13-08-2025

2302CMD303031250009 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two particles whose masses are 10 kg and 30 kg and their position vectors are and
respectively would have the centre of mass at -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Three point masses m1, m2 and m3 are placed at the corners of a thin massless rectangular
sheet (1.2 m × 1.0 m) as shown. Centre of mass will be located at the point

(1) (0.8, 0.6) m

(2) (0.6, 0.8) m
(3) (0.4, 0.4) m
(4) (0.5, 0.6) m

3) The center of mass of a non-uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length varies as λ =
(where k is a constant and x is the distance measured from one end) is at the following distance
from the same end.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Find the position of centre of mass from base for a solid hemisphere of radius 16 cm.
(1) 4 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 12 cm

5) A circular plate of diameter a is kept in contact with a square plate of edge a as shown in figure.
The density of the material and the thickness are same everywhere. The centre of mass of the

composite system will be :-

(1) Inside the circular plate

(2) Inside the square plate
(3) At the point of contact
(4) Outside the system

6) A circular disc of radius R has a uniform thickness. A circular hole of diameter equal to radius of
disc has been cut out as shown. Distance of centre of mass of remaining disc from O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Two balls are thrown simultaneously in air. The acceleration of the center of mass of the two balls
while in air :

(1) Depends on the direction of the motion of the balls

(2) Depends on the masses of the two balls
(3) Depends on the speed of two balls
(4) Is equal to g

8) Two bodies of masses 5 kg and 1 kg are moving with velocities and m/s
respectively. The velocity of the centre of mass of the two body system is :-
(1) along z-axis
(2) in the xy-plane
(3) in the xyz space
(4) in the yz-plane

9) A cart of mass M is at rest on a frictionless floor with a child of mass m standing at its edge. If
child jumps from the cart towards right with an initial velocity u, with respect to the car, find the
velocity of the car after its jump.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) An object flying in air with velocity suddenly breaks in two pieces whose

masses are in the ratio 1 : 5. The smaller mass flies off with a velocity . The velocity
of the larger piece will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two fragments of mass 3 kg and 6 kg respectively. If speed of 3
kg particle is 16 m/s find the kinetic energy of 6 kg particle.

(1) 768 J
(2) 786 J
(3) 192 J
(4) 687 J

12) A gun fires a bullet of mass 50 gm with a velocity of 30 m/sec. Because of this the gun is pushed
back with a velocity of 1 m/sec. The mass of the gun is.

(1) 15kg
(2) 50kg
(3) 1.5kg
(4) 20kg

13) A bullet of mass m is fired from a gun of mass M. The recoiling gun compresses a spring of force
constant k by a distance d. Then the velocity of the bullet is :-
(1) kd

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Two spheres approaching each other collides elastically. Before collision the speed of A is 5m/s
and that of B is 10m/s. Their masses are 1kg and 0.5kg. After collision velocities of A and B are
respectively:

(1) 5 m/s, –10 m/s

(2) 10 m/s, –5 m/s
(3) –10 m/s, –5 m/s
(4) –5 m/s, 10 m/s

15) A body of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 3 m/sec collides head on with a body of mass 1 kg
moving in opposite direction with a velocity of 4 m/sec. After collision, two bodies stick together and
move with a common velocity which in m/sec is equal to

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/3
(3) 2/3
(4) 3/4

16) A particle of mass m moving in the x-direction with speed 2v is hit by another particle of mass
2m moving in the y-direction with speed v. If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss
in the energy during the collision is close to :

(1) 44%
(2) 50%
(3) 56%
(4) 62%

17) Two identical balls moving with a speed of 6 m/s in opposite direction, collides. If for collision,

; the speed of each ball after collision will be :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 1 m/s

18) A collides to a surface as shown in figure. If coefficient of restitution , then θ will be:-
(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 0°

19) Assertion (A) :- The position of centre of mass does not depend upon the reference frame.
Reason (R) :- Centre of mass depends only upon the mass of the body.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

20) A flywheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. Its angular velocity increases from 20π
rad/s to 40π rad/s in 10 sec. How many rotations did it make in this period :-

(1) 50
(2) 150
(3) 100
(4) 250

21) A particle is moves in a circle and it covered the angle as θ = t2 + 2t, then instantaneous angular
acceleration at t = 2 s in rad/s2 will be :-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1

22) A particle P moving in circle with angular velocity ω about centre O. Then find angular velocity

of particle about point A on circumference of circle.

(1)

(2) ω
(3)

(4)

23) A particle is going with constant speed along a uniform helical and spiral path separately as

shown in figure

(1) The velocity of the particle is constant in both cases

(2) The magnitude of acceleration of the particle is constant in both cases
(3) The magnitude of acceleration is constant in (a) and decreasing in (b)
(4) The magnitude of acceleration is decreasing continuously in both the cases

24) A cyclist is riding with a speed of 36 km/hr. As he approaches a circular turn on the road of
radius 20 m, he applies brakes and reduces his speed at the constant rate of 5 m/sec2 then net
acceleration acting on the cyclist is :

(1) 10 m/sec2
(2) m/sec2
(3) 5 m/sec2

(4)
m/sec2

25) The maximum velocity with which a car driver can traverse a flat curve of radius 150 m and
coefficient of friction 0.6 to avoid skidding is :-

(1) 60 m/s
(2) 30 m/s
(3) 15 m/s
(4) 25 m/s

26) A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity ω. A coin is placed at a distance r
from the centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is µ. The coin will revolve with the
record if :-

(1)

(2)
r<
(3)

(4)
27) A rider in a “barrel of fun” finds herself stuck with her back to the wall. Which diagram correctly

shows the forces acting on her?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A motorcyclist wants to drive on the vertical surface of wooden 'well' of radius 5 m, with a
minimum speed of . The minimum value of coefficient of friction between the tyres and the
wall of the well must be ...... (take, g = 10 ms-2)

(1) 0.10
(2) 0.20
(3) 0.30
(4) 0.40

29) A string of length 1 m is fixed at one end and carries a mass 100 g at the other [Link] string
makes (2/π) revolutions per second around a vertical axis through fixed end. The tension in the
string is : (Take g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 16 N
(2) 1.6 N
(3) 0.16 N
(4) none of the above

30) A car is moving on a curved path with banking angle θ, the coefficient of friction between tyres
of car and road is μs. The maximum safe velocity of car is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31)

A particle crosses the topmost point C of a vertical circle with critical speed; then the ratio of
velocities at points A, B and C is :-

(1) 3 : 2 : 1
(2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 52 : 32 : 12
(4)

32) A body of mass m hangs at one end of a string of length l, the other end of which is fixed. It is
given a horizontal velocity so that the string would just reach where it makes an angle 60° with the
vertical. The tension in the string at mean position is:

(1) 2mg
(2) mg
(3) 3mg
(4)

33) One end of a string of length ℓ is connected to a particle of mass 2m and the other to a small peg
on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed 2v the net force on the
particle (directed towards the centre) is (T is the tension in the string) :

(1) Zero

(2)

(3) T

(4)

34) In the figure is a smooth track which has a circular part of radius of curvature 0.1 m. The
minimum height from where a small ball must be released from rest so that it completes the circle

without leaving contact with the track, is

(1) 0.1 m
(2) 0.2 m
(3) 0.25 m
(4) 0.4 m

35) A cube of mass M starts at rest from point 1 at a height 4R, where R is the radius of the circular
track. The cube slides down the frictionless track and around the loop. The force which the track

exerts on the cube at point 2 is :

(1) 3 mg
(2) mg
(3) 2 mg
(4) cube will not reach the point 2.

36)

If the overbridge is concave instead of being convex, then the thrust on the road at the lowest
position will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential
acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes
equal to 8 × 10–4 J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?

(1) 0.1 m/s2

(2) 0.15 m/s2
(3) 0.18 m/s2
(4) 0.2 m/s2

38) Assertion : Acceleration of the particle in uniform circular motion remains constant.
Reason : Velocity of the particle doesn't change in circular motion.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39)

Two particles of equal masses are revolving in circular paths of radii r1 and r2 respectively with the
same speed v. The ratio of their centripetal forces is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Mr. Ramesh (60 kg) and Mr. Amit (50 kg) are sitting at the two extremes of a 4 m long boat (40
kg) standing still in water. They come to middle of boat to talk. Neglecting friction with water, how
far does the boat moves on the water during the process ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

41) Three identical discs of radius R are joined as shown. Find position of centre of mass for this

system ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Two blocks of mass 3 kg and 6 kg respectively are placed on a smooth horizontal surface. They
are connected by a light spring of force constant k = 200 N/m. Initially the spring is unstretched.
The indicated velocities are imparted to the blocks. The maximum extension of the spring will be-

(1) 30 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 20 cm
(4) 15 cm

43) A semicircular disc of mass m and a particle of mass 4m are placed as shown in figure. If the

centre of masss of the combination lies at origin, the value of y is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to the end of a string of 1 m length. It is whirled in a vertical circle.
If the velocity of the stone at the top be 4 m/s. What is the tension in the string (at that instant) ?

