20-07-2025

7501CMD303021250019 MD

PHYSICS

1) A small mass slides down an inclined plane of inclination θ with the horizontal. The co-efficient of
friction is μ = μ0 x where x is the distance through which the mass slides down and μ0 is a constant.
Then the distance covered by the mass before it stops is:

(1)

(2)
tan θ

(3)
tan θ

(4)
tan θ

2) A car of mass m is accelerating on a level smooth road under the action of a single force F. The
power delivered to the car is constant and equal to P. If the velocity of the car at an instant is v, then
after travelling how much distance it becomes double?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A block of mass m is attached to two unstreched springs of spring constant 'k' each as shown. The
block is displaced towards right through distance 'x' and released. The speed of block when it passes

through initial position, will be :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

4) By what amount, the energy of a satellite of mass m has to be increased to shift it from an orbit of

radius r to orbit of radius ? (mass of earth is M)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A block is released from rest from a height h = 5m. After travelling through the smooth curved
surface it moves on the rough horizontal surface through a lenght l = 8 m and climbs onto the other

smooth curved surface through a height h'. If μ = 0.5, find h'.

(1) 2 m
(2) 3 m
(3) 1 m
(4) zero

6) Two particles are at rest as shown. Suddenly a force F = 6N starts acting on the 3 kg particle.

Find the velocity of the centre of mass of these particles at t = 5 sec.

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

7) A semicircular ring is kept on two rods as shown, then find y-cordinate of the centre of mass of
the system if mass of each rod and semicircular ring is m :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

8) A geometry consists of a square and a disc as shown in Fig. It is made up of an iron sheet of
uniform density . The y-co-ordinate of centre of mass of the geometry with respect to point O is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) (4 + 3π)a
(4) 3a

9) A ball of mass 1kg is dropped from a height of 3.2m on smooth inclined plane. The coefficient of

restitution for the collision is e = . The ball's velocity become horizontal after the collision.

(1)
The angle θ = tan–1
(2) The speed of the ball after the collision =4m/s
(3) The total loss in kinetic energy during the collision is 8J
(4) None of the above

10) The condition for a uniform spherical mass m of radius r to be a black hole is [G =
gravitational constant and g = acceleration due to gravity]

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A ball of mass m hits a floor with a speed v making an angle of incidence ɵ = 45° with the

normal to the floor. If the coefficient of restitution is , find the speed of the reflected ball

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) A planet is revolving around the sun in an elliptical orbit. Its closest distance from the sun is rmin,
the farthest distance from the sun is rmax. If the orbital angular velocity of the planet when it is the
nearest to the sun is ω, then the orbital angular velocity at the point when it is at the farthest
distance from the sun is :-

(1)
ω

(2)
ω

(3)
ω

(4)
ω
13) The current I1 is in given circuit

(1) 1.6 A
(2) 0.6 A
(3) 1.25 A
(4) 1.0 A

14) The equivalent resistance between A and B in the arrangement of resistance as shown is :

(1) 4r
(2) 3r
(3) 2.5 r
(4) r

15) A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic wire of cross-section area 4 × 10–6 m2. If the
density of the charge carriers in the wire is 5 × 1026/m3, the drift velocity of the electrons is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Find the current (in mA) in the wire between points A and B.

(1) 2.5 mA
(2) 5.0 mA
(3) 7.5 mA
(4) 10.0 mA

17)
Each resistance is 6Ω
Find current in AB

(1) 1.3A
(2) 1A
(3) 2A
(4) 1.5A

18) The emf of the battery shown in figure is :-

(1) 12V
(2) 16V
(3) 18V
(4) 15V

19)

In the part of a circuit shown in Fig., the potential difference (VG – VH) between points G and H will
be :-

(1) 0 V
(2) 15 V
(3) 7 V
(4) 3 V

20) In the following circuit, the current through the resistor R (= 2Ω) is I Amperes. The value of I is:-

(1) 2A
(2) 1A
(3) 3A
(4) 4A

21) The Wheatstone bridge shown in the above figure is balanced. If the
positions of the cell C and the galvanometer G are now interchanged, G will show zero deflection :-

(1) In all cases

(2) Only if all the resistances are equal
(3) Only if R1 = R3 and R2 = R4
(4) Only if R1/R3 = R2/R4

22) In the figure shown the current flowing through 2 R is :

(1) from left to right

(2) from right to left
(3) no current
(4) none of these
23)

The potential at junction O is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

24) Current density of an area of cross section is varying according to equation . Find

the current through the cylinder

(1) πR J0
2

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The equivalent resistance between A and H of cube if resistance of each side is 1 kΩ

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) The effective capacitances of two capacitors are 2µF and 9 µF, when they are connected in
series and parallel respectively. The capacitance of two capacitors are : -

(1) 4 µF, 5 µF
(2) 3 µF, 6 µF
(3) 4.5 µF, 4.5 µF
(4) 18 µF, 1 µF

27) In the circuit shown, charge on the 2 μF capacitor is:

(1) 15 μC
(2) 9 μC
(3) 6 μC
(4) 30 μC

28) Find breakdown voltage of combination.

