx)
From the intensity formula:
For y1:
I2 ∝ (2a)2ω2 = 4a2ω2

For y2 :
I2 ∝ (a)2 = (2ω)2 = a2 × 4ω2 = 4a2ω2
Since I1 = I2, Statement-1 is true.
 Now checking Statement-2:
It states that intensity depends only on amplitude, but we just saw that frequency also affects
intensity.
Since I × A2ω2, not just A2, Statement-2 is false.

Final Answer:(2)
(Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false)

43)

lags the second by π/2

44)

45) x =

= 3 × 1 + 2 × 3 + 4 × 1/2 + 2 × 1/2
= 12%

CHEMISTRY

46)

c and d

47)

B>C>A

48)

49)

Cracking
50)

51)

52) Hydrochlorination (HCl) is an electrophilic addition reaction on alkene.

Reactivity towards EAR ∝ Nucleophilicity of alkene or π–bond.
(ed ⇒ electron density)

53)

54)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : Addition of HCN to carbonyl compound is nucleophilic addition reaction.
Final Answer : (3)

55)
Reaction towards ESR → + M > + H > + I > –I > – H > – M
56)

57)

58)

59) Asking About :- Product of reaction of Isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride with 'NA'
metal in presence of Dry ether.
Concept :- Wurtz Reailion
Soln / Explanation :- When two different alkyl halide is treated with Na metal in presence of
Dry ether then mixture of alkanes is obtained and reaction is called as wurtz reaction .
(i) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
n-Butane

(ii)

(iii)

60)

CH4 and CH3 – C ≡ CMgBr

61)

62)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: This problem involves simplifying a given Boolean algebra expression,
which contains variables A and B combined with NOT, AND, and OR operations. The goal is to
reduce the expression to its simplest form.

Underlying Concept: The core concept here is Boolean algebra, which deals with binary
variables and logical operations. Simplification uses laws such as the complement law (A +
¬A = 1), identity law, idempotence law, and properties of AND and OR operations to reduce
expressions.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Simplify terms A·(¬A) = 0 (because A AND NOT A is

always false) and B·B = B (idempotence law). Expression reduces to: A·B + (¬A)·B + B
Step 2: Factor B out from first two terms: B·(A + ¬A) + B Step 3: Using complement law A
+ ¬A = 1, simplify to B·1 + B = B + B Step 4: Using idempotence law (B + B = B), final
simplified expression is B.

Tips and Tricks: Remember key Boolean identities: - Complement law: A + ¬A = 1 - Null
law: A·¬A = 0 - Idempotent law: X + X = X and X·X = X Factoring common terms often
helps reduce complexity quickly.

Common Mistakes: Failing to recognize A·¬A as 0. Not factoring terms correctly to see
simplifications. Ignoring the idempotence law which allows combining duplicate terms.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options other than B typically arise from incomplete
simplification or misapplication of Boolean laws. For example, including the term A·B without
reducing A·¬A to zero leads to more complex expressions that are not minimal.

63)

(1) and (3) both

64)

Positional isomer

65)

66)

I, III, IV

67)

68)
It is an example of markownikoff addition of water.

69)

But-2-ene
70)

71) HBO in best method to prepare terminal alcohol.

72)

3 mole glyoxal

73)

All of the above

74)

Hg(CH3COO)2,H2O, NaBH4

75)

Anhyd. AlCl3 + HCl

76)

77) Reactivity decreases down the group.

78) Electron withdrawing group will decrease the electron density on artho & para position,
Hence attack on meta position.
∴ –CCl3, –NO2, –CN are EWG.

79) Nitro group being electron with drawing deactivate the benzene ring. Hence, electrophile
can not attack on benzene ring easily due to deactivation of benzene ring.

80)

81)

82)

83)

A>B>C

84)

R - I > R - Br > R -Cl > R - F

85)

IV > II > I > III

86)

Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution :
Interstitial compound Fe3C (cementide) is formed.
Final Answer : (3)

87)
 Explaining : -
Concept : This question is based on
Solution : -
Final Answer : (1)

88)

[NiCl4]2–

89)

[Ni(CN)4]–2 < [Ni(CN)6]–4

90)

Iron (II) hexacynidoferrate (III)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XIth Pg # 66

92) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 67

93)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking to identify which plant among the given options
is homologous to the sweet potato. In other words, it wants to find the plant that shares the
same botanical or evolutionary origin as the sweet potato.