(1) 6 N
(2) 16 N
(3) 5 N
(4) 10 N

45) In a vertical circle of radius (r), at what point in its path a particle may have tension equal to
zero :–

(1) highest point

(2) lowest point
(3) at any point
(4) at a point horizontal from the centre of circle

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is an unsymmetrical bidentate ligand :-

(1) Glycinato
(2) Ethylenediamine
(3) Aqua
(4) Oxalato

2)
Which is incorrect for primary valency & secondary valency, as mentioned infront of the compound ?

(S = Secondary Valency, P = Primary Valency)

(1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3, P = 3, S = 6
(2) K2[PtCl4], P = 2, S = 4
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2], P = 2, S = 4
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, P = 4, S = 4

3) Which is not a π-bonded complex ?

(1) Zeise salt

(2) Ferrocene
(3) Bis (benzene) chromium
(4) Tetraethyl lead

4) Maximum C–O bond length present in :-

(1) Fe(CO)5
–
(2) [Fe(CO)5]
+
(3) [Fe(CO)5]
(4) All have equal

5) The correct IUPAC name for the compound [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2] is

(1) Diamminesilver(II)dicyanidoargentate(II)
(2) Diamminesilver(I)dicyanidoargentate(II)
(3) Diamminesilver(II)dicyanidoargentate(I)
(4) Diamminesilver(I)dicyanidoargentate(I)

6) A complex [Mabcd] can exhibit enantiomerism if it possess :-

(1) Tetrahedral geometry

(2) Square planar geometry
(3) Both square planar and tetrahedral geometry
(4) Square pyramid geometry

7) Match the catalyst with the process:-

Catalyst Process

The oxidation of ethyne

i. V2O5 a.
to ethanal

ii. TiCl4 + Al(CH3)3 b. Polymerisation of alkynes

Oxidation of SO2 in the

iii. PdCl2 c.
manufacture of H2SO4
 Nickel Polymerisation of
iv d.
complexes ethylene
Which of the following is the correct option?
(1) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b
(2) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(3) i-a, ii-d, iii-c, iv-b
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d

8)

Correct increasing order of spin magnetic moment (in B.M.) for complexes for :

(I) [FeF6]–3 (II) [V(H2O)6]+2 (III) [Fe(H2O)6]+2

(1) III < II < I
(2) II < III < I
(3) III < I < II
(4) II < I < III

9) Which of the following is correct order of cyrstal field splitting.

(1) C–donor > N–donor > O–donor

(2) N–donor > O–donor > C–donor
(3) C–donor > O–donor > N–donor
(4) O–donor > N–donor > C–donor

10) When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic acid solution, the decolourisation is slow in the
beginning but becomes instantaneous after some time because

(1) CO2 is formed as the product.

(2) reaction is exothermic.
(3) catalyses the reaction.
(4) Mn 2+
acts as autocatalyst.

11) All Zn(+II) compounds are white because :

(1) Zn2+ has a d10 configuration and the d-subshell is full

(2) Zn2+ shows d-d transition
(3) Zn2+ has no electron in the 4s-subshell
(4) Zn is not a transition element

12) Correct order of oxidising power in the series , and

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Which of the element have highest density -

(1) W
(2) Os
(3) Tc
(4) Mo

14) Which of the following is radioactive element :

(1) Ce
(2) Lu
(3) Eu
(4) Pm

15) , X and Y are respectively

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) Magnetic moment of xn+ is Hence No. of unpaired electron and value of 'n'
respectively. (Atomic number = 26)

(1) 4, 3
(2) 3, 5
(3) 4, 2
(4) 4, 1

17) Which is not a property of intestitial compound ?

(1) Non stiochiometric

(2) Harder than pure metal
(3) Chemically inert
(4) Having low melting point

18) When neutral or faintly alkaline KMnO4 is treated with potassium iodide, iodide ion is converted
into 'X'. 'X' is -

(1) I2
(2)
(3)
(4)
19) Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
Column II and assign the correct code :

Column I Column II

a. Co3+ i.

b. Cr3+ ii.

c. Fe3+ iii.

d. Ni2+ iv.

v.
(1) a - iv, b - v, c - ii, d - i
(2) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(3) a - iv, b - i, c - ii, d - iii
(4) a - iii, b - v, c - i, d - ii

20) The reason for the stability of Gd3+ ion is:

(1) 4f subshell-half filled

(2) 4f subshell-completely filled
(3) Possesses the outer electronic configuration of noble gases
(4) 4f subshell empty

21) Which elements in 3d-series shows highest & lowest enthalpy of atomization respectively.

(1) V, Zn
(2) Cr, Zn
(3) Cr, Mn
(4) Mn, Sc

22) In the synergic bond of metal carbonyls :-

(1) π* molecular orbital of ligand is used

(2) π* molecular orbital of metal is used
(3) It is Endothermic process
(4) σ* molecular orbital of metal is used

23) The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4] are

(1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic

(2) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(3) Square planar geometry and paramagnetic
(4) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic

24) The complex [Pt(Py)(NH3)BrCl] will have how many geometrical isomers?
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 0
(4) 2

25) The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral complex are related as

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) The correct order of energies of d-orbital of metal ion in a square planar complex is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) The value of the 'spin only' magnetic moment for one of the following configurations is 2.84 BM.
the correct one

(1) d4 (in strong ligand field)

(2) d4 (in weak ligand field)
(3) d3 (in weak as well as in strong fields)
(4) d5 (in strong ligand field)

28)

Which of the following is incorrect statement ?

(1) Anhydrous CuSO4 is blue and hydrated CuSO4 is brown in presence of moisture.
(2) KMnO4 , K2Cr2O7 , CrO2Cl2 are coloured due to charge transfer spectrum.
3+
(3) Green colour of emerald is due to presence of Cr in atmosphere of Be3Al2Si6O18 (beryl).
3+
(4) Red colour of ruby is due to presence of small amount of Cr in atmosphere of Al2O3.

29) The pair not correctly matched is :-

(1) [CoBr(NH3)5]SO4 and [CoSO4(NH3)5]Br ⇒ ionisation isomerism

(2) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 . H2O ⇒ Linkage isomerism
(3) [Cr(H2O)4(NO2)2]Cl and [Cr(H2O)4(ONO)2]Cl ⇒ Linkage Isomerism
(4) [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 and [Cr(H2O)4Cl2] . Cl. H2O ⇒ Hydrate isomerism
30) The CFSE for ocathedral [CoCl6]4– is 18,000 cm–1. The CFSE for tetrahedral [CoCl4]2– will be

(1) 18,000 cm–1

(2) 16,000 cm–1
(3) 8,000 cm–1
(4) 20,000 cm–1

31) Which of the following compound is expected to absorb light of lowest freuquency ?

(1) [Cr(en)]3+
3–
(2) [CrCl6]
3+
(3) [Cr(NH3)6]
3–
(4) [Cr(CN)6]

32) Assertion (A) : Toxic metal ions are removed by the chelating ligands.
Reason (R) : Chelate complexes tend to be more stable.

(1) A & R both are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) A & R both are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) A is wrong but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is wrong

33) What is the correct electronic configuration of the central atom in [Co(OX)3]–3 based on crystal
field theory:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) Which complex is most stable ?

Where Kd = Dissociation constant

– –16
(1) [Cu(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–4 –37
(2) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
–3 –44
(3) [Fe(CN)6] ; Kd = 1 × 10
– –20
(4) [Ag(CN)2] ; Kd = 1 × 10

35) Which of the following is correct order of stability ?

–2 –2 –2
(1) [NiCl4] < [PdCl4] < [PtCl4]
+3 +3 –3
(2) [Co(H2O)6] < [Co(NH3)6] < [Co(CN)6]
+3 +3 +3
(3) [Co(H2O)6] < [Rh(H2O)6] < [Ir(H2O)6]
(4) All of these
36)

Magnetic moment 2.84 B.M. is given by :-

(At. no.), Ni = 28, Ti = 22, Cr = 24, Co = 27)

(1) Ti3+
(2) Cr2+
(3) Co2+
(4) Ni2+

37) Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property
indicated against it ?

(1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting points

(2) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy
(3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation states
(4) Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+ : increasing magnetic moment

38) Which of the statements is not true?

(1) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange

(2) K2Cr2O7 solution becomes yellow on increasing the pH beyond 7
(3) On passing H2S through acidified K2Cr2O7 solution, a milky colour is observed
(4) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volumetric analysis

39) Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions ?

