300 Multiple Choice Questions on Environmental

Chemistry

1 Fundamentals of Environmental Chemistry

1. Correct statement about smog is
a) NO2 is present in classical smog b) Both NO2 and SO2 are present in
classical smog c) Photochemical smog has high concentration of oxidizing
agents d) Classical smog also has high concentration of oxidizing agents
Answer: c) Photochemical smog has high concentration of oxidizing agents
2. The pH of Acid rain is:
a) Between 8-9 b) Below 4.5 c) Below 3.5 d) Below 5.6
Answer: d) Below 5.6
3. Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?
a) CH4 b) CO2 c) Helium d) Methane derivatives
Answer: c) Helium
4. Which of the following methods is not used for soil protection?
a) Afforestation b) Neutralisation of acid in rain by adding lime c) Uses
of excess fertilisers d) Minimising use of fossil fuels
Answer: c) Uses of excess fertilisers
5. Polluting strength of water is given by:
a) COD in water b) BOD in water c) Saline content in water d) Amount
of phosphates and carbonates in water
Answer: b) BOD in water
6. The primary pollutant that leads to photochemical smog is:
a) Acrolein b) Nitrogen oxides c) Ozone d) Sulphur dioxide
Answer: b) Nitrogen oxides
7. Dinitrogen and dioxygen are main constituents of air but these do not react
with each other to form oxides of nitrogen because
. a)thereactionisendothermicandrequiresveryhightemperature
and O2 are unreactive.
Answer: a) the reaction is endothermic and requires very high tempera-
ture.
8. The gas evolved due to anaerobic degradation of vegetation causes:
a) Global warming and cancer b) Acid rain c) Ozone hole d) Metal
corrosion
Answer: a) Global warming and cancer
9. Biogas is composed mainly of
a ndcarbondioxide.a)Ethane b)Chlorine c)M ethylIsocyanate d)M ethaneAnswer:d)M ethan

10. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous fertilizer?

a) Superphosphate b) Urea c) Ammonium nitrate d) Ammonium sulphate
Answer: a) Superphosphate
11. Which of the following processes is responsible for causing rain?

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 a) Evaporation and Condensation b) Evaporation c) Filtration d) Conden-
sation
Answer: a) Evaporation and Condensation
12. Acid rain is primarily due to
. a)P resenceof dustinair b)P resenceof watervapourinair c)Carbon−di−oxide d)Oxidesof Sulphurand

13. Which of the following chemicals is used to cause artificial rain (cloud seeding)?
a) Hydrogen bromide b) Silver iodide c) Silver oxide d) Aluminium sul-
phide
Answer: b) Silver iodide
14. Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?
a) Coal b) Solar c) Bio-mass d) Wind
Answer: a) Coal
15. Which one is a household variety of coal?
a) Bituminous b) Lignite c) Peat d) Anthracite
Answer: a) Bituminous
16. Limestone, chalk and marble are different forms of
. a)calciumcarbonate b)sodiumcarbonate c)potassiumcarbonate

17. Quicksilver is also called:

a) Lead b) Mercury c) Calcium d) Arsenic
Answer: b) Mercury
18. Vapours of sulphur escaping from a volcano often form a crust on the rocks. The
process involved is an example of
a) condensation b) precipitation c) deposition d) evaporation
Answer: c) deposition
19. Which one of the following is the major constituent of biogas?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Nitrous oxide c) Methane d) Oxygen
Answer: c) Methane
20. Which of the following are the sources of Nitrogen in an ecosystem? 1. Agricul-
tural land 2. Fossil fuel 3. Livestock 4. Urban waste
a) 2, 3 and 4 only b) 1, 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
21. Who surrounds the earth is not of the same thickness at all heights?
a) Atmosphere b) Exosphere c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere
Answer: a) Atmosphere
22. Atmosphere pollution is concentric layers of
, andeachlayerhasadif f erentdensity.a)W aterorSoil b)AirorW ater c)AirorR

23. What is the lowest region of atmosphere in which the human beings along with
other organisms?
a) Exosphere b) Troposphere c) Thermosphere d) Mesosphere
Answer: b) Troposphere
24. Troposphere is a turbulent dusty zone containing air much
a ndclouds.a)GasV apour b)W aterandSoil c)AirV apo

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25. The stratosphere is the region of strong air movement and cloud formation that
contains dinitrogen,
, ozoneandlittlewatervapour.a)Carbondioxide b)Oxygen c)Dioxygen d)HydroxideAnswer:c)Dioxygen

26. What is the two Atmosphere pollution that is generally studied? (i)Tropospheric
and Stratospheric pollution (ii)Nitrogen dioxide and Sulphur dioxide
a) Option i b) Option ii c) Both d) None of these
Answer: a) Option i
27. Dinitrogen and dioxygen are the main constituents of air but they do not react
with each other to form oxides of nitrogen because
. a)thereactionisendothermicandrequiresaveryhightemperature. b)th