(1) 1KV
(2) 4KV

(3)

(4) 3KV

29) If a 10V ideal EMF source is connected across terminal A and B, the charge on 6mF capacitor
will be :
(1) 3 µC
(2) 6 µC
(3) 9 µC
(4) 20 µC

30)

Equivalent capacitance between A and B is nC. The value of n is :

(1) 2C
(2) C
(3) 3C
(4) 4C

31) A capacitor is made of a flat plate of area A and a second plate having a stair-like structure as

shown in figure. If the area of each stair is and the height is d, the capacitance of the arrangement

is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Choose the correct option :

(1)
The capacitance of spherical capacitor is

(2)
The energy density between plates of capacitor is

(3)
The force between plates of parallel plate capacitor is

(4)
The capacitance of cylindrical capacitor is

33) Charge stored on 4 μF capacitor is

(1) 120 μC
(2) 20 μC
(3) 10 μC
(4) 30 μC

34) A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is placed between the plates of a capacitor of
capacitance C as shown in the figure then capacitance of capacitor becomes

(1) 2C
(2) C
(3) C/2
(4) zero

35) A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance C. When it is half filled with a dielectric of
dielectric constant 5, the percentage increase in the capacitance will be:

(1) 400%
(2) 66.6%
(3) 33.3%
(4) 200%

36) Assertion (A) : Their will be electric field inside a current carrying wire :
Reason (R) : Net charge in a current carrying wire is zero.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct not but (R) is correct.

37) n identical bulbs are rated P watt and V volt. When they are connected in series, total power
consumed is 20 watt and when connected in parallel they consume total power of 2000 watt. How
many bulbs are used :-

(1) 200 bulbs

(2) 100 bulbs
(3) 20 bulbs
(4) 10 bulbs

38) In the meter bridge experiment for given values of R1 and R2 the balance point is a 20 cm from
point A. When R2 is shunted by 20Ω resistance balancing point shift at 50 cm from point A then find

value of R2.

(1) 20 Ω
(2) 15 Ω
(3) 60 Ω
(4) 80 Ω

39) A galvanometer of resistance 20 gives a deflection of 5 divisions when 1 mA current flows

through it. The galvanometer scale has 50 divisions. To convert the galvanometer into a voltmeter of
range 25 volt, we should connect a resistance of

(1) 1240 in series

(2) 2480 in series
(3) 2480 in parallel
(4) 20 in parallel

40) Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic
conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match
Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Drift Velocity (P)

 (B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd`

(C) Relaxation Period (R)

(D) Current Density (S)

(E) Mobility (T)

(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(T), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q), (E)-(S)

(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q), (E)-(T)
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(T), (D)-(Q), (E)-(S)
(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P), (E)-(T)

41) Consider the situation as shown in the figure. Plate B is fixed and force constant of spring is K. If
charge +Q is placed on plate A & charge –Q on plate B. Find extention in the spring. A is area of

plate of capacitor. This system is placed on smooth floor.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A capacitance of 2μF is required in an electrical circuit across a potential difference of 1.0 kV. A
large number of 1μF capacitors are available which can withstand a potential difference of not more
than 300 V.
The minimum number of capacitors required to achieve this is :

(1) 32
(2) 2
(3) 16
(4) 24

43) In figure a system of four capacitors connected across a 10 V battery is shown. Charge that will
flow from switch S when it is closed is:
(1) 5 μC from b to a
(2) 20 μC from a to b
(3) zero
(4) 5 μC from a to b

44) Two uncharged capacitors are charged with a battery of E volt. by shifting key from 1 to 2. The

ratio of charges produced on these capacitors will be :–

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

45) Two parallel plate capacitors whose capacitances are C and 2 C respectively, are joined in
parallel. These are charged to V potential difference. If the battery is now removed and a dielectric
of dielectric constant K is filled in between the plates of the capacitor C, then what will be the
potential difference across each capacitor?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY
1)
Major product of this reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Assertion : Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with in NaOH at 340 K gives

salicylaldehyde as the major product.
Reason : Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with in NaOH at 340 K occurs through
intermediate substituted benzalchloride which is hydrolysed in the presence of alkali to produce
salicylaldehyde

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

3)
(A) , Product (A) is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) In the following reaction sequence, structures of P and Q, are respectively

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5)
Which of the following is correct comparison of rate of haloform reaction with varoius halogens :-

(1) rcl2 > rBr2 > rI2

(2) rI2 > rBr2 > rcl2
(3) rcl2 = rBr2 = rI2
(4) rBr2 > rcl2 > rI2

6) Consider following reaction sequence

 A (major product)

P1 + P2
P1 undergoes aldol condensation while P2 can not. Which of the following statement(s) is correct ?

(1) NaHSO3 can be used to distinguish P1 and P2

(2) P2 reduces tollens reagent but can not reduce Fehling’s solution.
(3) P1 and P2 can undergo iodoform test.
(4) Compound P2 can give positive 2,4-DNP test but can not undergo Cannizzaro reaction.

