03-09-2025

2302CMD303031250010 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find moment of inertia of the system for axis in the plane :-

(1) 14 kg m2
(2) 12 kg m2
(3) 10 kg m2
(4) None

2) A circular disc has a mass of 1 kg and radius 40 cm. It is rotating about an axis passing through
its centre and prependicular to its plane with a speed of 10 rev/s. The work done in joules in
stopping it would be :-

(1) 4
(2) 47.5
(3) 79
(4) 158

3) In the following figure r1 and r2 are 5 cm and 30 cm respectively. If the moment of inertia of the

wheel is 5100 kg-m2 then its angular acceleration will be :-

(1) 10–4 rad/s2

(2) 10–3 rad/s2
(3) 10–2 rad/s2
(4) 10–1 rad/s2

4) A force act on O the origin. Then torque about point (1, –1) is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) A solid cylinder of mass 2 kg is rolling on a horizontal surface with a velocity 5 m/s collides with a
horizontal spring of force constant 300 N/m. The maximum compression produced in the spring is :

(1) 0.2 m
(2) 0.3 m
(3) 0.4 m
(4) 0.5 m

6) Two rings each of mass M and radius R, are placed with common center such that their planes are
mutually perpendicular. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis through the center and
perpendicular to plane of one of the ring is :

(1)
MR2
(2) MR2

(3)
MR2
(4) 2 MR2

7) A wheel starts from rest and rotates with a constant angular acceleration of 2.0 rad/s2. The
number of revolutions made by wheel in 10 s is nearly :

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 16
(4) 20

8) A fan is rotating with a speed of 450 rev/minute. After being switched off it comes to rest in 10s.
Assuming constant angular deceleration, calculate the number of revolutions made by it before
coming to rest.

(1) 37.5
(2) 37
(3) 38.5
(4) None of these

9) Three identical rods each of length l are joined to form a rigid triangle. Its radius of gyration
about an axis passing through a corner and perpendicular to the plane of triangle is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Two circular loops A and B of radii R and 2R respectively are made of the similar wire. Their
moment of inertia about the axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to their plane are

IA and IB respectively. The ratio is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

11) A particle is moving in circle with uniform speed as shown. The angular momentum of the
particle w.r.t. origin is :-

(1) Constant in magnitude only

(2) Constant in magnitude as well as direction
(3) Constant in direction only
(4) Variable in magnitude as well as direction

12) A torque of 30 N-m is acting on a wheel of mass 5 kg and moment of inertia 2 kg-m2. If wheel
starts rotating from rest then its angular displacement in 10 seconds will be-

(1) 750 rad

(2) 1500 rad
(3) 3000 rad
(4) 6000 rad

13) Two bodies with moments of inertia I1 and I2 (I1 > I2) have equal angular momenta. If their
kinetic energies of rotation are E1 and E2, respectively, then :-
(1) E1 = E2
(2) E1 < E2
(3) E1 > E2
(4) E1 ≥ E2

14) A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless
string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial angular acceleration of the

rod is :-

(1) g/L
(2) 2g/L

(3)

(4)

15) A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v making an angle of 45° with the horizontal.
The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about point of projection when the particle is
at maximum height is :-

(1) 0

(2)

(3)

(4) m

16) A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity v. It reaches up
to a maximum height of 5v2/6g with respect to the initial position. The object is :-

(1) Ring
(2) Solid sphere
(3) Hollow sphere
(4) Disc

17) If a particle of mass m is moving with constant velocity v parallel to the x-axis in the x-y plane as
shown in the figure. Its angular momentum with respect to origin at any time t will be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) A rod of mass M and length L is hinged at point P and is acted upon by force as shown in figure

:- Angular acceleration of rod will be :-

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A particle of mass m moves in the X-Y plane with a constant velocity v along the straight line AB.
If the angular momentum of the particle with respect to origin O is LA, when it is at A and LB, when it

is at B, then :

(1) LA = LB
(2) LA > LB
(3) LA < LB
(4) None of these

20) Find out moment of Inertia of system about given AOR (Axis of rotation).
(1) 20 kg–m2
(2) 9 kg–m2
(3) 29 kg–m2
(4) 13 kg–m2

21) A solid sphere is rotating about a diameter at an angular velocity ω. If it cools so that its radius

reduces to of its original value, its angular velocity becomes -

(1)

(2)

(3) nω
(4) n2ω

22) A disc of mass m is thrown in horizontal direction on a rough horizontal surface with a speed v0.

The speed of the disc when it starts pure rolling is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Two discs of same moment of inertia (I) are rotating about their central axis passing through
centre and perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular velocities ω1 and ω2 in opposite direction.
They are brought into contact face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The loss of energy during
the process is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) If angular velocity v/c time curve of a rotating body is represented by fig. than variation of

angular acceleration with time is properly represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The angular velocity of a particle is given by ω = 1.5t – 3t2 + 2. Find the time when it's angular
acceleration becomes zero:

(1) t = 1 s
(2) t = 0.25 s
(3) t = 2 s
(4) t = 0 s

26) A particle of mass m has been thrown up with initial speed u making an angle θ with the
horizontal. Find the torque of its weight about the point of projection when it just reached the
highest point.

(1) mu sinθ·cosθ
(2) mu2 sin θ cos θ
(3)

(4)

27)

Two point particle of mass 2 kg and 3 kg are placed at distance 5 meter. Find moment of inertia
about the axis passing through their center of mass and perpendicular to the line joining them.

(1) 10 kg-m2
(2) 20 kg-m2
(3) 30 kg-m2
(4) 40 kg-m2

28) Find the magnitude of acceleration of blocks if there is enough friction which prevent slipping
between pulley and threads.

(1) 1m/s2
(2) g/2m/s2
(3) g/3m/s2
(4) g/5m/s2

29) A cord is wound round the circumference of the wheel of radius r. The axis of wheel is
horizontal and moment of inertia about its centre is I. A weight mg is attached to the cord at the end.
The weight falls from rest, after falling through a distance h, the angular velocity of the wheel will
be :-

(1)

(2)
`

(3)

(4)

30) Two identical cylinders roll from rest on two identical planes of slant lengths S and 2S but of the
same height h. Then the velocities V1 and V2 acquired by the cylinders when they reach the bottom of
the incline are related as:–
(1) V1 = V2
(2) V1 = 2V1
(3) 2V1 = V2
(4) None of the above

31) A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is mounted on an axle supported in frictionless bearings.
A light cord is wrapped around the rim of the disc and a steady downward pull T is exerted on the

cord. The angular acceleration of the disc is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32)

A round uniform body of radius R, mass M and moment of inertia 'I', rolls down (without slipping )
an inclined plane making an angle 'θ' with the horizontal. The acceleration is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Two rigid rods of length 2L is acted upon by some forces. All forces labelled F have same
magnitude. Which case has a non-zero net torque acting on rod about its centre?
(1) I only
(2) II only
(3) I and II both
(4) None

34) The M.I. of a body about the given axis is 1.2 kgm2. Initially the body is at rest. In order to
produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1500 joule an angular acceleration of 25 rad/sec2 must be
applied about that axis for a duration of :

(1) 4 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 10 sec

35)

From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M. a small disc of radius is removed. The moment of
Inertia of the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to plane of disc and passing through O is :

(1) 4MR2

(2)

(3) 10 MR2

(4)

36) A flywheel of moment of inertia 0.32 kg-m2 is rotated steadily at by a electric

motor. The kinetic energy of the flywheel is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

37) Figure shows a rigid rod of negligible mass and length 1.0 m. It is pivoted at O. For what value
m, the rod will be in equilibrium? Find the force (F) exerted on the rod by the pivot. Neglect the

weight of the rod.

(1) m = 4/3 kg, F = 100/3 N

(2) m = 2/3 kg, F = 100/3 N
(3) m = 4/3 kg, F = 50/3 N
(4) Data insufficient

38) Three rings each of mass M and radius R are arranged as shown in the figure. The moment of
inertia of the system about AB

(1) 3MR2

(2)

(3) 5MR2

(4)

39) In the adjoining figure, a weight W is attached to a string wrapped round a solid cylinder of mass
M mounted on a frictionless horizontal axle at O. If the weight starts from rest and falls a distance h,

then its speed at that instant is:

(1) Proportional to R

(2)
Proportional to

(3)
Proportional to
(4) Independent of R
40) A disc is rolling (without slipping0 on a frictionless surface. C is its center and Q and P are two
points equidistant from C. Let VP, VQ and VC be the magnitudes of velocities of points P, Q and C

respectively, then:

(1) VQ > VC > VP

(2) VQ < VC < VP

(3)
VQ = VP, VC =
(4) VQ < VC > VP

41) A circular wooden loop of mass m and radius R rests flat on a horizontal frictionless surface. A
bullet, also of mass m, and moving with a velocity V, strikes the loop and gets embedded in it. The
thickness of the loop is much smaller than R. The angular velocity with which the system rotates just

after the bullet strikes the loop is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A uniform sphere is placed on a smooth horizontal surface and a horizontal force F is applied on
it at a distance h above the centre. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the sphere

(1) is maximum when h = 0

(2) is maximum when h = R
(3) is maximum when h = R/2
(4) is independent of h

43) Find wrong statement :–

(I) Radius of gyration depends on mass of the object as well as distribution of mass
(II) Radius of gyration depends only on mass of the object
(III) Radius of gyration depends only on distribution of mass
(IV) Radius of gyration depends on angular velocity of the object

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) I, II, IV
(4) III, IV

44) The minimum value of F for which the cube(a) begins to topple about an edge is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) mg

45) If the block shown in the figure is in equilibrium, under the action of an external force. Then

choose the correct free body diagram of the block :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

CHEMISTRY

1) The reaction 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3 + Heat, will be favoured by :-

(1) High temperature and low pressure

(2) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) High temperature and high pressure
(4) Low temperature and low pressure

2) What is the unit of Kp for the reaction :-

Cs2(g) + 4H2(g) CH4(g) + 2H2S(g)

(1) atm
(2) atm–2
(3) atm2
(4) atm–1

3) Consider the reactions.

