16-04-2025

4504CMD303051240005 MD

PHYSICS

1) The correct statement from the following is

(1) A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have zero acceleration
(2) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero acceleration
(3) A body having uniform speed can have only uniform acceleration
(4) A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero acceleration

2) Match the column

Column - I Column - II

(p) Dependent of
(a) Kirchhoff current law
physical dimension

(b) Kirchhoff voltage law (q) Conservation of charge

(c) Resistance of metal (r) Conservation of energy

(d) Resistivity of metal (s) Depends on temperature

(1) a-q, b-r, c-p,s, d-s
(2) a-p, b-r,s c-q, d-s
(3) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s
(4) a-q, b-s, c-p, d-r

3) One centimetre on the main scale of Vernier Callipers is divided into ten equal parts. If 20
divisions of Vernier scale coincide with 18 small divisions of the main scale then what will be the
least count of the callipers.

(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.01 mm
(4) 0.02 mm

4) An infinite, uniformly charged sheet with surface charge density σ cuts through a spherical
Gaussian surface of radius R at a distance x from its center, as shown in the figure. The electric flux

Φ through the Gaussian surface is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) The potential difference between points a and b of circuits shown in the figure is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) An electron moving with a velocity of 106 m/s in the X-direction enters a region of uniform
magnetic field of strength 0.2T in Y-direction. Then its de-Broblie wavelength (in the magnetic field
region in comparison to outside)-

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains the same
(4) Nothing can be predicted

7) A uniform solid ball of density d and of radius r is moving vertically downward inside a viscous

liquid (density = & coefficient of viscosity = η) with an acceleration of g/2 at an instant. Speed of
the ball at this instant is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Four metallic plates, each with surface area of one side A, are placed at a distance d from each
other. The plates are connected as shown in the adjoining figure. Then the capacitance of the system

between P and Q is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Match the following column -

(1) A → R, B → P, C→ Q, D→ S
(2) A → P, B → R, C→ S, D→ Q
(3) A →Q, B → S, C→ P, D→ R
(4) A → S, B → Q, C→ R, D→ P
10)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) A proton and an electron are placed in a uniform electric field. Which of the following is correct?

(1) The electric forces acting on them will be equal

(2) The magnitudes of the forces will be equal
(3) Their accelerations will be equal
(4) the magnitudes of their accelerations will be equal.

12) Calculate magnitude of resistance X in the circuit shown in figure, when no current flows

through the 5Ω resistor ?

(1) 4 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 1 Ω
(4) 6 Ω

13) When current flows through copper wire, current density J, electric field E and motion of
electrons have directions such that :-
(1) J & E in opposite direction
(2) Motion of electrons and E, in opposite direction
(3) J & motion of electrons in same direction
(4) J, E & motion of electrons are in same direction

14) Consider the following statements. A and B and identify the correct answer given below.
A. Body initially at rest is acted upon by a constant force. The rate of change of its kinetic energy
varies linearly with time.
B. When a body is at rest , it must be in equilibrium.

(1) A and B are correct

(2) A and B are wrong
(3) A is correct and B is wrong
(4) A is wrong and B is correct

15) The breaking stress of a material is 109 Pascal. If the density of material is 3 × 103 kg/m3. The
minimum length of the wire for which it breaks under its own weight will be -

(1) 3.4 m
(2) 3.4 × 104 m
(3) 3.4 × 105 m
(4) 3.4 × 103 m

16) A stone of mass m1 moving with a uniform speed v suddenly explodes on its own into two
fragments. If the fragment of mass m2 is at rest, the speed of the other fragment is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The ionization potential of H-atom is 13.6 V. The H-atoms in ground state are excited by mono
chromatic radiations of photon energy 12.09 eV. Then the number of spectral lines emitted by the
excited atoms, will be

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

18) Match the entries in column I with the corresponding entries in colum II.
 Column-I Column II

(A) The total charge of an electric dipole is (P) q × 2a

For a short dipole, electric field on its axis is given

(B) (Q)
by

For a short dipole, electric field on its equatorial

(C) (R)
plane is given by

Magnitude of dipole moment vector of a dipole is

(D) (S) Zero
equal to
(1) (A) → (P), (B) → (Q), (C) → (R), (D) → (S)
(2) (A) → (S), (B) → (R), (C) → (Q), (D) → (P)
(3) (A) → (S), (B) → (Q), (C) → (R), (D) → (P)
(4) (A) → (S), (B) → (R), (C) → (P), (D) → (Q)

19) A homogeneous chain of length L lies on a table. The coefficient of friction between the chain
and the table is μ. The maximum length which can hang over the table in equilibrium is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A particle executing harmonic motion is having velocities υ1 and υ2 at distance x1 and x2 from the
equilibrium position. The amplitude of the motion is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Current i = 2.5 A flows along the circle x2 + y2 = 9 cm2 (here x & y in cm) as shown
 Magnetic field at point (0, 0, 4 cm) is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The equation of a stationary wave along a stretched string is given by

y = 5 sin cos (40 πt),

where x and y are in cm and t is in s. The separation between two adjacent nodes is :-

(1) 1.5 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 4 cm

23) The value of L, C and R in an LCR series circuit are 4 mH, 40 pF and respectively. The
quality factor of the circuit is

(1) 10,000
(2) 100
(3) 1000
(4) 10

24) Match the following column:

For two nuclei having mass number 2 and 16.

(i) Ratio of nuclear radii (p) 1 : 8

(ii) Ratio of densities (q) 1 : 2

(iii) Ratio of volumes (r) 1 : 1

(iv) Ratio of masses (s) 1 : 4

(1) (i) → q, (ii) → r, (iii) → p, (iv) → p
(2) (i) → r, (ii) → s, (iii) → p, (iv) → q
(3) (i) → p, (ii) → q, (iii) → r, (iv) → s
(4) (i) → r, (ii) → p, (iii) → s, (iv) → q
25) Three charges +q, –q and +2q are placed at the vertices of a right angled triangle (isosceles
triangle) as shown below. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is (base = 'a')

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

26) What is the maximum acceleration of the particle doing the SHM ?

y = 2 sin , where y is in cm.

