13-07-2025

5001CMD303034250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) (0.996)1/4 = ........ :-

(1) 0.992
(2) 1.002
(3) 0.999
(4) 1.001

2) Calculate sum of :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

The incorrect relation is:

(1)
sinθ = 2 sin cos

(2)
cosθ = 2 cos2 – 1

(3)
sin2θ=
(4) cos4θ = cos22θ – sin22θ

4)

Which is correct statement :-

(1) sin (90° + θ) = cos θ

(2) tan (270° + θ) = – cot θ
(3) cos (180° + θ) = – cos θ
(4) All of the above

5) (1 – cos2 15°) + (1 – sin2 15°) = .....

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) –1

(4)

6)

The value of sin 74° :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) ........... ?

(1) 1
(2) – 1
(3) 0

(4)

8)

The slope angle of straight line 3y = + 3 is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 90°

9) The graph of function y = 1 + cos x will be

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

10) A particle move along the curve 12y = x3. Which coordinate changes at faster rate at x = 10 :

(1) X - coordinate
(2) Y - coordinate
(3) Both X and Y - coordinate
(4) Data insufficient

11)

Find the average value of graph from 0 to 20 :-

(1) 18
(2) 16
(3) 16.75
(4) 18.75

12) =

(1) 2x(2x2 + 1)½

(2) 2x(2x2 + 1)–½
(3) (2x2 +1)½
(4) (2x2 + 1)–½

13) The value of dx is :-

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

14) If x = t2, then graph between and t will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) What is the value of 20 minute in radian ?

(1)
rad.

(2)
rad.

(3)
rad.

(4)
rad.

16) Radius of a spherical balloon is increasing with respect to time at the rate of 2/π m/s. Find the
rate of change in volume (in m3/s) of the balloon when radius is 0.5 m :-

(1) 3 m3/s
(2) 1 m3/s
(3) 2 m3/s
(4) 0.5 m3/s

17) The slope of the tangent to the curve y = ln(cosx) at is :-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3)

(4)

18) y = loge (tan x), =?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

19) The maximum and minimum value of expression (4–2 cosθ) respectively are :-

(1) 4 and 0
(2) 4 and 2
(3) 6 and 0
(4) 6 and 2

20) Find the value of x1 so that

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20

21)

Equation of following curve is then area under curve between x = 1 to x = 2 is :-

(1) 8 units
(2) 16 units
(3) 4 units
(4) 1 unit

22) Find 12 + 22 +.................+ 102.

(1) 380
(2) 370
(3) 365
(4) 385

23) The magnitude of slope of graph in figure at point A, B and C is mA, mB and mC respectively, then

(1) mA > mB > mC

(2) mA < mB < mC
(3) mA = mB = mC
(4) mA = mB < mC

24) If a unit vector is represented by then the value of λ is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors and is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) If and are parallel vectors then a is :-

(1) +2
(2) –2
(3) 3
(4) –3

27) The vector of magnitude 25 N in the direction of will be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) If ; then find

(1)
(2) 6
(3)
(4)

29) Find the angle vector makes with the positive x-axis ?

(1) 15o
(2) –30o
(3) 60o
(4) 45o

30) A vector perpendicular to is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
31) , then and are:

(1) 10 N, 20 N

(2)
N, 10 N

(3)
N, N

(4)
20 N, N

32) Two equal forces are acting at a point with an angle of 60° between them if the resultant is equal
to then magnitude of each force is :-

(1) 40 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 80 N

33) What is the angle between and the-resultant of and ?

(1) 0°

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) If ,

Column-I Column-II

(a) (P) –2

(b) (Q)

(c) (R)

(d) (S)
(1) a-R; b-S; c-Q; d-P
(2) a-Q; b-S; c-R; d-P
(3) a-P; b-Q; c-R; d-S
(4) a-S; b-P; c-R; d-Q
35) In the shown figure what amount of force and in which direction we should apply so that net

force only acts along x-axis only :-

(1) 3N along –ve of y-axis

(2) 3N along +ve of y-axis
(3) 2N along –ve of x-axis
(4) 2N along +ve of x-axis

36) Which of the following is true statement:

(1) β > α
(2) α > β
(3) α = β
(4) None

37) If difference of two unit vector is , then magnitude of sum of those unit vectors is:

(1) 2
(2)
(3) 1
(4) 0

38) Statement-I : is perpendicular to and .

Statement-II : and are anti parallel and non coplanar.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(3) Statement-I and II both are correct.
(4) Both statement-I and II are incorrect.

39) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) Two positively charged bodies always repel each other
(2) A charged body can attract a neutral body
(3) A charged body can repel a neutral body
(4) None of these above

40) Which of the following charge is possible :

(a) 3.2 × 10–20 C
(b) 3.2 × 10–18 C
(c) 3 × 10–19 C
(d) 6 × 10–17 C

(1) Both a & b

(2) Both b & c
(3) Both b and d
(4) Only b

41) Which of the following is not a unit of charge ?

(1) Faraday
(2) Stat coulomb
(3) Coulomb
(4) Ampere/second

42) An object has charge 1C and gains electrons. The net charge on the object becomes –

(1) –0.80 C
(2) +0.80 C
(3) +1.80 C
(4) +0.20 C

43) 1012 α–particles (nuclei of helium) fall per second on a neutral sphere; calculate the time in
which the sphere gets charged by 2 μC.

(1) 625 sec

(2) 62.5 sec.
(3) 6.25 sec
(4) 6250 sec.

44) If a body is charged by rubbing it, its weight

(1) remains precisely constant

(2) increases slightly
(3) decreases slightly
(4) may increase slightly or may decrease slightly

45) If then find area of the parallelogram formed by and

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following observations was not correct during Rutherford's scattering experiment?

(1) Most of the α-particles passed through the gold foil undeflected.
(2) A small fraction of the α-particles was deflected by small angles.
(3) A large number of the α-particles were bounced back.
(4) A very few α-particle (~1 in 20,000) were bounced back.

2) The ratio of specific charge of a proton and an α-particle is :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 1 : 1

3) Which of the following does not characterise cathode rays ?

(1) It cause Fluorescence effect on ZnS.

(2) Deflected by electric and magnetic field.
(3) e/m ratio is same for all cathode rays irrespective of gas used in the tube.
(4) The cathode rays starts from anode and move towards cathode.