(i) 2CO2(g) + 2H2(g) 2CO(g) + 2H2O(g) ; K1
(ii) CO(g) + 3H2(g) CH4(g) + H2O(g) ; K2
(iii) CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) CO2(g) + 4H2(g) ; K3
Which of the following relation is correct :-

(1)

(2) K3 = K1 × K2
(3)

(4)

4) In a 0.25 litre container dissociation of 4 moles of NO takes place. If its degree of dissociation is
10% then Kp for reaction 2NO N2 + O2 is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

5) 1 mole of each reactant and product is taken for following reaction. If Kc = , find out mole
percentage of H2(g) at equilibrium. CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g)

(1) 80%
(2) 10%
(3) 20%
(4) 50%

6) For a chemical reaction A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g) if initially 1 mole of each substance (reactant and
product) are taken and at equilibrium, mole fraction of C is twice that of B. The equilibrium constant
Kp for the reaction is

(1) 8
(2) 8/3
(3) 4
(4) 1

7) At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant (Kp) for the decomposition reaction, N2O4
2NO2 is expressed by Kp = 4x2P/(1–x2) where P is pressure, x is degree of dissociation. Which of the
following statement is true ?

(1) Kp increases with increase of P

(2) Kp increases with increase of x
(3) Kp increases with decrease of x
(4) Kp remain constant with change in P or x

8) An exothermic reaction is represented by graph :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which of the following factors will be favourable for higher yields of NO in the reaction give
below?
N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

(1) Low temperature, high pressure and high concentration of N2 and O2

High temperature and high concentration of N2 and O2. The reaction remains unaffected by
(2)
pressure.
(3) High temperature, low pressure and low concentration of N2 and O2
(4) Low temperature, high concentration of N2 and O2 and reaction remains unaffected by pressure.

10) At constant temperature and 1 atm pressure, PCl5 dissociate 2% then at what pressure PCl5
dissociate 4% :-
(Use PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl(g))

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) When sulphur is heated at 800 K, there exists an equilibrium S8(g) ⇌ 4S2(g). The initial pressure
of 1 atm. falls by 20% at equilibrium. Find the value of KP for the above reaction

(1) 0.512 atm3

(2) 2.50 atm3
(3) 1.20 atm3
(4) 3.24 atm3

12) The equilibrium constant for the esterification reaction of acetic acid and ethyl alcohol at 100°C
is 4. What percentage of alcohol has been esterified ?

(1) 45%
(2) 20%
(3) 54%
(4) 66%

13) N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2, Kc = 4. This reversible reaction is studied graphically as shown in the given figure.

Select the correct statements out of I, II and III I. Reaction quotient has
maximum value at point A
II. Reaction proceeds left to right at a point when [N2O4] = [NO2] = 0.1M
III. Kc = Q when point D or F is reached

(1) I, II
(2) II, III
(3) I, III
(4) I, II, III

14) In the following equilibrium :–

I. A + 2B ⇌ C ; K1
II. C + D ⇌ 3A ; K2
III. 6B + D ⇌ 2C ; K3 hence :-

(1) 3K1 × K2 = K3
3 2
(2) K1 × K2 = K3
2
(3) 3K1 × K2 = K3
3
(4) K1 × K2 = K3

15) Consider the following reactions (in gaseous phase) in equilibrium with equilibrium
concentrations 0.1 M of every species :-
(I) 2SO2 + O2 ⇌ 2SO3 ;
(II) N2 + 3H2 ⇌ 2NH3 ;
(III) N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2 ;
(IV) 4NO + 6H2O ⇌ 4NH3 + 5O2
Extent of reaction in forward direction will be in order :
(1) I = II ≡ III = IV
(2) I = II = III < IV
(3) III < I = IV < II
(4) IV < III < I < II

16) The preparation of SO3(g) by reaction SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ SO3(g) is an exothermic reaction. If the
preparation follows the following temperature-pressure relationship for its % yield, then for

temperatures T1, T2 and T3. The correct option is :-

(1) T3 > T2 > T1

(2) T1 > T2 > T3
(3) T1 = T2 = T3
(4) Nothing could be predicted about temperature through given information.

17) For the dissociation reaction :

NH4HS(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + H2S(g)
if KP = 25 atm2; then the total equilibrium pressure of the system is :-

(1) 25 atm
(2) 5 atm
(3) 10 atm
(4) 15 atm

18)

Match the following columns :

Column-II
Column-I (Relation
(Chemical reaction) between
KP and KC)

(i) C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g) (a) KP = KC

(ii) N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g) (b) KP = KC(RT)

(iii) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)

–1
(c) KP = KC(RT)

(iv) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2SO3(g) (d) KP = KC(RT)

–2

(1) (i)–(b), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c)

(2) (i)–(d), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(b), (iv)–(c)
(3) (i)–(a), (ii)–(b), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(c)
(4) (i)–(c), (ii)–(a), (iii)–(d), (iv)–(b)

19) Which graph represent rate of reaction curve at equilibrium?

[rf = rate of forward reaction, rb = rate of backward reaction]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) For NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g) reaction started only with NH4HS(s), the observed pressure
for reaction mixture in equilibrium is 1.2 atm at 106°C. What is the value of Kp for the reaction ?

(1) 1.44 atm2

(2) 0.36 atm2
(3) 0.16 atm2
(4) 3.6 atm2

21) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

V.D. of above mixture is 80. Find degree of dissociation -

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.1
22) A vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the CO2 is converted into
CO on the addition of graphite. If the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, the value of K is:

(1) 1.8 atm

(2) 3 atm
(3) 0.3 atm
(4) 0.18

23) For the reaction : PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the forward reaction at constant temperature is
favoured by :-
(a) Introducing inert gas at constant pressure
(b) Introducing inert gas at constant volume
(c) Introducing PCl5 at constant volume
(d) Introducing Cl2 at constant volume

(1) a, b
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, d

24) Assuming the reaction A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ C(g) to be exothermic, the yield of the product (C)
increases with :-
(a) Increase of temperature
(b) Increase of pressure
(c) Addition of catalyst
(d) Addition of inert gas at constant volume
(e) Removal of (C)

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) Only b
(3) b & e
(4) a & e

25) Densities of diamond and graphite are 3.5 and 2.3 g/mL. C (diamond) C (graphite) ΔrH =
–1.9 kJ/mole
favourable conditions for formation of diamond are

(1) high pressure and low temperature

(2) low pressure and high temperature
(3) high pressure and high temperature
(4) low pressure and low temperature

26) The equilibrium constant of a reaction is 20.0. At equilibrium, the rate constant of forward
reaction is 10. The rate constant for backward reaction is :

(1) 0.5
(2) 2.0
(3) 10.0
(4) 200.0

27) Which of the following solutions will have pH = 10 at 298 K?

(1) 1 × 10–10 M HCl solution

(2) 1 × 10–4 M NaOH solution
(3) 1 × 10–10 M NaOH solution
(4) Both (1) and (2)

28) The pH of Decinormal monoacidic base (BOH) whose degree of ionisation is 1% is :-

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 11
(4) 13

–8
29) What is the hydronium ion concentration of 0.25 M HA solution ? (Ka = 4 × 10 )

(1) 10–4
(2) 10–5
(3) 10–7
(4) 10–10

30) Consider the following salts. Which one(s) when dissolved in water will produce an acidic
solution?
a. NH4Cl b. KHSO4
c. NaCN d. KNO3

(1) b and c
(2) a and b
(3) only c
(4) b and d

31)

Which of the following solutions cannot act as a buffer system ?

(1) KH2PO4/H3PO4
(2) NaClO4/HClO4
+ –
(3) C5H5N/C5H5N HCl
(4) Na2CO3/NaHCO3

32)

Which of the following combinations will make a buffer solutions ?

(i) CH3COONa (2 mol) + HCl (1 mol)
(ii) CH3COOH (2 mol) + NaOH (1 mol)
(iii) CH3COOH (1 mol) + CH3COONa (1 mol)

(1) (iii)
(2) (i), (ii)
(3) (ii), (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii)

33)

Which of the following is a Bronsted acid ?