28. Which of the following is not a consequence of the greenhouse effect?

a) Climatic conditions will be changed b) Plants in warmer climates with ade-
quate rainfall would grow faster c) The incidence of infectious diseases is likely
to increase d) Malaria will be controlled as the mosquitoes will not survive.
Answer: d) Malaria will be controlled as the mosquitoes will not survive.
29. Identify the wrong statement in the following:
a) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depletion. b) Green-
house effect is responsible for global warming. c) Acid rain is mostly because
of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur. d) Ozone layer does not permit infrared
radiation from the sun to reach the earth.
Answer: d) Ozone layer does not permit infrared radiation from the sun to reach
the earth.
30. What is DDT among the following?
a) Greenhouse gas b) Non-biodegradable pollutant c) Biodegradable pollu-
tant d) A fertiliser
Answer: b) Non-biodegradable pollutant
31. Eutrophication causes a reduction in-
a) Dissolved Oxygen b) Nutrients c) Dissolved Salts d) All of these
Answer: a) Dissolved Oxygen
32. The term bioavailability refers to:
a) The ease with which a substance can be absorbed and used by living organ-
isms b) The availability of healthcare in rural areas c) The quantity of fresh-
water resources in a region d) The abundance of plant species in an ecosystem
Answer: a) The ease with which a substance can be absorbed and used by living
organisms
33. Which of the following pollutants is a common contaminant in electronic waste
(e-waste)?
a) Oxygen b) Mercury c) Potassium d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: b) Mercury
34. The Kaya Identity is a formula used to:
a) Assess the economic value of ecosystem services b) Calculate the concen-
tration of pollutants in the atmosphere c) Estimate the carbon footprint of a
nation d) Determine the carrying capacity of an ecosystem
Answer: c) Estimate the carbon footprint of a nation

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35. What causes the transformation of ice (solid) into water (liquid)?
a) Enhanced particle vibrations b) Increased kinetic energy accelerating ther-
mal energy c) Particle collisions d) Liberation of water molecules after break-
ing intermolecular bonds
Answer: d) Liberation of water molecules after breaking intermolecular bonds
36. Which pollutant is a major concern in the formation of acid fog in industrial
areas?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Ammonia c) Nitrogen oxides d) Sulfur dioxide
Answer: d) Sulfur dioxide
37. A hydrogen atom shared by two water molecules shifts from one molecule to the
other which forms:
a) Hydrogen ion and Hydroxide ion b) Hydrogen peroxide and Hydronium ion
c) Hydrogen ion and Hydronium ion d) Hydronium ion and Hydroxide ion
Answer: d) Hydronium ion and Hydroxide ion
38. Which of the following is a primary source of indoor air pollution in residential
homes?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Radon gas c) Outdoor air pollution d) Ground-level
ozone
Answer: b) Radon gas
39. What leads to the atoms of a water molecule having partial charges?
a) Attraction between opposite charges b) Oxygen donating an electron to hy-
drogen c) Hydrogen donating an electron to oxygen d) Unequal sharing of
electrons between the atoms
Answer: d) Unequal sharing of electrons between the atoms
40. Which environmental components interface between endogenic and exogenic
material cycling?
a) Water b) Atmosphere c) Soil and Sediment d) Living organisms
Answer: c) Soil and Sediment
41. The phenomenon known as eutrophication occurs when:
a) Oxygen levels in water bodies decrease due to excess nutrients b) Water
bodies experience a sudden increase in salinity c) Water temperature in lakes
and rivers rises significantly d) Water bodies become more acidic due to pol-
lution
Answer: a) Oxygen levels in water bodies decrease due to excess nutrients
42. Most important reason for the unusual properties of water is:
a) The covalent bonding pattern and bond length b) The ease of ionization of
water, even at room temperature c) The presence of hydrogen bonding be-
tween water molecules d) The bond angle between two hydrogen atoms in a
water molecule
Answer: c) The presence of hydrogen bonding between water molecules
43. When a salt is dissolved in water, each ion is surrounded by a sphere of water
molecules which is known as:
a) Micelle b) Hydration Shell c) Hydrogen Shell d) Dehydration Shell
Answer: b) Hydration Shell