4) If mass of e– is doubled, mass of neutron is halved and mass of proton is doubled then the atomic
mass of 8O16 would :-

(1) approximately reduced by 25%

(2) approximately increased by 25%
(3) approximately increased by 50%
(4) remains unchanged

5) X+4 has 10 protons then find no. of protons in X–4 ion :-

(1) 14
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 10

6) The number of protons, neutrons and electrons in , respectively, are :

(1) 175, 104 and 71
(2) 71, 104 and 71
(3) 104, 71 and 71
(4) 71, 71 and 104

7) 18Ar40, 19K40, 20Ca40 are :

(1) Isotopes
(2) Isobars
(3) Isotones
(4) Isodiaphers

8) An element m have two isotopes M50 and M52 if their percentage of occurance in nature are 80%
and 20% respectively, than average atomic weight of element 'M' is :

(1) 48
(2) 50.4
(3) 51
(4) 54

9) Which of the following will have maximum wavelength ?

(1) X-rays
(2) γ-rays
(3) Radio waves
(4) Microwaves

10) The energies of 2 radiations are 50 eV & 150 eV respectively. The relation of their wavelengths
λ1 and λ2 is :-

(1) λ1 = 3λ2
(2) λ1 = 2λ2
(3) λ2 = 3λ1
(4) None

11) The radius of first Bohr's orbit for hydrogen is 0.53 Å. The radius of third Bohr's orbit would be :

(1) 0.79 Å
(2) 1.59 Å
(3) 3.18 Å
(4) 4.77 Å

12) The ratio of speeds of electron in K-shell and

L-shell of H-atoms :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

13) The energy of H-atom in its ground state is –13.6 eV. The energy of n = 4 will be :-

(1) –0.54 eV
(2) –0.85 eV
(3) –3.4 eV
(4) –1.51 eV

14) Which of the following series of transition in the hydrogen atom fall(s) in infrared region.

(1) Lyman
(2) Paschen
(3) Pfund
(4) Both 2 & 3

15) The energy of second Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is –328 kJ mol–1, hence the energy of
fourth Bohr orbit would be :

(1) –41 kJ mol–1

(2) –1312 kJ mol–1
(3) –164 kJ mol–1
(4) –82 kJ mol–1

16) Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same group, the atomic numbers of elements placed above
and below Ag will be:

(1) 37, 67
(2) 29,79
(3) 39, 69
(4) 29, 65

17) Elements with atomic number 10, 18, 36, 54 and 86 are all :-

(1) light metals

(2) inert gases
(3) halogens
(4) Alkaline earth metals

18) Which group of elements belong to the same period in periodic table :-

(1) Li, Na, K

(2) Cu, Ag, Au
(3) Sn, Sb, Te
(4) Al, Ga, Ge

19) Select the elements belonging to same group from the following list :-

(1) Z = 12, 38, 4, 88

(2) Z = 9, 16, 3, 35
(3) Z = 5, 11, 27, 19
(4) Z = 24, 47, 42, 55

20) Recently discovered elements with atomic number 115 is :-

(1) Uun
(2) Uub
(3) Uup
(4) Uus

21) According to modern periodic law, the chemical properties of elements are the periodic function
of their :-

(1) Atomic mass

(2) Atomic number
(3) Density
(4) Volume

22) The outer most electronic configuration of d-block element is :-

(1) ns2 nd1–10

(2) (n–1) d1–10 ns0–2
(3) (n–2) d1–10 ns0–2
(4) (n–1) d1–10 ns2

23) Which of the following atomic number have same outer shell electronic configuration as atomic
number 12 :-

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 52
(4) 100

24) Mendeleev predicted and named certain future elements as Eka – Aluminium and Eka – Silicon.
These elements were

(1) Ga and Ge
(2) Al and Si
(3) Fe and S
(4) H and Si
25) Lanthanoids are :-

(1) 14 elements in the seventh period (Atomic no. = 58 to 71) that are filling 4f sub level
(2) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 4f sublevel
(3) 14 elements in the seventh period (atomic no. = 90 to 103) that are filling 5f sublevel
(4) 14 elements in the sixth period (atomic no=58 to 71) that are filling 4 f sublevel

26) Electronic configuration of X2+ and Y3+ are : X2+ = [Ar]3d8,Y3+=[Ar]3d3. What are the atomic
number of X and Y respectively ?

(1) 28, 24
(2) 28, 25
(3) 28, 26
(4) 28, 27

27) Atomic number 34 belongs to :-

(1) 3rd period, 15 group, p block

(2) 4th period, 16 group, p block
(3) 4th period, 2 group, s block
(4) 5th period, 12 group, d block

28) Reason of periodicity is :-

(1) Same outer shell electronic configuration

(2) Different inner subshell configuration
(3) Same configuration
(4) Same effective nuclear charge

29) Which of the following value may be correct for covalent & Vanderwaals radii of carbon :-

(1) 1.54 & 1.34

(2) 1.54 & 0.77
(3) 0.77 & 1.54
(4) 1.20 & 1.20

30) Identify the wrong statement in the following:

(1) Atomic radius of the elements increases as one moves down the first group of the periodic table
Atomic radius of the elements decreases as one-moves across from left to right in the 2nd period
(2)
of the periodic table
Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller the positive charge on the cation, smaller is the ionic
(3)
radius
Amongst isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge on the anion, larger is the ionic
(4)
radius

31) Match the following :

 Column-II Column-III
Column-I
(Common Name) (IUPAC Name)

(A) (P) Isobutyl alcohol (w) Propan-2-ol

(B) (Q) Terbutyl alcohol (x) 2-methyl propan-2-ol

(C) (R) sec-butyl alcohol (y) Butan-2-ol

(D) (S) Isopropyl alcohol (z) 2-methyl propan-1-ol

(1) A–P,w; B–R,z; C–Q,x; D–S,y

(2) A–S,w; B–P,z; C–Q,x; D–R,y
(3) A–S,x; B–P,z; C–Q,w; D–R,y
(4) A–S,w; B–P,x; C–Q,y; D–R,z

32) Assertion :- IUPAC numbering in CH2 = CH – C ≡ CH is started from left to right.

Reason :- According to IUPAC numbering is always started from double bond side.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

33) Statement-I : Isopropyl amine is secondary amine.

