19-04-2025

6201CMD30302526ELITE01 MD

PHYSICS

1) Statement-1 : An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential difference.
The de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron is longer.

Statement-2 : De-Broglie wavelength associated with a moving particle is where, p is the

linear momentum and both have same KE.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

2) Statement -1 : Heavy nuclides tend to have more number of neutrons than protons.
Statement-2 : As there is coulombic repulsion between protons, so ln heavy nuclei, excess of
neutrons are preferable.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

3) Ultraviolet radiation of 6.2 ev falls on an aluminium surface (work function 4.2 ev). The kinetic
energy in joule of the fastest electron emitted is approximately-

(1) 3 × 10–21
(2) 3 × 10–19
(3) 3 × 10–12
(4) 3 × 10–15

4) The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission in tungsten is 400 nm. The wavelength of
light that must be used in order to eject electrons with a maximum energy of 0.9 eV to be :-

(1) 120 nm
(2) 310 nm
(3) 380 nm
(4) 400 nm

5)

When a monochromatic point source of light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the
cut-off voltage and the saturation current are respectively 0.6 volt and 18.0 mA. If the same source
is placed 0.6 m away from the photoelectric cell, then

(1) the stopping potential will be 0.2 volt

(2) the stopping potential will be 0.6 volt
(3) the saturation current will be 0.6 mA
(4) the saturation current will be 3.0 mA.

6)

If λp and λα be the de-Broglie's wavelengths associated with protons and α-particles of equal kinetic
energies, then

(1)
λp=

(2)
λp=
(3) λp = λα
(4) λp = 2λα

7) A photon of energy 8 eV is incident on a metal surface of threshold frequency 1.6 × 1015 Hz. The
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted is -
(Take h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s; 1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J)

(1) 1.4 eV
(2) 0.8 eV
(3) 4.2 eV
(4) 2.8 eV

8) A 100 watt light source is emitting radiations of wavelength 5000Å. The rate of emission of
photons is of the order of :-

(1) 1040
(2) 1020
(3) 1010
(4) 105

9) The work function of a surface of a photosensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of the
incident radiation for which the stopping potential is 5V lies in the :-

(1) Infrared region

(2) X-ray region
(3) Ultraviolet region
(4) Visible region

10) Radiation of two photon energies twice and five times the work function of metal are incident
sucessively on the metal surface. The ratio of the maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted is the
two cases will be

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

11) A point source of light is used in a photoelectric effect. If the source is removed farther from the
emitting metal, the stopping potential :

(1) will increase

(2) will decrease
(3) will remain constant
(4) will either increase or decrease.

12) Graph is ploted for stopping voltage and frequency (v). Its slope depends
upon :-

(1) Type of light

(2) Type of metal
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them

13) The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1)
and the photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material
is 5.1 eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be (the energy of the electron in nth state

(1) 12.1 V
(2) 17.2 V
(3) 7 V
(4) 5.1 V

14) If Alpha, Beta and Gamma rays carry same momentum, which has the longest wavelength :-

(1) Alpha rays

(2) Beta rays
(3) Gamma rays
(4) None, all have same wavelength

15) The kinetic energy of an electron gets tripled, then the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it
becomes how many time :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 3

16) The figure shows different graphs between stopping potential (V0) and frequency (v) for
photosensitive surface of cesium, potassium, sodium and lithium. The plots are parallel. Correct
ranking of the targets according to their work function greatest first will be :

(1) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv)

(2) (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv)
(3) (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i)
(4) (i) = (iii) > (ii) = (iv)

17) The curves show the variation between the applied potential difference (V) and the photoelectric
current (i) at two different intensities of light (I1 > I2) but at same frequency. In which figure is the
correct variation shown :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

18)

According to the De Broglie, the radius of nthBohr's orbit is :–

(λ = wavelength of electron in nth orbit)

(1)

(2)

(3) nλ
(4) 2nλ

19) A perfect light reflector horizontal mirror of mass m is hold by vertical radiation of light then
power in radiation is :

(1) mg

(2)

(3) mgc
(4) 2mgc

20) In H-atom when e– comes from 2nd excited state to ground state, it emits photon which is incident
on a metal of work function 8.1 eV. Calculate the min de-broglie wavelength of the ejected electron

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Out of the following, the false statement is :

(1) Mechanical wave can travel in vacuum

(2) Electromagnetic wave can travel through vacuum.
(3) The velocity of photon is not the same for different media
(4) Wavelength of de Broglie wave depends upon velocity of moving particle

22) An electron of a stationary hydrogen atom transits from the fourth energy level to the ground
level. The velocity of hydrogen atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be:-
{R = Rydberg constant, m = mass of hydrogen atom}
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

23)

A light beam of power 1.5 mW and 400 nm wavelength incident on cathode. If quantum efficiency is
0.1% then, find out obtained photo current :

(1) 0.48 A
(2) 0.48 mA
(3) 0.01 µA
(4) 0.48 µA

24) Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations per quantum in the order of increasing energy
:
A : Blue light B : Yellow light
C : X-ray D : Radio wave
Choose correct choice

(1) B, A, D, C
(2) D, B, A, C
(3) A, B, D, C
(4) C, A, B, D

25) If the frequency and intensity of a light source are both doubled. Now consider the following
statements-
(A) The saturation photocurrent remains almost the same
(B) The maximum kinetic energy of the photo electrons is doubled
(C) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is increased but not doubled
The correct statement (s) is (are) -

(1) B only
(2) A and B only
(3) A and C only
(4) C only

26) X-rays obtained by Collidge tube:

(1) are mono-chromatic

(2) have all wavelengths are below a maximum wavelength
(3) have all wavelengths are above a minimum wavelength
(4) have all wavelengths are between a maximum and a minimum wavelength
27)

The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, is
:-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : -1
(3) 2 : -1
(4) 1 : -2

28) Binding energy per nucleon plot against the mass number for the stable nuclei is shown in the
figure. Which curve is correct

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

29) Match the following Column I with Column II.