(1)
cm/s2

(2)
cm/s2

(3)
cm/s2

(4)
cm/s2

27) One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process, , here Po and Vo are
constants. Change in temperature of the gas when volume is changed from V = Vo to V= 2Vo is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) P0V0

28) The magnitude flux through each turn of a 100 turn coil is , where t is in
second. The induced emf at t = 2 s is

(1) –4 V
(2) –1 V
(3) +1 V
(4) +4 V

29) If a particle is projected from the ground from origin with initial speed 100 m/s at angle of 45°
from horizontal then co-ordinate of the highest point of trajectory :-

(1) (1000, 500)

(2) (500, 250)
(3) (1000, 250)
(4) (500, 500)

30) Two particles, each of mass m, go round a circle of radius r under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. If G = gravitational constant, the speed v of each particle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature ?

(1) X-rays
(2) Gamma rays
(3) Cathode rays
(4) Infrared rays

32) If trolley accelerates horizontally with acceleration ‘a’ then bob is displaced backward from its
initial vertical position. The angular deflection of the bob in equilibrium is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) The magnetic moment produced in a substance of 1 gm is If its

density is then the intensity of magnetisation in A/m will be
(1)
(2) 3.0
(3)
(4)

34) If two rods of length 2L and L having coefficients of linear expansion α and 2α respectively are
connected so that total length becomes 3L, the average coefficient of linear expansion of the
composition rod equals :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

35) Two wires with currents 2 A and 1A are enclosed in circular loop. Another wire with current 3 A

is situated outside the loop as shown. The around the loop is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

36) Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite ends of a rigid rod of length L and negligible
mass. The rod is to be set rotating about an axis perpendicular to it. The position of point P on this
rod through which the axis should pass so that the work required to set the rod rotating with

angular velocity ω is minimum, is given by :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A vessel contains 110 g of water. The heat capacity of the vessel is equal to 10 g of water. The
initial temperature of water in vessel is 10°C. If 220 g of hot water at 70°C is poured in the vessel,
the final temperature neglecting radiation loss, will be

(1) 70°C
(2) 80°C
(3) 60°C
(4) 48.8°C

38) Rain is falling vertically with a speed of

12 ms–1. A cyclist is moving east to west with a speed of ms–1. In order to protect himself from
rain at what angle from verticle he should hold his umbrella :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 0°

39) Find maximum voltage across AB in the circuit shown in figure. Assume that diode is ideal

(1) 12.36V
(2) 14.36V
(3) 16.36V
(4) 18.36V

40) An object 1 cm tall is placed 4 cm in front of a mirror. In order to produce an upright image of
3 cm height one needs a

(1) Convex mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm

(2) Concave mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm
(3) Concave mirror of radius of curvature 4 cm
(4) Plane mirror of height 12 cm

41) If the angular velocity of a merry-go-round is 60°/sec and you are 3.5 m from the centre of
rotation, your linear velocity will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) m/s

42) A force is acting at a point having position . The value of β for

which angular momentum about origin is conserved, is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) -1

43) In a Young's double slit experiment, slits are separated by 0.5 mm, and the screen is placed 150
cm away. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 650 nm and 520 nm, is used to obtain
interference fringes on the screen. The least distance from the common central maximum to the
point where the bright fringes due to both the wavelengths coincide is :

(1) 9.75 mm
(2) 15.6 mm
(3) 1.56 mm
(4) 7.8 mm

44) In a transverse progressive wave of amplitude A, the maximum particle velocity is four times it
wave velocity. The wavelength of the wave is.

(1)

(2)

(3) πA
(4) 2πA

45) The van der walls' equation of state for some gases can be expressed as :

Where P is the pressure, V the molar volume and T is the absolute temperature of the given sample
of gas, a, b and R constants. The dimensions of 'a' are :-

(1) [ML5T–2]
(2) [ML-1T–2]
(3) [L3]
(4) [L6]
 CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is isotonic with 15 % glucose solution (sp. gr = 1.2) :

(1) 1 M CaCl2
(2) 1 N CaCl2
(3) 0.5 M NaCl
(4) 0.5 M urea

2) In the reaction,
H2O (steam) + C(glowing) CO + H2

(1) H2O is the reducing agent

(2) H2O is the oxidising agent
(3) Carbon is the oxidising agent
(4) Oxidation - reduction does not occur

3) Which of the following is not a reducing agent?

(1) SO2
(2) H2O2
(3) CO2
(4) NO2

4) Calculate the frequency of wave having

λ = 1200 pm

(1) 0.25 × 10–18

(2) 0.25×1018
(3) 2.5×1018
(4) 2.5×10–18

5) The ratio between kinetic energy and the total energy of the electrons of H–atom according to
Bohr's model is :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : –1
(4) 1 : 2

6) Change in volume of the system does not alter the number of moles in which of the following
equilibrium :

(1) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

(2) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(4) SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g)

7) for the reaction, CO + O2 CO2 is :-

(1) RT
(2)

(3)

(4) 1

8) When 3 moles of A and 1 mole of B are mixed in 1 litre vessel, the following reaction takes place
A(g) + B(g) 2C(g), 1.5 moles of C are formed. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is :-

(1) 0.12
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.50
(4) 4.0

9) Two moles of an ideal gas are expanded isothermally & reversibly from 1 litre to 10 litre at 300 K.
The enthaply change (in kJ) for the process is :-

(1) 11.4
(2) –11.4
(3) 0
(4) 4.8

10) If 50 calorie are added to a system and system does work of 30 calorie on surroundings, the
change in internal energy of system is :-

(1) 20 cal
(2) 50 cal
(3) 40 cal
(4) 30 cal

11)

If graph is straight line between t1/2 and then what is order of reaction :-

(1) Zero order

(2) I order
(3) IV order
(4) III order
12) The heat capacity of a system in isothermal process would be :

(1) 0
(2) ∞
(3) 1
(4) Data insufficient

13) A metal having negative reduction potential, when dipped in the solution of its own ions, has a
tendency to :-

(1) remain as metal atoms

(2) become electrically positive
(3) become electrically negative
(4) be deposited from the solution