7)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Consider the following sequence of reactions

The product (C) is :

(1)

(2) CH2=CHCH2 COOH

(3) HOOCCH2CH2COOH
(4) HOOCCH=CHCOOH

9)
In the above given compound how many functional group reduced by LAH (Lithium aluminium
hydride) and SBH (sodium borohydride) respectively :-

(1) 4, 4
(2) 4, 3
(3) 3, 4
(4) 4, 2

10) Assertion : With HI at 373k, tert-butyl methyl ether gives tert-butyl iodide and methanol.
Reason : The reaction occurs by SN2 mechanism.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Arrange these esters in decreasing order of ease of esterfication with CH3OH/H⊕ :

(I) (II)

(III) (IV) (CH3–CH2)3C–COOH

(1) II > I > III > IV

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) III >IV > II > I
(4) IV > III > II > I

12)
The structure of compound Y is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
13) What is the number of benzene derivatives having the molecular formula C7H9N that would
respond positive to carbyl amine test.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

14) (A) (B) ; structure of (A) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The major product of the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Assertion : Carbylamine reaction involves the reaction between 1° amine and chloroform in
basic medium.
Reason : In carbylamine reaction, –NH2 group is converted into –CN group.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

17) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as
Reason(R):
Assertion (A): Gabriel phthalimide synthesis cannot be used to prepare aromatic primary amines.
Reason (R): Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution reaction at room temperature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.

18) The purine base present in DNA is :-

(1) Adenine
(2) Cytosine
(3) Thymine
(4) Uracil

19) Match the vitamins given in Column-I with the deficiency diseases listed in Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Vitamin A (p) Osteomalacia

(b) Vitamin C (q) Beri beri

(c) Vitamin D (r) Scurvy

(d) Vitamin B1 (s) Xerophthalmia

(1) a → p; b → q; c → s; d → r
(2) a → s; b → r; c → p; d → q
(3) a → s; b → p; c → r; d → q
(4) a → p; b → r; c → q; d → s

20) Which one of the following statements is not true regarding (+) Lactose?

(1) (+) Lactose, C12H22O11 contains 8-OH groups

(2) On hydrolysis (+) Lactose gives equal amount of D(+) glucose and D(+) galactose
(+) Lactose in a β,1:4-glycoside formed by the union of a molecule of D(+) glucose and a
(3)
molecule of D(+) galactose
(4) (+) Lactose is reducing sugar and does not exhibit mutarotation

21) One molal aqueous solution of an electrolyte X3Y2 is 25% ionised. The boiling point of the solution
is : (Kb for H2O = 0.52 Kkg/mol)

(1) 375.5 K
(2) 374.04 K
(3) 377.12 K
(4) 373.25 K

22) What is the molarity of a 4.9% by mass H2SO4 solution of density 0.98 gm/mL ? (S = 32)

(1) 0.98 M
(2) 0.49 M
(3) 1M
(4) 0.25 M

23) Match the column.

Column-I Column-II

A 20VH2O2 P 2.5 M

B 24.5% w/v H2SO4 Q 1.76 M

C Pure water R 1.5 M

5% w/w NaOH
D S 55.5 M
(dsolution = 1.2 gm/ml)
(1) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P
(2) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(3) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R
(4) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

24) Two components A and B form an ideal solution. The mole fractions of A and B in ideal solution
are XA and XB while that of in vapour phase, these components have their mole fractions as YA and YB.

Then, the slope and intercept of plot of vs. will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

25) Which of the following statement is correct if the intermolecular force in liquids A, B and C are
in the order A < B < C?

(1) B evaporates more readily than A

(2) B evaporates less readily than C
(3) A evaporates more readily than C
(4) A and B evaporate at the same rate

26) At 323 K, the vapour pressure in mm of Hg of a methanol-ethanol solution is represented by the

equation P = 120 XA + 140, where XA is the mole-fraction of methanol. Then the value of is
:-

(1) 250 mm
(2) 140 mm
(3) 260 mm
(4) 20 mm

27)

Based on the given diagram, which of the following statments regarding the solutions of two
miscible volatile liquids are correct :-
(a) Plots AD and BC show that Raoult's law is obeyed for the solution in which B is a solvent and A is
solute and as well as for that in which A is solvent and B is solute.
(b) Plot CD shows that Dalton's law of partial vapour pressure is observed by the binary solution of
components A and B.

(c) EF + EG = EH and AC, BD corresponds to pure vapour pressure of the liquids A and B.

Select the correct ans :-

(1) a,b
(2) b,c
(3) a,c
(4) a,b,c

28) On mixing solid solute in pure water the vapour pressure of solution reduces by 4%, then find
the molality of the solution :-

(1) 1.3 m
(2) 2.3 m
(3) 3.3 m
(4) 4.3 m

29) If vapour pressure of solvent and solution is Po and Ps and number of mole of solute and solvent
are N1 and N2 then correct option is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

30) The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution of glucose is 750 mm of mercury at 373 K. The
mole fraction of solute is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A solution containing 0.1 g of a non-voltatile organic substance P(molecular mass 100) in 100g of
benzene raises the boiling point of benzene by 0.2°C, while a solution containing 0.1 g of another
non-volatile substance Q in the same amount of benzene raises the boiling point of benzene by
0.4°C. What is the ratio of molecular masses at P and Q ?