(i) HCN (ii) H2PO4–
(iii) NH4+ (iv) HCl

(1) (i), (iii)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii)
(4) (i), (iii),(iv)

34) A beer has a pH of 4.30. What is the [H3O+]?

(1) 3.0 × 10–4

(2) 2.0 × 10–4
(3) 2.0 × 10–5
(4) 5.0 × 10–5

35) 0.01 M HA (aq.) is 2% ionized; [OH–] of solution is :

(1) 2 × 10–4
(2) 10–8
(3) 5 × 10–11
(4) 5 × 10–12

36) The degree of ionisation of weak electrolyte increases on :-

(1) on increasing the concentration of solute

(2) on decreasing the temperature
(3) on addition of water
(4) both (1) and (3)

37) Basic strength of NH4OH in presence of NH4Cl

(1) Increases
(2) Remains unchanged
(3) Decreases
(4) Some times increases or sometimes decreases

38) What happens when some acid is added into water ?

(1) pH decreases and pKw increases

(2) pH decreases and pKw also decreases
(3) pH decreases and pKw remains same
(4) pH increases and pKw remains same

39) When 2 moles of HCl is added to 1 litre of an acidic buffer, its pH changes from 3.4 to 2.9. The
buffer capacity of the buffer solution is

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 4
(4) 8

40) Degree of ionization of water (in percentage) at 298 K is :

(1) 1.8 × 10–7

(2) 0.8 × 10–9
(3) 3.6 × 10–7
(4) 3.6 × 10–9

41) 2 mole of H2SO4 and 1 mole of HNO3 are present in 10 litre of aqueous solution, pH of mixture is
:-

(1) 0.30
(2) 1.30
(3) 2.30
(4) 3.30

42) The pH of the solution containing 20 mL of a 0.1 M NaOH and 20 mL of 0.05 M H2SO4 would be -

(1) Zero
(2) 1
(3) > 7
(4) 7

43) For weak electrolyte AB, the degree of ionization would be (V = volume of solution (in L) having
1 mole of electrolyte and K is the ionization constant of the electrolyte).

(1)

(2) KV
(3)

(4)

44) An example of a strong electrolyte is.

(1) Glucose
(2) Urea
(3) Ammonium hydroxide
(4) Sodium formate

45) The hydroxide ion concentration of a wine is 8 × 10–11 M. What is the pH of the wine ?

(1) 2.1
(2) 2.9
(3) 3.9
(4) 10.1

BOTANY

1) Select false statement from followings for root ?

(1) Roots have lateral branches that arises endogenously

(2) Roots may give rise to leaves
(3) Roots provide anchorage to plant
(4) Roots do not have node & internode

2) Which of the following pair of plants belongs to family solanaceae ?

(1) Petunia, Lupin

(2) Chilli, Sunhemp
(3) Garlic, Mustard
(4) Chilli, Petunia

3)

Match the following :-

(I) Monodelphous (A) Citrus
(II) Diadelphous (B) China rose

(III) Polyadelphous (C) Pea

(1) I – A, II – B, III – C
(2) I – B, II – C, III – A
(3) I – C, II – B, III – A
(4) I – B, II – A, III – C
4) Choose correct option by giving diagram:

(1) C- vexillary, D- Quincuncial , E- Imbricate

(2) C- vexillary , D- Imbricate , E- Valvate
(3) C-Valvate , D-Twisted, E-Imbricate
(4) C- Imbricate , D- vexillary , E-Valvate

5) Ray florets of sunflower have

(1) Superior ovary

(2) Hypogynous ovary
(3) Inferior ovary
(4) Half inferior ovary

6) Choose the correct match for A,B,C & D

Column I Column II Column III

(i) A Meristematic Zone Absorption of water

(ii) B Elongation Zone Maximum growth

(iii) C Maturation Zone Absorption of water

(iv) D Root Cap Protection

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

7) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower it is always :-

(1) Solitary
(2) Axillary
(3) Cymose
(4) Recemose

8) In which given following diagram which shows superior ovary

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) In the monocot flower, the non essential parts are called :-

(1) Calyx
(2) Corolla
(3) Perianth
(4) Epicalyx

10)
Choose correct example for above given figure.

(1) China rose, mustard

(2) Gauva, Calotropis
(3) Alstonia
(4) Neem, Mango
11)
Choose the incorrect statement with respect to the above given figure.
(a) In this inflorescence main axis terminate into a flower.
(b) There is a limited growth.
(c) Flowers are borne in a acropetal order.
(d) Shown by Solanum.

(1) b, c
(2) only c
(3) c, d
(4) b, c, d

12) What is wrong statement about given seed?

(1) Outer proteinous covering of endosperm is Aleurone layer

(2) Large and shield shaped cotyledon in monocot embryo known as scutellum
(3) Generally these seeds are endospermic
(4) The radicle are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleoptile

13) The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of :-

(1) Rose
(2) Papaver
(3) Aloe
(4) Mustard

14)

Potato, Tomato, Brinjal, Mustard, Cauliflower, Pea, Neel

belongs to how many genera :-

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two
15) The coconut water and edible part represents :

(1) Epicarp
(2) Mesocarp
(3) Endocarp
(4) Endosperm

16) In racemose type of inflorescence the main axis continue to grow the flower are borne laterally
in an ____

(1) Basipetal succession

(2) Acropetal succession
(3) Centripetal succession
(4) Centrifugal order

17) In given following figure identify type of placentation

(1) Axile
(2) Free central
(3) Basal
(4) Superficial

18) Venation is a term used to describe the pattern of arrangement of

(1) Floral organs

(2) Flowers in inflorescence
(3) Veins and veinlets in a lamina
(4) All of them

19) Presence of tetradynamous condition and false septum i.e. replum are the feature of family :-

(1) Solanaceae
(2) Brassicaceae
(3) Liliaceae
(4) Fabaceae
20) Given floral diagram is related to which of the following floral formula ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Which is correct pair with respect to their edible part :-

(1) Tomato – Thalamus

(2) Mango – Seed
(3) Apple – Thalamus
(4) Banana – Epicarp

22) The innermost layer of the cortex is called :-

(1) Endodermis
(2) Pericycle
(3) Pith
(4) Hypodermis

23) Which of the following statements is true :-

(1) In monocot plants, collenchyma occurs below epidermis

(2) Sclerenchyma is dead and thus without protoplasts
(3) Xylem parenchyma is living, thin-walled with lignification on cell wall
(4) Campanion cells are specialized sclerenchyma cells

24)

Which among the following are components of xylem tissue :-

(A) Sieve tube
(B) Tracheids
(C) Vessels
(D) Parenchyma
(E) Collenchyma
(F) Sclerenchyma
(1) A, B, C only
(2) B, C, D and F
(3) A, B, D, E and F
(4) B, C, D, E and F

25) In roots.

(1) Primary xylem condition is endarch

(2) Protoxylem lies towards the centre
(3) Metaxylem lies towards the periphery
(4) Primary xylem condition is exarch.

26) Observe the figure and select correct combination of labelled 'A' structure :-

(1) Phloem parenchyma: Site of food storage

(2) Xylem fibre: have thickened wall and narrow lumen
(3) Companion cell: help in maintaining the pressure gradient in sieve tubes
(4) Sieve tube element: conduct water & nutrients

27) Sheathing leaf base is found in :-

(1) Legumes
(2) Monocots
(3) Dicots
(4) Angiosperms

28) Outside to inside the layer of monocot root are:

(1) Endodermis – Epidermis – Cortex – Pith – Vascular Bundle – Pericycle

(2) Epidermis – Cortex – Endodermis – Pericycle – Vascular Bundle – Pith
(3) Pith – Vascular Bundle – Epidermis – Cortex – Endodermis – Pericycle
(4) Cortex – Endodermis – Epidermis – Pericycle – Vascular Bundle – Pith

29) Identify the plant structure on the basis of given statements

(a) Cortex is made up of several layers of thin walled parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces
(b) Endodermis is made up of single layer of barrel-shaped cells without any intercellular spaces.
(c) Pith is small or inconspicuous
(d) Two to four xylem and phloem patches are present
(1) Monocot stem
(2) Dicot stem
(3) Monocot root
(4) Dicot root

30) Given below is the diagram of a stomatal apparatus. In which of the following all the four parts

labelled as A, B, C and D are correctly identified ?

A B C D

Guard Stomatal Subsidiary Epidermal

(1)
cell aperture cell cell

Epidermal Guard Stomatal Subsidiary

(2)
cell cell aperture cell

Epidermal Subsidiary Stomatal Guard

(3)
cell cell aperture cell

Subsidiary Epidermal Guard Stomatal

(4)
cell cell cell aperture
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) In given diagram A, B, C and D is :

(1) (A) Endocarp (B) Mesocarp (C) Edpicarp (D) Seed

(2) (A) Pericarp (B) Mesocarp (C) Endocarp (D) Seed
(3) (A) Epicarp (B) Mesocarp (C) Seed (D) Endocarp
(4) (A) Pericarp (B) Mesocarp (C) Seed (D) Endocarp

32) Which of the following statements is correct about stomata :

(1) Present in the epidermis of leaves

(2) Regulate the process of transpiration and gaseous exchange
(3) In grasses the guard cells are dum bell shaped
(4) All of these

33) In stems.