Statement-II : In isopropyl amine nitrogen atom is attached to 2° carbon.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

34) Which among the following has same number of primary, secondary and tertiary carbon ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35)

The IUPAC name of given compound is :

(1) 2-cyano-3-vinylpentane
(2) 2-methyl-3-vinyl pentan-2-nitrile
(3) 3-ethyl-2-methylpent-4-ene-1-nitrile
(4) 2-methyl-3-ethylpent-4-ene-1-nitrile

36) Which of the following has correct numbering according to IUPAC ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The correct IUPAC name of the compound

is :

(1) 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
(2) 4-ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
(3) 3-ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
(4) 1-ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene

38) Which structure represents

2 – Chloro–3–Methylbut–2–en–l–ol

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(1) 4-Bromo-2-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid

(2) 5-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentanoic acid
(3) 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid
(4) 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentanoic acid

40) What is the hybridization of C1, C2, C3 carbon in the following compound ?

(1) sp3, sp3, sp3

(2) sp3, sp2, sp2
(3) sp3, sp2, sp
(4) sp, sp2, sp2

41) What is the IUPAC name of following compound ?

(1) 2-Bromo-4-phenyl pent-2-ene

(2) 4-Bromo-2-phenyl pent-2-ene
(3) 2-Bromo-4-phenyl pent-3-ene
(4) 2-Phenyl-4-bromo pent-2-ene

42) The number of σ & π bonds present in given compounds

(1) 8σ and 3π
(2) 9σ and 3π
(3) 8σ and 4π
(4) 9σ and 4π

43) Correct IUPAC name of compound is :-

(1) 2-Bromo-1-ethyl propanoate

(2) 1-Ethyl-2-bromopropanoate
(3) Ethyl-2-bromopropanoate
(4) Ethyl-3-bromo propanoate

44) A student named a certain compound as 2, 3-Diethyl butane its correct IUPAC name is :

(1) 2, 3-Dimethyl hexane

(2) 3, 4-Dimethyl hexane
(3) 2-Ethyl-3-methyl pentane
(4) 2-Ethyl butane

45) The IUPAC name of the compound shown below is :-

(1) 3-Bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene
(2) 1-Bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
(3) 2-Bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
(4) 1-Bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene

BIOLOGY

1) Which is correct statement for simple cuboidal epithelium cell–

(1) found in duct of gland and single layer of cube like cell
(2) found in tubular part of nephrons in kidney
(3) its main functions are secretion and absorption
(4) All

2) Assertion : Epithelium faces external environment of body.

Reason : Epithelium has free surface.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Assertion :- Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in the inner surface of hollow organs like
bronchioles and fallopian tubes.
Reason :- The function of microvilli is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction across the
epithelium.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) Assertion (A) :- Limb bones, such as the long bones of the legs, serve weight bearing functions.
Reason (R) :- Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium salts and
collagen fibres which gives bones its strength.

(1) A and R both are correct and R is the correct explaination of A.

(2) A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explaination of A.
(3) A is correct but R is not correct.
(4) A is not correct but R is correct.

5) Select the correct statement about the given diagram

(1) In B-collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres
(2) In A-fibroblast and many fibres are oriented differently
(3) Example of A is Tendon
(4) B is an example of specialised C.T.

6) Which option is incorrect about given diagram ?

(1) Free surface may have microvilli

(2) Simple epithelium
(3) Found in the walls of air sacs of lungs
(4) Form a diffusion boundary

7) Match the following and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Fibreless
a. Adipose tissue (i)
matrix

Cuboidal Abundant fat

b. (ii)
epithelium cells

c. Cartilage (iii) PCT

d. Blood (iv) Tracheal rings

(1) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv),d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv)

8) Match the column I with Column II

Column-I Column-II

(A) Squamous epithelium (i) Stomach

(B) Cuboidal epithelium (ii) Blood vessels

(C) Columnar epithelium (iii) Trachea

(D) Ciliated epithelium (iv) Duct of glands

(1) A–iii, B–i, C–iv, D–ii
(2) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(4) A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iii

9) Choose the correctly matched pair –

(1) Adipose tissue - Dense connective tissue

(2) Tendon - Loose connective tissue
(3) Cartilage - Specialised connective tissue
(4) Areolar - Skeletal connective tissue

10) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Endocrine glands do not have ducts.
Statement-II : The products of endocrine glands called hormones are secreted directly into the
fluid bathing the gland.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

11) Two statements are given below :-

Statement-I :- Compound epithelium is made up of more than one layer.
Statement-II :- Compound epithelium has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
Choose the correct statement.

(1) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect

(2) Statement I correct & Statement II incorrect
(3) Statement I and Statement II both are correct
(4) Statement I incorrect & Statement II correct

12) Statement -I:- Tight junction perform cementing to keep neighboring cells together.
Statement -II:- Gap junction facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting their
cytoplasm.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.

13) Statement-1 : Epithelial tissue has basement membrane.

Statement-2 : Basal lamina is made up of collagen fibre and reticular fibre suspended in
mucopolysacharide.

(1) Both Statements true

(2) Both Statements false
(3) Only statements-2 true
(4) Only statements-1 true

14) Statement-I : Goblet cells is the example of unicellular glandular epithelium.

Statement-II : Exocrine gland secrete mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, hormones, milk, digestive
enzymes.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

15) Secretion of exocrine glands are :-

(1) Mucus, saliva, earwax & milk

(2) milk, digestive enzymes
(3) Only hormones
(4) Both 1 & 2
16) Which of following is not an example of specialised connective tissue.

(1) Blood
(2) Bone
(3) Ligament
(4) Cartilage

17) Ligament is the example of –

(1) Dense regular connective tissue

(2) Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Cartilage
(4) Loose connective tissue

18) Which of following tissue contains mast cells, fibroblast and collagen fibres ?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Stratified epithelium
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Blood

19) Some statements are given below :-

(I) In this epithelium basement membrane become invisible during stretching.
(II) Outer most layer composed of oval shaped cells.
(III) Cells are inter connected by interdigitations
Above statements explained which compound epithelium

(1) Transitional Epithelium (Urothelium)

(2) Nonstreachable
(3) Keratinized strechable
(4) Non keratinized nonstrechable squamous epithelium

20) In bronchioles and fallopian tube which type of epithelium is present ?

(1) Stratified epithelium

(2) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Non-ciliated columnar epithelium

21) How many of the following has compound epithelium-stomach, Alveoli, Bowman's capsule, inner
lining of buccal cavity, secretory duct of sweat gland.