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

32) An aqueous solution containing 1g of urea boils at 100.25 °C. The aqueous solution containing
3g of glucose in the same volume will boil at -

(1) 100.75 °C
(2) 100.5 °C
(3) 100 °C
(4) 100.25 °C
33) The amount of urea to be dissolved in 500 cc of water (Kf = 1.86) to produce a depression of
0.186°C in the freezing point is:

(1) 9 g
(2) 6 g
(3) 3 g
(4) 0.3 g

34) Two solutions S1 and S2 containing 0.1M NaCl(aq.) and 0.08M BaCl2(aq.) are separated by

semipermeable membrane. Correct statement is

(1) S1 and S2 are isotonic

(2) S1 is hypertonic and S2 is hypotonic
(3) S1 is hypotonic and S2 is hypertonic
(4) Osmosis will take place to from S2 to S1

35) What will be the osmotic pressure of 0.03 N Aluminium sulphate solution at 27°C? If in solution
salt dissociates 90% :-

(1) 0.566 atm

(2) 0.677 atm
(3) 3.399 atm
(4) 4.065 atm

36) If mole fraction of the solvent in solution decreases then :

(1) Vapour pressure of solution increases

(2) B. P. of solution decreases
(3) Osmotic pressure of solution increases
(4) All are correct

37) The correct relationship between molality (m) and molarity (M) of a solution is-
(d = density in g/ml )

m=
(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

38) Identify the extensive properties out of following :

(a) pH (b) Ecell
(c) Enthalpy (d) Molar enthalpy
(e) Volume (f) Heat capacity

(1) b, c, e, f
(2) c, e, f
(3) c, d, e, f
(4) all

39) If the door of a refrigerator is kept open, the room in which the refrigerator is kept :

(1) gets cooled

(2) gets heated
(3) neither gets cooled nor gets heated
(4) gets cooled or heated depending on the initial temperature of the room

40) The internal energy change when a system goes from state A to B is 40 kJ/mole. If the system
goes from A to B by a reversible path and returns to state A by an irreversible path what would be
the net change in internal energy

(1) < 40 kJ
(2) Zero
(3) 40 kJ
(4) > 40 kJ

41) An ideal monoatomic gas is taken round the cycle as shown in following P-V diagram. The work

done during the cycle is -

(1) PV
(2) 2 PV
(3) 4 PV
(4) Zero

42) P-V plot for two process of an ideal gas. Plot A and Plot B should correspond respectively to :
(1) Isothermal and Adiabatic
(2) Isothermal and Isobaric
(3) Isothermal and Isochoric
(4) Adiabatic and Isothermal

43) What is for the process described by figure. Heat supplied during the process q = 200 kJ.

(1) +50 kJ
(2) -50 kJ
(3) -150 kJ
(4) +150 kJ

44) 71g of Cl2 is allowed to expand freely into vaccum calculate value of q, w, ΔH ?

(1) w = 0, q > 0, ΔH = 0
(2) q = 0, ΔH = 0, w = 0
(3) q = 0, ΔH > 0, w = 0
(4) q > 0, w = 0, ΔH > 0

45) When 1 mole of a gas is heated at constant volume, temperature is raised from 298 to 308 K.
Heat supplied to gas is 500 J. Then which statement is correct ?

(1) q = W = 500 J; ΔU = 0
(2) q = ΔU = 500 J; W = 0
(3) q = W = 500 J; ΔU = 500
(4) ΔU = 0, q = W = –500 J
 BIOLOGY

1) In a pea plants, the tall phenotype is dominant to the dwarf phenotype. If a heterozygous pea
plant is crossed with a homozygous tall pea plant, what is the probability that the offspring will be
dwarf in size

(1) 1
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/4
(4) 0

2) Suppose two individuals with the genotype AaBbCc are mated. Assuming that the genes are not
linked, what fraction of the offspring are expected to be homozygous recessive for the three traits ?

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/8
(3) 1/16
(4) 1/64

3) Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white-
flowered plant yields all-purple offspring. The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of
the following inheritance patterns ?

(1) A multiple allelic system

(2) Sex linkage
(3) Codominance
(4) Incomplete dominance

4) Which of the following statements is a correct explanation for the observation that all offspring
exhibit a phenotype for a particular trait appears to be a blend of the two parental varieties ?

(1) Neither of the parental genes is dominant over the other

(2) The genes for the trait are dominant in both of the parents
(3) The genes are linked and do not separate during meiosis
(4) The genes for the trait are recessive in both of the parent

5) What does a recombination frequency of 50% indicate ?

(1) The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.

(2) All of the offspring have combination of traits that match one of the two parents.
(3) The genes are located on sex chromosomes
(4) Abnormal meiosis has occurred

6) Which of the following statements regarding gene linkage is correct ?

 The closer two genes are on a chromosomes, the lower the probability that a crossover will
(1)
occur between them.
The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are fat apart from each other has a
(2)
maximum value of 100%.
All of the traits that Mendel studied- seed color, pod shape, flower color, and others - are due to
(3)
genes linked on the same chromosome.
(4) Linked genes are found on different chromosomes.

7) Sex determination in mammals is due to the SRY gene found on the Y chromosome. Which of the
following situations could allow a person with an XX karyotype to develop a male phenotype ?

(1) the loss of the SRY gene from an autosome

(2) translocation of SRY to an X chromosome
(3) the presence of an extra autosomal chromosome
(4) the presence of one normal and one shortened (deleted) X

8) Use the following map of four genes on a chromosome to answer the question.

Between which two genes would you expect the highest frequency of
recombination ?

(1) A and W
(2) E and G
(3) A and E
(4) A and G

9) A homozygous tomato plant with red fruit and yellow flowers was crossed with a homozygous
tomato plant with golden fruit and white flowers. The F1 all had red fruit and yellow flowers. The
F1 were testcrossed by crossing them to homozygous recessive individuals, and the following
offspring were obtained :
Red fruit and yellow flowers – 41
Red fruit and white flowers – 7
Golden fruit and yellow flowers – 8
Golden fruit and white flowers – 44
How many map units separate these genes ?