(1) Sc3+ (z = 21)

(2) La3+ (z = 57)
(3) Ti3+(z = 22)
(4) Lu3+ (z = 71)

40) The compounds [PtCl2(NH3)4]Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2 constitutes a pair of :

(1) Coordination isomers

(2) Linkage isomers
(3) Ionsiation isomers
(4) Hydrate isomers

41) Total number of chelate ring in [Ca(EDTA)]2– is:-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8
42) Which of the following can act as oxidising agent :-

(1) [Cr(CO)6]
(2) [Ni(CO)4]
+
(3) [Mn(CO)6]
(4) [V(CO)6]

43) The Δ0 for [CoCl6]–4 complex is 22500. The Δt for [CoCl4]–2 will be :-

(1) 800
(2) 12000
(3) 10000
(4) 22500

44) The donar sites of [EDTA]–4 are :-

(1) O atoms only

(2) N atoms only
(3) Two N atoms and four O atoms
(4) Three N atoms and three O atoms

45) The hybridization involved in complex

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

BOTANY

1) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Antherozoids of mosses require water for fertilisation

(2) Porphyra is an edible algae
(3) Main plant body in bryophytes is sporophytic, whereas in pteridophytes it is gametophytic
(4) Origin of seed habit can be traced in pteridophytes

2) Two organisms are classified as belonging to 2 different species on the basis of difference in their
chromosome numbers. Which of the following does it represents?

(1) Numerical Taxonomy

(2) Cytotaxonomy
(3) Chemotaxonomy
(4) Sexual classification
3) Read the following statement and choose correct option :
(i) Gymnosperms are heterosporous.
(ii) Prothallus is a gametophytic, free living photosynthetic structure formed in homosporous
pteridophyte.
(iii) Mosses have vascular tissue.
(iv) Mosses are of great ecological importance.

(1) i, ii correct and iii, iv incorrect

(2) i, ii, iv correct and iii incorrect
(3) i, ii, iii correct and iv incorrect
(4) i, ii, iii, iv correct

4) Find the incorrect from the following :-

(1) Mosses have an elaborate mechanism of spore dispersal

(2) After meiosis spores are produced within the capsule of bryophytes
(3) Protonema stage of mosses develops directly from a embryo
(4) Gemmae are asexual buds formed in liverworts

5) Which of the followings are correct statements?

(a) Algae are chlorophyll bearing, simple, thalloid, autotrophic & largely aquatic organisms.
(b) Cytotaxonomy is based on the chemical constituents of the plants.
(c) Algin and carrageen are commercially produced by red algae.
(d) Archaegonium of bryophytes is flask-shaped and produces a single egg.

(1) a, b & c only

(2) a & b only
(3) b, c & d only
(4) a & d only

6) Which of the following pair of plants is heterosporous?

(1) Selaginella and Marchantia

(2) Selaginella and Salvinia
(3) Sphagnum and Salvinia
(4) Pinus and Funaria

7) The main plant body of bryophytes is ___A___. It produces ___B___, hence is called a ___C___. Fill in
the blanks by choosing the correct option for A, B and C.

(1) A–diploid, B–spores, C–sporophyte

(2) A–haploid, B–gametes, C–gametophyte
(3) A–diploid, B–endospores, C–sporophyte
(4) A–haploid, B–conidia, C–gametophyte

8) Match the column given below :

Column-I (Genus) Column-II (Class)
A. Adiantum (i) Sphenopsida
B. Lycopodium (ii) Pteropsida
C. Equisetum (iii) Psilopsida
D. Psilotum (iv) Lycopsida
Correct option is :
(1) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(2) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iii
(3) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
(4) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii

9) Gametophytic generation is dominant in:-

(1) Pteridophyta (Pteris)

(2) Bryophyta (Riccia)
(3) Angiosperms (Rose)
(4) Gymnosperms (Pinus)

10)
How many statements are incorrect with respect to above diagram?
I. It is member of phaeophyceae.
II. It has r-phycoerythrin in their body.
III. Found in warmer marine areas.
IV. Food is stored as floridean starch.
V. Food is stored as amylopectin and glycogen.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

11) ___________ species of marine algae are used as food.

(1) 70
(2) 80
(3) 50
(4) 60

12) Fusing gametes are non-flagellated and similar in size in:-

(1) Fucus
(2) Eudorina
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Ulothrix

13) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer.
Statement I: In Pinus, male and female cones are borne on the same tree.
Statement II: In Cycas, male and female cones are borne on different trees.

(1) Both I & II are correct

(2) Both I & II are incorrect
(3) I is correct & II is incorrect
(4) I is incorrect & II is correct

14) Horse tails and ferns:-

(1) Lack archegonia

(2) Produce seeds
(3) Are vascular cryptogams
(4) Have dominant gametophytic phase in life cycle

15) Read the following Assertion (A) & Reason (R) and choose the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Spread of living pteridophytes is limited and restricted to narrow geographical
regions.
Reason (R): Prothallus of pteridophyte require cool, damp and shady places to grow.

(1) A & R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) A & R both are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct and R is incorrect
(4) A is incorrect and R is correct

16) Select the mismatch :-

(1) Pinus – Coralloid roots

(2) Cycas – Unbranched stem
(3) Salvinia – Heterosporous
(4) Equisetum – Homosporous

17) In gymnosperms, the nucellus is protected by integument and this composite structure is known
as :-

(1) Ovule
(2) Ovary
(3) Anther
(4) Strobili

18) The gametophyte is not an independent, free-living generation in:-

(1) Pinus
(2) Funaria
(3) Riccia
(4) Marchantia

19) Classification of algae is mainly based up on :-

(1) Reproductive organs

(2) Structure of spores
(3) Pigments
(4) Stored food

20) Independent alternation of generation is found in:-

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Spermatophyta
(3) Thallophyta
(4) Bryophyta

21) Pyrenoids are characteristically found in algae. A pyrenoid consists of:-

(1) Core of starch surrounded by protein

(2) Core of protein surrounded by starch
(3) Core of fatty acids covered by starch
(4) Nucleic acid and protein

22) In which of the following algae sexual reproduction may be isogamous, anisogamous or
oogamous?

(1) Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae

(2) Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(3) Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(4) Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae

23) In bryophytes spores are produced by _____ in ______

(1) Meiosis in capsule

(2) Mitosis in capsule
(3) Meiosis in sex organs
(4) Mitosis in sex organs
24) Match the following column I with column II and choose the correct answer.

Column I Column II

a. Algin i. Sphagnum

b. Peat ii. Brown algae

c. Agar iii. Red algae

Used for culturing

d. r-phycoerythrin iv.
microbes in labs

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii

25) Alga shown in the following figure is ___ A ___ and shows ___ B ___ kind of sexual reproduction.

(1) A-Colonial; B-Isogamous

(2) A-Filamentous; B-Anisogamous
(3) A-Profusely branched form ;B-oogamous
(4) A-Colonial ; B-oogamous

26)

Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) to choose the correct answer.
Assertion (A): Heterospory is a precursor to the seed habit and is considered as an important step
in evolution.
Reason (R): In heterosporous type of pteridophytes, zygote develops into young embryo within the
female gametophyte.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

27) Agar is obtained from the cell walls of ________

(1) Dictyota and Laminaria

(2) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Spirogyra and Ulothrix
(4) Chara and Chlorella

28) The gametophyte is not an independent free living generation in :-

(1) Liverwort
(2) Funaria
(3) Adiantum
(4) Cedrus

29) Gymnosperm endosperm is:-

(1) Triploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Haploid
(4) Tetraploid

30) How many among the following are diploid structures of gymnosperms?

Archegonia, sporophyte, megaspore, zygote, microspore mother cells,

embryo, female gametophyte.
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 6

31) The gymnosperms are:-

(1) Heterosporous - they produce haploid microspores and megaspores.

(2) Heterosporous - they produce diploid microspores and megaspores.
(3) Homo sporous - they produce same haploid microspores and megaspores.
(4) Homo sporous - they produce same diploid microspores and megaspores.

