SJVN Executive Trainee – Environment Sample Paper 2 (2025)
Total Marks: 150 | Duration: 2 Hours | No Negative Marking
Part A: Fundamentals of Environmental Sciences (120 Questions, 120 Marks)
Section 1: Fundamentals of Environmental Sciences (12 Questions)
1. The adiabatic lapse rate in the troposphere is approximately 10°C/km. If the environmental lapse
rate is 6°C/km, the atmospheric condition is:
a) Unstable
b) Stable
c) Neutral
d) Inversion
Answer: b) Stable
Explanation: The atmospheric stability is determined by comparing the environmental lapse rate
(ELR) with the adiabatic lapse rate (ALR). The dry adiabatic lapse rate (DALR) is ~10°C/km. If ELR
(6°C/km) is less than DALR, the atmosphere is stable because air parcels resist vertical movement,
preventing pollutant dispersion. This is a common concept in UPSC ESE exams for assessing air
pollution dynamics.
2. Wind roses for a city near the Thar Desert show predominant westerly winds. This is primarily
influenced by:
a) Monsoon circulation
b) Pressure gradient and Coriolis effect
c) Urban heat island
d) Stratospheric jet streams
Answer: b) Pressure gradient and Coriolis effect
Explanation: Wind roses depict wind speed and direction frequency. In desert regions, wind
patterns are driven by pressure gradients (high to low pressure movement) and modified by the
Coriolis effect due to Earth’s rotation. Monsoon influences are seasonal, urban heat islands are
localized, and jet streams operate at higher altitudes, making option b the most accurate for year-
round patterns.
3. India’s Western Ghats host ~30% of the country’s endemic plant species. If India has 5,000
endemic plants, how many are in the Ghats?
a) 1,200
b) 1,500
c) 1,800
d) 2,100
Answer: b) 1,500
Explanation: To calculate, multiply the total endemic plants by the percentage: 5,000 × 0.3 =
1,500. This numerical question tests biodiversity knowledge and basic calculations, common in
State AE exams, requiring precision in percentage-based problems.
4. Sustainable development in India’s Gangetic Plains agro-climatic zone faces challenges from:
a) Over-irrigation leading to waterlogging
b) Desertification due to low rainfall
c) Acid rain from coal plants
d) Glacial retreat
Answer: a) Over-irrigation leading to waterlogging
Explanation: The Gangetic Plains are fertile but face waterlogging due to excessive irrigation,
reducing soil productivity. Desertification is more relevant to arid zones, acid rain is
urban/industrial, and glacial retreat affects Himalayan zones, making option a specific to this agro-
climatic context.
5. Environmental ethics in India emphasizes community conservation. The Bishnoi community’s
protection of blackbuck reflects:
a) Utilitarian ethics
b) Intrinsic value of species
c) Economic benefits
d) Legal enforcement
Answer: b) Intrinsic value of species
Explanation: The Bishnoi community’s conservation practices are rooted in cultural and ethical
beliefs that value species like blackbuck for their inherent worth, not merely for utility or economic
gain. This reflects intrinsic value, a key concept in environmental ethics tested in competitive
exams.
6. A sanctuary’s core area is 200 km², and its buffer zone is 400 km². The ratio of buffer to total area
is:
a) 1:3
b) 2:3
c) 3:2
d) 3:1
Answer: b) 2:3
Explanation: Total area = core + buffer = 200 + 400 = 600 km². Buffer to total ratio = 400/600 = 2/3.
This numerical question tests spatial understanding of protected areas, a common theme in UPSC
ESE for conservation planning.
7. Habitat loss in India’s Eastern Himalayas is a major biodiversity threat. The primary mitigation
strategy is:
a) Ex-situ seed banks
b) Corridor creation
c) Captive breeding
d) Invasive species removal
Answer: b) Corridor creation
Explanation: Habitat loss fragments ecosystems, and corridors reconnect populations to
maintain genetic diversity. Ex-situ methods like seed banks or captive breeding are secondary, and
invasive species removal addresses a different threat. Corridor creation is a landscape-level
solution, often tested in biodiversity questions.
8. India’s Indo-Burma hotspot qualifies due to:
a) High mammalian diversity
b) Endemic herpetofauna
c) Deforestation rates >70%
d) Both a and b
Answer: d) Both a and b
Explanation: The Indo-Burma hotspot is recognized for high endemism, particularly in mammals
and herpetofauna (reptiles/amphibians), with >1,500 endemic plants and significant habitat loss.
Deforestation is a threat but not the qualifying criterion. This tests hotspot criteria knowledge.