Column-I Column-II

Radiation Particle nature of

A. P.
pressure radiation

Threshold
B. Q. Stopping potential
wavelength

Maximum
Maximum kinetic
wavelength of
C. energy of R.
incident photon in
photoelectron
photoelectric effect

Quantisation of
angular De-Broglie
D. S.
momentum of hypothesis
electron
(1) A-P. B-R, C-Q, D-S
(2) A-R, B-P, C-Q, D-S
(3) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q
(4) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R

30) Check the correctness of the following statements about Bohr model of hydrogen atom
(i) The acceleration of the electron in n = 2 orbit is more than in n = 1 orbit
(ii) The angular momentum of the electron in n = 2 orbit is more than in n = 1 orbit
(iii) The KE of the electron in n = 2 orbit is less than in n = 1 orbit

(1) all the statements are correct

(2) only (i) and (ii) are correct
(3) only (ii) and (iii) are correct
(4) only (iii) and (i) are correct

31) The acceleration of an electron in the first orbit of the hydrogen atom (n = 1) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following figures represent the variation of particle momentum and the associated
de-Broglie wavelength ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

33) If kinetic energy of e– is decreased by 19% then calculate % change in momentum :-

(1) 11%
(2) 10%
(3) 81%
(4) 60%

34)

The stable nucleus which has a radius half of Zn64 is -

(1) Ca40
(2) S16
(3) Na21
(4) Be8

35) Highly energetic electrons are bombarded on a target of an element containing 30 neutrons. The
ratio of radii of nucleus to that of Helium nucleus is 141/3. The atomic number of nucleus will be:-

(1) 25
(2) 26
(3) 56
(4) 30

36) Assertion: Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass number.
Reason: Density of all the nuclei is same.

If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
Assertion
If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect

37) Let us find the Q value of fusion reaction 4He + 4He → 8Be, if of He = X and of Be = Y

(1) Q = 8Y – 8X
(2) Q = 8X – 8Y
(3) Q = 4Y – 4X
(4) Q = 4X – 4Y

38) Consider the following statements :-

S1 : The nuclear force is independent of the charge of nucleons.
S2 : The number of nucleons in the nucleus of an atom is equal to the number of electrons in the
atom.
S3 : All nuclei have masses that are less than the sum of the masses of constituent nucleons.
Choose the correct statement(s) from above :-

(1) S1 only
(2) S1 and S2
(3) S2 and S3
(4) S1 and S3

39) A radioactive nucleus ZXA emits 2α and 2β– particles. What will be neutron to proton ratio in the
product nucleus :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them -

(1) Decreases with mass number at low mass numbers.

(2) Increases with mass number at low mass numbers.
(3) Decreases with mass number at high mass numbers.
(4) Increases with mass number at high mass numbers.

41)

The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman series is:-

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 0.5
(4) 2

42) What happens to the mass number and atomic number of an element when it
emits radiation?

(1) Mass number decreases by four and atomic number decreases by two
(2) Mass number and atomic number remain unchanged
(3) Mass number remains unchanged, while atomic number decreases by one
(4) Mass number increases by four and atomic number increases by two

43) A radioactive substance disintegrates as follows:

234
92X → 87Y222
The number of α and β particles that are emitted in this process are :

(1) 3, 5
(2) 5, 3
(3) 3, 3
(4) 3, 1

44) Assertion (A) : Photoelectric effect demonstrates the wave nature of light. Reason (R) : The
number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false and R is also false

45) Assertion (A): The de–Broglie wavelength of a neutron when its kinetic energy is k is . Its
wavelength is 2 when its kinetic energy is 4k.
Reason(R): The de – Broglie wavelength is proportional to square root of the kinetic energy.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false and R is also false.

CHEMISTRY

1) What is the effect of the addition of cane sugar on the boiling and freezing points of water ?

(1) Both boiling point and freezing point increases

(2) Both boiling point and freezing point decreases
(3) Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases
(4) Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases

2) Density of 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water is 1.02 g/mL. The molality of the solution is

(1) 3.28 mol kg–1

(2) 2.28 mol kg–1
(3) 0.44 mol kg–1
(4) 1.14 mol kg–1
3) A solution of glucose is isotonic with 4g of urea per litre of solution. The concentration of glucose
is

(1) 4 g/L
(2) 8 g/L
(3) 12 g/L
(4) 14 g/L

4) The vapour pressure of the solution of two liquids A (P° = 80 mm) and B(P° = 120 mm) is found to
be 100 mm when XA = 0.4. The result shows that

(1) Solution exhibits ideal behaviour

(2) Solution shows positive deviation
(3) Solution shows negative deviation
Solution shows positive deviations for lower concentration and negative deviations for higher
(4)
concentration

5) The mass of a non - volatile solute (molecular mass = 40) which should be dissolved in 114 g
octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80% will be

(1) 20 g
(2) 30 g
(3) 10 g
(4) 40 g

6) Which of the following solution will have lowest freezing point?

(1) 2M Na2SO4
(2) 2M Al2(SO4)3
(3) 3 M NaCl
(4) 1 M BaCl2

7) Density of 98 % (by weight) H2SO4 solution is 1.8 g/mL then molarity of solution is

(1) 16 M
(2) 18 M
(3) 14 M
(4) 12 M

8) Which one of the following aqueous solution will exhibit highest boiling point?

(1) 0.015 M urea

(2) 0.01 M KNO3
(3) 0.10 M Na2SO4
(4) 0.015 M glucose
9)

The elevation of boiling point of a solution of 13.44 g of CuCl2 (Mol. wt. 134.4) in 1 kg water is
approximately (Kb = 0.52 K molality–1)

(1) 0.16
(2) 0.05
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.2

10) The osmotic pressure of equimolar solutions of BaCl2, NaCl and glucose will be in the order

(1) glucose > NaCl > BaCl2

(2) BaCl2 > NaCl > glucose
(3) NaCl > BaCl2 > glucose
(4) NaCl > glucose > BaCl2

11) The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water-ethanol is less than that of both water and
ethanol. Then

(1) the mixture will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(2) the mixture will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(3) the mixture will show no deviation from Raoult’s law
(4) this mixture can be considered as true solution

12) Assertion : When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of a water causes depression in the freezing point of the
water.
When non-volatile solid solute NaCl is added to the water.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

13) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- When a non volatile solid solute is added to the solvent vapour pressure of solvent
decreases and now the solution will boil at higher temperature.
Statement-II :- Due to association of ethanoic acid molecules in benzene, observed value of
depression in freezing point will be more than calculated value of depression in freezing point of
benzene.
In light of above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) Both statement I and statement II are true

(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but statement II is true
14) Match list-I with list-II

List-I List-II

(A) π = iCRT (I) Relative lowering in vapour pressure of solvent

(B) ΔTf = i Kf m (II) Elevation in boiling point of solvent

(C) ΔTb = i Kb m (III) Osmotic pressure of solution

(D) (IV) Depression in freezing point of solvent

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

15) Which of the following physical properties is used to determine, the molecular mass of a polymer
solution?