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four
22) A student was given a sample of tissue. He observes and concludes the following characters :
(a) The cells are composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells.
(b) Their nuclei are located at the base
(c) Free surfaces may have microvilli
(d) It is found in the lining of stomach and intestine.
Based on the above features, identify the epithelium :

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Glandular epithelium

23) Which type of cells of epithelium get not specialised for secretion ?
(a) Squamous (b) Cuboidal (c) Columnar

(1) only (a)

(2) only (b)
(3) only (c)
(4) (b) and (c)

24) In the given list how many functions are related to connective tissue ?

(A) Support (E) Secretion

(B) Protection (F) Absorption

(C) Lining (G) Transportation

(D) Energy store (H) Linking

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

25) Which of the following is not a function of connective tissue fibre ?

(1) Strength
(2) Elasticity
(3) Flexibility
(4) Contractility

26) Maximum amount of matrix is produced by :-

(1) Mast cells

(2) Fibroblast cells
(3) Macrophages
(4) Lymphocytes
27) Which of the following is related with Adhering junctions ?

(1) Allow leakage of substances

(2) Prevent leakage of substances
(3) Perform cementing
(4) Rapid transfer of ions

28) Which of the following junction help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue ?

(1) Adhering junction

(2) Gap junction
(3) Desmosomes
(4) Tight junction

29) The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the bodies of complex animal is

(1) Epithelium
(2) Connective
(3) Muscular
(4) Neural

30) Stretchable epithelium which covers the inner surface of urinary bladder ?

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Stratified columnar epithelium
(3) Non keratinized epithelium
(4) Transitional Epithelium

31) Large cells which have kidney shape nucleus and is a part of cell cleaning system, found in
areolar tissue called as ?

(1) Mast cells

(2) Areolae
(3) Macrophages
(4) Adipocytes

32) Histamine and Heparin is released by which cells in blood ?

(1) Macrophages
(2) Mast cells
(3) Eosinophils
(4) Lymphocytes

33) Which of the following is not included in connective tissue ?

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Muscle
(4) Blood

34) Which type of tissue form inner lining of small intestine ?

(1) Glandular columnar epithelium

(2) Glandular brush bordered columnar epithelium
(3) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium

35) Secretory unit of sweat glands is made of :-

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Compound epithelium
(3) Connective tissue
(4) Simple squamous epithelium

36) Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from :-

(1) Compound epithelial cells

(2) Squamous epithelial cells
(3) Columnar epithelial cells
(4) Chondrocytes

37) Pick out the odd one -

(1) Thymus
(2) Thyroid
(3) Mammary glands
(4) Adrenal gland

38) What is the basis of division of simple epithelium Tissue.

(1) On the basis of functional modification

(2) On the basis of structural modification
(3) On the basis of cells secretions
(4) On the basis of inter cellular matrix

39) The epithelium of proximal convoluted tubules of Nephron has :-

(1) Cilia with cuboidal Epithelium

(2) Microvilli with columnar Epithelium
(3) Cilia with columnar Epithelium
(4) Microvilli with cuboidal Epithelium
40) How cartilages are different from bones ?

(1) They have Ca+2 salts and collagen fibres

(2) They are solid and non-pliable
(3) They are pliable and present in tip of nose
(4) They have osteocytes in lacunae

41) Which one of the following not a function of epithelium tissue ?

(1) Protection
(2) Secretion
(3) Linking and supporting other tissues/organs
(4) Absorption

42) Simple cuboidal epithelium is not found in -

(1) Walls of blood vessels

(2) Tubular part of nephrons
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
(4) Ducts of glands

43) Which of the following is not a function of simple squamous epithelium ?

(1) Lining of body cavities

(2) air sacs of lungs
(3) Lining of tubes
(4) Covering of body (skin)

44) The free surface of epithelial tissue may face :-

(1) Outer environment

(2) Body fluid
(3) Either 1 or 2
(4) Skin

45) All complex animals are consist of how many type of tissues ?

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) One

46) How many of the following will be present in a prokaryotic cell ?

Basal body, Cell Membrane, Chromatophore, Lysosome, Ribosome, Nucleolemma, Cytoplasm.

(1) Three
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Seven

47) Spindle fibres are composed of :

(1) Collagen
(2) Actin
(3) Spectrin
(4) Tubulin

48) Cell theory which was given by Schleiden and Schwann, did not explain as to how the new cells
are formed. Who modified the hypothesis of cell theory to give it a final shape ?

(1) R. Hooke
(2) R. Virchow
(3) Mendel
(4) C.P. Swanson

49) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column I Column II Column III

(i) Rudolf virchow Cell lineage theory omnis cellula-e-cellula

Cell wall is a unique

(ii) Matthias schleiden German botanist
character of plants

(iii) Robert Brown Discovery of cell Micrographia

(1) i only
(2) i and iii
(3) i and ii
(4) i, ii, and iii

50) Which one option is not correct for an onion cell :-

(1) A typical plant cell

(2) Eukaryotic cell
(3) Mesosome are site for respiration
(4) True chromosome are present

51) Assertion : RER involve in protein synthesis.

Reason : RER bears ribosome on their surface

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

52) Statement-I : The cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole like structure called the basal
body.
Statement-II : Cytoskeleton help in mechanical support and motility.

(1) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

53)

(a) Mitochondria (i) Photosynthesis

(b) Chloroplast (ii) Aerobic respiration

(c) Chromoplast (iii) Food storage

(d) Leucoplast (iv) Provide colour

Select the correct match
(1) a = i, b = ii, c = iii, d = iv
(2) a = ii, b = i, c= iii, d = iv
(3) a = ii, b = i, c = iv, d = iii
(4) a = ii, b = iv, c = i, d = iii

54) Which of the following statement is correct for mitochondria –

(1) The length of mitochondria is 1.0–4.1 nm.

(2) The outer membrane forms a number of infoldings called the cristae
(3) The outer compartment of mitochondria is called the matrix.
(4) Mitochondria divide by fission

55) Which of the following statement is not correct –

(1) Steroidal hormones are synthesised in SER

(2) Lipid and protein are synthesised in golgi bodies.
(3) Lysosome have almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes
(4) Vacuole can occupy upto 90% volume of cell.

56) The average diameter of mitochondria is -

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.5 µm
(3) 0.5 nm
(4) 0.5 pm

57) Vacuole contains

(1) Water
(2) Sap
(3) Excretory product
(4) All of the above

58) How many cell organelles in given list are with one membrane :-
Lysosome Mitochondria Ribosome
Centrosome Golgi complex Plastid
Peroxisome RER

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

59) Which of the following statement is wrong regarding model of plasma membrane given by S.J.
Singer and G.L. Nicolson ?