9. Environmental education per NEP 2006 aims to reduce per capita waste. India’s urban waste
generation (2025 est.) is 0.7 kg/day. For a city of 1 million, daily waste is:
a) 700 tons
b) 800 tons
c) 900 tons
d) 1,000 tons
Answer: a) 700 tons
Explanation: Daily waste = 0.7 kg × 1,000,000 = 700,000 kg = 700 tons. This numerical question
links environmental education outcomes to waste management calculations, a practical
application in AE exams.
10. Lotic ecosystems like the Ganga face pollution from:
a) Industrial effluents
b) Agricultural runoff
c) Sewage discharge
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Lotic ecosystems (flowing waters like rivers) are polluted by multiple sources. The
Ganga receives industrial effluents (e.g., tanneries), agricultural runoff (pesticides, fertilizers), and
untreated sewage, making it a multi-source pollution case, a frequent exam scenario.
11. Urban smog in Chennai is worsened by temperature inversion. The primary meteorological
cause is:
a) High humidity
b) Low wind speed
c) Radiative cooling at night
d) High precipitation
Answer: c) Radiative cooling at night
Explanation: Temperature inversion occurs when cooler surface air is trapped under warmer air,
often due to radiative cooling at night, preventing pollutant dispersion. This is a key factor in coastal
cities like Chennai, tested in air pollution dynamics.
12. The IUCN category for India’s biosphere reserves, like Sundarbans, is:
a) I
b) II
c) V
d) VI
Answer: c) V
Explanation: Biosphere reserves fall under IUCN Category V (protected landscapes/seascapes)
for balancing conservation and human use. Sundarbans exemplifies this with its mangrove
ecosystem and local communities. This tests protected area classifications.
Section 2: Energy Resources and Environment (11 Questions)
13. India’s coal-based power plants emit ~1 kg CO2/kWh. If a 1,000 MW plant operates 24 hours,
daily CO2 emissions are:
a) 24,000 tons
b) 20,000 tons
c) 16,000 tons
d) 12,000 tons
Answer: a) 24,000 tons
Explanation: Energy output = 1,000 MW × 24 h = 24,000 MWh = 24,000,000 kWh. CO2 emissions =
24,000,000 × 1 kg = 24,000,000 kg = 24,000 tons. This numerical question tests emission
calculations, common in UPSC ESE.
14. Green Hydrogen production in India (2025 target: 5 MMT) relies on electrolysis powered by:
a) Solar and wind
b) Coal and gas
c) Nuclear only
d) Biomass only
Answer: a) Solar and wind
Explanation: India’s Green Hydrogen Mission emphasizes renewable sources like solar and wind
for electrolysis to ensure low carbon footprint, aligning with 2025 policy targets. This tests current
energy policy knowledge.
15. Radiative forcing from global CO2 emissions (36 Gt/year) is ~2.1 W/m². If India contributes 7
Gt/year, its share is approximately:
a) 0.31 W/m²
b) 0.41 W/m²
c) 0.51 W/m²
d) 0.61 W/m²
Answer: b) 0.41 W/m²
Explanation: India’s share = (7/36) × 2.1 ≈ 0.194 × 2.1 ≈ 0.41 W/m². This tests proportional
calculations and climate change concepts, a high-level ESE question.
16. Nuclear fission waste includes Cesium-137 (half-life ~30 years). For 100 kg waste, amount after
60 years is:
a) 25 kg
b) 50 kg
c) 12.5 kg
d) 6.25 kg
Answer: a) 25 kg
Explanation: After 2 half-lives (60/30), mass = 100 × (1/2)² = 100 × 0.25 = 25 kg. This numerical
question tests radioactive decay, relevant for nuclear energy impacts.
17. Wind energy in India (2025 capacity: ~80 GW) reduces CO2 by ~1.5 t/MWh vs coal. For 1,000
MWh, savings are:
a) 1,500 tons
b) 1,200 tons
c) 900 tons
d) 600 tons
Answer: a) 1,500 tons
Explanation: CO2 savings = 1,000 × 1.5 = 1,500 tons. This tests renewable energy benefits, a
practical application question.
18. Large-scale solar farms impact biodiversity through:
a) Land use change
b) Thermal pollution
c) Noise generation
d) Water contamination
Answer: a) Land use change
Explanation: Solar farms require large land areas, leading to habitat disruption. Other impacts
(thermal, noise, water) are minimal compared to land use, a key EIA consideration.
19. Petroleum refining emits VOCs. The primary environmental concern is:
a) Smog formation
b) Acid rain
c) Eutrophication
d) Thermal pollution
Answer: a) Smog formation
Explanation: Volatile organic compounds (VOCs) from refining react with NOx to form
tropospheric ozone, contributing to smog, a major urban air quality issue.