(1) relative lowering of vapour pressure

(2) elevation in boiling point
(3) depression in freezing point
(4) osmotic pressure

16) KH value for some gases at the same temperature 'T' are given :

gas KH/k bar

Ar 40.3

CO2 1.67

HCHO 1.83 × 10–5

CH4 0.413
where KH is Henry's Law constant in water. The order of their solubility in water is
(1) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
(2) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO
(3) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
(4) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar

17) At a given temperature, the vapour pressure of a solution of two volatile liquids A and B is given
by the equation
PS = 120 – 80XB (XB = mole fraction of B)
Vapour pressure of pure A and B at the same temperature are respectively

(1) 120, 80
(2) 120, 200
(3) 120, 40
(4) 80, 40

18) Which of the following statement about the composition of the vapour over an ideal solution a 1 :
1 molar mixture of benzene and toluene is correct? Assume that the temperature is constant at
(25°C).
(Given : Vapour Pressure Data at 25°C, benzene = 12.8 kPa, Toluene = 3.85 kPa)

(1) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of benzene

(2) The vapour will contain a higher percentage of toluene
(3) The vapour will contain equal amounts of benezene and toluene
(4) Not enough information is given to make a predication

19) The van't Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and
association in other solvent is respectively

(1) Less than one and greater than one

(2) Less than one and less than one
(3) Greater than one and less than one
(4) Greater than one and greater than one

20) The van't Hoff factor for 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74 . The degree of dissociation is

(1) 91.3%
(2) 87%
(3) 100%
(4) 74%

21) Assertion : Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water in comparison to warm water.
Reason : At a given pressure, the solubility of oxygen gas in water increases with decrease in
temperature

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect
(3) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

22) Units of rate constat of first and zero order reactions in terms of molarity M unit are respectively

(1) sec–1, M sec–1

(2) sec–1, M
(3) M sec–1, sec–1
(4) M, sec–1

23) Consider the chemical reaction : N2(g) + 3H2(g) —→ 2NH3(g)

The rate of this reaction can be expressed in terms of concentration of N2(g), H2(g) or NH3(g). Identify
the correct relationship amongst the rate expressions.

Rate =
(1)

Rate =
(2)

(3)
Rate =

(4)
Rate =

24) A gaseous reaction, , shows increase in pressure from 100 mm to 120 mm

in 5 minutes. The rate of disappearance of is

(1) 4 mm min–1
(2) 8 mm min–1
(3) 16 mm min–1
(4) 2 mm min–1

25) The activation energy of exothermic reaction A —→ B is 80 kJ mol–1. The heat of reaction is 200
kJ mol–1. The activation energy for the reaction B —→ A (in kJ/mol) will be

(1) 80
(2) 120
(3) 200
(4) 280

26) If a first order reaction takes 32 minutes for 75 % completion, then the time required for 50%
completion is

(1) 32 min
(2) 16 min
(3) 8 min
(4) 4 min

27) The reaction mechanism for the reaction P → R is as follows:

(fast)
(slow)
The rate law for main reaction (P → R) is

(1) k2[P][Q]
(2) K1k2[P]
 2
(3) K1k2[P]
(4) K1k2[Q]

28) Assertion (A) : People taking a lot of salty food, experience the puffiness or swelling called
edema.
Reason (R) : There is water retention in tissue cell and intercellular spaces because of osmosis.
Which causes edema.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

29) Following data is for a reaction between reactants A and B :

Rate mol L–1 s–1 [A] [B]

–3
2 × 10 0.1 M 0.1 M
4 × 10–3 0.2 M 0.1 M
1.6 × 10–2 0.2 M 0.2 M
The order of the reaction with respect to A and B, respectively are
(1) 1, 0
(2) 0, 1
(3) 1, 2
(4) 2, 1

30) The half life of radioisotope is 2 hours after 8 hours the remaining amount of radioisotope is 0.02
g. Find initial mass.

(1) 0.2 g
(2) 0.5 g
(3) 0.16 g
(4) 0.32 g

31) The rate constant of a reaction depends on

(1) Temperature
(2) Pressure
(3) Extent of reaction
(4) Initial concentration of the reactant

32) The correct difference between first and second-order reactions is that

The rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-
(1)
order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations
The rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a
(2)
second-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations
(3) A first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
The half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0 ; the half-life of a second-order
(4)
reaction does depend on [A]0

33) Consider a first order gas phase decomposition reaction given below :
A(g) → B(g) + C(g)
The initial pressure of the system before decomposition of A was pi. After lapse of time 't', total
pressure of the system increased by x units and became ‘pt’. The rate constant k for the reaction is
given as

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10ºC rise of temperature. If the temperature is
raised by 50ºC, the rate of the reaction increases by about

(1) 10 times
(2) 24 times
(3) 32 times
(4) 64 times

35) Assertion : When concentration of reactant is doubled then rate of reaction becomes double if it
is a first order reaction.
Reason : Rate constant of first order reaction is directly proportional to concentration of reactant.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

36) Statement I : The order of a reaction can have fractional value.

Statement II : The order of a reaction cannot be written from balanced equation of a reaction.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.

37) For an elementary reaction 2A + B → A2B if the volume of vessel is quickly reduced to half of it's
original volume then rate or reaction will
(1) unchanged
(2) increase four times
(3) increase eight times
(4) decrease eight times

38) Assertion : The rate of hydrolysis reaction of ethyl acetate in acidic medium is affected by
change in concentration of ethyl acetate, not by concentration of water.
Reason : For acidic hydrolysis of ethyl acetate, water is taken in large excess, therefore,
concentration of water is not altered much during the reaction.

Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(1)
.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion .

39)

The temperature dependence of the rate constant k is expressed as k = When a plot

between log k and 1/T is plotted we get the graph as shown. What is the value of slope in the graph ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature changes from 300 K to 310 K. Activation
energy of such a reaction will be (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1 and log 2 = 0.301)

(1) 53.6 kJ mol–1

(2) 48.6 kJ mol–1
(3) 58.5 kJ mol–1
(4) 60.5 kJ mol–1

41) Assertion :- If the activation energy of reaction is zero, temperature will have no effect on the
rate constant.
Reason :- Lower the activation energy, faster is the reaction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

42) Statement I : Rate constant (K) for zero order reaction is equal to
Statement II : Unit of rate and rate constant is same for zero order reaction.

(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

43) A certain zero order reaction has k = 0.025 M s–1 for the disappearance of A. What will be the
concentration of A after 15 seconds if the initial concentration is 0.50 M ?

(1) 0.50 M
(2) 0.375 M
(3) 0.125 M
(4) 0.060 M

44) Match the following

[A]t Vs time for

(a) (p)
zero order

Half -life Vs Initial

(b) concentration for (q)
zero order

Rate Vs time for

(c) (r)
zero order
 Rate constant
(d) (s)
Vs Temperature

(1) (a) → (r), (b) → (s), (c) → (p), (d) → (q)

(2) (a) → (s), (b) → (r), (c) → (p), (d) → (q)
(3) (a) → (r), (b) → (s), (c) → (q), (d) → (p)
(4) (a) → (s), (b) → (r), (c) → (q), (d) → (p)

45) The half life period for catalytic decomposition of AB3 at 50 mm is found to 4 hrs & at 100 mm it
is 2 hrs. the order is

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0

BOTANY

1) Choose the correct sequence:

(1) Phytoplankton Zooplankton Crustacean Fish

(2) Crustacean Fish Zooplankton Phytoplankton
(3) Zooplankton Phytoplankton Crustacean Fish
(4) Fish Crustacean Zooplankton Phytoplankton

2) Bacteria and fungi are:

(1) Scavengers
(2) Primary consumers
(3) Secondary consumers
(4) Decomposers

3)

The accompanying figure represents an ecological pyramid. It is:

(1) Pyramid of numbers in grassland

(2) Pyramid of biomass in fallow land
(3) Pyramid of biomass in lake
(4) Energy pyramid in a spring

4) Which of the following is not used for construction of ecological pyramids?

(1) Fresh weight

(2) Dry weight
(3) Number of individuals
(4) Rate of energy flow

5) Loss of energy from one trophic level to next higher trophic level is:

(1) 30%
(2) 40%
(3) 60%
(4) 90%

6) Which one of the following representations shows the pyramid of numbers in a forest ecosystem?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7)

Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called

(1) Stratification
(2) Scarification
(3) Standing crop
(4) Standing state

8) Identify A, B, C, D respectively in the food web:

(1) Rat, Bog, Tortoise, Crow

(2) Squirrel, Cat, Rat, Pigeon
(3) Deer, Rabbit, Frog, Rat
(4) Dog, Squirrel, Bat, Deer

9) Secondary productivity is rate of formation of new organic matter by:

(1) Decomposers
(2) Producers
(3) Parasites
(4) Consumers

10)
Mineralisation is performed by:

(1) Earthworm
(2) Bacteria and fungi
(3) Detritivores
(4) Herbivores

11) Which of the following statements about the food chain is false?

(1) Detritus food chain begins with dead organic matter

(2) Carnivores are secondary consumers
(3) Primary consumers are herbivores
(4) Earthworm in detritus food chain is a primary producer

12) Breakdown of detritus into small particles by detritivores is called:

(1) Humification
(2) Catabolism
(3) Mineralisation
(4) Fragmentation

13) If 20 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then how much energy will be available to peacock
as food in the following chain.
Plant Mice Snake Peacock:

(1) 0.002 J
(2) 0.2 J
(3) 0.0002 J
(4) 0.02 J

14) Match column-I with column-II:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Producer (i) Herbivores

(B) Primary consumer (ii) Green plants

(C) Secondary consumer (iii) Saprotrophs

(D) Decomposer (iv) Carnivores

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii
(3) A - ii, B - i, C - iii, D - iv
(4) A - iii, B - ii, C - i, D - iv

15) The mass of living material at a trophic level at a particular time is called:
(1) Standing crop
(2) Gross primary productivity
(3) Standing state
(4) Net primary productivity

16) The primary producers of the deep sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are:

(1) Blue green algae

(2) Coral reef
(3) Green algae
(4) Chemosynthetic bacteria

17) What is the characteristics of anthropogenic ecosystem?

(1) Simple food chain, little biodiversity

(2) High productivity, little nutrient cycling
(3) Do not possess self regulation
(4) More than one option is correct

18) Read the following statements:

(i) In aquatic ecosystem DFC is the major conduit for energy flow.
(ii) In terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through GFC than through DFC.
(iii) DFC may be connected with the GFC at some levels.
(iv) Primary carnivores can be considered as secondary consumers.
(v) Trophic level represents a functional level and not a species.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) i and iii only

(2) ii, iv and v only
(3) i and ii only
(4) iii, iv and v only

19) An ecosystem receives 1,000,000 J of solar energy, then what is the energy available at primary
consumer level?

(1) 10,000 J
(2) 1,00,000 J
(3) 1,000 J
(4) 100 J

20) Examine the food web for a particular terrestrial ecosystem. Which species here is the producer
and decomposer respectively?
(1) A and E
(2) B and E
(3) C and A
(4) E and A

21) The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and decomposers is called:

(1) Secondary productivity

(2) Net primary productivity
(3) Gross primary productivity
(4) Gross primary productivity + Net primary productivity

22) The percentage of PAR in the incident solar radiation is:

(1) 2-10%
(2) 1-5%
(3) Less than 50%
(4) 100%

23) A person consuming curd belongs to which trophic level?