(1) Protoxylem lies towards the centre (pith)

(2) Metaxylem lies towards the periphery of the organs
(3) Primary xylem condition is endarch
(4) All the above

34) Statement-1: In Dicot stem pith is small and inconspicuous.

Statement-2: In Dicot leaves mesophyll differentiated into palisade and spongy tissue.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct

(2) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect

35) A tissue is a group of cells having a.

(1) Common origin and always a common function

(2) Common origin and always a different function
(3) Common origin and usually a common function
(4) Different origin and a different function

36)
These three types of vascular bundles (A,B & C) are present in :-

(1) Root, stem, leaf

(2) Stem, root, leaf
(3) Monocot stem & leaf, dicot root, monocot leaf
(4) Root, monocot stem & leaf, dicot stem.

37) Given below is the diagram of T.S. of dicot stem. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and
select the right option about them :-

A B C D

Inter fascicular
(1) Collenchyma Pericycle Protoxylem
cambium

Intra fascicular
(2) Collenchyma Pericycle Protoxylem
cambium

Intra fascicular
(3) Parenchyma Pericycle Protoxylem
cambium

Inter fascicular
(4) Parenchyma Endodermis Metaxylem
cambium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) A diagram of T.S. of dicot root is given. Select the option which correctly labels A, B, C, D and E.

A B C D E
1 Protoxylem Metaxylem Phloem Pericycle Endodermis
2 Metaxylem Protoxylem Phloem Pericycle Endodermis
3 Protoxylem Metaxylem Phloem Endodermis Pericycle
4 Metaxylem Protoxylem Phloem Endodermis Pericycle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39)

Study the following diagram carefully and identify the A, B and C :-

 A B C

Intra
(1) Xylem fascicular Phloem
cambium

Intra
(2) Phloem Xylem fascicular
cambium

Intra
(3) Xylem Phloem fascicular
cambium

Intra
(4) Phloem fascicular Xylem
cambium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) Choose correct option by observing given below tissue :

a– Cellulose, lignin, hemicellulose thickening

b– Occurs in layers below the epidermis in dicot plant
c– Simple permanent tissue
d– May contain chloroplast
e– Dead mechanical tissue

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, d and e
(4) a, c, d and e

41) Given below is the diagrammatic view of a monocot leaf. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D
and select the right option about them.
 Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D
Abaxial Adaxial Leaf
(1) Xylem
epidermis epidermis mesophyll
Adaxial Abaxial Leaf
(2) Xylem
epidermis epidermis mesophyll
Adaxial Abaxial Leaf
(3) Phloem
epidermis epidermis mesophyll
Abaxial Adaxial Leaf
(4) Phloem
epidermis epidermis mesophyll
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) Vascular bundles in monocotyledons are considered closed because

(1) cambium is absent

(2) there are no vessels with perforations
(3) xylem is surrounded all around by phloem
(4) a bundle sheath surrounds each bundle

43)

Which of the following statement is correct w.r.t. bulliform cells?

(1) Present on abaxial epidermis

(2) Large, coloured cells
(3) Present in monocot leaves
(4) Present on adaxial epidermis of dicot leaves

44) In dorsiventral leaves, the location of xylem and spongy parenchyma is towards-

(1) Abaxial
(2) Adaxial
(3) Adaxial and abaxial surface respectively
(4) Abaxial and adaxial surface respectively

45) Given below is the diagram of transverse section of dorsiventral leaf. Identify the parts labelled
A, B, C and D and select the right option about then :-

A B C D

(1) Abaxial epidermis Xylem Spongy tissue Phloem

Abaxial
(2) Adaxial epidermis Xylem Mesophyll
epidermis

Abaxial
(3) Adaxial epidermis Phloem Mesophyll
epidermis

(4) Abaxial epidermis Xylem Palisade tissue Phloem

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

ZOOLOGY

1) Read the following statement carefully :-

(A) Between tarsals ellipsoid joint present.
(B) Osteoporosis is due to deficiency of androgen hormone
(C) Between carpals gliding joint present.
(D) Humerus is longest bone of hindlimb.
How many statements are incorrect?

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, D
(4) A, B, C, D

2)

How many of the following are flat bone?

(a) Occipital bone (b) Clavicle (c) Vertebrae (d) Scapula

(e) Humerus (f) Ribs
(g) Ulna (h) Sternum
(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 5

3) Manubrium is part of :-

(1) Scapula
(2) Clavicle
(3) Sternum
(4) Humerus

4) Pelvic girdle consists of :

(1) Ilium
(2) Ilium and ischium
(3) Ilium, ischium and pubis
(4) Ischium and pubis

5) Number of floating ribs in human are :-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 2

6) Match the following bones with their appropriate joints :-

A B

Cartilagenous
a Knee joint (i)
joint

b Intervertebral disc (ii) Fibrous joint

c Cranial bones (iii) Hinge joint

d Radius and ulna (iv) Pivot joint

(1) a-iii b-iv c-ii d-i
(2) a-iii b-i c-iv d-ii
(3) a-iii b-i c-ii d-iv
(4) a-iii b-ii c-i d-iv

7) Which joint is similar to elbow joint ?

(1) Joint between humerus and scapula

(2) Joint between atlas and axis
(3) Joint between Femur, Tibia and patella
(4) Joint between Radius and Ulna

8) Which option best explains the location of the humerus ?

(1) Knee to Ankle
(2) Elbow to wrist (medial side)
(3) Elbow to wrist (Lateral side)
(4) Shoulder to elbow

9) [a], [b], [c] and [d] are the number of bones present in
respected region.
[a], [b], [c] and [d] are respectively :-

(1) 60, 60, 4, 2

(2) 60, 4, 2, 60
(3) 60, 60, 2, 4
(4) 60, 2, 4, 60

10) Cartilage has slightly pliable matrix due to:-

(1) Chondroitin salts

(2) Osteoblasts
(3) Chondroclasts
(4) Osteoclasts

11) Name the type of joint between following :-

(A) Between atlas and axis ?
(B) Between carpals ?
(C) Between cranial bone ?
(D) Between femur and Acetabulum cavity ?
Choose the correct option :

(1) Pivot, Hinge, Suture, Ball and Socket

(2) Pivot, Elipsoid, Fibrous, Gliding
(3) Pivot, Gliding, Suture, Ball and Socket
(4) Gliding, Pivot, Suture, Ball and Socket

12) Given below diagram is related with human skull. Look at the structure carefully and choose
correct option from given below :

(1) x-Sphenoid bone, y-Temporal bone, z-Occipital bone

(2) x-Foramen of magnum, y-Ear ossicle, z-Sella turcica
(3) x-Ear ossicle, y-Foramen of magnum, z-sella turica
(4) x-Sella turcica, y-Foramen of magnum, z-Ear ossicle

13) How many bones are included in cranium :

Maxilla, Mandible, Sphenoid, Nasal, Ethmoid bone, Lacrymal, inferior turbinal, occipital bone :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

14)

Which of the following sets of bones are triangular shaped?

(1) uvula, cranial

(2) scapula, vomer
(3) scapula, hyoid
(4) vomer, ilium

15)

Match column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Zygomatic bone (a) Coxal bone

Long slender bone with two

(ii) Mandible (b)
curvatures

(iii) Clavicle (c) Cheek bone

(iv) Patella (d) Lower jaw

(v) Ilium (e) Sessamoid bone

(1) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-b, (iv)-e, (v)-a
(2) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-e, (iv)-a, (v)-c
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-e, (v)-a
(4) (i)-b, (ii)-d, (iii)-e, (iv)-c, (v)-a

16) Which is not true for scapula in the following?

(1) It is found between 2nd to 7th ribs

(2) It has an cavity which is found above the acromian process
(3) It is found dorsal part of throrax
(4) It is a flat triangular bone

17) In man, vertebrochondral ribs are

(1) 2nd, 3rd and 4th

(2) 5th, 6th and 7th
(3) 8th, 9th and 10th
(4) 11th and 12th only

18) Number of bones in cranium, face, hyoid and middle ear are respectively :-

(1) 14, 8, 1 and 3

(2) 8, 14, 1 and 3
(3) 3, 8, 14 and 1
(4) 14, 8, 3 and 1

19) Flat bone example on ventral side is :-

(1) Sternum
(2) vertebrae
(3) Scapula
(4) Fibula

20) Identify the diagram of bone which is extended between IInd to VIIth number of rib :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

21) Assertion: Ball and socket-joints are the most mobile joints.
Reason: Synovial fluid is present here.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Assertion: In case of gout inflammation of a joint may immobilize the movements of the joint.
Reason: Uric acid crystals deposit in the joint cavity leading to this.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

23) Assertion : Human has dicondylic skull.