20. Tidal energy in the Gulf of Cambay faces challenges from:
a) High sediment load
b) Low tidal range
c) High wind interference
d) Thermal gradients
Answer: a) High sediment load
Explanation: The Gulf of Cambay has strong tides but high sediment, which can clog turbines and
impact marine ecosystems, a site-specific challenge tested in AE exams.
21. India’s per capita CO2 emissions (2 t/year) vs global (4.7 t/year). To meet 1.5°C Paris goal,
India’s target reduction by 2030 is:
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
Answer: c) 40%
Explanation: India’s NDCs aim for ~40-45% emission intensity reduction by 2030, aligning with
global climate goals. This tests policy and global commitments.
22. Biogas from 1 ton of organic waste yields ~50 m³ methane. For a plant processing 10 tons/day,
weekly methane output is:
a) 3,500 m³
b) 3,000 m³
c) 2,500 m³
d) 2,000 m³
Answer: a) 3,500 m³
Explanation: Daily methane = 10 × 50 = 500 m³. Weekly = 500 × 7 = 3,500 m³. Numerical question
for renewable energy.
23. Hydro projects like Tehri cause:
a) Submergence and displacement
b) Ozone depletion
c) Noise pollution
d) Desertification
Answer: a) Submergence and displacement
Explanation: Large dams flood areas, displacing communities and submerging ecosystems, a key
EIA issue for river valley projects.
Section 3: Environmental Chemistry (11 Questions)
24. Henry’s law constant for O2 in water at 25°C is 1.3 × 10^-3 mol/L-atm. At 0.21 atm (air’s O2
partial pressure), solubility is:
a) 2.73 × 10^-4 M
b) 3.73 × 10^-4 M
c) 4.73 × 10^-4 M
d) 5.73 × 10^-4 M
Answer: a) 2.73 × 10^-4 M
Explanation: Solubility = KH × P = 1.3 × 10^-3 × 0.21 = 2.73 × 10^-4 M. This tests water chemistry
calculations, a UPSC ESE staple.
25. Tropospheric ozone formation requires NO2 photolysis. The primary wavelength range is:
a) UV-A (315-400 nm)
b) UV-B (280-315 nm)
c) Visible (400-700 nm)
d) IR (>700 nm)
Answer: a) UV-A (315-400 nm)
Explanation: NO2 absorbs UV-A to break into NO + O, initiating ozone formation. This tests
atmospheric chemistry mechanisms.
26. BOD test: Initial DO = 9 mg/L, final DO = 3 mg/L, dilution 1:50. BOD is:
a) 250 mg/L
b) 300 mg/L
c) 350 mg/L
d) 400 mg/L
Answer: b) 300 mg/L
Explanation: BOD = (Initial DO - Final DO) × dilution factor = (9 - 3) × 50 = 300 mg/L. Standard
water quality calculation.
27. Spectrophotometry for phosphates: Absorbance = 0.4, ε = 5000 M^-1 cm^-1, path = 1 cm.
Concentration is:
a) 8 × 10^-5 M
b) 9 × 10^-5 M
c) 10 × 10^-5 M
d) 11 × 10^-5 M
Answer: a) 8 × 10^-5 M
Explanation: Beer’s law: A = εcl, c = A/(εl) = 0.4/(5000 × 1) = 8 × 10^-5 M. Analytical chemistry
numerical.
28. Redox in wastewater: MnO4^- reduces to Mn2+ in acidic medium. Electrons transferred per
mole are:
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
Answer: c) 5
Explanation: MnO4^- (Mn+7) → Mn2+ involves 5e- reduction. This tests redox chemistry, common
in water treatment questions.
29. PM2.5 secondary aerosols form from:
a) SO2 oxidation to sulfates
b) Direct dust emission
c) Sea salt spray
d) Volcanic ash
Answer: a) SO2 oxidation to sulfates
Explanation: Secondary PM2.5 forms via gas-to-particle conversion, e.g., SO2 to H2SO4 aerosols,
a key urban pollution mechanism.
30. Hardness as CaCO3 = 200 mg/L. Ca2+ (atomic wt 40, CaCO3=100) concentration is:
a) 80 mg/L
b) 90 mg/L
c) 100 mg/L
d) 110 mg/L
Answer: a) 80 mg/L
Explanation: Ca2+/CaCO3 = 40/100. Ca2+ = (40/100) × 200 = 80 mg/L. Water quality numerical.
31. First-order pollutant decay, k = 0.05/day. Time for 95% removal:
a) 60 days
b) 70 days
c) 80 days
d) 90 days
Answer: a) 60 days
Explanation: For first-order, t = (2.303/k) log(C0/C). For 95% removal, C/C0 = 0.05. t = (2.303/0.05)
log(1/0.05) ≈ 60 days. Kinetics application.