(1) The quasi-fluid nature of protein enables lateral movement of lipids

(2) The integral proteins are partially or totally buried in the membrane
(3) Protein iceberg in sea of lipids
(4) Phosphoglycerides are present as lipid component

60) Both cilia and flagella arise from the part which is structurally similar to :-

(1) Centriole
(2) Kinetochore
(3) Kinetosome
(4) Centromere

61) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) Growth and locomotion are the defining feature of life.
(b) Cell is the basic unit of life in all living organisms.
(c) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.
(d) In unicellular organisms all functions are performed in a single cell.
Options :

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) only
(3) Statements (a), (d) only
(4) Statements (a), (c) only

62) 70 S type of ribosome found in

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Prokaryotic cell
(4) All of these

63) Packaging and secretion takes place from which part of golgi body :-

(1) Trans or forming face

(2) Cis or maturing face
(3) Trans or maturing face
(4) Cis or forming face

64) Which of the following combinations is incorrect ?

(1) Plasma membrane of RBC- 52% protein

(2) Peroxisomes - photo respiration
(3) Stroma of chloroplast- 70s ribosome
(4) Mitochondria- Many ss DNA molecules

65) How many of the following cell organelles are devoid of membrane.
[Ribosome, Peroxisome, Lysosome, Mitochondria, Chloroplast, Golgibody.]

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

66) The chloroplasts contain :-

(1) Fat soluble pigments anthocyanin and chlorophylls

(2) Water soluble pigments carotenoids and chlorophyll
(3) Water soluble pigments chlorophylls and anthocyanin
(4) Fat soluble pigments carotenoids and chlorophylls

67)

Chromosomes whose arms are equal are called:-

(1) Metacentric
(2) Acrocentric
(3) Telocentric
(4) Submetacentric

68) Which one of the following statement is not correct for the vacuoles ?

(1) Contractile vacuoles are helpful in excretion

(2) Food vacuoles are formed by engulfing the food particles
(3) Sap vacuole is bound by tonoplast
(4) Tonoplast facilitates the transport of ions against the concentration gradient into cytoplasm

69)

Identify structure A, B and C in given diagram:-

(1) A-SER, B-Cytosol, C-RER

(2) A-SER, B-Nuclear pore, C-RER
(3) A-RER, B-Nuclear pore, C-SER
(4) A-RER, B-Ribosome, C-SER

70) The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm as :-

(1) Nucleolus is not a membrane bound structure

(2) Nucleolus is connected to the nucleoplasm with the help of annulus
(3) Nucleolus synthesise m-RNA with the help of chromatin present in the nucleoplasm
(4) Nucleolus can not be easily distinguished from nucleoplasm

71) In human cell ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in :-

(1) Nucleolus
(2) Ribosome
(3) Cytoplasm
(4) Nucleoplasm

72) Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Palade particles ?
(i) Observed under light microscope
(ii) Organelle within organelle
(iii) Composed of ribonucleic acid and proteins.
(iv) Occurs only in eukaryotes
(v) Ca+2 ions required for binding of subunits

(1) i, iii, v
(2) ii, iii
(3) i, iv, v
(4) ii, iii, v

73) A flat membranous tubule which connect two granum in the stroma called.
(1) Stroma protein
(2) Stroma membrane
(3) Stroma lamellae
(4) Thylakoid

74) Which of the following plastid stores starch ?

(1) Chromoplast
(2) Elaioplast
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Amyloplast

75) Ribosomes are composed of :-

(1) deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid.

(2) deoxyribonucleic acid and proteins.
(3) ribonucleic acid and proteins.
(4) proteins, ribonucleic acid and deoxyribonucleic acid.

76) In a given diagram of cilia which letter represents radial spoke, interdoublet bridge and central

sheath respectively.

(1) C,B,E
(2) A,B,F
(3) B,A, F
(4) A,C,F

77)

Read the following statements about mitochondria

A. Mitochondria are easily visible under microscope without specific staining
B. These are the site of aerobic respiration
C. Mitochondria divide by fission
D. These possess single stranded DNA molecules

(1) Only A is incorrect

(2) B and D are correct
(3) A,B and C are correct
(4) Both A and D are incorrect

78) Assertion : The content of nucleolus is continuous with the rest of the nucleoplasm.
Reason : Nucleolus is the site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

79) Assertion : In cell membrane lipids are arranged within the membrane with the polar head
towards the outer sides and hydrophobic tails towards the inner part.
Reason : This arrangement ensures that the polar tail of saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons is
protected from the aqueous environment.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

80) A. Mycoplasmas, the smallest cells, are only 0.3 μm in length

B. Size of Bacteria could be 3 to 5 μm.
C. Human red blood cells are about 7.0 μm in radius.

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct
(3) Only C is incorrect
(4) Only C is correct

81) Which of the following structures is not common between plant and animal cells

(1) Peroxisomes
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Sap vacuole
(4) Ribosomes

82) Cytoskeleton is filamentous structures present in cytoplasm is made up of

(1) Lipid
(2) Carbohydrates
(3) Protein
(4) Nucleic acid

83) Which one of the following is the function of lysosome ?

(1) Autophagy
(2) Formation of acrosome
(3) Storage of water
(4) Protein synthesis
84) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Mycoplasma, is the smallest cell

(2) Only nucleic acids are genetical material
(3) Nerve cells are longest cell
(4) Organelles absents in prokaryotic cell

85) The usual axonemal arrangement of microtubules is:-

(1) 6 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery with a pair of centrally located microtubules
(2) 6 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery with a single centrally located microtubule
(3) 9 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery with a pair of centrally located microtubules
(4) 9 pairs of doublets radially arranged at periphery with a single centrally located microtubule

86) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching

b-acrocentric, a-telocentric,
(1)
d-metacentric, c-submetacentric
a-acrocentric, d-telocentric,
(2)
c-metacentric, b-submetacentric
a-acrocentric, d-telocentric,
(3)
b-metacentric, c-submetacentric
d-acrocentric, c-telocentric,
(4)
a-metacentric, b-submetacentric

87) Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ?

Ribosomes - those on chloroplasts are larger (80S) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller
(1)
(70S)
(2) Lysosomes - optimally active at alkaline pH
(3) Thylakoids - flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts
(4) Centrioles - sites for active RNA synthesis

88) Which of the following not found in chloroplast?