14) In a conductivity cell, the two platinum electrodes, each of area 10 cm2 are fixed 1.5 cm apart.
The cell contained 0.05 N solution of a salt. If the two electrode are just half dipped into the solution
which has a resistance of 50Ω, the equivalent conductance of the salt solution, in Ω–1 cm2 eq–1, is :-

(1) 120
(2) 60
(3) 240
(4) 3000

15) When 12,000 coulombs of electricity is passed through the electrolyte, 3.0 g of a metal of atomic
mass 96.5 g/mol is deposited. The electro-valency of the metal cation in the electrolyte is :-

(1) +4
(2) +3
(3) +2
(4) –4

16) A solution was made by dissolving a non-volatile solute in water and it's freezing point was found
to be –2.47°C. The boiling point of solution will be
[Kf = 1.869, Kb = 0.53] :-

(1) 100.70°C
(2) 100.22°C
(3) 100.32°C
(4) 100.42°C

17) One molal solution of a carboxylic acid in benzene shows the elevation of boiling point of 1.518
K. The degree of association for dimerization of the acid in benzene is (Kb for benzene = 2.53 K kg
mol–1) :-

(1) 60%
(2) 70%
(3) 75%
(4) 80%

18) The ligand N(CH2CH2NH2)3 is

(1) Tridentate
(2) Pentadentate
(3) Tetradentate
(4) Bidentate

19) Which of the following complexes are homoleptic-

(i) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (ii) [Co(NH3)4Cl]+
(iii) [Ni(CN)4]2– (iv) [Ni(NH3)4Cl2]

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii)

20) The outer electronic configuration of Gd (Atomic no. 64) is :

(1) 4f3 5d5 6s2

(2) 4f8 5d10 6s2
(3) 4f4 5d4 6s2
(4) 4f7 5d1 6s2

21) The element which have positive E° value and does not liberate H2 gas from acids.

(1) Mn
(2) Fe
(3) Co
(4) Cu

22) In dichromate dianion :-

(1) 4 Cr–O bonds are equivalent

(2) 6 Cr–O bonds are equivalent
(3) All Cr–O bonds are equivalent
(4) All Cr–O bonds are non equivalent

23) Which of the following will not decolourise KMnO4 in acidic medium ?

(1) SO2
(2)
(3) Cl–
(4) CO2

24) Which type of hydroxides are generally formed by Lanthanoids?

(1) Ln(OH)3
(2) Ln(OH)2
(3) Ln(OH)4​​
(4) Ln(OH)6​

25) Which of the following reaction are disproportion reactions -

(a) 2KMnO4 → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
(b) 2MnO4– + 3Mn+2 + 2H2O → 5MnO2 + 4H+
(c) 3MnO4–2 + 2H+ → 2MnO4– + MnO2 + 2H2O
(d) Cu+ → Cu+2 + Cu

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) c, d

26) In Lassaigne's extract of an organic compound when nitrogen is present, which gives prussian
blue colour on boiling with aqueous FeSO4 and Conc. H2SO4 solution. The prussian blue colour is due
to the formation of

(1) Fe3 [Fe(CN)6]4

(2) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]3
(3) Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3
(4) Fe3 [Fe(CN)6]2

27) Match List I with List II

List I List II
Element detected Reagent used/ product formed

A Nitrogen I Na2[Fe(CN)5 NO]

B Sulphur II AgNO3

C Phosphorous III Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3

D Halogen IV (NH4)2MoO4
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A–II, B–IV, C–I, D–III
(2) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III
(3) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III
(4) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II

28) Formula of brown ring complex.

 +2
(1) [Fe(NH3)5NO]
+2
(2) [Fe(H2O)6]
+
(3) [Fe(H2O)5NO]
+2
(4) [Fe(H2O)5NO]

29) Which reaction termed as Darzen's reaction ?

(1) R–OH + H–Cl

(2) R–OH + PCl5
(3) R–OH + SOCl2
(4) R–OH + PCl3

30) What type of alcohols are best suited for williamson ether synthesis?

(1) Primary alcohols

(2) Secondary alcohols
(3) Tertiary alcohols
(4) Phenols

31) Which of the following reagents can be used for the reduction of carboxylic acid to primary
alcohol.

(1) LiAlH4
(2) NaBH4
(3) H2O2
(4) K2Cr2O7

32) Which is maximum acidic.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

33) In which of the following benzene will not be product :-

⊕
(1) Ph MgCl + H3O →
(2) Ph–OH + Zn

(3) Ph–COOH + (NaOH + CaO)

(4) Ph–Cl + NaOH

34) The product of the following reaction is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
35) + CH3CH2OH → ?

(1)

+ CH3CH2MgBr

(2)

(3)
+ CH3CH2OMgBr

(4)
+ MgBr (OH)

36) Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is

(1) aniline
(2) benzylamine
(3) methylamine
(4) iso-butylamine

37) Methylamine on treatment with chloroform and ethanolic caustic alkali gives foul smelling
compound, the compound is

(1) CH3NCO
(2) CH3CNO
(3) CH3CN
(4) CH3NC

38) Which one of the following vitamins is water soluble.

(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B
(3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin K

39) Which of the following is non reducing sugar :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Incorrect about benzoic acid is :

(1) Benzoic acid does not undergo friedel-craft reaction

(2) It is stronger acid than formic acid.
(3) –COOH group of benzoic acid is deactivating towards electrophilic substitution reaction.
(4) It gives benzoic anhydride while heating in presence of P2O5.

41) Match column I with Column II

Column - I Column - II

(P) Al+3 (1) II group

(Q) Zn+2 (2) V group

(R) Ba+2 (3) IV group

(S) Pb+2 (4) III group

(1) (P)–4, (Q)–2, (R)–1, (S)–3
(2) (P)–2, (Q)–4, (R)–1, (S)–3
(3) (P)–3, (Q)–1, (R)–2, (S)–4
(4) (P)–4, (Q)–3, (R)–2, (S)–1

42) Consider the following reaction,

The product A is :

(1) C6H5CHO
(2) C6H5OH
(3) C6H5COCH3
(4) C6H5Cl

43) Which of the following is "Gattermann – Koch Reaction"

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Which of the following will not give iodoform test ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) How many number of conformations are less stable than anti form of butane about C2–C3 rotation
:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) Infinite

BIOLOGY

1) Select the incorrect about thalassemia.