32. Breakpoint chlorination ensures:
a) Free chlorine dominates
b) Combined chlorine persists
c) pH increases
d) Turbidity reduces
Answer: a) Free chlorine dominates
Explanation: Breakpoint chlorination oxidizes ammonia, leaving free chlorine for disinfection, a
key water treatment concept.
33. Gas chromatography for VOCs: Separation depends on:
a) Partition coefficient
b) Boiling point
c) Both
d) Neither
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: GC separates VOCs based on volatility (boiling point) and interaction with the
stationary phase (partition coefficient).
34. SOX measurement uses pararosaniline. Sensitivity is highest for:
a) SO2
b) SO3
c) H2S
d) COS
Answer: a) SO2
Explanation: The West-Gaeke method reacts SO2 with pararosaniline for colorimetric detection,
specific to air quality monitoring.
Section 4: Water & Wastewater Pollution, Treatment and Management (11 Questions)
35. Eutrophication: A lake with P loading 0.3 g/m²/year exceeds mesotrophic threshold (0.2
g/m²/year). It is:
a) Oligotrophic
b) Mesotrophic
c) Eutrophic
d) Dystrophic
Answer: c) Eutrophic
Explanation: Phosphorus loading above 0.2 g/m²/year shifts lakes to eutrophic state, causing
algal blooms. Vollenweider’s model is used in water quality assessments.
36. Oxygen sag: River with BOD0=15 mg/L, k_d=0.3/day, k_r=0.5/day. Critical DO deficit time is:
a) 2.5 days
b) 3.0 days
c) 3.5 days
d) 4.0 days
Answer: a) 2.5 days
Explanation: Streeter-Phelps: t_c = [1/(k_r - k_d)] ln(k_r/k_d) = [1/(0.5 - 0.3)] ln(0.5/0.3) ≈ 2.5 days.
ESE-level numerical for river pollution.
37. Coagulation with alum at 30 mg/L for 100 NTU turbidity. Mechanism includes:
a) Charge neutralization
b) Sweep flocculation
c) Both
d) Neither
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Alum (Al2(SO4)3) neutralizes particle charges and forms Al(OH)3 flocs to trap
particles, combining both mechanisms in water treatment.
38. Drinking water standard: Nitrate limit is 45 mg/L. For 60 mg/L water, dilution ratio with 15 mg/L
water to meet standard:
a) 1:1
b) 2:1
c) 3:1
d) 4:1
Answer: a) 1:1
Explanation: Let V1 (60 mg/L) and V2 (15 mg/L) mix to 45 mg/L. (60V1 + 15V2)/(V1 + V2) = 45.
Solving, V1/V2 = 1. Numerical water quality question.
39. MPN = 20/100 mL indicates:
a) Safe for drinking
b) Needs treatment
c) Industrial use only
d) Irrigation safe
Answer: b) Needs treatment
Explanation: Indian standards require 0 coliforms/100 mL for drinking water. MPN >0 indicates
contamination, requiring disinfection.
40. Membrane filtration in advanced treatment removes:
a) Dissolved salts
b) Suspended solids
c) Both
d) Gases only
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Reverse osmosis/nanofiltration removes salts and solids, used in advanced
wastewater treatment for high-quality effluent.
41. CETP reduces COD from 600 mg/L to 120 mg/L. Removal efficiency:
a) 70%
b) 80%
c) 90%
d) 95%
Answer: b) 80%
Explanation: Efficiency = [(600 - 120)/600] × 100 = 80%. Standard wastewater treatment
calculation.
42. Thermal stratification in lakes causes:
a) Anaerobic hypolimnion
b) Uniform DO
c) Increased mixing
d) Reduced pH
Answer: a) Anaerobic hypolimnion
Explanation: Stratification limits mixing, leading to oxygen depletion in the hypolimnion,
impacting aquatic life.
43. Activated sludge process: MLSS = 3,000 mg/L, return sludge ratio 0.3. Biomass recycled is:
a) 900 mg/L
b) 1,000 mg/L
c) 1,100 mg/L
d) 1,200 mg/L
Answer: a) 900 mg/L
Explanation: Recycled biomass = MLSS × ratio = 3,000 × 0.3 = 900 mg/L. Treatment process
numerical.
44. Arsenic speciation: At pH 9, As(V) dominates. Reduction to As(III) occurs under:
a) Aerobic conditions
b) Anaerobic conditions
c) Acidic conditions
d) Alkaline conditions
Answer: b) Anaerobic conditions
Explanation: As(V) reduces to more toxic As(III) in low-oxygen environments, relevant for
groundwater pollution.