32) Prothallus of the pteridophyta produces:-

(1) Gametes
(2) Spores
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Gametophyte

33) Match the columns I and II

Column-I Column-III

Phylogenetic Chemical
A. classification P. constituents of
system the plant
 Evolutionary
B. Chemotaxonomy Q.
relationships

Chromosome
C. Cytotaxonomy R. number, structure,
behaviour
(1) A - R, B - P, C - Q
(2) A - Q, B - R, C - P
(3) A - P, B - R, C - Q
(4) A - Q, B - P, C - R

34)

Macrophyll leaves are characteristics of:-

(1) Mosses
(2) Ferns
(3) Funaria
(4) Selaginella

35) Gametophytic plant body is nonvascular in:-

(1) Algae and liverworts

(2) Mosses and ferns
(3) Gymnosperms and angiosperms
(4) All of these

36) Archigonia present in bryophytes are :

(1) Unicellular, jacketed

(2) Multicellular, non jacketed
(3) Multicellular, jacketed
(4) All of these

37) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the parts (A,B,C and D)
correctly identified
 A B C D

Male
1 Antheridiophore Globule Roots
thallus

Female Gemma
2 Archegoniophore Rhizoids
thallus cup

Female
3 Archegoniophore Bud Foot
thallus

4 Seta Sporophyte Protonema Rhizoids

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

38) Floridean starch is found in :-

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Rhodophyceae
(3) Pheophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

39) Evolution of seed habit first started in :-

(1) Liverwort
(2) Pinus
(3) Selaginella
(4) Funaria

40) Which of the following character will differentiate angiosperms from gymnosperms?

(1) Heterospory
(2) Absence of vessels
(3) Seeds enclosed in fruits
(4) Presence of seeds

41) In Bryophyta, simplest sporophyte occur in

(1) Riccia
(2) Marchantia
(3) Funaria
(4) Anthoceros

42)

Evolutionarily first plants to possess seeds are

(1) Angiosperms
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Bryophytes
(4) Pteridophytes

43)

A prothallus is

(1) A structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus develops

(2) A sporophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes.
(3) A gametophyte free living structure formed in pteridophytes.
(4) A primitive structure formed after fertilization in pteridophytes.

44) The first cell of Sporophytic generation in bryophytes is

(1) Spore
(2) Spore mother cell
(3) Zygote
(4) Protonema

45) The needle like leaves, reduced surface area, thick cuticle and sunken stomata are the
characteristic feature of the which group of plants :

(1) Pteridophyte
(2) All bryophytes
(3) Gymnosperm (conifers)
(4) Angiosperm

ZOOLOGY

1) In counter current system :-

(1) Descending arm of loop of Henle exchange its material with descending arm of vasa recta.
(2) Ascending arm of loop of Henle exchange its material with descending arm of vasa recta.
(3) "NaCl is returned to interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta"
(4) Both (2) & (3)

2) Which of the following correctly explains the function of a specific part of a human nephron?

(1) PCT-filtration of blood

(2) Bowman’s capsule-ultrafiltration
(3) Loop of Henle-maximum reabsorption of Na+
(4) DCT-carries the blood away from the glomerules towards renal vein

3) In collecting duct selective secretion occurs of some ions. These are :-

(1) NH3 only

(2) H+ & K+
+
(3) NH3 & K only
+
(4) NH3 & H only

4) In which of the following condition can activate JG cells to release renin :-

(1) Increase of BP
(2) More blood volume
(3) Increase of GFR
(4) Fall in GFR

5) Birds and reptiles are :-

(1) Ureotelic
(2) Uricotelic
(3) Ammonotelic
(4) Guanotelic

6) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) ANF Release from wall of atria decrease BP
(ii) Renin Secreted by JG-cells increase BP
(iii) ADH Anterior lobe of pituitary gland increase reabsorption of H2O
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) only
(4) (iii) only

7) Consider the following statements each with one or two blanks.

(i) Towards the centre of the inner concave surface of the kidney is a notch called _____ (a) _____
through which ureter, blood vessels and nerves enter.
(ii) The medulla of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called _____ (b) _____ projecting into
the _____ (c) _____.
(iii) Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by the _____ (d) _____. Blood from the glomerulus is
carried away by an _____ (e) _____ arteriole.
Which one of the following options correctly fills the blanks in any two of the statements?

(1) (a) - renal pelvis, (b) - calyces, (c) medullary pyramids

(2) (b) - medullary pyramids, (c) - calyces, (d) - afferent, (e) - efferent
(3) (b) - columns of Bertini, (c) - chordae tendinde, (d) efferent, (e) - afferent
(4) (a) - hilum, (d) - efferent, (e) - afferent

8) The outline of principal event of urination is given below in disordered manner.

(I) Stretch receptors on the wall of urinary bladder send signal to the CNS.
(II) The bladder fills with urine and becomes distended.
(III) Micturition
(IV) CNS passes on motor messenger to initiate the contraction of smooth muscles of bladder and
simultaneous relaxation of urethral sphincter.
The correct order of step for urination is :-

(1) I → II → III → IV
(2) IV → III → II → I
(3) II → I → IV → III
(4) III → II → I → IV

9)

Which condition is not responsible for dilute urine?

(1) Hypersecretion of ADH

(2) Low level of Aldosterone
(3) More level of ANF
(4) Increased Angiotensin II

10) How much amount of CO2 and H2O is eliminated by Lungs respectively ?

(1) 200 ml/min. , 400 ml/min.

(2) 400 ml/min. , 200 ml/min.
(3) 200 ml/min. , 400 ml/day.
(4) 50 ml/min. , 200 ml/day.

11) Which can be removed with a minimum water loss ?

(1) Ammonia
(2) Urea
(3) Uric acid
(4) Both (1) and (2)
12) Longitudinal section of kidney is shown in the diagram. Which of the following is not correctly

related with its feature/function ?

(1) P - Protective covering of kidney

(2) Q - It possess loop of henle
(3) R - It collects deoxygenated blood from the kidney
(4) S - It collects the urine from the renal pelvis

13) Match the following parts of a nephron with their function:

Descending limb Reabsorption of

(a) (i)
of Henle's loop salts only

Proximal Convoluted Reabsorption of

(b) (ii)
tubule water only

Conditional
Ascending limb reabsorption of
(c) (iii)
of Henle's loop sodium ion and
water

Reabsorption of
Distal convoluted
(d) (iv) ion, water and
tubule
organic nutrients.
Select the correct option from the following :
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), d-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), d-(iii)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), d-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), d-(ii)

14) In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea ?

(1) Renal Vein

(2) Dorsal Aorta
(3) Hepatic Vein
(4) Hepatic Portal Vein

15) Match the following?

Column-I Column-II

Selective secretion
A PCT i
of H+ and K+ ions
 70-80 percent
B DCT ii of electrolytes and
water reabsorbed

Allow passage of small

C Loop of Henle iii
amount of urea

D Ascending limb iv Concentration of urine

E Collecting duct v Permeable to salts

(1) A-i ; B-ii ; C-iii ; D-iv ; E-v
(2) A-i ; B-iii; C-iv ; D-ii ; E-v
(3) A-ii ; B-i ; C-iv ; D-v ; E-iii
(4) A-ii ; B-iii ; C-iv ; D-v ; E-i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Given below a diagrammetic representation of a nephron in which their different parts are
labelled through alphabates A, B, C, D, E and F.
Which are the parts responsible for :-
(A) Ultrafiltration
(B) Maximum reabsorption

(C) Conditional reabsorption respectively

(1) A, B and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) B, D, E and F
(4) F, E and B

17) Which of following is not a correct statement/function about RAAS :-

(1) Fall is GFR activates J.G. cells to release renin

(2) Angiotensin-II activates adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
(3) Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ & H2O from DCT
(4) ADH also has vasocontrictory effect on blood vessels so ADH can increase blood pressure/GFR

18) Read the following statements carefully :

(A) Kidney is covered by tough renal capsule
(B) Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Distal Convoluted Tubule are situated in the cortical region of
kidney
(C) Glucose, amino acids, Na+ are reabsorbed passively
(D) Tubular secretion helps in maintenance of ionic and acid base balance of body fluids
How many statements are correct :

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

19) Choose the wrong match :-

(1) Lungs - Excrete 200 ml/minute CO2

(2) Sweat - Cooling effect on the body surface
(3) Sebum - Protective oily covering for the skin
(4) Liver - Release Angiotensin-II

20) Assertion (A) : Proximal convoluted tubule increases the area of reabsorption.
Reason (R) : It is a single layer of cuboidal cells with large number of micro villi.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true. (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(2)
correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true statements but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

21) Match the items in Column-I with those in Column-II:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Podocytes (i) Crystallised oxalates

(b) Protonephridia (ii) Annelids

(c) Nephridia (iii) Amphioxus

(d) Renal calculi (iv) Filtration slits

Select the correct option from the following :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), d-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), d-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), d-(i)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), d-(i)

22) Dialysing fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except

(1) Water
(2) Glucose
(3) Nitrogenous wastes
(4) Salts
23) See the diagram given below carefully and identify the structure which forms malpighian

corpuscles :-

(1) A, D
(2) C, D
(3) B, C
(4) A, E

24) Which of the following epithelium is not found in nephron ?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Brush bordered epithelium
(4) Transitional epithelium

25) Match column I to column II :-

Column I Column II
(a) Malfunctioning of kidney (I) 25-30 gm/day
(b) Dialysis (II) NaCl, Urea, Lactic acid etc.
(c) Urea excreted (III) Uremia
(d) Sweat (IV) Cellophone tube
(1) (a) – (III), (b) – (IV), (c) – (I), (d) – (II)
(2) (a) – (II), (b) – (III), (c) – (I), (d) – (IV)
(3) (a) – (I), (b) – (II), (c) – (III), (d) – (IV)
(4) (a) – (II), (b) – (III), (c) – (IV), (d) – (I)

26) Complete the following paragraph by selecting the option that correctly fills the blanks (i)-(iv).
The kidneys have built in mechanisms for the regulation of glomerular filtration rate. One such
efficient mechanism is carried out by (i) . It is a special sensitive region formed by cellular
modifications in the (ii) and the (iii) at the location of their contact. A fall in GFR can activate the
JG cells to release (iv) which can stimulate the glomerular blood flow and thereby brings GFR back
to normal.