Reason : Skull articulates with superior region of the vertebral column with the help of two occipital
condyles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

24) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct option :-

Column -I Column-II

a Unipolar Neuron 1 Cerebral cortex

 b Bipolar Neuron 2 Embryonic stage

c Multipolar neuron 3 Retina

(1) a-1, b-2, c-3
(2) a-2, b-3, c-1
(3) a-3, b-1, c-2
(4) a-2, b-1, c-3

25) Division is not possible in neuron due to absence of :-

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Centriole
(3) Nissl's granule
(4) Neurofibril

26) Hypothalamus is a part of brain but it does not regulate which of the following function :-

(1) autonomic system activity

(2) secretion of hormones
(3) signaling of sensory stimuli towards cerebrum
(4) blood volume

27) Match the column-I with column-II and identify the correct option :-

Column - I Column - II

(A) Axoplasm (i) Impermeable to -ve charged proteins

(B) Axolemma (ii) Low K+ and high Na+

(C) Fluid outside axon (iii) Active transport

(D) Na+ – K+ pump (iv) High K+ and low Na+

A B C D
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Read the following statement :-

(A) In polarisation Na+ ion goes from ECF to ICF through Voltage-gated channel, Na+- K+ pump is
open and inner charge is –ve.
(B) In Depolarisation Na+ ion goes from ECF to ICF through Voltage-gated channel, K+ Voltage-gated
channel close.
(C) In repolarisation, K+ ion goes from ICF to ECF through Voltage-gated channel, Na+ Voltage-gated
channel are close and inner charge is –ve. (D) In hyper polarisation, K+ ion goes from ICF to ECF
through Voltage-gated channel, Na+- K+ pump is open and inner charge is –ve.
How many of above statements are true?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

29)

Match the items of column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Cerebral aqueduct (i) Limbic system

(b) Corpus callosum (ii) mid brain

Cerebral
(c) Hippocampus (iii)
hemisphere

(d) Pons (iv) Hind brain

(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

30) In the diagram of multipolar myelinated neuron given below, different parts have been indicated
by alphabetes; choose the answers in which these alphabetes have been correctly matched with the

parts which they indicate :-

A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Nucleus,

(1)
D = Dendrites, E = Naked portion of axon, F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Naked portion of axon, D = Dendrites, E = Nucleus, F =
(2)
Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Naked portion of axon, D = Nucleus, E = Dendrites, F =
(3)
Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier
A = Cell body, B = Nissl bodies, C = Dendrites,
(4)
D = Nucleus, E = Naked portion of axon, F = Myelin sheath, G = Node of Ranvier

31) Irritability and conductivity are maximum developed in :-

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Nervous tissue
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Epithelial tissue

32) When a membrane is depolarized, the charge of the cells is :-

(1) Outside positive and inside negative

(2) Inside positive and outside negative
(3) Both sides have zero potential
(4) Both sides are electronegative

33) Which ion is responsible for involvement of synaptic vesicles towards membrane ?

(1) Mg+2
(2) Na+
(3) Ca+2
(4) K+

34) Select the correctly marked options of the given diagram ?

(A) Synaptic cleft

(1)
(B) Post synaptic membrane (C) Axon terminal
(A) Synaptic cleft
(2)
(B) Receptor (C) Pre-synaptic membrane
(A) Synaptic vesicles
(3)
(B) Receptor (C) Axon terminal
(A) Pre synaptic membrane
(4)
(B) Synaptic cleft (C) Post-synaptic membrane

35) Nissl's granules are found in____ and helps in ________ :-

(1) Cyton only, Lipid synthesis

(2) Cyton & Axon, Protein synthesis
(3) Dendron & Axon, Protein synthesis
(4) Dendron & cyton, Protein synthesis

36) Hypothalamus does not control :-

(1) Hunger and satiety

(2) Thermoregulation
(3) Libido
(4) Creativity, thinking and consiousness

37) Grey matter does not contain

(1) Cyton
(2) Dendrones
(3) Myelinated axon
(4) Telodendria

38) Largest convoluted surface found at :-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Mid brain

39) Statement A : The neural system provide unorganised network of point to point connection.
Statement B : Endocrine system provides chemical integration.

(1) Both statement A and B are correct

(2) Only statement A is correct
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both statement are incorrect

40) Assertion :- Human's brain having highly folded structure in gray matter as gyri & sulci.
Reason :- Gyri & sulci are also present in cerebellum.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

41) Assertion :- A neurotransmitter crosses the synapse and attaches to receptors on the post
synaptic cell.
Reason :- Depending on the neurotransmitter, it may excite or inhibit the post synaptic cell.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

42) Which of the following brain structure integrates information received from semicircular canals
of the ear and the auditory system :-

(1) Medulla oblogata

(2) Cerebellum
(3) Pons
(4) Limbic system

43) Assertion : Threshold stimulus is required for propagation of impulse

Reason : Threshold stimulus produce action potential therefore conduction of impulse occur.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

44) If the corpus callosum is removed in mammalian brain then what will be affected :-

(1) Coordination of Cerebrum

(2) Involuntary activity of brain
(3) Coordination of Cerebellum
(4) Behaviour and emotional disturbances

45) Drinking of alcohol affects mostly :-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Dien cephalon
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 2 2 4 3 3 1 1 2 4 1 2 4 2 3 2 1 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 3 3 1 2 2 3 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 1 3 1 4 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 2 4 1 4 2 4 3 2 3 1 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 3 3 1 2 3 1 2 2 4 2 4 3 3 3 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 4 4 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 2 3 3 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 1 1 4 2 2 3 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 2 4 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 2 2 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 3 3 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 3 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 1 1 1 2 2 3 3 2 2 4 2 2 3 4 4 4 3 1 3 2
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 1 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) Work =

3) τnet = 9 × 0.3 + 10 × 0.3 – 12 × 0.05

= 2.7 + 3 – 12 × 5 × 10
= 5.7 – 0.6
= 5100 α
⇒ α = 10–3 rad/s2.

4) Given , Let (1, –1)

=0– =

now =
=
=

5) mv2 =
kx2

6)

I = I 1 + I2

7)

Wo = 0
α=2
t = 10

8) ω =
0
rad/sec. = 15π rad/s
t = 10 sec.
ωf = 0 rad/sec.

θ=

No. of revolutions =
Hence option (1)

9)

I1 = + m (ℓ cos 30°)2

I=

K=

10) I = MR2 = ρℓ (2πR)R2

⇒ I ∝ R3 so
Hence option (2)

11) As particle moves with constant speed but the magnitude & direction of angular
momentum changes continuously. As shown in figure because perpendicular distance of the
particle and changes continuously.
12)

A. Question Explanation:

We're given a wheel with a known mass and moment of inertia. A torque is applied to the
wheel, causing it to rotate from rest. We need to determine the angular displacement of the
wheel after a specific time.

B. Given Data:

A. Torque (τ) = 30 N-m

B. Mass of the wheel: 5 kg (This information might not be directly used in the calculation)

C. Moment of Inertia (I) = 2 kg-m²

D. Time (t) = 10 seconds

E. Initial angular velocity (ω₀) = 0 rad/s (since the wheel starts from rest)

C. Concept:

A. Newton's Second Law for Rotational Motion: This law states that the net torque acting
on an object is equal to the product of its moment of inertia and its angular acceleration
(τ = Iα).

B. Rotational Kinematics: We'll use the equation of rotational motion that relates angular
displacement, initial angular velocity, angular acceleration, and time: θ = ω₀t + (1/2)αt².

D. Calculation:

A. Calculate Angular Acceleration (α):

 A. Using Newton's Second Law for Rotational Motion: τ = Iα α = τ / I α = 30 N-m / 2
kg-m² α = 15 rad/s²

B. Calculate Angular Displacement (θ):

A. Using the rotational kinematics equation: θ = ω₀t + (1/2)αt² θ = (0 rad/s)(10 s) +

(1/2)(15 rad/s²)(10 s)² θ = 0 + (1/2)(15 rad/s²)(100 s²) θ = 750 radians

E. Final Answer:

The angular displacement of the wheel in 10 seconds is 750 radians. Option 1

13) Asking About :

Comparison of rotational kinetic energies given equal angular momentum and different
moments of inertia.

Concept :
Rotational kinetic energy is given E = L2/2I, where L is the angular momentum. For the same
L. Kinetic energy is inversely proportional to I.

Formula :
E = L2/2I

Calculation/Explanation :
• Some I1 > I2, from the formula,

• Since I2 is smaller, E2 will be larger than E1, meaning E1 < E2.

14)

When the string is cut, the rod will rotate about end P. Let α be the initial angular acceleration
of the rod.