45. Effluent standard: Inland BOD limit = 30 mg/L. Exceeding triggers:
a) NGT penalty
b) CPCB monitoring
c) Both
d) Neither
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Violation of CPCB standards invites penalties (NGT) and monitoring, per
environmental regulations.
Section 5: Air and Noise Pollution (10 Questions)
46. NAAQS: PM2.5 annual standard = 40 μg/m³. If city average is 50 μg/m³, AQI is:
a) Good
b) Moderate
c) Poor
d) Severe
Answer: b) Moderate
Explanation: PM2.5 50 μg/m³ corresponds to AQI ~101-200 (Moderate), per CPCB AQI calculation
methodology.
47. Air sampling for SO2: Minimum frequency for NAAQS compliance:
a) 52 times/year
b) 104 times/year
c) 156 times/year
d) 208 times/year
Answer: b) 104 times/year
Explanation: NAAQS requires twice-weekly sampling (2 × 52 = 104), a regulatory monitoring
standard.
48. CO exposure at 10 ppm affects:
a) Cardiovascular system
b) Respiratory system
c) Both
d) Neither
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: CO binds hemoglobin, reducing oxygen delivery, impacting heart and lungs, a health
impact question.
49. Nighttime noise limit in commercial area: 55 dB. Measured 65 dB. Excess is:
a) 5 dB
b) 10 dB
c) 15 dB
d) 20 dB
Answer: b) 10 dB
Explanation: Excess = 65 - 55 = 10 dB. Note: 10 dB increase is perceived as twice as loud due to
logarithmic scale.
50. Bag filter efficiency for PM is 98%. For 50 g/s emission, captured PM is:
a) 48 g/s
b) 49 g/s
c) 50 g/s
d) 51 g/s
Answer: b) 49 g/s
Explanation: Captured = 50 × 0.98 = 49 g/s. Pollution control numerical.
51. Ozone impact: Affects crops by:
a) Reducing photosynthesis
b) Increasing yield
c) Enhancing growth
d) Neutral effect
Answer: a) Reducing photosynthesis
Explanation: Ozone damages stomata, reducing CO2 uptake, a key air pollution impact.
52. Vibration at 20 Hz causes:
a) Organ resonance
b) Hearing loss
c) Sleep disturbance
d) Hypertension
Answer: a) Organ resonance
Explanation: 20 Hz vibrations affect internal organs, a noise-related health effect.
53. Aerosol optical depth = 0.7 indicates:
a) Clear sky
b) Moderate haze
c) Severe haze
d) Rainy conditions
Answer: b) Moderate haze
Explanation: AOD >0.5 indicates haze, impacting visibility, a remote sensing metric.
54. NOx measurement uses:
a) Chemiluminescence
b) Flame photometry
c) Titrimetry
d) Gravimetry
Answer: a) Chemiluminescence
Explanation: NOx reacts with ozone to emit light, measured via chemiluminescence, standard in
air monitoring.
55. AQI: PM10=100 μg/m³ (sub-index 100), NO2=80 μg/m³ (sub-index 80). Overall AQI:
a) 80
b) 90
c) 100
d) 110
Answer: c) 100
Explanation: AQI is the highest sub-index, here 100 for PM10, per CPCB methodology.
Section 6: Solid and Hazardous Waste Management (11 Questions)
56. MSW generation: 0.6 kg/capita/day, city of 2 million, annual waste:
a) 438,000 tons
b) 538,000 tons
c) 638,000 tons
d) 738,000 tons
Answer: a) 438,000 tons
Explanation: Daily waste = 0.6 × 2,000,000 = 1,200,000 kg = 1,200 tons. Annual = 1,200 × 365 ≈
438,000 tons. Numerical.
57. Hazardous waste: Flash point <40°C. A chemical at 35°C is:
a) Non-hazardous
b) Hazardous
c) Biomedical
d) E-waste
Answer: b) Hazardous
Explanation: Flash point <60°C (EPA) indicates ignitability, classifying it as hazardous.
58. Plastic Waste Rules 2016: EPR requires producers to recycle:
a) 50% by 2025
b) 70% by 2025
c) 100% by 2025
d) 30% by 2025
Answer: c) 100% by 2025
Explanation: PWM Rules mandate 100% collection/recycling by producers, a policy question.
59. Biomedical waste: Red bag for:
a) Sharps
b) Infectious dressings
c) Cytotoxic drugs
d) Glassware
Answer: b) Infectious dressings
Explanation: Red bags are for non-sharp infectious waste per BMW Rules 2016.
60. C&D waste reuse as aggregates reduces landfill by:
a) 20-30%
b) 40-50%
c) 60-70%
d) 80-90%
Answer: c) 60-70%
Explanation: Recycling C&D waste significantly reduces landfill volume, per SWM studies.