(1) (i)-ANF, (ii)-PCT, (iii)-Efferent arteriole, (iv)-Angiotensin

(2) (i)-ANF, (ii)-DCT, (iii)-Afferent arteriole, (iv)-Renin
(3) (i)-JGA, (ii)-PCT, (iii)-Efferent arteriole, (iv)-Angiotensinogen
(4) (i)-JGA, (ii)-DCT, (iii)-Afferent arteriole, (iv)-Renin

27) Following is a tabular representation of differences between Juxtamedullary and Cortical

nephron. Find out the correct difference :-

Juxtamedullary Cortical
Feature
nephron nephron

(1) Size Smaller Larger

Loop of
(2) Longer Short
Henle

85% of total 15% of total

(3) Presence
nephrons nephrons

Control plasma
Control plasma
volume when
(4) Function volume when water
water supply is
supply is normal
short
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28) Concentration of urine depends upon which part of nephron ?

(1) Bowman's capsule

(2) Length of Henle's loop
(3) P.C.T.
(4) Network of capillaries arising from glomerulus

29) NFP = x – (y + CHP) In the given equation the x & y are ?

x → BCOP
(1)
y → GHP
x → BCOP
(2)
y → CHP
x → GHP
(3)
y → BCOP
x → BP
(4)
y → BCOP

30) The DCT's of many nephrons open into a straight tube called :-

(1) loop of henle

(2) Collecting duct
(3) DLT
(4) DLT

31) Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to kidney function regulation ?

(1) When someone drinks lot of water, ADH release is suppressed.

(2) Exposure to cold temperature stimulates ADH release.
(3) An increase in glomerular blood flow stimulates formation of Angiotensin II.
(4) During summer when body loses lot of water by evaporation, the release of ADH is suppressed.

32) Which one does not filter out from blood to Bowman's capsule in glomerular ultrafiltration ?

(1) Amino acids

(2) Protein
(3) Glucose
(4) Urea

33) Kidneys are situated between level of _____ and _____ vertebra, close to the dorsal inner wall of
the ____ cavity. Choose the option which correctly fill the blanks respectively.

(1) Third lumbar, last thoracic, pelvic

(2) Last thoracic, third lumbar, pelvic
(3) Last thoracic, third lumbar, abdominal
(4) Last lumbar, third thoracic, abdominal

34)

Match column I with column II and select correct option from the codes given below

Column-I Column-II

(A) Structural and functional unit of myofibril (i) H-zone

(B) Protein of thin filament (ii) Myosin

(C) Protein of thick filament (iii) Sarcomere

The central part of thick filament

(D) (iv) Actin
not overlapped by thin filament

(v) Myofilament

(1) A-(iii), B-(ii),C-(v), D-(iv)

(2) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)

35) What is true about voluntary muscle ?

(1) This muscle is closely associated with the skeletal components of the body
(2) This muscle does not give a stripped appearence
(3) Their activities are not under the voluntary control of nervous system
(4) They are primarily not involved in locomotary actions and changes of body postures

36) Muscle fibre is covered by a layer of connective tissue called as

(1) Epimysium
(2) Epineurium
(3) Endomysium
(4) Perimysium

37) Identify the tissue shown in the diagram and match with its characteristics and its location :-

(1) Striated muscle - Intercalated discs

(2) Skeletal muscle - Fatigue soon
(3) Smooth muscle - Actin, myosin are absent
(4) Striated muscle - Non fatigue type

38) Which of the following is incorrect matching ?

(1) Muscular movement – Limbs

(2) Ciliary movement – Trachea
(3) Flagellar movement – Spermatozoa
(4) Amoeboid movement – Erythrocytes

39) The type of muscles present in our:

(1) Upper arm are smooth muscle fibres fusiform in shape.

(2) Heart are involuntary and unstriated smooth muscles.
(3) Intestine are striated and involuntary.
(4) Thigh are striated and voluntary.

40) Following figure shows cross section of muscles, labelled A, B, C, D. Structure and their
description is given below. Which option is correctly matched with its labelling and its description ?

(1) A-Muscles fibre – It is lined by elastic fibre membrane.

(2) B-Sarcolemma – Collagenous connective tissue layer which cover the muscle fibre.
(3) C-Fascicle – Each muscle fibre which is covered by blood capillary.
(4) D-Muscle Bundle – Many muscle fibres held by common collagenous connective tissue layer.

41) Isotropic band contains :-

A. Actin rods B. Myosin rods
C. Cross arm D. ATP- Binding sites
E. Troponin protein F. HMM.

(1) A, D
(2) E, F
(3) A, E
(4) B, C

42)

Read the following statements (A – D) :-

(A) A bands are dark and contain myosin and actin filaments
(B) I bands are light and cantain actin filaments
(C) Part between two Z-line is sarcomere
(D) Central part of A-band, not overlapped by thin filament is H-zone

How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

43) Sarcomere considered as :-

(1) The portion of myofibrilis between 2 successive Z-lines

(2) The portion between thick fibres
(3) The portion between two half-I bands
(4) The portion between Z-line & M-line

44) Each sarcomere has a central :-

(1) 'A' band (made of thin filaments)

(2) 'A' and 'I' band
(3) 'I' band (made of thin filaments)
(4) 'A' band (made of thick filaments)

45)

Match the column-I (Animals) to column-II. (excretory organ) :-

(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
(2) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–iv
(3) A–ii, B–i, C–iii, D–iv
(4) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 1 2 1 3 3 3 4 3 3 1 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 3 2 2 4 3 4 2 2 4 1 3 3 1 1 1 4 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 4 2 4 1 2 1 1 4 1 1 2 4 1 3 4 3 1 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 2 1 1 4 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 4 1 4 3 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 4 3 3 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 2 3 4 2 2 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 1 1 1 1 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 1 2 4 3 2 4 3 3 1 1 4 2 4 3 2 2 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 3 3 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 4 2 2 4 2 1 2 3 1 3 3 3 2 3 3 4 4 2 4 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 3 1 4 1 4 2 2 3 2 1 2 3 4 1 3 2 4 4 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 1 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

3)

4) Centre of mass of solid hemisphere from its base is =

5) Question Explanation :
A circular plate of diameter a is in contact with a square plate of edge a. We need to find the
center of mass of the composite system.
Concept Based :
This problem involves finding the center of mass of a composite system made of two shapes: a
circle and a square. The center of mass is determined by the masses and positions of the
objects.
Formula Used :
The center of mass (CM) for two objects is given by:

where M is the mass and x is the position of the center of mass of each object.
Calculation :
Given that the density and thickness are the same for circular and square plates, the masses of
the two plates are proportional to their surface areas.
• Mass of the circle:

• Mass of the square:

Msquare ∝ a2

Since a2 is greater than , the square plate has more mass.

Thus, the center of mass of the system will be closer to the square plate, inside the square
plate.
Final Answer: inside the square plate
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

6) , m1 = πR2ρ ,m2 =

also x1 = 0,

putting value

7)

8) =

= = 2 m/s
Thus, the centre of mass of the two-body system moves along the z-axis only.

9) Let cart attains velocity v1 and velocity of child be v2 .

v1 + v2 = u ⇒ v2 = u –v1
⇒ 0 = mv1 – mv2
⇒ 0 = Mv1 – m(u – v1)

mu = (M + m) v1 ⇒

10) Explain question: We need to find the final velocity of the other fragment.

Concept: Conservation of linear momentum.

Solution: Assume total mass = 6m and

Final Answer: Option 1 is correct.

11) Pi = Pf
0 = 3 × 16 – 6 × v
3 × 16 = 6v
v = 8 m/s

12)
mBvB = MgVg
.05 × 30 = My1
Mg = 1.5 kg

13) Explain Question: Ask to find Velocity of bullet.