Then Torque,

...(1)
( ∵ Moment of inertia of the rod about one end=ML2/3)

Also, ...(2)
Equating (1) and (2), we get :
 or

15) L = (mVcos 45°)

16)

(Hollow sphere)

17)

18)

τp = 2mg – mg(ℓ) = 0
τp = Iα = 0
α=0

19)

∵ = constant
∴ = constant
∴
= [Link]θ → constant
⇒ LA = LB

20)

21) I1ω1 = I2ω2

ω′ = n2ω

22)
 0
mV R = + MVR

0
MV R = mvR

0
V= V

23)

What is asked:
We need to determine the temperature at which the readings in Celsius ( ) and Fahrenheit (
) are the same.

Concept: Conservation of angular momentum (but mechanical energy is not conserved due to
internal friction during contact)
Based on Temperature Conversion Between Celsius and Fahrenheit Scales.
Formula Used:
The relation between Fahrenheit and Celsius is:

For common temperature, , so we set:

Calculation:

Final Answer:
Option 2:

24)

Slope = = dan 60° = =α

25)

ω = 1.5 t – 3t2 + 2
a = 1.5 – 6t = 0
t=

26) Torque = Force × perpendicular distance from the reference point

τ = mg

= mg

= mu2 sinθ cosθ

Hence option (2)

27)

I = 2(x1)2 + 3(x2)2
= 2(3)2 + 3(2)2
= 18 + 12
= 30 kg–m2

28)
T1R – T2R = Iα

T1R – T2R = a

T1 – T2 = a

29)

energy conservation

mgh = mv2 + Iω2

mgh = m (wR)2 + Iω2

w=

30)

31)
Torque exerted on the disc,
τ = TR
Now τ = Iα

∴ α=

32)
Energy conservation

from A to B
V2 = u2 + 2as
33)
τnet ⇒ (F × L) + (F × L)
= 2FL ≠ 0

τnet ⇒ (F × L) +

34)

⇒ ω = 50 rad/sec
ω = ω0 + αt
50 = 0 + (25)t ⇒ t = 2 sec.

35)

Mass of removed disc = M

M.I of removed disc about O

= ... (i)

M.I of complete disc = ... (ii)

∴ M.I of remaining disc

=
= 4MR2

36)

KE = Ιω2

= × 0.32 × (120)2

= × × 120 × 120
= 2304 J

37)
Question Asking About:
We need to find the force (F) exerted on the rod by the pivot and also the value of mass m.

Key Concept & formula

Rotational equilibrium & translational equilibrium (net toque = ZERO & net force = ZERO)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
20×40 = m (10) × 60
⇒ m = (4/3) kg

F= (100/3) N

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

38)

39) Using work-energy principle,

∴
i.e., speed is independent of R

40) For rolling without slipping =

and distance OP < OC < OQ.
Hence, VQ > Vc > VP
 41) Conservation of angular momentum about C.O.M. of loop of mass m gives =

⇒ V = 3 ωR

⇒ ω=

42) Acceleration of COM does not depend on position of force.

43) Radius of gyration depends only on distribution of mass.

44) Explanation :
Minimum force F to topple a cube (side a) about its edge.

Concept :
Toppling starts when the torque due to applied force equals the torque due to the weight of
the cube about the pivot (edge O).

Solution :
Formula :

Diagram :

Calculation :

Equating torques:

Final Answer :
Option (2)
 45)

As per theory

CHEMISTRY

46) Since reaction is exothermic it is favoured at low temperature there is a decrese in number
of moles hence reaction is favoured at high pressure.

47) Enthalpy of sublimation A(s) → A(g)

48)

49)

Question Explanation:
Find Kₚ for 2NO ⇌ N₂ + O₂ given 4 mol NO in 0.25 L with 10% dissociation.

Concept : Expression of Kp
Solution:
2NO(g) ⇌ N₂(g) + O₂(g)

Initial NO = 4 mol, α = 10% = 0.1 ⇒ NO dissociated = 0.4 mol.

At eq: NO = 3.6, N₂ = 0.2, O₂ = 0.2;

Since Δng= 0 , so Kp = Kc

Kc= (0.2)×(0.2)/(3.6)2 = 1/(18)²

So, Kₚ = 1/(18)²

Final Answer: Option (1)

50) CO(g) + H2O(g) ⇌ CO2(g) + H2(g)

 =

⇒ ⇒ x = 1/5

mole % of H2 = = 20%

51) A(g) + B(g) ⇌ C(g) + D(g) t = 0 1 1 1 1

Eq. 1-n 1-n 1+n 1+n
2(1 –n) = 1 + n
2 – 2n = 1 + n
n = 1/3

52) Kp depend only on temperature.

53) T K ⇒ exothermic

54)

N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO(g) ΔH = +ve

Forward reaction

T ⇒ forward

Δng = 0
No. effect of pressure on equilibrium

55)

P2 = atm

56)

S8(g) ⇌ 4S2(g) p ∝ n
At t =0 1 atm
KP = = (0.8)3 atm3

= 0.512 atm3

57) C2H5OH+CH3COOH ⇌ CH3COOC2H5+H2O

t=0 1 1 0 0
t = teq 1 – x 1–x x x

taking square root = =2

x = 2 – 2x
3x = 2

x=

⇒ α= = = 0.66 ⇒ 66 %

58)

N2O4 ⇌ 2NO2,
when [N2O4] = 0.1 = [NO2]

Q= = 0.1 M
Q < Kc → Reaction goes forward direction
⇒ Kc = Q, at point D & F
equilibrium is attained

59)

A + 2B ⇌ C K1 =

C + D ⇌ 3A K2 =

6B + D ⇌ 2C K3 =
K13 × K2 =

60)

(Keq)1 = = 10

(Keq)2 = = 100

(Keq)3 = = 0.1

(Keq)4 = = 10
extent ∝ keq : II > I = IV > III​

61) For exothermic process as T ↑ yield ↓

so T1 > T2 > T3

62)

NH4HS(s) ⇌ NH3(g) + H2S(g)

t = teq P' P'
2
25 = P' + P' ⇒ (P') = 25 ⇒ P' = 5 atm
Total pressure at equilibrium
= P' + P' = 5 + 5 = 10 atm

63) Explanation :- Relation Kp and Kc for given reactions is to be found and Match the
following columns.
Concept :-
= Equilibrium Constant in terms of Pressure
= Equilibrium Constant in terms of Concentration.
R :- Universal gas constant.
T :- temperature
= ( Moles of gaseous Product ) - ( Moles gaseous reactant )
Calculation :-
Rxn :-

Rxn :-

Kp = Kc
Rxn :-

Rxn :-
 Final Answer :-
( i ) - b , ( ii ) - a , ( iii ) - d , ( iv ) - c
Correct option :- (1)

64)

at equilibrium rf = rb.

65)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 204

66)

67)

1. Write the balanced chemical equation:

C(s) + CO2(g) ⇌ 2CO(g)

2. Set up an ICE table (Initial, Change, Equilibrium):

Species Initial Pressure (atm) Change in Pressure (atm) Equilibrium Pressure (atm)
CO2 0.5 -x 0.5 - x
CO 0 +2x 2x

Export to Sheets

3. Determine the total pressure at equilibrium:

Total pressure = P(CO2) + P(CO) = 0.8 atm

0.5 - x + 2x = 0.8

x = 0.3 atm

4. Calculate the equilibrium pressures:

A. P(CO2) = 0.5 - x = 0.5 - 0.3 = 0.2 atm

B. P(CO) = 2x = 2 * 0.3 = 0.6 atm

5. Write the expression for the equilibrium constant (Kp):

Kp = (P(CO))2 / P(CO2)
 6. Substitute the equilibrium pressures and solve for Kp:

Kp = (0.6)2 / 0.2 = 1.8 atm

Therefore, the value of Kp is 1.8 atm.

68) A. Question Explanation:

A. The question asks which conditions will shift the equilibrium of the given reaction (PCIS(g) ⇌
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)) towards the right (forward reaction).
B. We need to consider how different changes to the system's conditions will affect the
equilibrium position according to Le Chatelier's Principle.

B. Given Data:

A. Chemical Reaction: PCIS(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

C. Concept:

A. Le Chatelier's Principle: When a system at equilibrium is subjected to a stress, the system

will shift its equilibrium position to counteract the stress .

D. Analysis of Options:
1. Introducing inert gas at constant pressure:

A. Adding an inert gas at constant pressure will increase the total volume of the system.
B. This will decrease the partial pressures of all the reactants and products.
C. Since there are more moles of gas on the product side (2 moles) compared to the reactant side
(1 mole), decreasing the pressure will favor the side with more moles of gas to re-establish
equilibrium.
D. Therefore, introducing an inert gas at constant pressure will favor the forward reaction.

2. Introducing inert gas at constant volume:

A. Adding an inert gas at constant volume will increase the total pressure of the system.
B. However, the partial pressures of the reactants and products will remain unchanged.
C. This is because the inert gas does not participate in the reaction and does not affect the
equilibrium position.
D. Therefore, introducing an inert gas at constant volume will not favor the forward reaction.

3. Introducing PCIS at constant volume:

A. Adding more PCl5 (reactant) will increase its concentration.

B. To counteract this increase, the system will shift the equilibrium to consume the added PCl5.
C. Therefore, introducing PCl5 at constant volume will favor the forward reaction.