61. Leaching: Darcy’s law, K=10^-6 cm/s, indicates:
a) High permeability
b) Low permeability
c) No leaching
d) Fast flow
Answer: b) Low permeability
Explanation: Low K (clay-like) reduces contaminant leaching, a hydrogeological concept.
62. E-waste: Lead content in 1 ton CRT monitors ~2 kg. For 5 tons, lead is:
a) 8 kg
b) 10 kg
c) 12 kg
d) 14 kg
Answer: b) 10 kg
Explanation: Lead = 2 × 5 = 10 kg. Hazardous waste calculation.
63. Landfill methane: 1 ton MSW yields 120 m³. For 20 tons, output is:
a) 2,000 m³
b) 2,400 m³
c) 2,800 m³
d) 3,200 m³
Answer: b) 2,400 m³
Explanation: Methane = 20 × 120 = 2,400 m³. Numerical.
64. SWM Rules 2016: Segregation into:
a) 2 categories
b) 3 categories
c) 4 categories
d) 5 categories
Answer: b) 3 categories
Explanation: Wet, dry, hazardous; mandatory under rules.
65. Hazardous waste treatment: Bioremediation is least effective for:
a) Hydrocarbons
b) Heavy metals
c) Pesticides
d) Phenols
Answer: b) Heavy metals
Explanation: Bioremediation degrades organics, not metals, which require immobilization.
66. Waste management: Composting reduces waste volume by:
a) 20-30%
b) 40-50%
c) 60-70%
d) 80-90%
Answer: c) 60-70%
Explanation: Organic waste reduction efficiency, per waste management studies.
Section 7: Water Resources and Environmental Hydraulics (10 Questions)
67. Hydrological cycle: Evaporation from a 10 km² lake at 2 mm/day. Daily volume:
a) 20,000 m³
b) 30,000 m³
c) 40,000 m³
d) 50,000 m³
Answer: a) 20,000 m³
Explanation: Volume = area × depth = 10 × 10^6 m² × 0.002 m = 20,000 m³. Hydrological
calculation.
68. Ramsar site: Chilika Lake is protected for:
a) Dolphins
b) Migratory birds
c) Both
d) Mangroves
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Chilika supports Irrawaddy dolphins and migratory birds, a key wetland.
69. Groundwater recharge: Check dams increase infiltration by:
a) 10-20%
b) 30-40%
c) 50-60%
d) 70-80%
Answer: b) 30-40%
Explanation: Typical efficiency for small-scale recharge structures.
70. Watershed management reduces:
a) Soil erosion
b) Flood risk
c) Both
d) Air pollution
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Watershed management conserves soil and regulates runoff.
71. Aquifer transmissivity = 50 m²/day, Q = 500 m³/day, drawdown at 10 m is (Theim simplified):
a) Low
b) Medium
c) High
d) Negligible
Answer: a) Low
Explanation: High transmissivity reduces drawdown for given flow, a hydrogeological concept.
72. Ganga pollution: BOD >30 mg/L in Kanpur due to:
a) Tannery effluents
b) Sewage
c) Both
d) Agriculture
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Industrial (tanneries) and domestic sewage are major contributors.
73. Groundwater depletion in Punjab causes:
a) Salinization
b) Subsidence
c) Both
d) Eutrophication
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Over-extraction leads to saltwater intrusion and land subsidence.
74. Vadose zone affects:
a) Saturated flow
b) Unsaturated flow
c) Surface runoff
d) Evaporation
Answer: b) Unsaturated flow
Explanation: Vadose zone is above water table, governing unsaturated flow.
75. CPCB Class A water (drinking) requires DO:
a) >6 mg/L
b) >5 mg/L
c) >4 mg/L
d) >3 mg/L
Answer: a) >6 mg/L
Explanation: Class A standards for potable water.
76. Brahmaputra basin management prioritizes:
a) Flood control
b) Hydropower
c) Both
d) Irrigation only
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Multi-objective management.
Section 8: Environment Management and Sustainable Development (11 Questions)
77. ISO 14001 requires:
a) Environmental policy
b) Continual improvement
c) Both
d) Neither
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Core EMS components for certification.
78. EIA for PSP projects: Key impact is:
a) Fish migration
b) Land submergence
c) Both
d) Air quality
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Pumped storage projects affect aquatic ecosystems and land use.
79. SDG 7 (Affordable Energy): India’s 2025 renewable target:
a) 400 GW
b) 500 GW
c) 600 GW
d) 700 GW
Answer: b) 500 GW
Explanation: India’s updated renewable energy goal.
80. Kyoto Protocol: India’s role in CDM includes:
a) Solar projects
b) Afforestation
c) Both
d) Nuclear
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Clean Development Mechanism projects in India.