(1) 17.6
(2) 15
(3) 17.1
(4) 18.1

10) Inheritance patterns cannot always be explained by Mendel's models of inheritance. If a pair of
homologous chromosomes fails to separate during meiosis I, select the choice that shows the
chromosome number of the four resulting gametes with respect to the normal haploid number (n) ?

(1) n + 1; n + 1; n – 1; n – 1
(2) n + 1; n – 1; n; n
(3) n + 1; n – 1; n – 1; n – 1
(4) n + 1; n + 1; n; n

11) If a cell were unable to produce histone proteins, which of the following results would be a likely
effect on the cell ?

(1) There would be an increase in the amount of DNA produced during replication
(2) The cell's DNA could not be packed into its nucleus.
(3) Spindle fibers would not form during prophase.
(4) Amplification of other genes would compensate for the lack of histones.

12) Which of the following statements correctly describes the structure of chromatin ?

(1) Heterochromatin is composed of DNA, whereas euchromatin is made of DNA and RNA.
(2) Both heterochromatin and euchromatin are found in the cytoplasm.
(3) Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact.
(4) Euchromatin is not transcribed, where heterochromatin is transcribed.

13) A biochemist isolates, purifies, and combines in a test tube a variety of molecules needed for
DNA replication. When she adds some DNA to the mixture, replication occurs, but each DNA
molecule consists of a normal strand paired with numerous segments of DNA a few hundred
nucleotides long. What has she probably left out of the mixture ?

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) DNA ligase
(3) Okazaki fragments
(4) Primase

14) Use the figure to answer the following questions. In the

late 1950s, Meselson and Stahl grew bacteria in a medium containing "heavy" (radioactive) nitrogen
(13N) and then transferred them to a medium containing 14N (non-radioactive). Which of the results in
the figure would be expected after one round of DNA replication in the presence of 14N ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

15) Why does a new DNA strand elongate only in the to direction during DNA replication ?

(1) DNA polymerase begins adding nucleotides at the end of the template.
(2) The polarity of the DNA molecule prevents addition of nucleotides at the end.
(3) Replication must progress towards the replication fork.
(4) DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the free end.

16) In [Link], what is the function of DNA polymerase III ?

(1) to unwind the DNA helix during replication

(2) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands
(3) to add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand
(4) to degrade damaged DNA molecules.

17) Which of the following statements correctly describes the different between ATP and the
nucleotides used during DNA synthesis ?

(1) The nucleotides have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose
(2) The nucleotides have two phosphate groups; ATP has three phosphate groups.
(3) ATP contains three high-energy bonds; the nucleotides have two
(4) ATP is found only in human cells; the nucleotides are found in all animal and plant cells.

18) Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between the leading and
the lagging strands of DNA during DNA replication ?

The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork,
(1)
and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.
The leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the end of the growing strand, and
(2)
the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the end.
The lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in
(3)
short fragments that are ultimately stitched together.
(4) The leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.

19) In the polymerization of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of
the nucleotide being added and which of the following atoms or molecules of the last nucleotides in
the polymer ?

(1) the phosphate

(2) C6
(3) the OH
(4) a nitrogen from the nitrogen-containing base.

20) Which of the following statements accurately describes the differences between DNA replication
in prokaryotes and DNA replication in eukaryotes ?

(1) Prokaryotic chromosomes have histones, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes do not.

Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes
(2)
have many.
(3) The rate of elongation during DNA replication is slower in prokaryotes than in eukaryotes.
(4) Prokaryotes produce Okazaki fragments during DNA replication, but eukaryotes do not.
21) What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the two strands that make up the DNA
double helix ?

(1) The double helix structure of DNA creates nonparallel strands.

(2) The direction of one strand runs counter to the direction of the other strand.
(3) Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands.
(4) One strand contains only purines and the other contains only pyrimidines.

22) Suppose you are provided with an actively dividing culture of [Link] bacteria to which radioactive
thymine has been added. What would happen if a cell replicates once in the presence of this
radioactive base ?

(1) One of the daughter cells, but not the other, would have radioactive DNA
(2) Neither of the two daughter cells would be radioactive
(3) All four bases of the DNA would be radioactive.
(4) DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.

23) At a specific area of a chromosome, the sequence of nucleotides below is present where the
chain opens to form a replication fork : An RNA primer is formed
starting at the underlined T (T) of the template. Which of the following represents the primer
sequence ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of a molecule of DNA, which of the following
combinations of base pairs will be found ?

(1) A = C
(2) A = G and C = T
(3) A + C = G + T
(4) G + C = T + A

25) Thymine makes up 28% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately
what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be guanine ?

(1) 8%
(2) 16%
(3) 22%
(4) 72%

26) In his transformation experiments, what phenomenon did Griffith observe ?

Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can convert
(1)
some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.
 Mixing a heat-killed nonpathogenic strain of bacteria with a living pathogenic strain makes the
(2)
pathogenic strain nonpathogenic.
Infecting mice with nonpathogenic strains of bacteria makes them resistant to pathogenic
(3)
strains.
(4) Mice infected with a pathogenic strain of bacteria can spread the infection to other mice.

27) If 14C-labeled uracil is added to the growth medium of cells, what macromolecules will be labeled
?