Concept: This question is based on Conservation of momentum and energy stored in spring.
Solution: mv = MV ; MV2 = kd2

∴V= ∴v= .

Final Answer:

14) 5 m/s 10 m/s

(A) → ←(B)
1kg 1/2 kg

LMC V1 + V1 =

e=1= ⇒ V1 – V1 = 15

=15
V2 = 10 m/s
V1 = – 5 m/s

15)

(2 × 3) + (1 × 4) = (2 + 1)

m/s

16)

C.O.M.

% loss

⇒ 56 %
17) .......(1)

⇒ v1 = –2 m/s and v2 = 2 m/s

So, |v1| = |v2| = 2 m/s

18)

vsin45° = V'sinθ .......... (1)

evcos45° = V'cosθ ............(2)
By (1) & (2)

19)

Theory

20)

N = 150 revolution

21) Explanation :-
A particle moves in a circle. Its angular position is given by θ = t2 + 2t. We need to find the
instantaneous angular acceleration at t = 2s.
Concept :- Angular acceleration is the rate of change of angular velocity with respect to time.
Formula:
• Angular velocity (ω) = dθ/dt.
• Angular acceleration (α) = d2θ/dt2
Calculation :-
• θ = t2 + 2t
• First find angular velocity:
ω = dθ/dt = 2t + 2
• Now differentiate ω to find α:
Thus, the instantaneous angular acceleration is α = 2 rad/s2.

Correct option: (2)

22)

Linear speed of particle P → V = rω

Angular velocity of P about A =

=
=

23) ac = , radius is constant in case (a) and increases in case (b). So that magnitude of
acceleration is constant in case (a) and decreases in case (b).

24) Explanation
A cyclist is riding at 36km/h and approaches a circular turn of radius 20m. The cyclist applies
brakes, reducing speed at 5m/s2. We need to find the net acceleration.
Concept
Net acceleration is the vector sum of centripetal acceleration (due to circular motion) and
tangential acceleration (due to speed reduction).
Formula:
Centripetal (radial) acceleration:

Tangential acceleration:
(negative due to braking)
Net acceleration:

Brief Calculation:
Step 1: Convert speed to m/s

Step 2: Calculate centripetal acceleration

Step 3: find net acceleration

Given that the tangential acceleration at = – 5m/s2 (negative due to braking), the net
acceleration is:

25)
v2 = μrg
v2 = 900
v = 30 m/s

26) In Balancing condition

Fcentritugal ≤ Friction force
mrω2 ≤ µmg

27)
 Free Body diagram w.r.t. ground.

Nw = Normal due to wall

fr = friction force
Mg = gravitational force

28)

fL = mg
⇒ μN = mg

⇒μ=

29)

Tsinθ = mrω2

⇒ = mrω2

⇒ T = mℓω2 =

30)

Fcp = N sinθ + f cosθ .... (1)

Mg + f sinθ = N cosθ ....(2)

31)

Question Asking About:

The velocity ratio at points A, B and C in a vertical circle, given critical speed at C.

Key Concept:
• Energy Conservation =
• Critical Speed at C:

Formula & Calculation:

VA = ?, VB = ?, VC = ?
• At C:
• At B:

• At A:

• Velocity Ratio:

Final Answer:

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

32) When body is released from the position p (inclined at angle θ from vertical) then velocity
at mean position
v=

∴ Tension at the lowest point = mg +

= mg + [2gl(1 – cos 60)] = mg + mg = 2mg

33) Net force on particle (towards centre) = Tension in string

34) ⇒ h = 2.5 R

35) COME : K1 + U1 = K2 + U2

0 + mg (4R) = mv2 + mg (2R) ⇒ mv2 = 4mgR

Forces at position 2 :
 N= –mg = 4mg – mg = 3 mg

36) Explanation
The problem involves understanding the forces acting on a vehicle while it travels over a concave bridge (an
overbridge with a concave shape, or a "dip" in the road). The aim is to find the total thrust (or normal force) exerted
on the vehicle at the lowest point of the bridge.
Concepts Involved:

A. Normal Force (Thrust): The normal force is the reaction force provided by a surface to support the weight of an
object. It acts perpendicular to the surface.
B. Centripetal Force: When a vehicle moves along a curved path (such as over a concave bridge), it experiences a
centripetal force that pulls it towards the center of the curve.
C. Weight of the Vehicle: The weight of the vehicle (mg) acts vertically downward.
D. Circular Motion: The vehicle is following a circular path due to the curve of the bridge. The centripetal force
required for circular motion is provided by the normal force exerted by the road.

Formula and Derivation:

For a vehicle moving in a circular arc, the forces at the lowest point of the concave bridge can be described as follows:
1. Centripetal Force: The centripetal force Fc required for circular motion is given by the formula:

2. Forces at the Lowest Point: At the lowest point of the concave bridge, the normal force (thrust) N must
counterbalance both the weight of the vehicle and provide the centripetal force. Thus, the forces balance as follows:

3. Solving for Normal Force: Rearranging the above equation to solve for the normal force:

Answer:
The normal force or thrust at the lowest position on a concave bridge will be the sum of the weight of the vehicle and the
centripetal force acting on it. Therefore, the correct answer is:

Final Answer

Option 1:

37)

Explain question : What is the magnitude of this acceleration

Concept: This question is based on work energy theorem

Solution:

By using work-energy theorem, W=ΔKE

 ⇒ (mat) (4πR) = mv2 ⇒ at =

⇒ at = = 0.1 m/s2
OR

= KE ⇒ = 8 × 10–4
⇒ v2 = 16 × 10–2 ⇒ v = 4 × 10–1 = 0.4 m/s
Now,
v2 = u2 + 2ats (s = 4πR)

⇒ at = = 0.1 m/s2
Final Answer: (1)

38)

Both acceleration and velocity change their acceleration in case of UCM , their magnitude are
constant but direction changes
So both (A) and (R) are wrong.

39) Question Explanation:

Two particles of equal mass are moving with the same speed v in circular paths of radii r1 and
r2. We need to find the ratio of their centripetal forces.
Concept:

Centripetal force in circular motion is given by . For equal masses and equal speeds,
the force depends only on the radius.
Formula:

Calculation:
Since both particles have equal mass and same speed, mv2 cancels out:

Final Answer: Option (1)

40)
⇒ 50 (x + 2) + 60 (x – 2) + 40x = 0
– 20 + 150 x = 0

41) Concept Based (Center of Mass of a System of Objects):

Since the discs are identical, we can treat their centers as point masses. The center of mass is
the weighted average of their positions.
Formula used:
The x-coordinate of the center of mass Xcm is:

Xcm =
Since the discs are identical, m1 = m2 = m3 = m, and the formula simplifies to:

Xcm =
They coordinate Ycm is:
Calculation:
• Disc 1 (top): Center at ( – R , R)
• Disc 2 (right): Center at (R, 0)
• Disc 3 (bottom): Center at ( – R, – R)

X – coordinate:

Y – coordinate:

Thus, the center of mass is at .

Answer:

The correct answer is Option 3:

42) =

= (1 + 2)2
200 = 2(9)

=
xmax = 0.3 m
= 30 cm

43)

44)

Explain question : Ask to find tension in the string at the top of the vertical circle

Concept: This question is based on vertical circular motion

Solution:
 T + mg =

T + 1 × 10 =
T = 16 – 10
T = 6N

Final Answer: (1)

45)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Problem Explanation:
In a vertical circle of radius r, we need to determine at which point the tension in the string or
rope will be zero.
Concept:
The tension in the string or rope in a vertical circle is influenced by two factor:
1. the gravitational force acting on the object.
2. The gravitational force required to keep the object moving in a circular path.
At the highest point of the vertical circle, the gravitational force is acting in the same direction
as the centripetal force. At this point, the tension in the rope can be zero if the gravitational
force alone is enough to provide the necessary centripetal force for circular motion.
At the lowest point of any point horizontal to center, the tension cannot be zero because the
tension is always required to balance both the gravitational force and the centripetal force.
Formula:

At the highest point, the centripetal force is given by:

It the tension T = 0, the gravitational force mg exactly provides the required centripetal force.
Explanation:
At the highest point of the circle, the centripetal force needed for circular motion is provided
entirely by the gravitational force. Therefore, the tension in the string becomes zero.
Final Answer:
Option1:, Highest point.

CHEMISTRY

46)

(1) Glycinato
(2) Ethylenediamine

(3) Aqua H2O monodentate.

(4) Oxalato (C2O42–)

47) P = 2 S = 4 for [Cu(NH3)4]SO4

48)

Tetraethyl lead σ bonded omc

49)

Metal with –ve ion shows more synergic bond.