(1) Autosomal recessive disorder

(2) In thalassemia, the production of globin chain is affected
(3) thalassemia is controlled by a single gene HBB on chromosome
(4) It is qualitative problem of synthesizing an incorrectly functioning globin

2) Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the
rules of nomenclature ?

(1) When the name is printed in italics, it indicates their latin origin.
(2) Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten are not separately underlined.
(3) First letter of generic name should be in capital letter.
(4) The second word in a name represents specific epithet.

3) Assertion (A): Bryophyta shows independent alternation of generation in plant kingdom.

Reason (R): Gametophyte and sporophyte both are multicellular, photosynthetic and independent in
bryophytes.

(1) A is true while R is false.

(2) A and R both are false.
(3) A and R both are true and R explain A.
(4) A and R both are true and R does not explain A

4) Select the correct statement

(1) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus are well known diseases caused by viruses
(2) Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids and slime moulds are placed under kingdom Monera
(3) Members of kingdom Protista are primarily aquatic
(4) Dinoflagellates are the chief produceers in the oceans

5) Recognise the following figures and find the suitable options :-

(i) A = Paramoecium, B = Euglena
(ii) Both 'A' and 'B' are Eukaryotes
(iii) A = Euglena, B = Agaricus
(iv) Both 'A' and 'B' are motile
(v) 'B' is Heterotrophic while 'A' is both autotrophic and some time heterotrophic.

(1) (i), (ii), (iv) & (v)

(2) (i), (iv) & (v)
(3) (ii), (iii) & (v)
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)
6) Identify the given diagram and how many statements are correct about
diagram?
(i) It is photosynthetic eukaryotic organism.
(ii) They play great role in production of dairy products.
(iii) Presence of heterocyst.
(iv) Its cell wall structure is similar to Bacteria.

(1) (iii), (iv)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv)

7) Choose the correct statement from following -

(i) The leaves of pteridophytes are microphylls as in Selaginella and macrophyll in ferns.
(ii) Pteridophytes includes horse tails and ferns.
(iii) Pteridophytes are used for medicinal purposes and as soil - binders.
(iv) Seed habit reported for first time in Angio - sperm.
(v) The stem of Pinus is unbranched.

(1) i, ii & v
(2) i, ii & iii
(3) ii, iv & v
(4) All of these

8) Consider the following statements regarding the major pigments and stored food in the different
groups of algae and choose the correct option.
(i) In Chlorophyceae, the stored food material is starch and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a and
c.
(ii) In Phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored food and major pigments are chlorophyll-a and b.
(iii) In Rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food and the major pigments are chlorophyll-a,
d and phycoerythrin.

(1) (i) is correct, but (ii) and (iii) are wrong.

(2) (i) and (ii) are correct, but (iii) is wrong
(3) (i) and (iii) are correct, but (ii) is wrong
(4) (iii) is correct, but (i) and (ii) are wrong

9) Variation in length of stamen filament is commonly observed in :

(1) Mustard and Salvinia
(2) Mustard and Cotton
(3) Sunflower and china rose
(4) Mustard and Salvia

10) Given below are the diagrammatic representation of position of floral parts on thalamus,
condition of ovary and example. Find the correctly matched combination?

Position of
Condition
floral parts Example
of ovary
on thalamus

(a) Cucumber

(b) G– Brinjal

(c) Plum

(d) Rose

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

11) Which of the following statement (s) is/are incorrect?

(i) Generally, monocotyledonous seeds are non-endospermic but some as in orchids are
endospermic.
(ii) Zygomorphic flower can be divided into two equal radial halves in any radial plane.
(iii) Flowers without bracts are termed as bracteate.
(iv) Parthenocarpic fruit is formed after fertilization of the ovary.
(v) In legumes, seed is non-endospermic.
(vi) Root cap is thimble like structure and protect the tender apex

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) and (v)
(3) (iii), (iv) and (vi)
(4) (i), (iv) and (v)

12) Fill in the blanks:

a. In the ... 1..., the vascular bundles have no cambium present in them. Hence, since they do not
form secondary tissue they are referred to as ...2... vascular bundles
b. In ...3... stems, cambium is present between phloem and xylem. Such vascular bundles because of
the presence of cambium possess the ability to form secondary xylem and phloem tissues and hence
called ...4... vascular bundles

(1) 1-monocotyledons, 2-open, 3-dicotyledons, 4-closed

(2) 1-dicotyledons, 2- open, 3- monocotyledons, 4- closed
(3) 1-monocotyledons, 2- closed, 3- dicotyledons, 4 open
(4) 1-dicotyledons, 2- closed, 3-monocotyledons, 4 open

13) In the given figure, which component has thin outer walls and highly thickened inner walls?

(1) C
(2) D
(3) A
(4) B

14) In grasses certain ......... epidermis cells along the veins modify themselves into large, empty,
colourless cells. There are called .

(1) Lateral, cork cells

(2) Lower, epithem cells
(3) Adaxial, bullifrom cells
(4) Abaxial, epithem cells
15)

(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)

(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii)
(3) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (i)
(4) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)

16) In oocyte of some vertibrates, ....... can last for monthes, or years -

(1) Leptoene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytne
(4) Diplotene

17) Read the following statements and identify them as true (T) or false (F) and accordingly choose
the correct option.

A Splitting of centromere takes place during anaphase of mitosis.

During the metaphase of mitosis small disc-shaped structures at the

B
surface of the centromeres are called kinetochores.

C Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform during end of prophase.

D In animal cells cytokinesis is carried out by furrow formation.

(1) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F
(2) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-T
(3) A-F, B-T, C-T, D-T
(4) A-T, B-F, C-F, D-T

18) Refer the given statements, stating them true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option.
A. The ribosomes of polysome translate the mRNA into proteins.
B. Gas vacuoles are found in blue green and purple and green photosynthetic bacteria.
C. Centrioles are present in all plant cells.
D. In prokaryotes, ribosomes are made of two subunits 50 S and 40 S.