(1) DNA
(2) RNA
(3) both DNA and RNA
(4) polypeptides

28) Which of the following is a major difference between RNA and DNA ?

(1) type of sugar

(2) type of phosphate
(3) type of purines
(4) type of glycosidic bond

29) Which of the following pairs of base sequences could form a short stretch of a normal double
helix of DNA ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of these pairs are correct

30) Assertion A: In cymose type of inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower and is limited
in growth.
Reason R: The flowers in cymose inflorescence are borne in a basipetal order.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

31) Assertion A: In Salvia and mustard, the stamens have filaments of varying lengths.
Reason R: The variation in filament length within a flower is an adaptation to promote cross-
pollination.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
32) In which type of inheritance the results of reciprocal cross will not remain same?

(1) Incomplete dominance

(2) Quantitative inheritance
(3) Sex linkage & cytoplasmic inheritance
(4) Dominance or co-dominance

33)

The recessive trait is due to

a. Normal enzyme.
b. Less efficient enzyme.
c. A non-functional enzyme.
d. No enzyme.

(1) Only a
(2) Both b & c
(3) Both c & d
(4) Only b

34) Select the odd one out with respect to chromosomal theory of inheritance :-

(1) It was Proposed by sutton & Boveri

(2) Behaviour of chromosomes is parallel to behaviour of genes
(3) Chromosomes & genes occure in pairs in diploid & haploid cell respectively
(4) The paired condition of both chromosomes as well as factors is restored during fertilization

35) Red eye female Drosophila is crossed with white eye male. If this cross result is 50% progeny
being red eye, we can say that :-

(1) Both parents were hemizygous

(2) female parent was heterozygous
(3) female parent was pure
(4) Both parents were pure

36) The map unit distance between A and C is 30 cM, between B and C is 20 cM, between A and B is
50 cM, between B and D is 10 cM and between C and D is 30 cM. What will be the arrangement of
ABCD genes on chromosome?

(1) ABCD
(2) ACBD
(3) BACD
(4) CABD
37)
In this given pedigree what is the mode of inheritance

(1) Autosomal dominant

(2) Autosomal recessive
(3) X-linked dominant
(4) X-linked recessive

38) Assertion (A) : Turner's syndrome is caused due to absence of X-chromosomes.

Reason (R) : Such females are sterile as ovaries rudimentary, short stature and underdeveloped
faminine character.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

39) Select incorrect pair?

(1) Zygomorphic flower – Cassia

(2) Actinomorphic flower – China rose
(3) Epigynous flower – Guava
(4) Hypogynous flower – Rose

40) Which of the following is true regarding China rose ?

A. Imbricate aestivation
B. Alternate Phyllotaxy
C. Superior ovary
D. Diadelphous Cohesion of Stamen
E. Axile placentation

(1) B, C, D & E only

(2) A, C, D & E only
(3) B, C & E only
(4) C & D only

41) Rearrange the following zones as seen in the root in vertical section and choose the correct
option for their sequence :-
A. Root hair zone
B. Zone of meristems
C. Rootcap zone
D. Zone of maturation
E. Zone of elongation

(1) C, B, E, A, D
(2) A, B, C, D, E
(3) D, E, A, C, B
(4) E, D, C, B, A

42) Identify, A, B, C and D in the given diagram :

(1) A–Aleurone layer, B–Endosperm, C–Coleoptile, D–Coleorhiza

(2) A–Aleurone layer, B–Coleoptile, C–Endosperm, D–Coleorhiza
(3) A–Coleoptile, B–Aleurone layer, C–Endosperm, D–Coleorhiza
(4) A–Coleoptile, B–Aleurone layer, C–Coleorhiza, D–Endosperm

43) According to given diagram, find out the type of flower and position of ovary :-

(1) Epigynous - ovary superior

(2) Hypogynous - ovary inferior
(3) Hypogynous - ovary superior
(4) Epigynous - ovary inferior

44) Which of the following is/are not common for both mango and coconut ?

(1) Presence of stony endocarp

(2) Presence of differentiated pericarp
(3) Fibrous mesocarp
(4) All of these

45) Identify the family from the below given floral diagram and which technical term used for
androecium:-

(1) Solanaceae - Monoadelphous

(2) Papilionoideae - Diadelphous
(3) Papilionoideae - Didynamous
(4) Cruciferae - Tetradynamous

46) Which of the protein is not a part of thin myofilament?

(1) Myosin
(2) Actin
(3) Troponin
(4) Tropomyosin

47) The monomeric protein which polymerises to form myosin is

(1) Actin
(2) Meromyosin
(3) Tropomyosin
(4) Troponin

48) ATP binding site is located on the

(1) Tropomyosin
(2) Actin
(3) Myosin
(4) Troponin

49) The anaerobic contraction of skeletal muscle causes deposition or accumulation of

(1) Gluconic acid

(2) Lactic acid
(3) Pyruvic acid
(4) Hydrochloric acid

50) Lactic acid is converted to _______ in the liver.

(1) Cellulose
(2) Acetyl CoA
(3) Glucose
(4) Starch

51) Head of humerus articulates with _________ cavity

(1) Glenoid
(2) Acetabulum
(3) Foramen magnum
(4) Obturator foramen

52) The U-shaped bone present at the base of buccal cavity is

(1) Skull
(2) Hyoid
(3) Incus
(4) Stapes

53) Match the following

Column I Column II

(a) Tarsal (i) 14

(b) Phalanges (ii) 1

(c) Meta tarsal (iii) 7

(d) Femur (iv) 5

(1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)

54) In Myasthenia gravis ________ is affected.