Underlying Concept: Homology in biology refers to similarity due to shared ancestry. When
two plants are homologous, they belong to the same family or have similar structural and
genetic characteristics inherited from a common ancestor.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that although 'potato' and 'sweet potato' sound similar, they
belong to different botanical families. Sweet potato belongs to the Convolvulaceae family,
while potato belongs to the Solanaceae family.

Common Mistakes: Confusing sweet potato with regular potato due to name similarity.
Assuming similar names mean homology without considering botanical classification.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Potato is not homologous to sweet potato because it
belongs to a different family (Solanaceae). Colocasia and ginger are also different as they
belong to Araceae and Zingiberaceae families respectively. Turnip is the correct answer
because it is closer in botanical traits related to root vegetables.
 94) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 68,69

95)

One internode long phylloclade

96)

They are photosynthetic due to aerial and positively phototropic

97) Colocasia, Zamikand are example of underground stem-corm.

98)

Bulb of onion

99)

Jasmine

100) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 71, Para-2, line-1,2

101) NCERT XI Pg # 67

102)

Bulb

103)

Rhizome of ginger

104)

Alstonia, Nerium

105)

NCERT XI Page # 68, 70

106)

(2) ii iv i iii
107)

Spathe

108)

a-2-L, b-1-K

109)

Diadelphous androecium - Tomato

110) Question Explanation :

The question asks to identify the plant from the given options that does not have an
actinomorphic flower.

Concept :
This question is based on Symmetry Of Flower.

Solution :
"Gulmohur has zygomorphic flower, while mustard, datura and chilli have actinomorphic
flowers"

Final Answer :
Option (4)

111) NCERT pg.# 74

112)

vexillary

113)

NCERT XI Pg # 63

114) From Module

115)

Poaceae

116) NCERT XI # 75

117)
Brinjal

118)

Brassicaceae

119)

120)

Argemone

121) NCERT Pg # 77

122)

Ncert Page 67.

123) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 79, Fig.-5.21(f) Para-5.9.1

124) NCERT # XIth pg. no. 79

125) NCERT Page No. 74

126)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 85

127)

Primary permanent tissue

128)

Question Explanation:

Identifying incorrect meristem/tissue statements.

Concept:

Plant Meristems and Tissues

Solution:
 Statement (A) is incorrect: Intercalary meristem is a primary meristem, not secondary.
Statement (D) is incorrect: Collenchyma cells are living (have protoplasm) at maturity; only
sclerenchyma cells are dead. Statements (B) and (C) are correct.

Final Answer:

A&D

129) NCERT (XI) Pg # 85

130)

Quiescent zone

131)

Hydrophytes, providing buoyancy

132)

(3) Collenchyma Petiole of leaf

133)

Sclereids

134)

Protoxylem and metaxylem

135)

XIth NCERT Old, Pg. No. - 87

136)

A → d → ii; B → c → i, C → b → iii, D → a → iv

137)

Explain Question :
To identify the haploid structures from the list

Concept : This question is based on gametogenesis

Explanation :
 Haploid (n): Spermatid, secondary oocyte, ovum, sperm, polar body (total 5)

Final answer : 4

138)

Acrosome

139) Explanation:

A. Corpus luteum primarily secretes progesterone, not hCG.

B. hCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) is secreted by the placenta after implantation, not the
corpus luteum.
C. The corpus luteum is responsible for producing progesterone, which maintains the
endometrium (the lining of the uterus) during the early stages of pregnancy.

The incorrect pairing is Option 4 : Corpus Iuteum - Secrete h.C.G. for maintenance of the
endometrium

140)

NCERT XII, Pg # 51

141)

NCERT Pg. No. 52 CLASS XII

142)

Gubernaculum

143)

Question Explanation: Placenta contains.

Concept : Pregnancy and Embryoric devdgpment.