(1) T2
(2) T1
(3) T5
(4) T3

24) Number of producers per unit area is highest in

(1) Pond ecosystem

(2) Forest ecosystem
(3) Desert ecosystem
(4) Grassland ecosystem

25) The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants
during photosynthesis is called as

(1) Primary productivity

(2) Primary production
(3) Secondary productivity
(4) Gross primary productivity

26) Assertion (A): Humus serves as a reservoir of nutrients.

Reason (R): Humus is colloidal in nature.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for assertion
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation for assertion
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

27) The figure shows an ecological pyramid. What must be correct for this pyramid?

(1) It is pyramid of energy in aquatic ecosystem

(2) It is pyramid of number in grassland
(3) It is a pyramid of biomass in grassland
(4) It is a pyramid of biomass in a pond

28) Find the odd one out with respect to the functions of an ecosystem.

(1) Nutrient cycling

(2) Energy flow
(3) Decomposition
(4) Stratification

29) Decomposition rate is slow if detritus is rich in

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Sugars
(3) Lignin and chitin
(4) Water soluble substances

30) The humus is further degraded by some microbes and release of inorganic nutrients occur by the
process known as:

(1) Catabolism
(2) Humification
(3) Leaching
(4) Mineralisation

31) NPP of the whole biosphere is approximately

(1) 55 billion tons

(2) 170 billion tons
(3) 43 billion tons
(4) 125 million tons

32) Energy flow in an ecosystem is

(1) Unidirectional
(2) Bidirectional
(3) Multidirectional
(4) All of these

33) Ecosystem term was coined by-

(1) Odum
(2) Mishra
(3) Reiter
(4) Tansley

34)

Assertion: A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as a food web.
Reason: An animal like kite cannot be part of a food web

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) The Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but, Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but, Reason is true

35) __________ is the limiting factor in ocean productivity.

(1) N
(2) P
(3) S
(4) Ca

36)

Ecological pyramids do not account for:

(1) Detritus food chains.

(2) Omnivorous feeding habits.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Only grazing food chains.

37)

Which factor can cause a pyramid of numbers to invert?

(1) Large producers (e.g., trees)
(2) Parasitic food chains
(3) High predator biomass
(4) Both (1) and (2)

38) Which one of the following ecosystem types has the highest annual net primary productivity

(1) Temperate deciduous forest

(2) Tropical rain forest
(3) Tropical deciduous forest
(4) Temperate evergreen forest

39) The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their:-

(1) Anaerobic environment around them

(2) Low cellulose content
(3) Low moisture content
(4) Poor nitrogen content

40) Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about
certain organisms at some of the different levels?

(1) Level one PP is "Pipal trees" and the level SC is "Sheep"

(2) Level PC is "rats" and level SC is "cats"
(3) Level PC is "insects" and level SC is small insectivorous birds
(4) Level PP is "Phytoplanktons" in sea and "Whale" on top level TC

41) Most animals that live in deep oceanic waters are:

(1) Detritivores
(2) Primary consumers
(3) Secondary consumers
(4) Tertiary consumers

42) Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?

(1) Grassland ecosystem

(2) Pond ecosystem
(3) Lake ecosystem
(4) Forest ecosystem

43) Secondary producers are:-

(1) Herbivores
(2) Producers
(3) Carnivores
(4) None of the above

44) Biotic and abiotic components form:-

(1) Community
(2) Ecosystem
(3) Population
(4) Species

45) In the equation GPP–R = NPP

R represents:

(1) Radiant energy

(2) Retardation factor
(3) Environment factor
(4) Respiration losses

ZOOLOGY

1)

Spleen is a large bean shaped organ which mainly contains

(1) Lymphocytes
(2) MALT
(3) Basophiles
(4) Lymph nodes

2) Find the measure that comes under maintenance of public hygiene

(1) Keeping the body clean

(2) Poor disposal of waste
(3) Observing standard practices of unhygiene in public catering
(4) Disinfection of cesspools

3) Which infectious disease have been controlled to a large extent by the use of vaccines.

(1) Tetanus
(2) Malaria
(3) Smallpox
(4) Dengue

4) Which of the following is the function of physiological barrier

(1) Protect non-infected cells

(2) Prevent microbial growth
(3) Phagocytose & destroy microbes
(4) Trapping microbes entering our body

5) AIDS was first reported in __A__ and in last __B__ years or so, it has spread all over the world
killing more than __C__ persons.

(1) A - 1971, B - 25, C - 25 billion

(2) A - 1991, B - 20, C - 25 million
(3) A - 1981, B - 25, C - 25 million
(4) A - 1971, B - 20, C - 25 billion

6) Which of the following statement is false about the structure given ?

(1) These are secreted by T - cells

(2) They have four polypeptide chains
(3) They are represented by
(4) These are found in blood so the response is termed as humoral immune response

7) Assertion (A): IgG can cross the placenta.

Reason (R): IgG is smallest form of immunoglobulin.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

8) Which of the following deadly disease is completely eradicated ?

(1) Polio
(2) Tetanus
(3) Diphtheria
(4) Small pox

9) Side effects of anabolic steroids in females include

(I) Masculinisation
(II) Decreased aggressiveness
(III) Normal menstrual cycle
(IV) Excessive hair growth on face and body
Choose the incorrect option.

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) III and IV only
(4) I and IV only

10) Drugs that are normally used as medicines to help the patients cope with mental illness are

(1) Barbiturates
(2) Cannabinoids
(3) Benzodiazepines
(4) Both (1) & (3)

11) Which among the following has all bacterial diseases?

(1) Typhoid, pneumonia, malaria, dysentery

(2) Plague, diphtheria, common cold, typhoid
(3) Pneumonia, plague, diptheria, dysentery
(4) Dysentery, plague, typhoid, filariasis

12) Statement - I: The side - effects of use of anabolic steroids may be permanent with prolonged
use.
Statement - II: Withdrawl symptoms cannot be severe and may not need medical supervision.

(1) Both Statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

13) In Autoimmunity most of the experimental immunology deals with which corollarie

(1) Memory - based innate immunity

(2) Release of chemicals from body
(3) Higher vertebrates can distinguish foreign molecules as well as foreign organisms
(4) Sensitivity of body

14) Identify the following chemical structure and choose the correct option related to it.
(1) Coca alkaloid - affects brain
(2) Morphine - acetylation of heroin
(3) Heroin - depressant and slowdown body function
(4) Cannabinoid - effect on cardiovascular system

15) Identify the incorrect side - effect of the use of anabolic steroid in males

(1) Kidney dysfunction

(2) Increase in size of testicles
(3) Acne
(4) Mood swings

16) Disease that spreads due to conscious behaviour patterns is ?