(1) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

(2) Sarcolemma
(3) Neuromuscular junction
(4) T-tubules

55) Select the true statement

(1) A band is present in the middle of sarcomere

(2) H zone is present in the middle of A - band
(3) M line is present in the middle of H - zone
(4) All of these

56) Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it

(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin.
(2) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it.
(3) Prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament.
(4) Detaches the myosin head from the actin filament.

57) Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to

(1) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue

(2) High concentration of Ca++ and Na+
(3) Decreased level of estrogen
(4) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints

58) Assertion (A) : Maximum movement is possible at the amphiarthroses joint.

Reason (R) : Such joints are also called Synovial joints and have almost frictionless movement due
to synovial fluid.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

59) Assertion (A) : All muscles follow ‘All or None’ principle.

Reason (R) : All muscles contract either fully or not contract at all depending upon threshold
stimulus availability.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

60) Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Mons pubis (i) Embryo formation

(b) Antrum (ii) Sperm

(c) Trophoectoderm (iii) Female external genitalia

(d) Nebenkern (iv) Graafian follicle

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

61) Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if

(1) The sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
(2) The sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the
(3)
fallopian tube
The ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic junction of the
(4)
cervix

62) Identify the correct statement on inhibin

(1) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH

(2) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin
(3) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH
(4) Is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH

63) Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of

(1) Progesterone and inhibin

(2) Estrogen and progesterone
(3) Estrogen and inhibin
(4) Progesterone only

64) Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female?

(1) LH surge
(2) Decrease in estradiol
(3) Full development of Graafian follicle
(4) Release of secondary oocyte

65) Which of these is not an important component of initiation of parturition in humans?

(1) Release of prolactin

(2) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(3) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(4) Release of oxytocin

66) What happens during fertilisation in humans after many sperms reach close to the ovum?

(1) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except one
(2) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona pellucida
(3) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida
(4) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum lose their tails

67) The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs

(1) In the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division

(2) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube
(3) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(4) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum

68) Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?

(1) Acrosome serves no particular function

Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg resulting in
(2)
fertilization
(3) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization
(4) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum

69) Which of the following is an incorrect statement for periodic abstinence?

The couple should abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation
(1)
could be expected
(2) 10th to 17th day of the cycle is fertile period, when the chances of fertilisation are high
(3) This prevents the chances of union of male and female gametes
(4) Fertile period is considered safe and coitus should be abstained before and after that period.

70) Lactational amenorrhoea, is a natural way of birth spacing. It is due to the high level of

(1) FSH and LH hormones

(2) Estrogen
(3) Prolactin
(4) Progesterone

71) Which of the following statement is/are correct about diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults?
A. Barrier methods of contraception
B. Cover the cervix during coitus
C. Protect the user from contracting STDs
D. They are reusable

(1) A & B only

(2) A, B & C
(3) A, B & D
(4) A, B, C & D

72) Use of spermicidal creams, jellies and foams along with diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults
leads to

(1) Increased contraceptive efficiency

(2) Prevention of ovulation
(3) Prevention of implantation
(4) Increased sexual desire and drive

73) Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side effects used by females. They work by
(1) Inhibiting ovulation
(2) Inhibiting implantation
(3) They alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent/retard the entry of sperms
(4) All of these

74) ‘Norplant’ is the new form of birth control and it

(1) Allows ovulation but doesn’t allow fertilization

(2) Makes the cervical mucus thin making sperm entry into the uterus difficult
(3) Has progestin as the active ingredient
(4) Is effective for a maximum of one year

75) Which of the following have been found to be very effective as emergency contraceptive as they
could be used to avoid possible pregnancy due to rape if given within 72 hours?
A. Administration of progestogens
B. Progestogen-estrogen combination
C. IUDs inserted within 72 hours of coitus

(1) A only
(2) A & B only
(3) B only
(4) A, B & C

76) Which of the following STD and its causative agent is not correctly matched?

(1) Genital warts : Haemophilus ducrei

(2) Syphilis : Treponema pallidum
(3) Genital herpes : Type II Herpes simplex virus (HSV-2)
(4) Trichomoniasis : Trichomonas vaginalis

77) Which of the following graphs is the correct representation of the level of progesterone in a
female who has been using Mala-D as a method of birth control.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

78) Action of which of the following hormones is blocked during use of RU 486 (mifepristone)?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) Progesterone
(4) hCG

79) Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option :

(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah

(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
(3) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(4) Brain of bat, man and cheetah

80) Which of the following supports Darwin’s theory of evolution?

(1) Use and disuse of organs

(2) Inheritance of acquired characters
(3) Variations and natural selection
(4) Law of dominance

81) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?
(i) Formation of protobionts
(ii) Synthesis of organic monomers
(iii) Synthesis of organic polymers
(iv) Formation of prokaryote

(1) (i) → (ii) →(iii) →(iv)

(2) (i) →(iii) →(ii) →(iv)
(3) (ii) →(iii) →(i) →(iv)
(4) (ii) →(iii) →(iv) →(i)

82) Who proposed that life could have originated from pre-existing non-living organic molecules?

(1) Charles Darwin

(2) Louis Pasteur
(3) Oparin and Haldane
(4) S.L. Miller

83) Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird?