(1) Ds, circular DNA

(2) Thylakoids
(3) 80 - S Ribosome
(4) Chlorophyll

89) Nuclear envelope is derived from :-

(1) Membrane of golgi complex

(2) Microtubules
(3) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

90) Which of the following is incorrect :-

(1) Cell wall, plastids and a large central vacuole absent in animal cells
(2) Eukaryotes included all protists, plants, animals and monera
(3) Polysomes involved in protein biosynthesis
(4) Mature Human RBC lack nucleus
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 4 2 4 2 1 1 2 4 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 1 2 1 1 1 1 2 4 3 3 1 1 1 1 3 1 2 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 3 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 4 2 4 2 2 2 3 1 4 2 2 4 4 2 2 3 1 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 1 4 1 2 1 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 4 1 4 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 4 3 3 4 2 4 3 1 3 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 2 1 3 4 2 3 4 2 4 3 2 3 2 1 3 3 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 4 3 3 2 4 2 1 3 1 4 3 4 2 2 4 4 1 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 3 4 1 4 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 4 4 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 1 4 3 2 3 3 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

y = (.996)1/4 = (1 – .004)1/4
= 1 – .001 = .999

2)

3)

sin2θ=

4)

All of the above

5) sin2 15 + cos2 15 = 1

6)

sin 74 = sin (2 x 37)

2 Sin 37 cos 37

2x

7)

8)

Asking About :
Angle of inclination (slope angle) of a straight line.
Concept :
The slope angle θ is the angle a line makes with the positive x-axis.

Formula :
tanθ = m, where m is the slope of the line.

Calculation/Explanation :
• Given 3y =

• Rewrite in slope-intercept form y =

• So,

9) Graph of (cos x) at line y = +1

10) 12y = x3
differentiate w.r.t. 't'

at x = 10

11)

Avg value =

12)

13)
14)

15) 20' = radian

16) as (r = 0.5, )

= 2 m3/s

17) Slope = × (–sinx)

at x =

=1

18) y = log(tanx)
compare with y = log u and

so

19)

y= 4 – 2 cos θ
maximum value
= 4 – 2 (cos 180°)
= 4 – 2 (– 1)
=6
Minimum value
= 4 – 2 cos (0°)
=4–2
=2

20) = Area under curve from 0 to x1

= Area of triangle

15 =
21)

Area A =

= 7 + 1 = 8 unit

22) - Sum of squares of the first n numbers:

- For n =10 :

23) as θC > θB > θA (θ > 90°)

so tanθA > tanθB > tanθC
mA > mB > mC

24)
⇒ 0.16 + 0.64 + λ2 = 1
λ2 = 0.2 ⇒ λ =

25)
⇒

26)

= 3î + 6ĵ − ĵ
= −1î+ aĵ − 3

= ⇒ x = (-18 - (-9a)) î - ĵ (9 - 9) + (-3a - 56)

⇒ x = (-18 + 9a) î - ĵ (0) + (-3a + 6)
x = (-18 + 9a) î + (-3a + 6)

∴
27)

28) and

so
=

29)

30) If then
check with all four option

31)

B sin 60° = 10 N

C = B cos 60° =

32) If & θ = 60°

∴ R = 2Acosθ/2
= 2Acos30°
∴ A = 30 N

33) Resultant =
Angle between and is zero degree.

34) (a)
(b)
=
=

(c)
(d)

35)
for force along x-axis
Fmin = 3N along (–y axis)

36)

conceptual

37)

Given |A| = |B| = 1 and |A - B| = √(3)

|A - B| ^ 2 = 3
Then:
So:
2 - 2cos θ = 3
- 2cos θ = 1 → cos θ = – 1/2
Now use this to find |A + B|2 :
|A + B|2 = 2 + 2(– 1/2) = 1
So |A + B| = √1 =1

38) and are coplanar.

39)

conceptual

40)
 41)

Theory based

42)

Qnet = (1 – Qe) = 1 – (5.0 × 1018 × 1.6 × 10–19) = 0.20 C

Q2 = 5 × 108 × (–1.6 × 10–19)C
Q2 = –0.8C
Qnet = Q1 + Q2 = 1 – 0.8 = 0.2C

43) Number of α–particles falling in t seconds = 1012t

Charge on α–particle = +2e
So charge incident in time t = (1012t).(2e)
∵ Given charge is 2 μC
∴ 2 × 10–6 = (1012t)(2e)

44) On charging a body, electrons are either added or removed.

So mass of the body may increase or may decrease.

45) area = if are sides

area

CHEMISTRY

46) Only a few α-particles (1 in 20,000) bounced back.

47) Specific charge =

48)

NCERT, Pg. # 27 (Edition 2017)

 49)

% Change =
= + 25%

50)

No. of protons = Z

51)
p+ = 71
0
n = 175 – 71 = 104
e– = 71

52)

Isobars have same mass number

53)

average atomic mass =

54)

Explanation

A. Wavelength and frequency are inversely proportional (c = λν, where c is the speed of
light).

Concept

A. Radio waves occupy the lowest frequency region of the electromagnetic spectrum,
meaning they have the longest wavelength among the given options.

Answer option 3, (Radio waves).

55)

56)
57)

Question Explanation:
Find the ratio of speeds of electron in the K-shell ( n = 1 ) and L-shell ( n = 2 ) of hydrogen
atoms.
Concept:
Speed of electron in nth orbit is inversely proportional to the principal quantum number n.
Solution:
Speed in K-shell ( n = 1 ):

Speed in L-shell ( n = 2 ):

Ratio of speeds:

58)

E4 = –0.85 eV in H-atom.

59) Lyman → U.V.

Balmer → Visible

60)

61) Z = 103 is an actinide

62) Question Explanation: Given at. no. 10, 18, 35, 54 and 86 fall in which of the options.
Concept : Apply magic no. to arrive at the given atomic no's.
Solution :
Thus we can conclude that the given atomic no's 10, 18, 36, 54, 86 belongs to inert gas group.
Final Answer : option (2).

63)

Explanation -

The question asks to identify the set of elements from the given options that are all located in
the same horizontal row (period) of the periodic table.

Concept - Identification of period

Solution -

Elements in the same period have the same highest electron shell. Examining the periodic
table positions, Sn (Period 5, Group 14), Sb (Period 5, Group 15), and Te (Period 5, Group 16)
all belong to Period 5.

Final Answer - Option (3)

64) Explanation:
Question is asking about group of the given elements
Concept: Identification of group.
Solution:
All the elements according to the given atomic number belongs to group 2 to periodic table.
Answer: 1

65)

Explanation:
The question asks for the systematic name and symbol assigned to the element with atomic
number 115.