(1) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F

(2) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-T
(3) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F
(4) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-T

19) Spraying juvenile conifers with ______ hastens the maturity period, thus leading to early seed
production. Choose the correct option to fill the above blank:
(1) IAA
(2) GA
(3) Ethephon
(4) Cytokinin

20) Out of 38 molecules of ATP produced during aerobic respiration of glucose, the net
ATP production (directly or indirectly) in glycolysis (A), pyruvate to acetyl Co-A formation (B) and
Kreb’s cycle (C) is :

(1) A = 1, B = 6, C = 30
(2) A = 8, B = 6, C = 24
(3) A = 8, B =10, C = 20
(4) A = 2, B =12, C = 24

21) Match the following :

(A) Auxin (i) Derivatives of carotenoids

(B) Gibberellin (ii) Gaseous PGR
(C) Cytokinin (iii) Adenine derivatives
(D) Ethylene (iv) Terpenes
(E) Abscisic acid (v) Indole compounds
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-v, D-iii, E-iv
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii, E-v

22) Which of the following matches is not appropriate regarding measurement of growth?

Increase in surface
(1) Dorsiventral leaf
area

Increase in size of
(2) Watermelon
cells

Maize root apical Increase in number

(3)
meristem of cells

Increase in volume
(4) Pollen tube
and fresh weight
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) An angiospermic plant is having 24 chromosomes in its leaf cells. The number of chromosomes
present in synergid, pollen grain, nucellus & endosperm will be respectively
(1) 12, 12, 12, 72
(2) 8, 8, 12, 36
(3) 12, 12, 24, 36
(4) 12, 12, 12, 36

24) Corn cob - the tassels you see are nothing but the –

(1) Stigma and Style

(2) Bisexual flowers
(3) Stamens and Calyx
(4) Sterile flowers

25) If starch grain size and seed shape in pea seeds is considered, the genotype Bb produces

(1) Large, round seeds

(2) Intermediate, wrinkled seeds
(3) Intermediate size and round seeds
(4) Intermediate size & intermediate shape

26) Statement-I: Very tightly linked genes show very low recombination.
Statement-II: Loosely linked genes show high recombination.

(1) Both statements I & II are correct

(2) Both statements I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct

27) Which of the following RNA is known as adapter RNA ?

(1) m–RNA
(2) t–RNA
(3) r–RNA
(4) Sn RNA

28) Match the following Columns and choose the correct option

Column - I Column - II

a. Taylor and colleagues i. 35

S and 32P

b. Hershey and Chase ii. Radioactive thymidine

Cell-free system for

c. Meselson and Stahl iii.
protein synthesis
15
d. Marshall Nirenberg iv. NH4Cl
(1) a (ii), b (i), c (iv), d (iii)
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c (i), d (iv)
(3) a (i), b (iii), c (iv), d (ii)
(4) a (ii), b (i), c (iii), d (iv)

29) Statement-I: Depending on the type of the raw material used for fermentation and the type of
processing (with or without distillation) different types of alcoholic drinks are obtained.
Statement-II: Wine and beers are produced without distillation whereas whisky, brandy and rum
are produced by distillation of the fermented broth.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

30) Baculoviruses (nucleopolyhedrovirus) does not show

(1) Species-specific interaction

(2) Narrow spectrum applications.
(3) Effects on non-target pathogens.
(4) Utility in IPM programme.

31) Statement I: MacArthur showed that five closely related species of warblers living on the same
tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist due to behavioural differences in their foraging
activities.
Statement II: Many parasites have evolved to be host-specific and have adaptations such as the
presence of unnecessary sense organs and a low reproductive capacity.

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

32) Number of leaves, size of leaves, age of leaves, internal CO2 concentration, amount of
chlorophyll, light, temprature.
How many environmental factors are responsible to affect the rate of photosynthesis :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

33) Which type of genetic disorder is related to chromosomal disorder :-

(1) Haemophilia
(2) Cystic fibrosis
(3) Phenylketonuria
(4) Down's syndrome
34) Choose the correct option denoting the symbols used for the presence of petals and epipetalous
stamens in a flower.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Oxygen evolving complex (splitting of water) contains which of the following element group ?

(1) Mg, Ca
(2) Mg, Cl
(3) Mn, Cl
(4) Mn, Cu

36) Select the odd one out with respect to significance of mitosis.

(1) Growth of multicellular organism

(2) Restore nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio
(3) Cell repair
(4) It increases genetic variability

37) Centrosome is an organelle containing two cylindrical structure known as:-

(1) Cisternae
(2) Centromere
(3) Tubules
(4) Centrioles

38)

The product of photorespiration-

(1) Phosphoglycerate
(2) Phosphoglycolate
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Malate

39) Yeasts poison themselves to death when the concentration of alcohol reaches about

(1) 5%
(2) 13%
(3) 8%
(4) 6%
40) Select the correct option in respect of given diagrams ?

A B C D

(1) Bean Castor Onion Maize

(2) Onion Bean Castor Maize

(3) Castor Bean Onion Maize

(4) Maize Castor Onion Bean

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Select the correct sequence of steps involved in DNA fingerprinting-

(A) Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases
(B) Isolation of DNA
(C) Hybridization using labelled VNTR probe.
(D) Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes, such as
nitrocellulose or nylon.
(E) Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis.

(1) B, A, E, D, C
(2) A, B, C, D, E
(3) B, C, E, D, A
(4) B, C, D, E, A

42) If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at
position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
altered?

(1) 1
(2) 11
(3) 33
(4) 333

43) Arrange the following places in increasing order of bird diversity

(i) New York (ii) India
(iii) Greenland (iv) Coloumbia

(1) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

(2) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)

44) Which of the following option correctly represent functions of an ecosystem ?