4. Introducing Cl2 at constant volume:

A. Adding more Cl2 (product) will increase its concentration.

B. To counteract this increase, the system will shift the equilibrium to consume the added Cl2.
C. Therefore, introducing Cl2 at constant volume will not favor the forward reaction.

E. Final Answer:

A. The conditions that favor the forward reaction are:

 A. Introducing inert gas at constant pressure
B. Introducing PCl5 at constant volume
B. Therefore, the correct answer is: 2 (a, c)

69) Given:
• Reaction is exothermic
• Gaseous reactants and products
• Changes include temperature, pressure, catalyst, inert gas, and removal of product
Concept:
Le Chatelier's Principle

Explanation :
(a) Increase of temperature: Shifts equilibrium backward (exothermic) decreases yield
(b) Increase of pressure. Total gas moles decrease (2 →1), so equilibrium Shilts forward
increases yield
(c) Addition of catalyst: No effect on equilibrium, only increases rate no change in yield
(d) Addition of inert gas at constant volume: No effect on partial pressures ⇒ no change in
yield
(e) Removal of C. Equilibrium shifts forward to replace C ⇒ increases yield

Final Answer:
3. b & e
Only increase in pressure and removal of product C increase the yield.

70)

Question Explanation :-
The question asks for the favorable conditions (pressure and temperature) for the formation
of diamond from graphite, given their densities and the enthalpy change for the reverse
reaction.
Concept :-
This question is based on Le Chatelier's Principle (Effect of Pressure and Temperature on
Equilibrium)
Reasoning
- Effect of Pressure:
- Molar volume is inversely proportional to density (Volume = Mass/Density).
- Since density of diamond (3.5 g/mL) > density of graphite (2.3 g/L), the molar volume of
diamond < molar volume of graphite.
- The formation of diamond from graphite (C(graphite) → C(diamond)) results in a decrease in
volume.
- According to Le Chatelier's principle, increasing pressure favors the side with lower volume.
Thus, high pressure favors the formation of diamond.
- Effect of Temperature:
- The reaction C(graphite) → C(diamond) is endothermic (ΔH = +1.9 kJ/mol).
- According to Le Chatelier's principle, for an endothermic reaction, increasing the
temperature shifts the equilibrium towards the products. Thus, high temperature favors the
formation of diamond.
Final Answer Favorable conditions for the formation of diamond are high pressure and high
temperature.
Correct option: 3
 71) Question Explanation:
The equilibrium constant K of a reaction is given as 20.0 and the rate constant of the forward
reaction (Kf) is 10. We need to find the rate constant of the backward reaction (Kb).

Given Data:

A. Equilibrium constant, K = 20.0

B. Forward rate constant: Kf = 10

Formula:

Concept:
The equilibrium constant
Rearranging for Kb:

Mathematical Calculation:

Final Answer:
Option 1, (0.5)

72)

A. Question Explanation:

We need to determine which solution has a pH = 10 at 298 K (25°C)

The pH scale is defined as:
pH = -log[H+]
Similarly, for bases:
pOH = -log[OH-]
and using the relationship:
pH + pOH = 14

B. Given Data:
1. 1 × 10-10 M HCI
2. 1 × 10−4 M NaOH
3. 1 × 10-10 M NaOH

C. Concept:
1. pH of Strong Acid (HCI):

A. Normally, pH = -\log [H*].

However, at very low concentrations (< 10-7 M), we must consider the self-ionization of water:
[H+]total = [H+]acid + [H+]water = 10-10 + 10-7 ≈ 10-7M
So, pH = 7, not 10.
 2. pH of Strong Base (NaOH):

A. For 1 × 10−4 M NaOH:

pOH = -log(10-4) = 4
pH = 14 - 4 = 10

A. For 1 × 10-10 M NaOн:

Similar to HCI, at extremely low concentrations, water's ionization dominates:

[OH-]total = [OH-]base + [OH-]water = 10-10 + 10−7 ≈ 10-7м
So, pOH = 7, meaning pH = 7, not 10.

D. Mathematical Calculation (Optional):

For 1 × 10−4 M NaOH:
pOH = 4, pH = 14 - 4 = 10
E. Question Level: MEDIUM

73) Solution:
C = decimal = 0.1 N
% =1%
For weak base (BOH)
[OH–] = C

= 0.1
[OH–] = 10–3
POH = – log [OH–]
= – log (10–3)
POH = 3
PH = 14 – POH
PH = 14 – 3
PH = 11

74) [H3O+] = [H+] =

=
= 10–4

75) Salt of SAWB type.

76)

A. Question Explanation

The question asks us to identify which of the given solutions cannot act as a buffer system. A
buffer system consists of a weak acid and its conjugate base, or a weak base and its conjugate
acid. We need to determine which pair does not fit this requirement.

C. Concept
 A. Buffer Solution:

Analysis:-

Let's analyze each option:

A. KH2PO4/H3PO4: H₃PO4 is a weak acid, and KH2PO4 is its conjugate base. This is a buffer system.
B. NaClO4/HClO4: HClO4 (perchloric acid) is a strong acid. Strong acids do not form buffer
systems.
C. C5H5N/C5H5N⁺HCl⁻: C5H5N (pyridine) is a weak base, and C5H5N⁺HCl⁻ (pyridinium chloride) is
its conjugate acid. This is a buffer system.
D. Na2CO3/NaHCO3: HCO₃⁻ (bicarbonate) is a weak acid, and CO32– (carbonate) is its conjugate
base. This is a buffer system.

E. Final Answer

The solution that cannot act as a buffer system is NaClO4/HClO4.

Therefore, the correct option is 2.

F. Question Level-EASY

77) Asking about : Which combinations will make a buffer solution.

Concept : Acidic buffer solution : Weak Acid + Its conjugate base.
Solution/ Explanation :

(i)
⇒ CH3COOH + CH3COONa (Acidic Buffer)
Weak Acid its conjugate base
(ii) CH3COOH NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O
t=0 2 mol 1 mol - -
Remaining 1 mol 0 1 mol

⇒ CH3OOH + CH3COONa
(Acidic Buffer solution)
(iii) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
1 mol 1 mol
(Acidic Buffer solution)

78)

Question Explanation :
The question asks us to identify which of the given species are Bronsted acids.

Concept:
A Bronsted acid is a species that donates a proton (H+). We need to examine the structure of
each species and determine if it has a proton that it can donate.
Analysis :
(i) HCN: Can donate a proton to form CN–. It is a Bronsted acid.

(ii) H2PO4– : Can donate a proton to form HPO42–. It is a Bronsted acid.

(iii) NH4+ : Can donate a proton to form NH3. It is a Bronsted acid.
(iv) HCI : Can donate a proton to form Cl–. It is a Bronsted acid.

Final Answer :
All four species, HCN, H2PO4–, NH4+, and HCI, can donate a proton and are therefore Bronsted
acids.
Therefore, the correct option is 2. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv).

79)
= [H+] = ?
pH = 4.30
[H+] = 10–4.30
[H+] = 100.70 × 10–5
[H+] = 5 × 10–5

80)

C = 0.01 ⇒ C = 10–2, α = 2%

[H+] = cα ⇒ [H+] =
[H+] = 2 × 10–4
[H+] . [OH–] = Kw

[OH–] =

[OH–] = = 0.5 × 10–10

[OH–] = 5 × 10–11

81)

Concept :- Ionization of weak electrolyte

Solution :- we know
D.O.I (α) .∝
V → dilution
on adding of water
ionization of weak
electrolyte increases.
Answer :- 3

82) Asking About :- Basic strength

Concept :- Common Ion effect
Soln / Explanation :- In Presence of strong electrolyte (NH4Cl) solubility of weak electrolyte
(NH4OH) Decreases
 ∴ Basic strength of NaOH in presence of NH4Cl Decreases
Answer-3

83)

Concept: When an acid is added to water, it releases H+ ions, increasing the acidity of the
solution. This leads to a decrease in pH.
Answer: The correct answer is: 3
pH decreases and PKW remains same.

84) Q. Explanation: Buffer capacity measures the resistance of a buffer solution to changes in
pH when acid or base is added. It's defined as the number of moles of acid or base required to
change the pH of 1 liter of the buffer solution by 1 unit.
Given data: Moles of HCl added = 2 moles, Change in pH (ΔpH) = 3.4 – 2.4 – 0.5, Volume of
buffer = 1L
Concept: Buffer capacity (β) is calculated using the formula:
β = (moles of acid or base added) / (Change in pH)
Calculation : β = 2 mole/0.5 β = 4
Answer: The buffer capacity of the buffer solution is 4. So the correct option is 3.

85) Q. Explanation:
Find Degree of ionization of water.
Given Data:
Temperature = 298 K
Concept: Degree of ionzation
Explanation :
The degree of ionization of water is the fraction of water molecules that are ionized at a given
time. It's related to the ion product of water (Kw). For pure water, [H+] = [OH–] = .
Degree of ionization = ([H+] or [OH–] / [H2O]) × 100. The concentration of water [H2O] is
approximately 55.5 M.