Concept: (IUPAC name of elements with symbol)

Element 115 is called Ununpentium (Uup),
Final Answer : Option (3)

66)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which property (from Atomic mass, Atomic number,
Density, or Volume) determines the chemical properties of elements according to the modern
periodic law.

Underlying Concept: The modern periodic law states that the chemical properties of
elements are a periodic function of their atomic number, not their atomic mass. This is
because the atomic number represents the number of protons in an atom and thus determines
the arrangement of electrons, which governs chemical behavior.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that Mendeleev's original table was arranged by atomic mass,
but the modern table is arranged by atomic number, which resolves earlier inconsistencies.

Common Mistakes: Confusing atomic mass with atomic number as the basis for periodicity;
assuming density or volume affects chemical properties.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Atomic mass: Earlier periodic tables used atomic mass,
but this led to anomalies. Density and Volume: These are physical properties and do not define
chemical behavior.

67) Question Explanation: To find out the general electronic configuration of d-block
elements
Concept : In d-block elements, the in cumbent e– enters into (n – 1) d subshell
Solution : the general electronic configuration of d-block element is :
1–10
(n –1)d ns0–2
where ;
n = ultimate shell
(n–1)= Penultimte shell.

Final Answer : option (2).

68) Explanation : same outer shell e– config as same as Z = 12

Concept : e– configuration

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
Z = 12 = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 = Mg
Z = 4 = 1s2 2s2 = Be
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
 69)

NCERT-XI, Part-I, Pg. # 72

70)

(58–71) ⇒ 6th period ⇒ 4f

71)

X+2[Ar]3d8 = 26 'e'
0
hence X = 28 'e'
Y+3[Ar]3d3 = 21 'e'
0
hence Y = 24 'e'

72) Question Explanation:- The atomic number 34 corresponds to the element Selenium
(Se).
Concept:- Electronic configuration

Se = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 3d¹⁰ 4s² 4p⁴

Final Answer: Option (2). 4th period, 16th group, p block.

73)

Concept : Periodicity of elements

Explanation & Solution :
The periodicity of elements, , meaning the recurring patterns in their chemical and physical
properties when arranged by increasing atomic number, arises primarily from the periodic
repetition of their electronic configurations, especially the valence electron
configuration.

Answer : Option 1

74)

rvw ≃ 2 rc

75) +ve charge ∝ 1/Ionic radius

76)

Fact
77) If locants are same then check alphabetical order.

78)
Isopropyl amine (1°)
Nitrogen attached to 2° carbon

79) Question Explanation :

Which among the following has same number of primary, secondary, tertiary carbon.

Concept :
This question is based on Types of carbon.

Solution :
1º carbon : carbon directly attached to one other carbon.
2º carbon : carbon directly attached to two other carbon.
3º carbon : carbon directly attached to three other carbon.

Hence,
Option (3) is correct

80)
3-ethyl-2-methylpent-4-ene-1-nitrile

81)

(1) Ethyl should get less no. than CH3 (Alphabate rule)
(2) Numbering should start from CN (PFG)
(3) Numbering should start from CHO (PFG)
(4) –CN is PFG so getting less no. and then multiple bond.

82) 4-Ethyl-1-Fluoro-2-nitrobenzene

83)
2–Chloro–3–Methylbut–2–en–l–ol

84)
4-bromo-2-methyl cyclopentane carboxylic Acid

85)

86)
4-bromo-2-phenylpent-2-ene

87)

88)
 Question Asking About:
Correct IUPAC name of compound.

Key Concept:
Rules for IUPAC nomenclature.

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

1. Given structure is of ester having general IUPAC name alkyl alkanoate.

2. group attached to oxygen atom is written as alkyl. Here it is "ethyl".
3. group attached to carbon of functional including carbon is written as alkanoate. Here it is
"propanoate".
4. substituent is on 2nd carbon and it is "Br" having prefix "bromo".
Hence its correct IUPAC name is:-

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

89)
2,3-Dimethyl butane

90) 3-Bromo-1-chloro cyclohexene

A. Numbering of ring is done such that multiple bond gets minimum number [scribble]
B. M.B. is kept between continuous numbering
C. After M.B., minimum number is given to the substituents.

BIOLOGY

91)

Correct Answer:

4. All
Explanation:
Option 1: Found in ducts of glands and a single layer of cube-like cells – This is true. Simple
cuboidal epithelium is found in the ducts of glands, such as the thyroid and sweat glands, and
is a single layer of cube-shaped cells.
Option 2: Found in tubular part of nephrons in the kidney – This is true. Simple cuboidal
epithelium lines the tubular parts of the nephron, particularly in the proximal and distal
convoluted tubules.
Option 3: Its main functions are secretion and absorption – This is true. Simple cuboidal
epithelium plays a role in secretion (such as in glands) and absorption (as seen in nephrons of
the kidney).

92)

The correct answer is option 1: Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct
explanation of the Assertion.

Explanation:

Assertion: "Epithelium faces the external environment of the body." → This is true because
epithelial tissue lines the outer surfaces of organs and the body, as well as internal cavities.

Reason: "Epithelium forms a covering of underlying tissue and has a free surface." → This is
also true because epithelial tissue covers body surfaces and organs, providing protection and
allowing interactions with the external environment.
Since the reason correctly explains why the assertion is true, option 1 is the correct choice.

93) R : In NCERT 'over' is given in place of "across" hence meaning is changed and reason is
wrong.

94) NCERT-XI, Page No. 104, Para, 7.1.2

95)

Explanation:
A is dense regular connective tissue, characterized by parallel collagen fibers with fibroblasts
in between. Tendons, which connect muscles to bones, are an example of this tissue. B, on the
other hand, is dense irregular connective tissue, where fibers are arranged in multiple
directions. Since dense connective tissues are not specialized connective tissues.

Correct answer: Option (3) Example of A is Tendon.

96) NCERT, Pg. # 101

97)

This question involves matching tissues or structures (Column-I) with their appropriate
characteristics or locations (Column-II).
Let's match the tissues in Column I with their descriptions or locations in Column II:
 A. a. Adipose tissue: This tissue is characterized by (ii) Abundant fat cells. Adipose tissue's
primary function is to store fat.
B. b. Cuboidal epithelium: This type of epithelium is commonly found in the (iii) PCT (Proximal
Convoluted Tubule) of the nephron in the kidney. Cuboidal epithelium is involved in secretion
and absorption.
C. c. Cartilage: Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue that provides support and is found in
structures like (iv) Tracheal rings, which help keep the trachea open.
D. d. Blood: Blood is a connective tissue with a (i) Fibreless matrix (plasma). Unlike other
connective tissues, its matrix is liquid, not fibrous.