(A) Energy flow
(B) Decomposition
(C) Productivity
(D) Nutrient cycling

(1) A and D only

(2) A, C and D only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, B, C and D

45) Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to
extinction:

(1) Over exploitation

(2) Alien species invasion
(3) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(4) Co-extinction

46) Following diagram represents which type of connective tissue ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

47) Match the animal names listed under column-I with the zoological names given under
column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :
Column-I Column-II
(Common name) (Zoological name) (a) Star fish (i) Sepia
(b) Jelly fish (ii) Asterias
(c) Devil fish (iii) Aurelia
(d) Cuttle fish (iv) Octopus
 (v) Hippocampus
a b c d
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (v)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (v) (i) (iv) (ii)

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

48) Given below is a figure of chordata labelled A, B, C and D. Find out A, B, C and D choose correct
one :-

A – Gill slit B – Notochord

(1)
C – Post anal tail D – Nerve cord
A – Post anal tail B – Nerve cord
(2)
C – Notochord D – Gill slit
A – Nerve cord B – Notochord
(3)
C – Gill slit D – Post anal tail
A – Gill slits B – Nerve cord
(4)
C – Notochord D – Post anal tail

49) Which one of the following is the incorrect statement for respiration in humans ?

(1) Workers in grinding and stone-breaking industries may suffer from lung fibrosis
(2) Emphysema is a chronic disorder
(3) Cigarette smoking may cause emphysema
Neural signals from pneumotaxic centre in pons region of brain can increase the duration of
(4)
inspiration

50) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

A Areolar tissue 1 Fat cells

B Adipose tissue 2 Osteocytes

C Ligaments 3 Loose connective tissue

D Bone 4 Dense regular connective tissue

(1) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
(2) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
(3) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
(4) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3

51) In interstitial fluid of kidney an increasing osmolarity from cortex to the inner medulla. This
gradient is mainly caused by :-

(1) Na+, K
(2) NaCl, H2O, HCO3
(3) NaCl and Urea
(4) Urea, HCO3

52) Find the true or false statements from the given below list of statements.
A. If the diameter of efferent arterioles of the nephrons is morethan the afferent arterioles then ultra
filtration of blood is stopped
B. Removal of proximal convoluted tubule and the loop of Henle lead to dilution of urine
C. During muscle contraction ATP breaksdown and attachment of myosin head to the exposed site of
actin filament occurs
D. Cranial bones are 8 and facial bones are 14 in number

A B C D

1 T T F T

2 T F T F

3 F T T T

4 T T T T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Assertion : Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.
Reason : Larvae of cyclostome does metamorphosis in marine water.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and the reason are false.

54) Choose the correct order with respect to Micturition.

A. Stretching of urinary bladder.
B. Signal from urinary bladder to the CNS.
C. Contraction of smooth muscles of the bladder and relaxation of urethral sphincter.
D. Motor message from CNS to urinary bladder.
E. Release of urine i.e. micturition.

(1) B → A → C → D → E
(2) A → B → D → C → E
(3) A → D → C → B → E
(4) D → A → E → B → C

55) Identify X and Y.

(1) X – Renin, Y – ADH

(2) X – Aldosterone, Y – ADH
(3) X – Renin, Y – Aldosterone
(4) X – Aldosterone, Y – ANF

56) Select the incorrect statement from the following:

(1) ECG is of great clinical insignificance.

By counting the number of QRS complexes (in given time period), we can determine the heart
(2)
beat rate of individual.
(3) The contraction of atria starts after repolarization of atria.
(4) T-wave represent repolarization of ventricles.

57) Catecholamine causes:-

(1) Glycogenolysis
(2) Proteolysis
(3) Lipolysis
(4) All of these

58) Select the correct statement:

A. Melatonin influences menstrual cycle and our deffence capability.
B. In adult women, hypothyroidism may cause menstrual cycle to become irregular.
C. Protein hormone secreted by thyroid, TCT (Thyrocalcitonin) regulates the blood calcium level.
D. Maintenance of water and electrolytes balance is also influenced by thyroid hormone.
E. Oxytocin causes milk ejection from mammary gland.

(1) A, B and C only

(2) A, B, C and E only
(3) All except D
(4) All statements are correct

59) Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective development and maturation of growing
baby leading to -

(1) Addison’s disease

(2) Cretinism
(3) Creatinine
(4) Tetany

60) Which of the following is false about hind-brain?

(1) Pons, a part of it consist of fibre tracts that interconnects different regions of brain.
The cerebellum part of it has very convoluted surface to provide additional space to many
(2)
neurons.
(3) Medulla of this part is connected to the spinal cord.
(4) The hind-brain is known for regular excitement, pleasure, rag and fear.

61) During a stimulus (beyond threshold) to Neuronal membrane (Axolemma) The membrane allows

(1) Rapid efflux of Sodium Ion.

(2) Rapid Influx of Potassium Ion.
(3) Rapid Efflux of Potassium Ion.
(4) Rapid Influx of Sodium ion.

62) Which of the following statements are true regarding Counter Current Mechanism (CCM)?
(1) (1) and (3)
(2) Only (1)
(3) Both (2 and (3)
(4) Only (2)

63) Statement I : The portion of the myofibril between two successive 'Z' lines is considered as
anatomical unit of muscle.
Statement II : Striated appearance in visceral muscles fibre is due to distribution of pattern of
actin and myosin proteins.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

64) Statement-I : Cofactor of an enzyme may be a prosthetic group.

Statement-II : NAD derived from niacin is a coenzyme.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

65) Assertion (A): An increase in pulmonary volume will cause inspiration.

Reason (R): An increase in pulmonary volume increases the intra-pulmonary pressure to more than
the atmospheric pressure.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not correctly explains (A).
(3) (A) is True but (R) is False.
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True .

66) Assertion : Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 4 ml of O2 to the tissues under
normal physiological conditions.
Reason : Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 5 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

67) Identify the correct and incorrect match about the respiratory volume and capacities and mark
the correct answer :-
(a) Expiratory capacity = Tidal volume + Residual volume
(b) Vital capacity = Total long capacity – Residual volume
(c) Inspiratory reserved volume = Vital capacity – Expiratory capacity
(d) Total long capacity = Vital capacity + Residual volume

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) Incorrect Correct Correct Correct

(2) Correct Correct Incorrect Correct

(3) Incorrect Correct Incorrect Incorrect

(4) Correct Incorrect Incorrect Correct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68) Coronary artery disease (CAD) is often referred to as

(1) Heart failure

(2) Cardiac arrest
(3) Atherosclerosis
(4) Angina

69) Assertion : In cockroaches the development is paurometabolous.