(1) CANCER
(2) Common Cold
(3) AIDS
(4) Pneumonia

17) Read the following (A-D)

(A) Avoid stagnation of water in and around residential areas.
(B) Regular cleaning of household coolers
(C) Introducing fishes like gambusia in ponds that feed on mosquito larvae.
(D) Spraying of insecticides
Above preventive measures are used to control

(1) Malaria
(2) Typhoid
(3) AIDS
(4) Both (1) and (3)

18) MALT is a lymphoid tissue located within the lining of ___________

(1) Urinogenital tract

(2) Blood vessels
(3) Lymph vessels
(4) Tract of CNS
19) Choose the incorrect statement about health

(1) Health can simply be defined as absence of disease

(2) Healthy people are more efficient at work
(3) Health increases productivity
(4) Health reduces infant and maternal mortality

20) Salmonella typhi infects

(1) Large intestine

(2) Stomach
(3) Small intestine
(4) Liver

21) The group of symptoms that is indicative of pneumonia

(1) Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots

(2) Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache
(3) Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, constipation, headache
(4) High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite, constipation

22) Choose the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) Wuchereria bancrofti causes chronic inflammation of the lymphatic vessels

(2) The pathogens of filaria are transmitted to a healthy person through houseflies
(3) Trichophyton is responsible for ringworm
(4) Common cold is a viral disease

23) Which fish is introduced in ponds that feed on mosquito larva?

(1) Rohu
(2) Catla
(3) Gambusia
(4) None of these

24) Assertion (A): The malarial parasite requires two hosts to complete its lifecycle.
Reason (R): These two hosts are human and male mosquito.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

25) A substance produced by a virus infected cell that can protect other cells from further infection
is
(1) Colostrum
(2) Serotonin
(3) Interferon
(4) Histamine

26) The chemical which is released during allergic reaction?

(1) Histamine
(2) Serotonin
(3) Steroid
(4) Both (1) and (2)

27) Rheumatoid arthritis is a/an

(1) Infectious disease

(2) Genetic disorder
(3) Auto-immune disease
(4) All of the above

28) The organ(s) that provide(s) microenvironments for the development and maturation of T-
lymphocytes is/are

(1) Bone marrow

(2) Thymus
(3) Spleen
(4) Both (1) and (2)

29) HIV that causes AIDS, first starts destroying

(1) Leucocytes
(2) Helper T-cells
(3) Thrombocytes
(4) B-lymphocytes

30) Which antibody is called as secretory antibody

(1) IgE
(2) IgA
(3) IgG
(4) IgM

31) Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is

(1) Not an infectious disease

(2) Caused by a virus
(3) Caused by a gram positive bacterium
(4) Caused by a gram negative bacterium

32) Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease

(1) Psoriasis
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Alzheimers disease
(4) Vitiligo

33) Cells sloughed off from malignant tumor move to other parts of the body to form new tumors.
This property is called

(1) Teratogenesis
(2) Metastasis
(3) Mitosis
(4) Metagenesis

34) Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes gives below.

Column I Column II

(A) Smack (1) Hallucination

(B) Cocaine (2) Depressant

(C) Datura (3) Pain killer

(D) Morphine (4) Stimulant

(1) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 3
(2) A - 3, B - 2, C - 4, D - 1
(3) A - 1, B - 3, C - 2, D - 4
(4) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

35) Among the following which motivates youngsters towards drug and alcohol abuse?

(1) Need for adventure

(2) Need for excitement
(3) Experimentation
(4) All of these

36) Cannabinoids are generally taken by

(1) Inhalation
(2) Oral ingestion
(3) Snorting
(4) Both (1) and (2)

37) Choose the incorrect statement from the following:

(1) Heroin is chemically diacetylmorphine
(2) Cannabinoids interact with cannabinoid receptors present principally in the gut
(3) Cannabinoids are taken by inhalation and oral ingestion
(4) Heroin is a depressant

38) Whose concentration is increased in blood by smoking?

(1) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

(2) Oxygen (O2)
(3) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(4) Water (H2O)

39)

Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by

(1) Anxiety
(2) Shakiness
(3) Nausea
(4) All of these

40) The pathogen specific immunity is

(1) Innate immunity

(2) Acquired immunity
(3) Physical strength
(4) None of these

41)

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS?

(1) The HIV can be transmitted through eating food together with an infected person.
(2) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV infection.
(3) AIDS patients are being fully curved with care and nutrition.
The causative organism HIV is a retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocytes thus reducing number
(4)
of T-lymphocytes.

42)

Incorrect about adolescence is

(1) It refers to the period of 12-18 years of age.

(2) It is a bridge linking childhood and adulthood.
(3) Several behavioural changes occur.
(4) Less vulnerable to psychological development.
43) Assertion (A): Most parasites are pathogens.
Reason (R): Pathogens enter host body resulting in morphological and functional damage.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

44) Statement-I: Colostrum secreted by mother has abundant IgA antibodies to protect foetus.
Statement-II: Infant receives IgG antibodies from mother through placenta.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

45) Which of the following causes hallucinations.

(I) Morphine (II) Atropa
(III) Fruits (IV) Barbiturates
(V) Seeds (VI) Several plants

(1) I, II, V, VI
(2) I, III, IV, VI
(3) II, III, V, VI
(4) II, III, IV, V
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 2 2 2 4 1 2 3 1 3 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 3 4 1 2 4 2 1 1 4 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 4 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 1 2 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 1 3 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 1 2 4 2 3 4 3 4 1 4 2 3 3 1 3 4 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 3 1 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 4 3 1 4 3 1 3 4 2 4 4 4 2 1 4 4 4 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 4 1 2 1 4 4 3 4 2 1 4 3 1 3 4 2 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 1 2 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 4 1 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 3 2 3 4 2 3 1 1 1 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 4 2 2 2 3 2 1 4 4 2 3 4 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 1 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3)

4)

E = ϕ0 + KEmax KEmax = 0.9 eV

ϕ =
ϕ0 = 3.1 eV
E = 3.1 + 0.9
E = 4 eV

E=

λ= = 3100 Å or 310 nm

5)

Stopping potential depends on the wavelength of the radiation and does not change with
distance between the source and the photoelectric cell. Intensity of illumination varies
inversely as the square of distance.