Solution : The chorionic Villi and uterine tissue becomes Inter digitated with each other to
form placents.

Final Answer : option (2). Chorionic villi and uterine tissue

144)

A-iii, B-ii, C-i

145)
 Three

146)

Explain Question : Identify the four statements (a–d) and select the option which includes all
the incorrect ones only.

Concept : Male reproductive system

Solution : The correct option is (2).

(a) Incorrect — the number “750 tubules per lobule” is wrong (each lobule has only 1–3
seminiferous tubules).

(b) Incorrect — Sertoli cells are supportive cells and do not undergo meiosis.

(c) Correct — interstitial spaces do contain Leydig cells and blood vessels.

(d) Correct — scrotum helps maintain lower temperature for spermatogenesis.

Final answer : (2) Statements (a) and (b).

147)

(4) Bartholin glands Secrete alkaline fluid to destroys the acidity of the urethra.

148)

Endometrium of uterus

149)

Vagina

150)

Sertoli cells, also known as sustentacular cells or nurse cells release inhibin.

151)

The correct answer is 3. Oxytocin, Prolactin.

Solution:
• Oxytocin initiates the ejection of milk from the mammary glands.
• Prolactin stimulates the production of milk in the mammary glands.
 152) Explain Question:
Identify the factor that lowers blood pressure.
Concept: This question is based on Hormones of heart.
Solution: The correct answer is option 2, as ANF promotes vasodilation and fluid loss.

A. 1. Thyroxine – Increases metabolic rate → can raise blood pressure

B. 2. Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) – Lowers blood pressure by causing vasodilation and
promoting sodium & water excretion
C. 3. Aldosterone – Promotes sodium and water retention → increases blood volume & pressure
D. 4. Nor-adrenaline – Causes vasoconstriction → raises blood pressure

Final answer: 2

153) Explain Question:

Question: Complete the sentences:
Adrenal cortex regulates .......
Thyroid gland regulates ........
Parathyroid regulates .......

Concept:
This question is based on Functions of endocrine glands.

Explanation :
Adrenal cortex → regulates electrolytic balance (via mineralocorticoids like aldosterone)
Thyroid gland → regulates BMR (basal metabolic rate via thyroxine)
Parathyroid → regulates Ca2+ metabolism (via parathormone)

Final answer : 4

154)

(2) iii i ii iv

155) Explain Question : Secondary messenger is not generated by :-

Concept : This question is based on Hormone mechanism of action
Explanation :
● Somatotropic hormone (GH) → acts via secondary messengers.
● Hypothalamic hormones (like TRH, GnRH) → act via secondary messengers.
● Most pituitary hormones → act via secondary messengers.
● Iodothyronine (thyroid hormones, T₃/T₄) → are lipophilic and act directly by entering
the cell and binding to nuclear receptors (no secondary messenger).
Final answer : Option 4 (Iodothyronine)

156)

Erythropoietin

157) NCERT Pg. No. # 331

158)

Parathormone – tetany

159)

Grave's disease

160)

Explanation :
The correct answer is 4. ATP
Solution: IP3​ , Ca+2 , and cAMP are well-established secondary messengers in cell signaling
pathways. ATP is the primary energy currency of the cell, not a typical secondary messenger.

161)

Pg. No. 242 XI-NCERT

162)

It explains the action of a hormone which interacts with membrane bound receptors.

163)

NCERT Pg#245

164) NCERT Pg. # 335, 22.2.7

165)

Single lobed

166) NCERT, Pg # 335

167) NCERT, Pg # 335

168) NCERT, Pg. # 242, 243

169)

Not respond to hormone.

170)
Aldosterone

171)

Increase effect of harmones of zona reticularis

172)

Ectodermal

173)

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

174)

NCERT Page # 335

175)

B→C→A

176) NCERT Page No. 342, 339(E), 340/343(H)

177)

Gastrin- Secretion of pepsinogen

Secretin- Secretion of water and bicarbonate
CCK- Stimulates bile release
GIP- Inhibits gastric motility

178)

Amino acid derivative

179) NCERT XI, Page # 240-241

180)

A-Hormone, B-receptor, C-Cell membrane D-Secondary messenger