Reason : Nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

70) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

A Periplaneta americana I Hepatic caecae

B A ring of 6-8 blind tubules II Phylum arthropoda

 C Vascular system III Spiracles

D 10 pairs of small holes IV Malpighian tubules

E Excretion V Open type

(1) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(2) A – II; B – I; C – V; D – III; E – IV
(3) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV
(4) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I

71) Male frog can be distinguished externally from female frog by all of the following features
except
a. Presence of sound producing vocal sacs
b. Presence of copulatory pad on the first digit of the forelimbs
c. Ureters carry both sperms and urine in male frog
d. Testes are adhered to the upper part of kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum called mesorchium

(1) a, b, c and d
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) c and d only

72) Statement I:- Oogensis starts at the age of puberty.

Statement II:- During puberty significant increases in the secretion of gonadotropin releasing
hormone (GnRH).

(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(3) Both are correct
(4) Both are incorrect

73) a – De-vries believed mutation caused speciation and called it saltation (single step large
mutation)
b – Homology indicates common ancestry.
c – Natural selection is essence of Darwinian theory of evolution
Select the correct option-

a b c
(1) False False False
(2) False True False
(3) True True False
(4) True True True
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
74) Which of the following is example of evolution by anthropogenic action-

(1) Man has created breeds of animals

(2) Excess use of herbicides, pesticides has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties.
(3) Industrial melanism
(4) All of the above

75)

Seminal vesicle, Prostate, Cowper's glands, Testis

How many of the following are paired?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

76) Which of the following ART involves transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian
tube of another female who cannot produce one, but can provide suitable environment for
fertilisation and further development?

(1) ZIFT
(2) GIFT
(3) IUI
(4) IVF-ET

77) Assertion: All copulations do not lead to the fertilization and pregnancy.
Reason: Fertilization can occur only if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to the
ampullary region of fallopian tube.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

78) Statement-I : The turnover member for carbonic anhydrase is 6000000/sec.

Statement-II : Carbonic anhydrase accelerates the reaction rate by about 10 million times.
Statement-III : In absence of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase the reaction H2O +
CO2 H2CO3 is very slow, with about 2000 molecules of H2CO3 being formed /hr.

(1) Statement-I correct, Statement-II incorrect, Statement-III correct

(2) Statement-I incorrect, Statement-II correct, Statement-III incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect, Statement-II correct, Statement-III correct
(4) Statement-I correct, Statement-II correct, Statement-III correct

79) Match the Column I with Column II.

 Column I Column II

A Decrease in helper T – lymphocytes I Dengue

Decrease in
B II AIDS
thrombocytes

Decrease in
C III Allergy
erythrocytes

D Increase in Ig E antibodies IV Malaria

(1) A-II;B-I;C-III;D-IV
(2) A-II;B-I;C-IV;D-III
(3) A-I;B-II;C-III;D-IV
(4) A-I;B-II;C-IV;D-III

80) Which of the following statements regarding drugs are correct ?

(i) Heroin, commonly called smack, is obtained by acetylation of morphine.
(ii) Cocaine is obtained from the latex of Papaver somniferum.
(iii) Marijuana interferes with the transmission of dopamine.
(iv) Morphine is an effective sedative and pain killer.

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii)
(4) (iii) and (iv)

81) Which one of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative
organism and mode of infection?

Disease Causative organisms Mode of Infection

With infected water

(1) Elephantiasis Wuchereria bancrofti
and food

Bite of male Anopheles

(2) Malaria Plasmodium vivax
mosquito

(3) Typhoid Salmonella typhi With inspired air

Streptococcus
(4) Pneumonia Droplet infection
pneumoniae
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Assertion: Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/latex sheath and its use is increased in
recent years.
Reason: It prevent conception and its additional benefit is protecting the user from contracting
STDs and AIDS.
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

83) The genetic defect adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:

(1) Enzyme replacement therapy

(2) Periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
(3) Introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
(4) Bone marrow transplantation

84) The applications of Biotechnology include

(A) Therapeutics
(B) Diagnostics
(C) GM crops for agriculture
(D) Processed food
(E) Bioremediation
(F) Waste treatment
(G) Energy production

(1) A, B, C, E only
(2) C only
(3) B, C, D, E only
(4) All of these

85) Statement A : RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all prokaryotic organisms as a method of
cellular defense.
Statement B : RNAi prevents transcription of the mRNA.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct
(4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect

86) If an alien DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of -galactosidase enzyme and then
plated on to agar medium containing a chromogenic substrate and ampicillin. This would result in

(1) Insertional activation of b-galactosidase

(2) Recombinant colonies producing blue colour
(3) Non-recombinants producing white colonies
(4) Inactivation of -galactosidase coding gene

87) Assertion (A) :- Ti plasmid are used as vectors in gene transfer.

Reason (R) :- Down stream processing vary from product to product.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

88) Read the statements carefully ?

(I) Basmati rice is distinct for its unique aroma and flavor and 27 documented varieties of basmati
are grown in India.
(II) The Indian Government has set up organisations such as G.E. A.C.
(III) Probe is a single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with a radioactive molecule.
How many above statement is / are correct.