Now, let's find the correct matching option:

A. a - ii
B. b - iii
C. c - iv
D. d-i

Therefore, the correct answer is option 2.

98)

Correct Answer:

4. A–ii, B–iv, C–i, D–iii

Explanation:

Let's match correctly:

(A) Squamous epithelium → (ii) Blood vessels

→ Simple squamous epithelium lines blood vessels and alveoli for diffusion.

(B) Cuboidal epithelium → (iv) Duct of glands

→ Found in glandular ducts and kidney tubules, functioning in secretion and absorption.

(C) Columnar epithelium → (i) Stomach

→ Lines the stomach and intestine, involved in secretion and absorption.

(D) Ciliated epithelium → (iii) Trachea

→ Lines the trachea and bronchi, helps move mucus and dust with cilia.

99)

NCERT Pg # 104

100) OLD NCERT Biology XI Page No. 102 Para 1

101)

The correct answer is Option 3: Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
Statement I: Compound epithelium is made up of more than one layer.

A. This statement is true. Compound epithelium, as the name suggests, is composed of

 multiple layers of cells stacked on top of each other.

Statement II: Compound epithelium has a limited role in secretion and absorption.

A. This statement is also true. The multiple layers of cells in compound epithelium create a
barrier that limits the movement of substances across the tissue.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

102) NCERT Pg. # 102

103)

Correct Answer:

4. Only Statement-1 true

Explanation:
Statement-1: Epithelial tissue has basement membrane

True – All epithelial tissues rest on a basement membrane, which separates them from
underlying connective tissue. So this statement is correct.

Statement-2: Basal lamina is made up of collagen fibre and reticular fibre suspended in
mucopolysaccharide

Incorrect – The basal lamina (part of the basement membrane) is primarily composed of type
IV collagen, laminin, entactin, and heparan sulfate proteoglycans.

104) NCERT XI, Pg. # 102

105) NCERT Page. No.102

106) NCERT, Pg. # 104

107) NCERT, Pg. # 103

108) NCERT XI Pg # 103

109) Module 7 Pg. # 84

110)

Explanation:
In both bronchioles and fallopian tubes, ciliated columnar epithelium is present. The cilia help
in moving mucus in the bronchioles and transporting the ovum in the fallopian tube.

Correct answer: Option (2) Ciliated columnar epithelium.

 111) NCERT Pg. # 102

112)

NCERT P.g No 102

113) NCERT XI Pg. # 101

114) NCERT XI Pg. # 102

115) NCERT XI Pg. # 103

116)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 103, Fig. 7.4

117)

Old XI, NCERT, Pg. # 102

118)

4. Tight junction

Tight junctions are specialized connections between adjacent epithelial cells.

They prevent the leakage of substances between the cells, ensuring that materials must pass
through the cells instead of slipping between them.
This is especially important in tissues like the intestinal lining or blood-brain barrier, where
controlled permeability is crucial.

119) correct answer

120) correct answer

121)

Large cells which have kidney shape nucleus and is a part of cell cleaning system, found in
areolar tissue called as Macrophages.
The correct answer is 3.

122) The correct answer is option 2: Mast cells. Mast cells are the primary source of both
histamine and heparin in the blood and tissues.

A. Histamine: Increases blood flow and permeability, leading to allergy symptoms like runny
nose and itching.
B. Heparin: An anticoagulant that helps prevent blood clotting .

123) NCERT, Pg. # 103

124) NCERT, Pg. # 93

125) NCERT, Pg. # 91

126) NCERT, Pg. # 102

127) Module, Pg. # 99

128) NCERT Page No. # 101

129) NCERT Page No. # 101

130) NCERT Page No. # 104

131) NCERT Pg. # 101, 103

132) NCERT, Pg. # 101

133) NCERT, Pg. # 101

134) NCERT, Pg. # 101

135) NCERT, Pg. # 100

136) NCERT, Page No. # 128-129

137)

NCERT Page No. # 164

138) NCERT XI pg.# 126

139) NCERT Pg. # 126

140) NCERT-XI Pg. # 126 IIIrd para, IInd line

141) NCERT Page No. 133

142) NCERT Page No. 137

143) NCERT Page No. 134, 135

144)

NCERT Page No. 134, 135

145) NCERT Page No. 134

146) NCERT Page No. 134

147)

NCERT Page no.134

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 98, 99

149) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 132, Para–1

150)

NCERT PAGE NO. 138

151) NCERT XI (Eng.) Pg. # 125, Para 1, 2 and 3

152) NCERT Pg. #126

Nuclear membrane, mitochondria and other membrane bound cell organelles are absent in
prokaryotes but membrane-less organelle like ribosome is present in these organisms.

153) NCERT-XI, Pg # 133, Para- 6

154) NCERT-XI, Pg # 131,135,136

155)

Only ribosome
156) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 135, para-03

157)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 139, para-02

158) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 134, para-4

159) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 95, fig.-8.5

160) NCERT-XI, Pg # 138, Para- 3

161) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 138(E), 139(H)

162) NCERT Pg. # 136

163) NCERT XI, Page # 136, Para 8.5.5

164)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 135, Para No. 8.5.5

165) NCERT, Eng. Page - 136 (3rd paragraph)

NCERT, िहदी पे ज- 136 आिखरी पे राग ाफ

166) NCERT-Pg. No. 137, Fig. 8.9

167)

NCERT -134,135

168) NCERT Page No. 138, 139

169) NCERT Page No. # 131, 8.5.1

170) NCERT Pg.# 88, 89

171) NCERT Pg.# 92

172) NCERT page # 136

173)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 96

174) NCERT, Page No. # 126-129

175)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 137

176) NCERT Pg # 101

177) NCERT Pg. # 136,137

178) NCERT XI Pg.# 136

179) Explanation : The nuclear envelope is derived from the rough endoplasmic reticulum
(RER). The outer membrane of the nuclear envelope is continuous with the membrane of the
rough endoplasmic reticulum, which has ribosomes attached to it. This continuity is important
for processes like protein synthesis and the transport of proteins between the nucleus and the
cytoplasm.

180) NCERT Page No. 129