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44. Assertion (A): The pH of rainwater in urban areas is often lower than in rural
areas. Reason (R): Urban areas experience higher emissions of SOx and NOx.
a) Both the A and R are correct, and the R justifies the A. b) Both the A and R
are correct, but the R does not justify the A. c) The A is correct, but the R is
incorrect. d) Both the A and R are incorrect.
Answer: a) Both the A and R are correct, and the R justifies the A.
45. Which of the following pollutants is a major concern in indoor air pollution in
homes and workplaces?
a) Carbon dioxide b) Carbon monoxide c) Volatile organic compounds d)
Sulfur dioxide
Answer: c) Volatile organic compounds
46. Which of the following pollutants is a major concern in acid mine drainage from
abandoned mines?
a) Sulfuric acid b) Carbon dioxide c) Nitrogen oxides d) Sulfur dioxide
Answer: a) Sulfuric acid
47. The latent heat of the fusion of water is much higher as compared to any other
common liquid except:
a) Ammonia b) Ethanol c) Hg d) Fe
Answer: a) Ammonia
48. The origin of the Earth’s atmosphere is:
a) Anthropogenic activity b) Volcanic activity c) Biological activity d) Both
Volcanic and Biological activity
Answer: d) Both Volcanic and Biological activity
49. The primary function of argon (Ar) in the atmosphere is:
a) It provides oxygen for breathing. b) It supports combustion. c) It serves
as a noble gas with no significant reactivity. d) It is a greenhouse gas.
Answer: c) It serves as a noble gas with no significant reactivity.
50. Which of the following is NOT a common method for measuring air quality?
a) Barometric pressure measurements b) Gravimetric analysis c) Remote
sensing via satellites d) Gas chromatography
Answer: a) Barometric pressure measurements
51. The fastest recorded gust of wind on Earth is:
a) 322 Km/h b) 161 Km/h c) 408 Km/h d) 5 Km/h
Answer: c) 408 Km/h
52. In which atmospheric layer do weather phenomena such as clouds and precipi-
tation occur?
a) Mesosphere b) Thermosphere c) Troposphere d) Stratosphere
Answer: c) Troposphere
53. What are bioaerosols?
a) Insects that can fly long distances b) Microscopic organisms that travel through
the air c) Microorganisms that live in soil and water d) Birds that migrate us-
ing wind currents
Answer: b) Microscopic organisms that travel through the air

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54. In human-exhaled air, which gas concentration is the highest?
a) Water vapour b) Carbon dioxide c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen
Answer: d) Nitrogen
55. The third most abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere is:
a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Argon d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: c) Argon
56. Which is NOT a regulatory measure to control air pollution?
a) Carbon offset programs b) Emission standards for vehicles c) Ambient air
quality standards d) Industrial emissions permits
Answer: a) Carbon offset programs
57. Which layers of Earth’s Atmosphere are marked by a decrease in temperature
with an increase in elevation?
a) Troposphere and Stratosphere b) Mesosphere and Thermosphere c) Strato-
sphere and Mesosphere d) Troposphere and Mesosphere
Answer: d) Troposphere and Mesosphere
58. What gas is used in airbags to inflate them rapidly during a car collision?
a) Nitrogen b) Carbon dioxide c) Oxygen d) Helium
Answer: a) Nitrogen
59. What are the criteria pollutants?
a) Gases that are harmless to humans b) Gases responsible for climate change
c) Pollutants that have set air quality standards d) Gases that are naturally
occurring
Answer: c) Pollutants that have set air quality standards
60. Which is representing average gases proportion by weight in the atmosphere? I –
75.47% Nitrogen II – 23.2% Oxygen III – 1.28% Argon IV – 0.062% Carbon Dioxide
a) I and II b) I, II, III and IV c) Only I d) I, II and III
Answer: b) I, II, III and IV
61. How do bioaerosols primarily move through the air?
a) By flying like birds b) Via wind, rain, or sneezing c) Through the use of
tiny wings d) By attaching to larger airborne particles
Answer: b) Via wind, rain, or sneezing
62. The significance of international agreements and protocols related to air quality
and climate change is:
a) They focus solely on regional air quality issues. b) They establish legally
binding targets and guidelines. c) They provide funding for air quality re-
search. d) They have no impact on global air quality.
Answer: b) They establish legally binding targets and guidelines.
63. Helium (He) is known for its low density and is used in which of the following
applications?
a) Scuba diving tanks b) Balloon Inflation c) Breathing masks for medical
patients d) Rocket propulsion
Answer: b) Balloon Inflation
64. The approximate percentage of nitrogen in the Earth’s atmosphere by weight is:

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 a) 95 b) 47 c) 2 d) 08
Answer: b) 47
65. What is the term for the total amount of water vapour in the atmosphere at a
given time and place?
a) Specific humidity b) Relative humidity c) Humidity d) Absolute humid-
ity
Answer: d) Absolute humidity
66. What is the advantage of using a multispectral remote-sensed approach in hy-
drological study?
a) It provides accurate gauged discharge data b) It is sensitive to the accuracy
of the DEM in dryland landscapes c) It allows for classification at various spa-
tial scales d) It is not dependent on infrastructure or complex models
Answer: c) It allows for classification at various spatial scales
67. The water-energy nexus refers to the interdependence of water and energy re-
sources. Which of the following statements is true regarding this concept?
a) Water and energy resources are separate and do not affect one another. b)
Water and energy resources are interlinked and influence each other. c) Water
use has no impact on energy production. d) Energy production has no impact
on water resources.
Answer: b) Water and energy resources are interlinked and influence each other.
68. What is the term for the process by which water droplets combine to form larger
drops in clouds, eventually leading to precipitation?
a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Transpiration d) Coalescence
Answer: d) Coalescence
69. What is the main driver of ocean currents in the hydrological cycle?
a) Earth’s rotation b) Solar radiation c) Salinity differences d) Wind
Answer: d) Wind
70. Which of the following is a primary factor influencing the evaporation rate?
a) Wind speed b) Cloud cover c) Groundwater levels d) Air pressure
Answer: a) Wind speed
71. Which of the following factors can influence the isotopic composition of precip-
itation and help in hydrological research?
a) Elevation b) Atmospheric pressure c) Solar radiation d) Ocean currents
Answer: a) Elevation
72. The Dead Zone in the Gulf of Mexico is primarily caused by:
a) Undersea volcanoes b) Oil spills c) Excessive algal blooms d) Elevated
sea surface temperatures
Answer: c) Excessive algal blooms
73. What is the role of atmospheric aerosols in the hydrological cycle?
a) They act as cloud condensation nuclei. b) They promote evaporation. c)
They do not affect the hydrological cycle. d) They inhibit cloud formation.
Answer: a) They act as cloud condensation nuclei.
74. The term riparian zone refers to:

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 a) The zone where oil spills occur in oceans b) A zone with rapid water evap-
oration c) A vegetated area near a water body d) The area around a ripened
fruit tree
Answer: c) A vegetated area near a water body
75. What is meant by an interception in the hydrological cycle?
a) Water infiltrating the soil b) Water held on leaves and stems of plants be-
fore falling to the ground c) Water flowing in rivers and streams d) Water
absorbed by plants from the soil
Answer: b) Water held on leaves and stems of plants before falling to the ground
76. The term baseflow refers to:
a) The flow of water from surface reservoirs to the atmosphere b) The slow
and steady flow of water in rivers and streams between storm events c) Water
from underground aquifers to the surface d) The flow of water in rivers and
streams during a storm event
Answer: b) The slow and steady flow of water in rivers and streams between
storm events
77. Which machine learning algorithm is well-suited for time series forecasting in
hydrology?
a) K-Means Clustering b) Recurrent Neural Networks c) Decision Trees d)
Naive Bayes
Answer: b) Recurrent Neural Networks
78. Assertion (A): Convolutional Neural Networks (CNNs) are commonly used in hy-
drology to predict rainfall patterns. Reasoning (R): CNNs are well-suited for an-
alyzing spatial data, such as radar images, to forecast precipitation.
a) Both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation of the A. b) The
A is false, but the R is true. c) The A is true, but the R is false. d) Both A and
R are true, but the R is not the correct explanation of the A.
Answer: b) The A is false, but the R is true.
79. As per Beer’s Law, the intensity (detected by the detector) of a ray of monochro-
matic light
a stheconcentrationof theabsorbingmediumincreases.a)Decreaseslinearly b)Increaseslinearly c)Increasesexponentially d)Decre

80. Is extraction possible when the feed (sample) and solvent are fully miscible?
a) Yes, since only the difference in solubility of the solute in the two solvents
matters. The higher the difference in solubility, the better the separation. b)
It depends on the density difference between the two liquids. If this difference
is higher than 25%, extraction is possible. c) In this case, there will be only
one phase after the settler instead of two. No extract or raffinate phases can be
formed. d) No, extraction is not possible anymore, since if the two liquids are
fully miscible, the solute has the same solubility in both liquids.
Answer: c) In this case, there will be only one phase after the settler instead of
two. No extract or raffinate phases can be formed.
81. Standard curves are prepared to calculate the concentration of the analyzed sub-
strate with the help of a spectrophotometer by plotting concentration vs
. a)T ransmittance b)Absorbance

82. Gas chromatography is a chromatographic technique that can separate

c ompounds.a)V olatileinorganic b)V

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83. Centrifugal force is generally expressed as
a)Rateof sedimentation b)Revolutionperminute c)Sedimentationcoef f icient

84. Which of the following is not a limitation of Beer Lambert’s law, which gives the
relation between absorption, thickness, and concentration?
a) Radiation must have a higher bandwidth b) The radiation source must be
monochromatic c) Concentration must be lower d) Does not consider factors
other than thickness and concentration that affect absorbance
Answer: a) Radiation must have a higher bandwidth
85. Mass analyser separates ions based on their
i namassspectrophotometera)M ass−to−chargeratio b)Charge−to−massratio

86. A diode array detector (DAD) coupled with UV detection is advantageous be-
cause:
a) It allows a single wavelength of detection to be more precisely chosen b) It
speeds up the detection at a single wavelength c) It covers a range of wave-
lengths d) It allows lower concentrations of analyte to be detected
Answer: c) It covers a range of wavelengths
87. The effective distribution coefficient of a compound in two immiscible liquids is
close to 1, if
. a)T heconcentrationof thecompoundisnegligibleinoneliquid b)T heconcentrationof compoundsisthesameinboththeliquid c)T heamou

88. In exclusion chromatography, solute molecules are separated based on:

a) Molecular geometry and size b) Molecular formula c) Molecular phase
d) Molecular composition
Answer: a) Molecular geometry and size
89. Ionization of sample is mandatory in
a nalysis.a)HP LC b)M assSpectrometry c)AAS d)U V −visiblespectrophotometerAnswe