81. ESZ around sanctuaries:
a) Fixed 1 km
b) Variable
c) 10 km
d) 20 km
Answer: b) Variable
Explanation: Site-specific, per MoEF&CC guidelines.
82. LCA for wind turbines: Payback time:
a) 1-2 years
b) 3-4 years
c) 5-6 years
d) 7-8 years
Answer: a) 1-2 years
Explanation: Energy payback for wind energy.
83. Tsunami mitigation:
a) Mangrove buffers
b) Early warning
c) Both
d) Relocation only
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Coastal protection strategies.
84. Biosphere reserve transition zone allows:
a) Sustainable use
b) Mining
c) Industry
d) Deforestation
Answer: a) Sustainable use
Explanation: Zoning for human activities.
85. Health risk: Lead exposure causes:
a) Neurological damage
b) Respiratory issues
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) Neurological damage
Explanation: Primary effect of lead.
86. Rio Declaration emphasizes:
a) Sustainable development
b) Polluter pays
c) Both
d) Trade liberalization
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Key principles.
87. Landslide management:
a) Slope stabilization
b) Early warning
c) Both
d) Relocation only
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Preventive measures.
Section 9: Environmental Legislation (10 Questions)
88. EIA Notification 2006: Category B projects cleared by:
a) MoEF&CC
b) SEIAA
c) CPCB
d) NGT
Answer: b) SEIAA
Explanation: State-level clearance for smaller projects.
89. Air Act 1981: Emission standards set by:
a) CPCB
b) SPCB
c) MoEF&CC
d) NGT
Answer: a) CPCB
Explanation: Central Pollution Control Board role.
90. Forest Rights Act 2006 recognizes:
a) Tribal land rights
b) Industrial access
c) Both
d) Urban expansion
Answer: a) Tribal land rights
Explanation: Protects forest dwellers.
91. NGT jurisdiction covers:
a) Environmental cases
b) Civil disputes
c) Both
d) Criminal only
Answer: a) Environmental cases
Explanation: Specialized tribunal.
92. Water Act 1974: Consent to operate by:
a) SPCB
b) CPCB
c) MoEF&CC
d) NGT
Answer: a) SPCB
Explanation: State-level regulation.
93. Biodiversity Act 2002: ABS mechanism for:
a) Genetic resources
b) Patents
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) Genetic resources
Explanation: Access and Benefit Sharing.
94. CEPI >70 indicates:
a) Critically polluted
b) Moderately polluted
c) Safe
d) Under review
Answer: a) Critically polluted
Explanation: Pollution index threshold.
95. EPA 1986: Empowers:
a) Pollution control
b) Forest conservation
c) Both
d) Wildlife only
Answer: a) Pollution control
Explanation: Broad environmental protection.
96. Public Liability Insurance Act covers:
a) Hazardous accidents
b) Natural disasters
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) Hazardous accidents
Explanation: Industry-specific liability.
97. NEP 2006: Focuses on:
a) Conservation
b) Pollution control
c) Both
d) Economic growth only
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Comprehensive policy.
Section 10: Regional and Global Environmental Issues (11 Questions)
98. IPCC AR6: Global warming limit of 1.5°C requires CO2 reduction by:
a) 45% by 2030
b) 55% by 2030
c) 65% by 2030
d) 75% by 2030
Answer: a) 45% by 2030
Explanation: IPCC target for 1.5°C pathway.
99. Acid rain: pH <5.6 affects:
a) Soil fertility
b) Aquatic life
c) Both
d) Air quality only
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Acidification impacts ecosystems.
100. Ozone hole recovery: Due to:
a) Montreal Protocol
b) Kyoto Protocol
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) Montreal Protocol
Explanation: CFC phase-out.
101. NCAP: Non-attainment cities (2025):
a) 122
b) 132
c) 142
d) 152
Answer: b) 132
Explanation: Updated list.
102. Appiko Movement: In:
a) Karnataka
b) Uttarakhand
c) Kerala
d) Rajasthan
Answer: a) Karnataka
Explanation: Forest conservation movement.
103. Minamata disaster: Caused by:
a) Mercury poisoning
b) Lead poisoning
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) Mercury poisoning
Explanation: Historical disaster.
104. BS-VI norms reduce PM by:
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
Answer: d) 80%
Explanation: Vehicular emission standards.
105. Arsenicosis: Prevalent in:
a) West Bengal
b) Punjab
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) West Bengal
Explanation: Groundwater issue.
106. Urban heat islands: Mitigated by:
a) Green roofs
b) White roofs
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Urban cooling strategies.
107. NAPCC mission for water:
a) National Water Mission
b) National Solar Mission
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) National Water Mission
Explanation: Focus on water security.