50) While giving iupac name of [Ag(NH3)2][Ag(CN)2]

[Ag(NH3)2]+[Ag(CN)2]- cationic complex was named and then anionic complex was named.
Hence the iupac name is Diamminesilver(I)dicyanidoargentate(I).

51)

Explanation:
The question asks which geometry (tetrahedral, square planar, square pyramid) allows a
[Mabcd] complex to exhibit enantiomerism due to lacking internal symmetry.

Concept: (Geometry of complex, Enantiomersim & Internal symmetry)

Enantiomerism requires a molecule to lack an internal plane of symmetry. Tetrahedral
[Mabcd] complexes lack this symmetry, allowing for non-superimposable mirror images.
Square planar and square pyramidal geometries, however, possess planes of symmetry. Thus,
only tetrahedral [Mabcd] complexes exhibit enantiomerism.

Final Answer: Option (1)

 52) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O is hydrate isomerism

53)

Asking for : Identifying the complex ion exhibiting geometrical isomerism.

Concept : Geometrical isomerism arises from different spatial arrangements of ligands around
the central metal atom in complexes with two or more types of ligands.

Solution / Explanation : [Cr(H2​O)4​Cl2​]+ - an octahedral complex of type MA4​B2 can exist as

cis - and trans isomers.

[Pt(NH3​)3​Cl]+ - (MA3​B type), [Co(NH3​)6​]3+ - (MA6 type​), and [Co(CN)5​(NC)]3− - (MA5​B type) lack
the necessary arrangement of different ligands for geometrical isomerism.

Answer : Option : 1

54)

Asking for: The correct order of crystal field splitting strength for different donor atoms.

Concept: Crystal field splitting is influenced by the nature of the ligands. The spectrochemical
series arranges ligands in order of their increasing field strength.

Formula: N/A (conceptual question based on the spectrochemical series)

Solution/Explanation:

A. The spectrochemical series is an experimentally determined series that ranks ligands based on
their ability to split d-orbital energies.
B. Carbon-donor ligands (like CN-) are strong-field ligands, causing large splitting.
C. Nitrogen-donor ligands (like NH3, en) are intermediate-field ligands.
D. Oxygen-donor ligands (like H2O, C2O42–) are weak-field ligands, causing small splitting.
E. Therefore, the correct order is C-donor > N-donor > O-donor.

Answer : Option : 1

55) is autocalyst.
The rate of reaction increases with the formation of Mn2+ ions.
In Autocatalysis, the reaction is catalysed by one of its product.
Reaction : 2MnO4¯ + 5C2O42– +16H+ → 2Mn2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O

56) All Zn2+ compounds are white because Zn2+ has d10 configuration and the d-subshell is full.

57) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 226 (Part- I ) d & f - block

In a period stability of lower O-S increases so oxidising power increases.

58) Os have highest density

59) Pm is only lanthanide which is radioactive

60) Answer - Option(1)

Explanation - Identify X and Y respectively
Concept - The correct answer is 1. X = OH-, Y = H+.
The reaction you're describing is the general reaction of a metal (M) with a base (like NaOH or
KOH) and oxygen (or an oxidizing agent) to form a ferrate or a similar compound. In this case,
the product indicates a chromate or a similar species.
The general form of the reaction is:
M + OH- + O2 (or an oxidizing agent) → [Metal oxyanion] + H2O
So, X represents the hydroxide ion (OH-), and the reaction occurs in the presence of a base. Y
represents the acidic conditions (H+) needed to convert the chromate/manganate to
dichromate.

61)

Asking for:

A. Number of unpaired electrons in the xⁿ⁺ ion.

B. Value of 'n' for the xⁿ⁺ ion, where x is iron (Fe) with atomic number 26.

C. The magnetic moment of xⁿ⁺ is ​ BM

Concept:

A. Magnetic Moment: The magnetic moment of an ion is related to the number of unpaired
electrons.

Formula:

A. Magnetic moment (μ) = ​ Bohr magnetons (BM), where 'n' is the number of
unpaired electrons.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Atomic Number and Electronic Configuration:

• The atomic number of Fe is 26.
• The electronic configuration of Fe is [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s².

B. Determining Unpaired Electrons:

• The magnetic moment is given as .
 • Using the formula μ= ​, we have 24​= ​.
• Thus, there are 4 unpaired electrons.

Final Answer: The correct option is (3).

62)

Asking for : To identify the property that is not characteristic of interstitial compounds.

Concept : Understanding the formation and properties of interstitial compounds, which are
formed when small atoms trap within the lattice of transition metals.

Solution : Interstitial compounds are typically non-stoichiometric due to the variable

occupancy of the interstitial sites.

The presence of small atoms increases the hardness and tensile strength of the metal lattice.
They often retain metallic conductivity.

However, interstitial compounds generally have higher melting points than the pure metals
due to the stronger metallic bonding resulting from the presence of the non-metal atoms.

Answer : Option : 4

63)

Explanation -

The question asks what product 'X' is when iodide ions (from potassium iodide) are treated
with neutral or faintly alkaline potassium permanganate (KMnO₄).

Concept - General reaction

2MnO4−​+H2​O + I− → 2MnO2 ​+ 2OH− + IO3−​
Final Answer - Option (3)

64)

Asking for:

A. Matching metal ions in Column I with their spin magnetic moments in Column II.

Concept:

A. Spin Magnetic Moment: The magnetic moment due to the spin of unpaired electrons
in an ion.

Formula:
 A. μ = ​ BM, where 'n' is the number of unpaired electrons.

Solution/Explanation:

A. Determine the electronic configuration and number of unpaired electrons for

each ion:

A. a. Co³⁺ :

A. Co (Z=27): [Ar] 3d⁷ 4s²

B. Co³⁺ : [Ar] 3d⁶

C. d⁶ configuration can have 4 unpaired electrons (high spin) or 0 unpaired

electrons (low spin). Assuming high spin (as it is not specified) n = 4.

D. (n=4): μ= ​= ​ BM

B. b. Cr³⁺ :

A. Cr (Z=24): [Ar] 3d⁵ 4s¹

B. Cr³⁺ : [Ar] 3d³

C. (n=3): μ= ​= ​ BM

C. c. Fe³⁺ :

A. Fe (Z=26): [Ar] 3d⁶ 4s²

B. Fe³⁺ : [Ar] 3d⁵

C. (n=5): μ= ​= ​ BM

D. d. Ni²⁺ :

A. Ni (Z=28): [Ar] 3d⁸ 4s²

 B. Ni²⁺ : [Ar] 3d⁸

C. (n=2): μ= ​= ​ BM

B. Match the ions with their calculated spin magnetic moments:

A. a. Co³⁺ - iv. BM

B. b. Cr³⁺ - v. BM

C. c. Fe³⁺ - ii. BM

D. d. Ni²⁺ - i. BM

Final Answer: The correct option is (1).

65)

Half filled 4f subshell is more stable.

66) Fact for vanadium, Zn has fulfilled confi.

67) Concept

68) Tetrahedral geometry and Diamagnetic

CO is SFL. So, unpaired electrons will get paired.

sp3 hybridization; Tetrahedral; Diamagnetic

69)
70) ; CFSE of octahedral > CFSE of tetrahedral.

71) Energies of d-orbitals of metal ion in a square planar complex is :

72) d4 (in strong ligand field)

73) ygygy

74) [Cr(H2O)6) Cl3 and (Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O is hydrate isomerism

75) Δt = × 18000 = 8000 cm–1

76)

Energy absorb < splitting energy

(E = hν)

77)

Chelating ligands forms stable complex than monodentate ligands.

78)

With Co3+, H2O works as SFL

∴ (d6)
79) Stability of complex ∝

80)

Ncert, Class12th , Part-I , [Link]: 131,132, Edition-2023-2024.

81)

Value of n = 2
So, Ni+2

82)

Highest melting point is of Cr.

Mn < Ti < V < Cr

83)

K2Cr2O7 is preferred over Na2Cr2O7 due to its non-hygroscopic nature.

84)

Ti – [Ar]4s23d2
0
Ti+3 – [Ar]4s 3d1 will exhibit colour

85) NCERT Pg.#246 Para-9.4.3

86)

No. of CR = denticity-1

87)

[V(CO)6]
EAN = 23 + 12 = 35
so can capture one electron and act as oxidising agent.

88)

=
⇒ 10000
 89)

Page-240, NCERT-XII, Part-I

90) The shape of is square planar, where CN- is a strong ligand and the
hybridisation of Ni is dsp2.