90. Chromatographic retention is due to:

a) Differences in absorbance in the UV detector b) Different injection times by
the autosampler c) Deviations in the flow from the pump d) Adsorption of
the analyte to the stationary phase
Answer: d) Adsorption of the analyte to the stationary phase
91. At a certain temperature, the ratio of concentrations of a solute in two immiscible
solvents is always constant. This ratio is called:
a) Total effective distribution coefficient b) Effective portioning coefficient c)
Effective distribution coefficient d) Distribution coefficient
Answer: d) Distribution coefficient
92. In liquid-liquid extraction, 200 ml of organic solvent was added to a 100 ml water
sample at the time of extraction. What will be the amount of analyte present in
the organic sample, if the initial analyte concentration in the water sample is 500
mg/L and the distribution coefficient is 3?
a) 5 mg b) 85 mg c) 375 mg d) 5 mg
Answer: d) 5 mg
93. Beer Lambert’s law gives the relation between which of the following?
a) Reflected radiation and concentration b) Scattered radiation and concen-
tration c) Energy absorption and concentration d) Energy absorption and
reflected radiation

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 Answer: c) Energy absorption and concentration
94. Which of the following is not true about absorption spectroscopy?
a) It provides accurate data b) It is a fast process c) It requires a large sample
size d) Reflection is kept minimum
Answer: c) It requires a large sample size
95. Absorption instrumentation is used for which of the following analyses?
a) Gaseous mixtures only b) Liquid mixtures only c) Solids d) Solid, liquids,
and gases
Answer: d) Solid, liquids, and gases
96. The representation of Beer Lambert’s law is given as A = abc. If ‘b’ represents the
path length of cuvette and ‘c’ represents the concentration, then ‘a’ represents:
a) Intensity b) Molar absorption coefficient c) Transmittance d) Reflectance
Answer: b) Molar absorption coefficient
97. Which of the following wavelength ranges is associated with UV spectroscopy?
a) 0.8 - 500µm b) 400 - 100nm c) 380 - 750nm d) 0.1 - 380nm
Answer: d) 0.1 - 380nm
98. Which of the following is not a limitation of Beer Lambert’s law?
a) Does not consider factors other than thickness and concentration that affect
absorbance b) Radiation must have a higher bandwidth c) Radiation source
must be monochromatic d) Concentration must be lower
Answer: b) Radiation must have a higher bandwidth
99. If 25 ml of an odorous water sample requires 175 ml of distilled water to produce
200 ml of odour free mixture, then what is the threshold odour number (TON)?
a) 7 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12.5
Answer: b) 8
100. For prevention of dental caries in children, the recommended fluoride concen-
tration in water should be in the range of
a) 1.2 - 1.7 b) 1.7 - 2.2 c) 0.7 - 1.2 d) 0.2 - 0.7
Answer: c) 0.7 - 1.2
101. As per IS 2296-1982, water is classified into five categories. Which of the follow-
ing does Category E represent?
a) Surface water for irrigation b) Surface water for aquaculture c) Surface
water for drinking d) Surface water for outdoor bathing
Answer: a) Surface water for irrigation
102. As per IS 10500 : 2012 (drinking water specifications), the acceptable limit for
total dissolved solids in water is
. a)500mg/l b)750mg/l c)1000mg/l d)1500mg/lAnswer:a)500mg/l

103. The desirable pH value for domestic water is.

a) 7 b) 6 to 8 c) 5 to 9 d) 7 to 8.5
Answer: d) 7 to 8.5
104. A 25 ml sample was diluted to 250 ml with odourless distilled water so that the
odour of the sample no longer perceivable. What was the Threshold odour num-
ber?

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 a) 11 b) 10 c) 25 d) 05
Answer: b) 10
105. Blue baby disease found in infants is due to excessive
i ndrinkingwater.a)Colour b)Sulphates c)Carbonates d)N it

106. The population of a city in the first three continuous years is given as 6000, 8000
and 10000 respectively. What is the population of the city in the fourth continu-
ous year, according to the geometric increase method?
a) 11500 b) 12000 c) 12800 d) 14000
Answer: c) 12800
107. Water is liquid at room temperature, the most important reason for this is the:
a) High boiling point of water b) High melting point of water c) High heat of
vaporization of water d) Cohesive forces due to hydrogen bonds in water
Answer: d) Cohesive forces due to hydrogen bonds in water
108. Water is a a)P olarsolvent b)N onpolarsolvent c)Anamphipathicsolvent d)N onpolarunchargedsolventAnswer:a)P olarsolvent