Calculation:

A. Kw at 298 K: Kw = 1.0 × 10–14

B. [H+] or [OH–]: In pure water, [H+] = [OH–] = = = 1.0 × 10–7 M

C. Degree of ionization: Degree of ionization = ([H ] / [H2O]) × 100 = (1.0 × 10–7 / 55.5) × 100
+

≈ 1.8 × 10–7 %

Answer: option 1, 1.8 × 10–7

86) Explanation: We need to find pH of the mixture.

Given Data:
• Moles of H2SO4: 2
• Moles of HNO3: 1
• Volume of solution: 10 liters
Concept:
• Strong acids completely dissociate in water.
• H2SO4 (sulfuric acid) is diprotic (releases 2 H+ ions per molecule).
 • HNO3 (nitric acid) is monoprotic (releases 1 H+ ion per molecule).
• pH = -log[H+]
Calculation:
• H+ from H2SO4: 2 moles H2SO4 x 2 H+/mole = 4 moles H+
• H+ from HNO3: 1 mole HNO3 x 1 H+/mole = 1 mole H+
• Total H+ moles: 4 + 1 = 5 moles H+
• [H+ ] concentration: 5 moles / 10 liters = 0.5 M
• pH : –log(0.5) = 0.30
Answer: Option 1, The pH of the mixture is 0.30

87) Given Data:

A. Volume of NaOH = 20 mL
B. Concentration of NaOH = 0.1 M
C. Volume of H2SO4 = 20 mL
D. Concentration of H2SO4 = 0.05 M

Concept : Molarity, Neutralization, pH etc.

Explanation :

A. Molarity (M) = moles of solute/liters of solution

B. Neutralization reaction between a strong a strong acid and a strong base.
C. pH scale: pH < 7 (acidic), pH = 7 (neutral), pH > 7 (basic)

Calculation:
1. Moles of NaOH: (20 mL × 0.1 mol/L)/1000 mL/L = 0.002 moles
2. Moles of H2SO4: (20 mL × 0.05 mol/L)/ 1000 mL/L = 0.001 moles
3. Moles of H+ from H2SO4 : 0.001 moles H2SO4 × 2 = 0.002 moles H+
Since the moles of NaOH and the moles of H+ from H2SO4 are equal, they completely neutralize each
other.
Answer: The pH of the solution will be 7 (neutral). So the correct option is 4.

88)

A. Question Explanation

The question asks us to find the degree of ionization (α) of a weak electrolyte AB in terms of its
ionization constant (K) and the volume of the solution (V) containing 1 mole of the electrolyte.

B. Given Data

A. Weak electrolyte: AB
B. Volume of solution (V): Volume containing 1 mole of AB
C. Ionization constant: K

C. Concept - Degree of Ionization (α)

D. Solution:

A. Ostwald's Dilution Law: For a weak electrolyte AB, AB ⇌ A⁺ + B⁻, the ionization
constant is given by:
 A. K = (α²C) / (1 - α)

B. Where C is the concentration of the electrolyte.

B. Dilute Solution Approximation: For very weak electrolytes, α is very small, so (1 -

α) ≈ 1.

A. Write the ionization reaction:

A. AB ⇌ A⁺ + B⁻

B. Write the expression for the ionization constant (K):

A. K = [A⁺][B⁻] / [AB]

C. Express the concentrations in terms of α and C:

A. [A⁺] = αC

B. [B⁻] = αC

C. [AB] = C(1 - α)

D. Substitute these concentrations into the K expression:

A. K = (αC)(αC) / (C(1 - α))

B. K = α²C / (1 - α)

E. Apply the dilute solution approximation (1 - α ≈ 1):

A. K = α²C

F. Solve for α:

A. α² = K / C

B. α = √(K / C)
 G. Express the concentration (C) in terms of moles and volume:

A. C = moles / volume = 1 mole / V = 1/V

H. Substitute C = 1/V into the α expression:

A. α = √(K / (1/V))

B. α = √(KV)

E. Final Answer

A. The degree of ionization (α) is √(KV).

The correct answer is Option (4) √KV.

89)

Sodium formate

90)

BOTANY

91)
Roots may give rise to leaves

92)

Chilli, Petunia

93) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 75

94)

C-Valvate , D-Twisted, E-Imbricate

95) Question Explanation :

The question asks about the position of the ovary in the ray florets of a sunflower.

Concept :
This question is based on The Inflorescence.

Solution :
"The ovary is inferior in members of Asteraceae (e.g., sunflower), where the floral parts are
epigynous."

Final Answer :
Option (3)

96)

97)

Solitary

98)

99)

Perianth

100) Alstonia
101)

only c

102)

The radicle are enclosed in sheaths which are called coleoptile

103)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 65

104) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 79,80,81

105)

Solution-

The coconut water and edible part of coconut represents the endosperm.

The correct answer is -(4)

106)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 61,62

107)

Free central

108)

Veins and veinlets in a lamina

109)

Brassicaceae

110) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 80

111) From Module

112)

Endodermis
113)

Sclerenchyma is dead and thus without protoplasts

114)

B, C, D and F

115) NCERT Pg # 87

116)

NCERT Pg. # 87

117) NCERT Pg. # 69

118) NCERT Pg # 91

119) NCERT Pg # 74

120)

Ans : 3

121)

(A) Epicarp (B) Mesocarp (C) Seed (D) Endocarp

122) NCERT Pg # 89

123) NCERT Pg # 87

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 93

125) NCERT Pg # 84

126)

Root, monocot stem & leaf, dicot stem.

 127) NCERT XI, Pg.# 92

128)

Ans : 2

129) NCERT XI Pg # 90, Fig.-6.5(c)

130) NCERT-XIth, Page No. # 86

131) NCERT XIth Pg.#94 Figure-6.8(b)

132)

cambium is absent

133)

Present in monocot leaves

134)

Adaxial and abaxial surface respectively

135)

Ans : 1

ZOOLOGY

136)

Ncert page 227.

137) Flat bones are generally thin, flattened, and often slightly curved. They provide
protection and surfaces for muscle attachment. In the given question following are the
examples of flat bones: 1. Occipital bone (a) - Flat bone
2. Scapula (d) - Flat bone
3. Ribs (f) - Flat bones
4. Sternum (h) - Flat bone
So, the correct answer is option 3.

138)
Flat bone of body, Part of Rib cage, Attached with True ribs.

139) NCERT-XII, Page 227

140) Module 8 Pg. # 138

141) Module 8 Pg. # 145

142)

NCERT-XI Pg#227

143)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 227

144)

NCERT PAGE NO. 225

145) NCERT Pg No. 224

146)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 227

147)

Let's identify the labeled structures in the image:

• X: This points to the sphenoid bone. The sphenoid bone is a complex, bat-shaped bone
located at the base of the skull. It forms a central part of the skull and connects to many other
bones.
• Y: This points to the temporal bone. The temporal bone is located on the side of the skull,
below and in front of the ear. It houses the organs of hearing and balance.
• Z: This points to the occipital bone. The occipital bone forms the back and lower part of the
skull. It contains the foramen magnum, a large opening where the spinal cord passes through.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 1 :x-Sphenoid bone, y-Temporal bone, z-Occipital bone

148)

The correct answer is: 2. 3 cranial bones.

Cranial bones in the list: are only 3 (Sphenoid bone, Ethmoid bone, Occipital bone)
149)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 226

150)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 312

151) NCERT XI Pg # 311

152)

NCERT (XI), Pg. # 310

153) NCERT–XI, Pg. # 309

154)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 225

155)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 226

156) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 312

157) NCERT XII Page No. # 312

158) NCERT Pg. No. # 309(E), 310(H)

159) Explanation: Since unipolar neurons are seen in embryos, bipolar neurons in the retina,
and multipolar neurons in the cerebral cortex, Option 2 is correct.

Correct Answer: Option 2 (a-2, b-3, c-1)

160)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 232

161)

NCERT Pg. No. # 236

162) Therefore, the correct option is 3.

163)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 233

164)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 236

165)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 232

166)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 232

167)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 233

168)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 234

169) NCERT Pg. # 319

170)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 231

171) NCERT Pg. # 321

172)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 236

173) NCERT (XIth) Pg# 321

174) NCERT Pg # 315

175)
The correct answer is Option 2: Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a
correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation:
Assertion: Human's brain having highly folded structure in gray matter as gyri & sulci.
This assertion is true. The human brain, particularly the cerebral cortex, exhibits a highly
convoluted surface with numerous folds called gyri and sulci. These folds significantly increase
the surface area of the cerebral cortex, allowing for a greater number of neurons and
synapses.
Reason: Gyri & sulci are also present in cerebellum.
This reason is also true. The cerebellum, responsible for motor coordination and balance,
also has a folded structure with gyri and sulci. However, this is not the primary reason for the
folding in the cerebral cortex.

176)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 234

177)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 236

178)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 232

179)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 236

180)

Class XI NCERT Page No. 236