Therefore

6)

λp =

λα = =

λp = 2λα

7) Given that;
energy of photon, (E) = hv = 8 eV
threshold frequency, (v0) = 1.6 × 1015 Hz
From Einstein's photelectric equation
KEmax = hv – hv0

or
or KEmax = 8 –6.6
or KEmax = 1.4 eV
8) 100=n×

100 =
25 × 1019 = n
2.5 × 1020 = n
OR

n=

9) Energy of incident photon = 6.2 + 5 = 11.2 eV

Corresponding wave length λ = = 1107 Å

⇒ UV region

10)

11)

Conceptual.

12)

13)

14)

Conceptual.

15) ....(i)
As K.E'. = 3 K.E.

∴ λ' = ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii)

16)

17)

Conceptual.

18) or

19) For perfect reflector

pressure =

⇒ Pressure × area =

⇒ Force =

⇒ Power =

20) E = (13.6 eV) z2

=(13.6 eV) (1)2

= 12.1 eV
Using photo electric equation;
KEmax = E – Q = 12.1 – 8.1 = 4 eV
Accelerating potential of electron = 4V

= Å= Å

22) ⇒ p= = mv ⇒ v =

23)

=
= 0.48 × 10–6A
 = 0.48 µA

28) Conceptual.

30)

31) mvr =
acceleration

a=
put n = 1

32)

Angular momentum

L = mvr =
Only depends on n
and independent of Z, threfore

L1 = & L2 =

33)

% change = 10%

34) given r =

⇒2= ⇒A=8

0
35) By using R = R A1/3 ⇒

⇒ ⇒ (14)1/3 =
 ⇒ A = 56 so Z = 56 – 30 = 26

36)

Conceptual.

38) The nuclear force is charge independent.

Number of nucleons = Number of protons + number of neutrons
= Mass number
All nuclei have masses that are less than the sum of the masses of its constituents. The
difference in mass of a nucleus and its constituents is known as mass defect.
Nucleons belong to the family of hadrons while electrons belong to family of leptons.

39)

Conceptual.

40)

We know that energy is relased when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo
fusion. Therefore statement (1) is correct.
The second statement is false because for heavy nuclei the binding energy per nucleon
decreases with increasing Z and for light nuclei, B.E/nucleon increases with increasing Z.

42)

Conceptual.

43)

92 = 87 + 2x – y

CHEMISTRY

46) Question Explanation : To determine effect of the addition of sugar on the boiling and
freezing points of water.

Concept : Tb ∝ Ci

Tf ∝
So sugar (i = 1) is non-volatile solute on addition of sugar Boiling point increases and freezing
point decreases.
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

47)
 A. Question Explanation: The question asks to calculate the molality of an acetic acid solution,
given its molarity and density.

B. Given Data:

A. Molarity of acetic acid solution = 2.05 M (moles/L)

B. Density of solution = 1.02 g/mL

C. Concept:

A. Molarity (M) = moles of solute / liters of solution

B. Molality (m) = moles of solute / kilograms of solvent

C. We need to convert the given molarity and density into molality.

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Mass of 1 L of solution: Density = mass/volume. So, mass of 1 L (1000 mL) of solution =

1.02 g/mL * 1000 mL = 1020 g

B. Mass of acetic acid in 1 L solution: Molarity = moles of solute / liters of solution. So,
moles of acetic acid in 1 L = 2.05 moles. Molar mass of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) = 12 +
(3 * 1) + 12 + 16 + 16 + 1 = 60 g/mol. Mass of acetic acid = 2.05 moles * 60 g/mol =
123 g

C. Mass of water (solvent) in 1 L solution: Mass of solution = mass of solute + mass of

solvent. Mass of water = 1020 g - 123 g = 897 g = 0.897 kg

D. Molality of the solution: Molality (m) = moles of solute / kg of solvent = 2.05 moles /
0.897 kg = 2.285 mol/kg ≈ 2.28 mol/kg

E. Final Answer: The molality of the solution is approximately 2. 2.28 mol kg⁻¹.

48) Isotonic solution has same concentration at constant temperature.

So,

49) (PT)ideal =
 = 32 + 72 = 104
P < Pideal

50)

m + 40 =
m = 10g

51) For minimum freezing point, Van't Hoff factor will be maximum.

52)

53) ΔTb = i × Kb × m
(1) (ΔTb)urea = Kb × 0.015
(2) = Kb × 0.01 × 2
(3) = Kb × 0.1 × 3
(4) = Kb × 0.015

54)

ΔTb = i Kb × m = 3 × .52 × = .156

55) π ∝ i

56) The mixture will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law since boiling point of an
azeotropic mixture of water-ethanol is less than that of both water and ethanol.

58)
 59) Question Explanation : Match list-I with list-II and Choose the Correct option in the
given below.

Concept : (A) π = icRT ⇒ Osmotic Pressure of solution.

(B) Δ Tf = iKf m ⇒ Depression in freezing point of solvent
(C) Δ Tb = iKb m ⇒ elevation of boiling of Solvent

(D) Relative lowering in vapour pressure of solvent.

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

60) Ncert, class 12th, part-1, Article No: 1.6.4, Pg No: 21, 22. Edition: 2023-24.