109. Polar molecules can readily dissolve in water. This is because:

a) Polar molecules can form hydrogen bonds with water b) Polar molecules
can replace water-water interaction with more energetically favourable water-
solute interactions c) Polar charged water can interact with the charge of polar
molecules d) All polar molecules are amphipathic in nature
Answer: b) Polar molecules can replace water-water interaction with more en-
ergetically favourable water-solute interactions
110. Most important reason for the unusual properties of water is:
a) The covalent bonding pattern and bond length b) The ease of ionization of
water, even at room temperature c) The presence of hydrogen bonding be-
tween water molecules d) The bond angle between two hydrogen atoms in a
water molecule
Answer: c) The presence of hydrogen bonding between water molecules
111. The H – O – H bond angle in water molecule is:
a) 104.0 o b) 104.5 o c) 105.0 o d) 105.5 o
Answer: b) 104.5 o
112. Which of the following statement is true regarding the electronegativity of atoms
in water molecule?
a) Hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen b) Hydrogen is less elec-
tronegative than oxygen c) Electronegativity of hydrogen and oxygen is same
d) Oxygen and hydrogen do not have significant electronegativity in water
Answer: b) Hydrogen is less electronegative than oxygen
113. Which of the following represent the current melting point, boiling point and
heat of vaporization of water?
a) 0 oC ; 100 oC ; 2260 J/g b) 100 oC ; 0 oC ; 2260 J/g c) 0 oC ; 100 oC ; 1260 J/g
d) 100 oC ; 0 oC ; 1260 J/g
Answer: a) 0 oC ; 100 oC ; 2260 J/g
114. The oxygen atom in the water molecule due to its high electronegativity bears
a)1+charge b)2+charges c)1–charge d)2–chargesAnswer:d)2–charges

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115. Hydrogen bond is best represented as the electrostatic attraction between:
a) A hydrogen covalently bounded to an electronegative atom and another hy-
drogen atom b) A hydrogen covalently bounded to an electronegative atom
and another electronegative atom c) Two electronegative atoms and a hydro-
gen atom d) Two hydrogen atoms
Answer: b) A hydrogen covalently bounded to an electronegative atom and an-
other electronegative atom
116. The bond dissociation energy of hydrogen bonds in water molecule is
a) 10 kJ / mol b) 23 kJ/mol c) 470 kJ/mol d) 348 kJ/mol
Answer: b) 23 kJ/mol
117. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the hydrogen bonds in
water?
a) Hydrogen bond is 10 % covalent and 90 % electrostatic b) Hydrogen bond
is 25% covalent and 75 % electrostatic c) Hydrogen bond is 50% covalent and
50% electrostatic d) Hydrogen bond is 100 % electrostatic
Answer: a) Hydrogen bond is 10 % covalent and 90 % electrostatic
118. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a water molecule can form is
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Answer: d) 4
119. The hydrogen bond length in water molecule is
a) 1.97 Å b) 1.6 Å c) 1.09 Å d) 0.97 Å
Answer: a) 1.97 Å
120. The covalent bond length in water molecule (H-O) is
a) 1.97 Å b) 1.6 Å c) 1.09 Å d) 0.958 Å
Answer: d) 0.958 Å
121. The density of liquid water is greater than that of ice. This is due to:
a) The crystal structure of ice b) The shape of water molecule c) The covalent
bonding in water d) Hydrogen bonding in water
Answer: a) The crystal structure of ice
122. The maximum density of water is at
a)0oC b)100oC c)4oC d)37oCAnswer:c)4oC

123. Which of the following is the correct decreasing order of the boiling point of the
compounds?
a) HF > H2O > NH3 b) H2O > HF > NH3 c) H2O > NH3 > HF d) NH3 > HF >
H2O
Answer: b) H2O > HF > NH3
124. The high melting and boiling point of water is due to:
a) Its ionic nature b) Its gaseous nature c) Hydrogen bonding between water
molecules d) High specific heat of water
Answer: c) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules
125. The high heat of vaporization of water is due to:
a) High dielectric constant of water b) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules
c) Shape of water molecule d) Weak dipole moment of water

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 Answer: b) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules
126. The high surface tension of water is due to:
a) Its high dielectric constant b) Lack of hydrogen bonding in liquid water c)
Tetrahedral structure d) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules
Answer: d) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules
127. The high heat capacity of water is due to:
a) Increase in kinetic energy of water molecule b) High dielectric constant of
water c) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules d) Dipolar nature of
water molecule
Answer: c) Hydrogen bonding between water molecules
128. Which of the following hydrological infrastructure is often designed considering
cyclone precipitation and its potential impacts?
a) Dams and reservoirs b) Solar panels c) Irrigation canals d) Wind tur-
bines
Answer: a) Dams and reservoirs
129. The term for the total amount of water vapour in the atmosphere at a given time
and place is:
a) Specific humidity b) Relative humidity c) Humidity d) Absolute humid-
ity
Answer: d) Absolute humidity
130. The advantage of using a multispectral remote-sensed approach in hydrological
study is:
a) It provides accurate gauged discharge data b) It is sensitive to the accuracy of
the DEM in dryland landscapes c) It allows for classification at various spatial
scales d) It is not dependent on infrastructure or complex models
Answer: c) It allows for classification at various spatial scales
131. The water-energy nexus refers to the interdependence of water and energy re-
sources. Which statement is true?
a) Water and energy resources are separate and do not affect one another. b)
Water and energy resources are interlinked and influence each other. c) Water
use has no impact on energy production. d) Energy production has no impact
on water resources.
Answer: b) Water and energy resources are interlinked and influence each other.
132. The term for the process by which water droplets combine to form larger drops
in clouds, eventually leading to precipitation is:
a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Transpiration d) Coalescence
Answer: d) Coalescence
133. The main driver of ocean currents in the hydrological cycle is:
a) Earth’s rotation b) Solar radiation c) Salinity differences d) Wind
Answer: d) Wind
134. A primary factor influencing the evaporation rate is:
a) Wind speed b) Cloud cover c) Groundwater levels d) Air pressure
Answer: a) Wind speed