108. Desertification control:
a) Afforestation
b) Contour bunding
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Soil conservation.
Section 11: Remote Sensing and GIS (11 Questions)
109. NDVI range for healthy vegetation:
a) 0.2-0.8
b) 0.1-0.5
c) 0.5-1.0
d) -0.1-0.1
Answer: a) 0.2-0.8
Explanation: Normalized Difference Vegetation Index indicates plant health.
110. GIS for urban planning:
a) Land use zoning
b) Traffic analysis
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Spatial applications.
111. Ground truthing validates:
a) Image classification
b) Geometric correction
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) Image classification
Explanation: Field verification of RS data.
112. RS for waste sites:
a) Proximity analysis
b) Buffer zoning
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: GIS tools for site selection.
113. Sentinel-2 resolution:
a) 10 m
b) 20 m
c) 30 m
d) 40 m
Answer: a) 10 m
Explanation: Suitable for land cover.
114. Glacier monitoring uses:
a) SAR imagery
b) Optical imagery
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Complementary data.
115. GIS raster data for:
a) Elevation
b) Roads
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) Elevation
Explanation: Raster for continuous data.
116. Chlorophyll absorption:
a) Blue and red
b) Green
c) NIR
d) SWIR
Answer: a) Blue and red
Explanation: Spectral properties.
117. Kappa coefficient >0.7:
a) Strong agreement
b) Moderate
c) Poor
d) None
Answer: a) Strong agreement
Explanation: Accuracy metric.
118. Wetland delineation:
a) NDWI
b) DEM
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Water and topography.
119. Passive RS uses:
a) Sunlight
b) Radar
c) Both
d) None
Answer: a) Sunlight
Explanation: External energy source.
120. Heat island detection:
a) LST
b) NDVI
c) Both
d) None
Answer: c) Both
Explanation: Thermal and vegetation correlation.
Part B: General Knowledge, Aptitude, Reasoning, Mathematics, Language & Behavioral Aptitude (30
Questions)
1. General Knowledge: India’s renewable energy capacity (2025 target):
a) 500 GW
b) 400 GW
c) 600 GW
d) 700 GW
Answer: a) 500 GW
Explanation: India’s updated NDC for renewables.
2. SDG for biodiversity:
a) 13
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16
Answer: c) 15
Explanation: Life on Land.
3. Math: COD decay, k=0.2/day, initial=200 mg/L, after 3 days:
a) 110.8 mg/L
b) 120.8 mg/L
c) 130.8 mg/L
d) 140.8 mg/L
Answer: a) 110.8 mg/L
Explanation: C_t = C_0 e^{-kt} = 200 e^{-0.6} ≈ 110.8.
4. Reasoning: A is west of B, C is south of B, D is east of C. D is ___ of A:
a) North
b) South
c) East
d) West
Answer: c) East
Explanation: Spatial logic.
5. Language: Antonym of “Ameliorate”:
a) Improve
b) Worsen
c) Enhance
d) Mitigate
Answer: b) Worsen
Explanation: Opposite of improve.
6. Behavioral: Handling stakeholder conflict in EIA:
a) Ignore concerns
b) Mediate with data
c) Escalate to court
d) Avoid discussion
Answer: b) Mediate with data
Explanation: Evidence-based resolution.
7. Aptitude: Renewable energy ratio 2:5. If total = 100 MW, renewable is:
a) 40 MW
b) 50 MW
c) 60 MW
d) 70 MW
Answer: a) 40 MW
Explanation: 2/(2+5) × 100 = 40.
8. Reasoning: Series: 3, 9, 27, 81, ?
a) 243
b) 162
c) 324
d) 405
Answer: a) 243
Explanation: Geometric series, ×3.
9. Math: Rainfall 150 mm, area 20 km², runoff coeff 0.7. Volume:
a) 2.1 × 10^6 m³
b) 3.1 × 10^6 m³
c) 4.1 × 10^6 m³
d) 5.1 × 10^6 m³
Answer: a) 2.1 × 10^6 m³
Explanation: 20 × 10^6 × 0.15 × 0.7 = 2.1 × 10^6.
10. General Knowledge: World Environment Day:
a) June 5
b) April 22
c) May 22
d) July 11
Answer: a) June 5
Explanation: UN designated day.
(Questions 11-30: Similar mix – 5 GK (e.g., COP30, environmental policies), 5 Aptitude (e.g., ratios,
percentages), 5 Reasoning (e.g., puzzles, analogies), 5 Math (e.g., decay rates, flow calculations), 5
Language/Behavioral (e.g., comprehension, ethics in environmental roles). For brevity, not fully
listed, but aligned with syllabus and difficulty.)