61)

Question Asking About:

Ar< CO2 < CH4 < HCHO

62)

Ps = 120 – 80 XB
For pure B, XB = 1, Ps = p°B = 40

For pure A, XB = 0, Ps = p°A = 120

63) Solution/Explanation:

Final answer = yA > yB

Hence the correct answer is option (1)

64)

i > 1 (for dissociation)

i < 1 (for association)
65)

Question is asking about :-

Vant hoff factor with Dissociation

Given :-
0.1M Ba(NO3)2
i = 2.74

Concept :-

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :-

= 0.87
∝ = 87%

Hence the correct answer is option (2)

66)

Ncert, Class 12th, part-1,

Article No: 1.3.2,
Pg No: 8, Edition - 2023-2024

67)

sec–1, M sec–1

68) N2(g) + 3H2(g) —→ 2NH3(g)

69)
t = 0 100 mm 0 0 ( )

At equilibrium

Rate of disappearance of
= 8 mm min–1

70) ΔH = Ef – Eb
–200 = 80–Eb
Eb = 280 kJ/mol

71) t75% = 2 × t50%

⇒ t50% = = 16 min

72) The slowest step is rate determining

∴ Rate = k2[Q][P] …(i)
[Q] should be eliminated as it is not present in overall reaction:

[Q] = K1[P] ...(ii)

From eqns. (i) and (ii),
Rate = K1k2[P]2

73) Ncert, class 12th, part-1, Article No: 1.6.4, Pg No: 22, 23. Edition: 2023 - 24.

74)

r = k[A]x[B]y ...(1)
from experimental data of I & II ; order with respect to A is 1
from experimental data of II & III ; order with respect to B is 2

75)

76) Arrhenious equation. Rate constant K = Ae–Ea/RT

77) where n = order of reaction

n = 1 first order : t1/2 =

(Independent of initial concentration of reactant)
n = 2 second order :
(Dependent on initial concentration of reactant)

78)

A(g) → B(g) + C(g) Total pressure

t0 pi 0 0 pi
t pi–x x x pt = Pi – x + x + x
pt = pi + x
x = (pt – pi)
a ∝ pi
(a–x) ∝ Pi –(pt –pi)
∝ (2pi – pt)
For first order reaction :

79) For every 10ºC rise of temperature, rate is doubled. Thus, temperature coefficient of the
reaction = 2
When temperature is increased by 50ºC, rate becomes
= 2(50/10) = 25 times = 32 times

80) Rate constant of any reaction does not depend on concentration of reactant.

81) The order of a reaction can have fractional value. The order of a reaction cannot be written
from balanced equation of a reaction because its value changes with pressure, temperature,
and concentration. It can only be determined experimentally.

82)

r = K[A]2 [B]1
Volume is Halved
Conc, become double

83)

Ncert, Class12th , Part-I, Article No:3.3.3, [Link] , Edition:2023-2024.

84)

log k = log A –

slope =
85) Explanation :
To find the activation energy of a reaction given that its rate doubles when the temperature is
increases from 300 k to 310 k.

Given Data :
T1 = 300 k, T2 = 310 k
R = 8.314 Jk–1 mol–1
log2 = 0.301

Concept :

Calculation :

Ea = 53.6 kJ mol–1
Final answer : 53.6 kJ mol–1

Correct option is (1)

86)

According to Arhenius equation when Ea = 0, K = A

87) Explanation :
For zero order reaction, two statements are given and correct option is to be found.

Concept :
For zero order reaction :
[A]t = [A]0 – kt
kt = [A]0 – [A]t

k=
Rate law for zero order reaction :
rate = k

Unit of rate = unit of k =

Both statements are correct.

Final answer : Both statement I and statement II are correct.

Correct option is (3)

88) [A]t = [A0] – kt
[A]t = 0.5 – (0.025 × 15)
[A]t = 0.125 M

89)

(a) zero order

[A]t = [A]0–kt
y = C + mx

(b) zero order

y = mx

(c) zero order

r=K
y = constant

(d)
 90)

BOTANY

91)

Ncert page 248.

92)

Ncert page 243.

93)

Ncert page 248 and 249.

94)

Ncert page 248.

95)

Ncert page 249.

96)

Allen module.

97)

Ncert page 242.

98)

Ncert page 245 to 247.

99)

Ncert page 243.

100)

Ncert page 243.

101)

Ncert page 246.

102)

Ncert page 243.

103)

Ncert page 249.

104)

Ncert page 245.

105)

Ncert page 247.

106)

Ncert page 245.

107)

Ncert page 241.

108)

Ncert page 245 and 246.

109)

Ncert page 249.

110)
Ncert page 246.

111)

Ncert page 243.

112)

Ncert page 245.

113)

Ncert page 245.

114)

Allen module.

115)

Ncert page 243.

116)

Ncert page 243.

117)

Ncert page 248.

118)

Ncert page 242.

119)

Ncert page 244.

120)

Ncert page 243.

121)

Ncert page 243.

122)

Ncert page 245.

123)

Allen module.

125)

Ncert page 243.

126)

Pyramids often ignore detritus-based energy flow and omnivores that feed at multiple trophic
levels.

127)

Single tree → Thousands of insects (inverts pyramid).

One host → Many parasites (e.g., ticks on a deer).

128)

Allen module.

129)

Allen module.

130)

Allen module.

131)

Allen module.

132)

Allen module.

133)

Allen module.
 134)

Allen module.

135)

Allen module.

ZOOLOGY

136)

Ncert page 138.

137) Ncert Pg No: 133

138) Ncert Pg No: 134

139) Ncert Pg No: 134

140) Ncert Pg No: 138

141) Ncert Pg No: 135

142) Ncert Pg No: 136

143) Ncert Pg No: 134

144) Ncert Pg No: 146

145) Ncert Pg No: 143

146) Ncert Pg No: 131

147) Ncert Pg No: 145, 146

148) Ncert Pg No: 137

149) Ncert Pg No: 143

150) Ncert Pg No: 146

151) Ncert Pg No: 139

152) Ncert Pg No: 134

153) Ncert Pg No: 138

154) Ncert page 130.

155) Ncert page 130.

156) Ncert page 131.

157) Ncert page 131 and 133.

158) Ncert page 134.

159) Ncert page 132.

160) Ncert page 135.

161) Ncert page 137.

162) Ncert page 137.

163) Ncert page 138.

164) Ncert page 140.

165) Allen module.

166) Allen module.

167) Allen module.

168) Ncert page 141.

169) Ncert page 142 and 143.

170) Ncert page 144.

171) Ncert page 143.

172) Ncert page 142 and 143.

173) Ncert page 144.

174) Ncert page 145.

175) Ncert page 135.

176)

NCERT

177)

NCERT

178) Ncert page 146.

179) Ncert page 152.

180) Ncert page 159.