BOTANY

91) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 23,35,38, Para-8,2,1

92) [NCERT PG. 30]

93) NCERT Page No. # 39, 36

94) NCERT-XI, Pg # 35, 36, para 3.2.1, 3.2.2

95) NCERT-XI, Page # 24,29

(a) All are algae traits
(b) Cytotaxonomy uses chromosomes, not chemicals.
(c): Algin is from brown algae; carrageenan from red algae.
(d): Characters of Archegonium structure.

96) Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia which produce two kinds of spores, macro (large) and
micro (small) spores, are known as heterosporous. The megaspores and microspores
germinate and give rise to female and male gametophytes, respectively. The female
gametophytes in these plants are retained on the parent sporophytes for variable periods. The
development of the zygotes into young embryos take place within the female gametophytes.
This event is a precursor to the seed habit considered an important step in evolution.

97) NCERT-XI, Page # 29

98) NCERT-XI, Page # 32

99) NCERT [Link]. 35

100) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 23-33

101)

NCERT [Link]. 26
102)

NCERT [Link]. 24

103) NCERT [Link]. 33

104) NCERT [Link]. 30

105)

NCERT [Link]. 32

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 22

107) Allen Module pg- 128

108)

NCERT XI Pg. # 33

109) Allen Module Pg-100, Q no. 141

110) Allen Module pg-103

111) Allen Module pg-99

112) NCERT [Link]. 26, 27

113) NCERT [Link]. 30

114) NCERT [Link]. 26, 27, 29

115) NCERT [Link]. 24,25

116) NCERT [Link]. 32

117) NCERT [Link]. 27

118) NCERT Pg. # 33

119)

Allen module.

120)

Ncert page 33.

121)

NCERT Page No. 34

122)

NCERT Page No. 38

123)

NCERT Page No. 31

124)

NCERT pg no. 36

125) NCERT Page no. 24, 28, 30, 32

126) NCERT Page No. # 35

127)

The Correct answer is: 2

A. Archigoniophore
B. Female thallus
C. Gemma Cup
D. Rhizoids

128) Ioridean starch is a type of storage carbohydrate found in Rhodophycease (Red Algae).

129) NCERT, Pg. # 38

130) Gymnosperms produce naked seeds

131)
 132)

Explanation:
Gymnosperms were the first plants to evolve seeds during the late Devonian period (~380
million years ago).They produce naked seeds (not enclosed within fruits) on cone scales.
Examples include Cycads, Conifers, Ginkgo, and Gnetales.

133)

Explanation:

Prothallus is the haploid gametophyte stage in the life cycle of pteridophytes (ferns and their
relatives).It is free-living, small, heart-shaped, and photosynthetic. It bears antheridia (male
reproductive organs) and archegonia (female reproductive organs).

134)

Allen module Pg no. 117, Q no. 183

135)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 38

ZOOLOGY

136) The correct answer is: Option (4) Both (2) & (3)

Solution/Explanation:

A. Incorrect: The descending limb of the loop of Henle primarily loses water, not NaCl. Also, the
exchange isn't with the descending vasa recta.
B. Correct: The ascending limb of the loop of Henle loses NaCl, which is picked up by the
descending vasa recta. This is a key part of the countercurrent exchange.
C. Correct: As the vasa recta ascends back toward the cortex, it loses water (which went into the
descending limb of the loop of Henle) and returns the NaCl to the interstitium (the space
surrounding the loop of Henle), maintaining the high salt concentration in the medulla.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

137) Let's break down each option:

Bowman’s capsule-ultrafiltration: Bowman's capsule is where the filtrate from the
glomerulus is collected. Ultrafiltration, the process of forcing fluid and small molecules out of
the glomerulus into Bowman's capsule, happens here. This is a very accurate description.
Loop of Henle-maximum reabsorption of Na+: While the Loop of Henle plays a role in
sodium reabsorption, the PCT reabsorbs the majority of the sodium. The Loop of Henle is more
involved in creating a concentration gradient.
DCT-carries the blood away from the glomerules towards renal vein: The DCT is a part
of the nephron tubule, not a blood vessel. The efferent arteriole carries blood away from the
glomerulus. Therefore, the correct answer is option 2, Bowman’s capsule-ultrafiltration.
138) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 295, para-1

139) NCERT XIth Page # 297

140) NCERT XIth, Pg. no # 290

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 297

142) NCERT-XI Pg. No. 291,292

143) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 297

144)

NCERT XI Pg # 297

145) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 298

146) NCERT-XI, Pg # 290, Para-2

147) NCERT Fig. 19.2

148) Solution:
(a) Descending limb's of Henle's loop This part of the nehphron is primarily involved in the
readsorption of water only (due to its permeability to water but not salts), so it corresponds
with (ii).
• (b) Proximal Convoluted tubule : This region is responsible for the readsorption of ions,
water and organ nutrients (are (iv).
• (c) Ascending limb of Henle's loop: The ascending limb is involved in the readsorption of
salts only, as it is impermeable to water but allows active transport of salts. Hence it
correspondent with (i).
• Distal convoluted tubule: This part of the nephron plays a role in the conditional
readsorption fo sodium ions and water especially under the influence of hormones like
aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH), so it corresponds with (iii).
Therefore, the correct match is: (a) (ii), (b)- (iv), (c)- (i), d-(iii).

149)

NCERT Page # 213

150) NCERT XI Pg # 294

 151) NCERT - Pg. # 293-294, Fig. 19.3

152) NCERT - Page # 297

153) NCERT Pg.#294

154) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 298, Para-3-4 (E)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 299, Para-6-7 (H)

155) New NCERT update

156)

Question is Asking About:

Match the column

Solution/Explanation:

Column-I Column-II
(a) Podocytes – Filtration slits
(b) Protonephridia – Amphioxus
(c) Nephridia – Annelids
(d) Renal calculi – Crystallised oxalates

157) Dialysing fluid contain all the constituents as in plasma except nitrogenous wastes.

158) NCERT XI Biology, Page # 293 fig. 19.4

159) NCERT XI Pg.# 293

160) NCERT Pg. # 298

161)

NCERT - Pg. # 297

162)

Question Explanation:
To identify the correct difference between juxtamedullary and cortical nephrons from the
given table.
Solution/Explanation:
Loop of Henle: Juxtamedullary nephrons have long loops of Henle that extend deep into the
medulla, crucial for concentrating urine. Cortical nephrons have shorter loops of Henle that do
not penetrate as deeply.
Hence, option (2) is correct. Longer Short

163)

Problem Statement: Asking About:

Concepcion of urine depends as?

Concept:

Type of Nephron

Solution/Explanation:

Long length of Henle’s loop favours more conservation of water and concentration of urine

Hence correct answer is 2.

164)

NCERT Pg. # 293

165)

Question is Asking About:

DCT open into
Solution/Explanation:
Straight tube known as collecting duct.

166)

Problem Statement: Asking About:

Correct about kidney function resolution.

Solution/Explanation:
When blood osmolarity increase then only ADH is released,
So when some on during lot of water blood osmolarity decreases which suppressed the
recreation of ADH.

167) Question is Asking About:

Which one does not filter out from blood to Bowman's capsule in glomerular filtration

Concept:
Mechanism of Urine formation.

Solution/Explanation:
In ultra-filtration, All the constituents of plasma except proteins filters out.
Hence correct answer is 2.

168)

NCERT - Pg. No.# 292

169)

NCERT, Pg. # 223

170) NCERT Pg. # 303, Para-20.2

171) NCERT Pg. No.# 304, Para- 20.2

172) NCERT-XI Pg# 105, Fig. 7.7(a) (H)

173) NCERT-XI ; Page No. # 303

174) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 305

175)

Ncert Pg No. 219

176)

Here's why:

A. I-band (Isotropic band): This region of the sarcomere appears light under a
microscope and contains primarily actin filaments.

B. Actin: Actin filaments are the thin filaments of the sarcomere and are the primary
structural component of the I-band.

C. Troponin: Troponin is a protein complex associated with actin filaments. It plays a

crucial role in regulating muscle contraction by controlling the availability of binding
sites for myosin.

Let's look at why the other options are incorrect:

A. Myosin: Myosin is the thick filament of the sarcomere and is primarily found in the A-
band (anisotropic band), not the I-band.
 B. Cross-bridges: Cross-bridges are formed by the interaction of myosin heads with actin
filaments during muscle contraction. While crucial for contraction, they are not the
primary structural component of the I-band.

C. ATP-binding sites: Myosin heads have ATP-binding sites, but the primary location of
myosin is in the A-band.

D. HMM (Heavy Meromyosin): HMM is a fragment of the myosin molecule that contains
the cross-bridges and ATP-binding sites. Again, it is associated with myosin and thus
primarily found in the A-band.

177)

NCERT - Pg. # 305

178) NCERT Pg # 305, Para-20.1

179) NCERT XI Pg. # 313, summary

180)

NCERT XI Pg.# 290