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135. Which factor can influence the isotopic composition of precipitation and help in
hydrological research?
a) Elevation b) Atmospheric pressure c) Solar radiation d) Ocean currents
Answer: a) Elevation
136. The Dead Zone in the Gulf of Mexico is primarily caused by:
a) Undersea volcanoes b) Oil spills c) Excessive algal blooms d) Elevated
sea surface temperatures
Answer: c) Excessive algal blooms
137. The role of atmospheric aerosols in the hydrological cycle is:
a) They act as cloud condensation nuclei. b) They promote evaporation. c)
They do not affect the hydrological cycle. d) They inhibit cloud formation.
Answer: a) They act as cloud condensation nuclei.
138. The term riparian zone refers to:
a) The zone where oil spills occur in oceans b) A zone with rapid water evap-
oration c) A vegetated area near a water body d) The area around a ripened
fruit tree
Answer: c) A vegetated area near a water body
139. What is meant by an interception in the hydrological cycle?
a) Water infiltrating the soil b) Water held on leaves and stems of plants be-
fore falling to the ground c) Water flowing in rivers and streams d) Water
absorbed by plants from the soil
Answer: b) Water held on leaves and stems of plants before falling to the ground
140. The term baseflow refers to:
a) The flow of water from surface reservoirs to the atmosphere b) The slow
and steady flow of water in rivers and streams between storm events c) Water
from underground aquifers to the surface d) The flow of water in rivers and
streams during a storm event
Answer: b) The slow and steady flow of water in rivers and streams between
storm events
141. Which machine learning algorithm is well-suited for time series forecasting in
hydrology?
a) K-Means Clustering b) Recurrent Neural Networks c) Decision Trees d)
Naive Bayes
Answer: b) Recurrent Neural Networks
142. Assertion (A): Convolutional Neural Networks (CNNs) are commonly used in hy-
drology to predict rainfall patterns. Reasoning (R): CNNs are well-suited for an-
alyzing spatial data, such as radar images, to forecast precipitation.
a) Both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation of the A. b) The
A is false, but the R is true. c) The A is true, but the R is false. d) Both A and
R are true, but the R is not the correct explanation of the A.
Answer: b) The A is false, but the R is true.
143. The evaluation metric commonly used to assess the performance of regression
models in hydrology is:
a) Precision b) Recall c) Mean Squared Error d) F1 Score

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 Answer: c) Mean Squared Error
144. Which of the following is a common method for measuring turbidity in water?
a) Spectrophotometry b) Gravimetry c) Titrimetry d) Chromatography
Answer: a) Spectrophotometry
145. The pH of a buffer solution is given by:
a) pH = pKa + log([acid]/[base]) b) pH = pKa - log([acid]/[base]) c) pH = pKa +
log([base]/[acid]) d) pH = pKa - log([base]/[acid])
Answer: c) pH = pKa + log([base]/[acid])
146. Which of the following is a common indicator for water hardness?
a) Eriochrome Black T b) Phenolphthalein c) Methyl orange d) Bromothy-
mol blue
Answer: a) Eriochrome Black T
147. The BOD test is used to measure:
a) Dissolved oxygen b) Organic matter in water c) Inorganic matter in water
d) pH of water
Answer: b) Organic matter in water
148. The COD test uses which oxidant?
a) Potassium permanganate b) Potassium dichromate c) Hydrogen peroxide
d) Sodium hypochlorite
Answer: b) Potassium dichromate
149. Which instrument is used for measuring electrical conductivity?
a) pH meter b) Conductivity meter c) Turbidimeter d) Spectrophotometer
Answer: b) Conductivity meter
150. Turbidity in water is measured in:
a) NTU b) ppm c) mg/L d) pH units
Answer: a) NTU
151. Alkalinity in water is due to:
a) Bicarbonates, carbonates, and hydroxides b) Chlorides and sulphates c)
Nitrates and phosphates d) Fluorides and iodides
Answer: a) Bicarbonates, carbonates, and hydroxides
152. Acidity in water is measured by titration with:
a) Sodium hydroxide b) Hydrochloric acid c) Sulphuric acid d) Nitric acid
Answer: a) Sodium hydroxide
153. Hardness in water is primarily due to:
a) Calcium and magnesium ions b) Sodium and potassium ions c) Iron and
manganese ions d) Zinc and copper ions
Answer: a) Calcium and magnesium ions
154. Sulphates in water are measured by:
a) Gravimetric method b) Titrimetric method c) Spectrophotometric method
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
155. Fluorides in water are beneficial for:

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 a) Preventing dental caries b) Increasing bone strength c) Improving diges-
tion d) Enhancing vision
Answer: a) Preventing dental caries
156. Nitrates in water can cause:
a) Blue baby syndrome b) Dental fluorosis c) Goiter d) Osteoporosis
Answer: a) Blue baby syndrome
157. Total solids in water include:
a) Dissolved solids and suspended solids b) Only dissolved solids c) Only sus-
pended solids d) Volatile solids only
Answer: a) Dissolved solids and suspended solids
158. Suspended solids are measured by:
a) Filtration b) Evaporation c) Titration d) Spectrophotometry
Answer: a) Filtration
159. Volatile solids are:
a) Organic matter that volatilizes at high temperature b) Inorganic matter c)
Dissolved solids d) Fixed solids
Answer: a) Organic matter that volatilizes at high temperature
160. Non-volatile solids are:
a) Inorganic matter that remains after ignition b) Organic matter c) Dis-
solved solids d) Suspended solids
Answer: a) Inorganic matter that remains after ignition
161. Residual chlorine is measured by:
a) DPD method b) Iodometric method c) Both a and b d) Gravimetric method
Answer: c) Both a and b
162. Optimum coagulant dose is determined by:
a) Jar test b) Filtration test c) Sedimentation test d) Titration test
Answer: a) Jar test
163. Break point chlorination is the point where:
a) All ammonia is oxidized b) Chlorine demand is met c) Residual chlorine
appears d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
164. Dissolved oxygen in water is measured by:
a) Winkler’s method b) Electrode method c) Both a and b d) Spectropho-
tometry
Answer: c) Both a and b
165. BOD is:
a) Biochemical Oxygen Demand b) Biological Oxygen Demand c) Both a and
b d) Chemical Oxygen Demand
Answer: a) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
166. COD is:
a) Chemical Oxygen Demand b) Chemical Organic Demand c) Carbon Oxy-
gen Demand d) Carbon Organic Demand

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 Answer: a) Chemical Oxygen Demand
167. Ambient air quality is measured by:
a) High volume sampler b) Low volume sampler c) Both a and b d) None
Answer: a) High volume sampler
168. SPM stands for:
a) Suspended Particulate Matter b) Solid Particulate Matter c) Suspended
Particle Matter d) Solid Particle Matter
Answer: a) Suspended Particulate Matter
169. PM2.5 is:
a) Particulate Matter less than 2.5 microns b) Particulate Matter less than 5
microns c) Particulate Matter less than 10 microns d) Particulate Matter less
than 1 micron
Answer: a) Particulate Matter less than 2.5 microns
170. CO in air is measured by:
a) NDIR method b) Electrochemical method c) Both a and b d) Gravimetry
Answer: c) Both a and b
171. NOx in air is measured by:
a) Chemiluminescence b) UV absorption c) Both a and b d) Titrimetry
Answer: a) Chemiluminescence
172. Sox in air is measured by:
a) West-Gaeke method b) UV fluorescence c) Both a and b d) Gravimetry
Answer: c) Both a and b
173. Titrimetric method is used for:
a) Acid-base reactions b) Redox reactions c) Precipitation reactions d) All
of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
174. Gravimetry is used for:
a) Determination of mass b) Determination of volume c) Determination of
pH d) Determination of conductivity
Answer: a) Determination of mass
175. Bomb Calorimetry is used for:
a) Heat of combustion b) Heat of solution c) Heat of reaction d) Heat of
formation
Answer: a) Heat of combustion
176. Paper Chromatography is a type of:
a) Partition chromatography b) Adsorption chromatography c) Ion exchange
chromatography d) Size exclusion chromatography
Answer: a) Partition chromatography
177. TLC stands for:
a) Thin Layer Chromatography b) Thick Layer Chromatography c) Thin Liq-
uid Chromatography d) Thick Liquid Chromatography
Answer: a) Thin Layer Chromatography

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178. GC stands for:
a) Gas Chromatography b) Gel Chromatography c) Gravity Chromatography
d) Green Chromatography
Answer: a) Gas Chromatography
179. HPLC stands for:
a) High Performance Liquid Chromatography b) High Pressure Liquid Chro-
matography c) Both a and b d) None
Answer: c) Both a and b
180. Flame photometry is used for:
a) Alkali metals b) Alkaline earth metals c) Both a and b d) Heavy metals
Answer: c) Both a and b
181. Spectrophotometry is based on:
a) Beer’s law b) Lambert’s law c) Both a and b d) None
Answer: c) Both a and b

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