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only I and II
(4) I, II and III

89) Statement-I :- Genetic modification has made crops tolerant to abiotic stress.
Statement-II :- A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the leaves of tobacco plant.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

90) The proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac and cry II Ab are effective against

(1) Corn borer

(2) Cotton bollworms
(3) Nematodes
(4) Mosquitoes
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 4 3 3 3 3 1 2 2 4 2 3 2 1 3 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 2 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 4 2 1 1 2 4 3 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 2 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 2 3 1 3 4 3 1 3 2 2 1 1 1 4 3 4 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 4 1 4 3 4 4 3 1 1 4 4 2 3 1 4 2 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 4 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 2 3 3 1 2 4 4 1 1 3 1 3 2 4 2 1 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 4 3 1 3 1 2 1 1 3 4 1 4 3 3 4 4 3 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 4 4 3 3 (1) 4 4 1 3 4 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 4 3 4 1 3 1 2 4 2 4 4 3 2 1 2 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 3 4 4 4 1 4 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

Conceptual

3) Given MSD = cm
20 VSD = 18 MSD = 0.1 cm

1 VSD = MSD = 1 mm
= 0.9 MSD
Least count = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
= 1 MSD – 0.9 MSD
= 0.1 MSD
= (0.1) (1 mm)
= 0.1 mm

5)

q = (E1 + E2) Cnet

= (E1 + E2)

Vab =

7) Vdg – Vρg – 6πηrv = Vd

⇒v=

12)

In case of balanced WSB

⇒ X = 6Ω
14)
When the body is at rest then it may be or may not be in equilibrium, so statement Bis wrong.

22) The given equation of a stationary wave is

y = 5sinxcos 40πt

The standard equation of a stationary wave is

y = 2a sin kxcosωt
Comparing (i) and (ii), we get

k=

or or λ = 3 cm
Separation between two adjacent nodes is

cm

23)

25)

28)

31) Conceptual.
 33)
given mass = 1gm = ,

and density =

Hence

38) tanθ =

tanθ = =
θ = 60º

39)

VAB = = 16.36 volt

41) = 60°/s =

n = r = (3.5)

42)

If torque = 0 than angular momentum is conserved.

45) [a] = [PV2]

CHEMISTRY
46) [Glucose] = = 1M

49) ν = = = 0.25 × 1018

55)

q = +50 cal
w = –30 cal
ΔU = q + w
= 50 – 30 = +20 cal

57) Concept: Isothermal process → dT = 0

heat capacity c =
c=∞
Final Answer:∞
Correct option: 2

61) ΔTf = Kfm

2.47 = 1.86 m, ∴
now, ΔTb = Kbm

ΔTb = 0.53 × = 0.704

Hence the boiling point = 100.704

62)

ΔTb (normal) = Kbm = 2.53 × 1 = 2.53K ;

i=

i=1– α = 0.8

71)

Ncert, class 11th, part-2, Article no: 8.9.2, pg no: 284, 285, Edition:2023-24.

75) NCERT [Link]. 215

76) NCERT P. NO. 200

 78)

79)

80)

83)

Vitamins B & C are water soluble.

84) It is sucrose so non-reducing

85) NCERT XII Pg. # 376

86) Refer : NCERT practice chemistry

Hint : Fact

87)

90)

No. of conformation of butane = ∞(infinite)

BIOLOGY

96) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 19, Fig. 2.2

 97) NCERT-XI Pg. NO. 30 & 32

99) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 64

103) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 72

113) The correct answer is (c) 12, 12, 24, 36 . In angiosperms, the synergid, pollen grain, are
products after meiosis so haploid and nucellus is diploid as it is parent sporophyte, and the
endosperm, being triploid, has 36 chromosomes.

114) NCERT Pg 13

115) NCERT Page No. 78

116) NCERT Page No. 83, 84

118) NCERT (Class 12) page no. 86, 89, 90, 96

121)

This question asks you to evaluate the validity of two statements. You need to determine
whether both, one, or neither statement is true.
Answer 4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Explanation
Statement I "MacArthur showed that five closely related species of warblers living on the
same tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist due to behavioural differences in their
foraging activities."

A. This is true. Robert MacArthur studied warblers and showed that different species of
warblers occupying the same tree could co-exist by specializing in different feeding niches.
These behavioral differences allowed them to reduce direct competition and coexist on the
same tree.

Statement II: "Many parasites have evolved to be host-specific and have adaptations such as
the presence of unnecessary sense organs and a low reproductive capacity."

A. This statement is false. While it's true that many parasites are host-specific, the part about
"unnecessary sense organs" is misleading. Parasites typically have reduced sense organs
because they do not need to interact with the external environment as much, relying more on
their host for sustenance. The reference to "unnecessary" sense organs is not entirely
accurate. Additionally, parasites often have high reproductive capacities to ensure their
survival in the host population.

126) NCERT PG. 167

127)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 99, 100

128) Module No.-3, Pg. # 195

130) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 37, (Fig 2.15 a)

131)

The correct sequence of steps involved in DNA fingerprinting is as follows:

1. B. Isolation of DNA - The first step is to extract DNA from the sample (e.g., blood, hair, etc.).
2. A. Digestion of DNA by restriction endonucleases - The DNA is then cut into fragments
using restriction enzymes.
3. E. Separation of DNA fragments by electrophoresis - The resulting fragments are separated
based on size using gel electrophoresis.
4. D. Transferring (blotting) of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes - The DNA
fragments are transferred onto a membrane (such as nylon or nitrocellulose).
5. C. Hybridization using labelled VNTR probe - A labeled probe is used to hybridize with
specific sequences, like the VNTRs (Variable Number Tandem Repeats), to detect particular
DNA patterns.

134)

NCERT Pg # 206

136)

Tendocalcaneous is the strongest tendon of body which connects gastrocmemius muscle of

shank with calcaneum bone of ankle.

137) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50, 54

138)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 55

139)

NCERT - Pg. # 275, Para No. 17.6

140)

Pg. No. 103, 104_XI NCERT

141)

NCERT-XI, Page # 211

142)

NCERT Pg. # 293

144) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212

146) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 202

147) NCERT XI PG 244

148) NCERT XI PG 242,243

149) NCERT XI PG 243

150) NCERT XI PG 236

153) NCERT XI Page # 218,228

156)

Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal
conditions.

157) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 187

159) The development of cockroaches is paurometabolous which means development through

nymphal stage.

161) [NCERT Pg. 116]

166) NCERT Page No. 64

167) NCERT Page No. 51

176) NCERT Reference: Zoology-XII Page No. 200

177) NCERT, Pg # 204

178)

NCERT, Pg. # 185

179) NCERT, Pg # 179,180(E)/196,197(H)