(1) Flipper of Whale

(2) Dorsal fin of a Shark
(3) Wing of a Moth
(4) Hind limb of Rabbit

84) Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
On the above statements which one of the following options is correct?

(1) Both (a) & (b) are false

(2) (a) is correct but (b) is false
(3) (b) is correct but (a) is false
(4) Both (a) & (b) are correct

85) Assertion (A) : Mutations are non-directional.

Reason (R) : Darwin’s small variations are directional.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

86) Assertion (A) : Spotted cuscus and marsupial mole are the examples of marsupial radiation.
Reason (R) : Both are found in Australian region.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

87) Assertion (A) : Similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse
organisms give clue to common ancestry.
Reason (R) : All the group of vertebrates arises from the common ancestor with great adaptation
capability.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false.

88) Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

(2) Stem cells are specialized cells
(3) There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
(4) All plant and animal cells are totipotent
89) Which one of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment ?

(1) Glycine
(2) Aspartic acid
(3) Serine
(4) Alanine

90) Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by

(1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear

(2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like reptiles
(3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear
(4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 2 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 3 4 2 4 3 3 2 1 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 2 4 4 2 2 2 2 4 2 4 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 2 4 3 2 1 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 1 3 3 1 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 4 2 3 3 4 2 4 4 2 4 3 3 1 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 1 2 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 4 1 1 1 2 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 4 3 1 1 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 3 3 1 2 1 3 1 1 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 3 1 2 1 3 4 1 3 4 4 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 2 2 1 3 3 3 4 3 3 1 4 3 4 1 2 3 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 1 4 2 2 1 1 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) (mg sin θ) x – dx = 0

sin θ x = μo cos θ x tan θ = μ0 ,x=

2) P = Fv =

⇒ ⇒

3) (KE + U)i = (KE + U)f

4)

5) The forces acting on the block and N, gravity and friction.

Wf + Wf + Wgr = DK
Where WN = 0, Wf = –μmgℓ
and Wgr = mg (h – h') and ΔK = 0
Thus, – μmgℓ + mg(h – h') = 0
 6)

v2 = 0 + 2 × 5 = 10 m/s

7)
y position of COM of semicircular ring is

= y1 + ℓ = +ℓ= +ℓ

y position of COM of each rod =

For system ycm =

⇒ ycm = = (1 + 2π)

8)

For two dimensional bodies,

ycm =

∴ ycm =

9)

8 sin θ = v cos θ

2 tan θ = cot θ ⇒ tan θ = v= m/s

10)
11)
Since the floor exerts a force on the ball along the normal during the collision so horizontal
component of velocity remains same and only the vertical component changes.

Therefore,

and .

12)

According to law of conservation of angular momentum,

or
⇒

13)
Apply KCL
i1 + i2 = i3

8 – 2V + 6 – V = 2V
5V = 14 ⇒ V = Volt

Current i1 = = 0.6 A

14)

15) i = neAvd
5 = 5 × 1026 × 1.6 × 10–19 × 4 × 10–6 vd
 m/sec

16)

Refer Module–04, Pg. # 88, ill 20

17)

VA = 8 volt ; VB = 2 volt
VA – VB = IR

8 – 2 = I(6) ⇒ I = 1 Amp.

18)

E=4×3
E = 12

19)
KCL at y
Iy = 1 + 3 = 4A
KCL at x 2 + IH = Iy ⇒ IH = 4 – 2 = 2A
applying KVL along G to H
VG – 2(4) + 3 – 2(2) + (1)(2) = VH

⇒ VA – iR = VB
20)

⇒ i=

21) In all cases [general concept]

22)
In figure all resistance are connected in parallel.
So and current in all resistance flow from positive terminal of battery (means A end) to
negative terminal of battery (means B end).

23)

Apply KCL
i1 + i2 + i3 = 0

=0
⇒ 30 – 3V + 4 – 2V + 30 – 6V = 0

11V = 64 ⇒ V = volt
24)

J = dI/dA ⇒ dI = JdA

I= =

=2πJ

0
=2πJ0 = R2J

25)
By KVL along path ABDHA
(including battery)

⇒ ⇒ =

26)
C1 + C2 = 9
C1 C2 = 18
C1 = 3 µF
C2 = 6 µF

27) Let q1, q2 and Q be the charge on the capacitors of 3 μF, 2 μF and 5 μF respectively.

⇒ 5V0 = 3(6 – V0) + 2(6 – V0)

⇒ 5V0 = 18 – 3V0 + 12 – 2V0
⇒ 10V0 = 30 ⇒ V0 = 3V
∴ q2 = 2(6 – V0) = 6μC

28)

29)
30)

C and D are same potetial.

31) Capacitance of capacitor with air between plate,

All capacitor are in parallel combination.
∴ Ceq = C1 + C2

32) The energy density between plates of capacitor is

33)

34)

same

35)
% increase =

36) Electric field inside a current carrying conductor is due to potential difference created by
battery.

37)

In series 20 = ; In parallel Pn = 2000

⇒ P = 200 & n = 10
Hence option (4) is correct

38) ....(1)
R2 = 4R1

⇒ 20R1 + R1R2 = 20R2

⇒ 20 + R2 =
⇒ 20 + R2 = 20 × 4
R2 = 60Ω

39)

Here,

in series

40) (A)
(B) J = σE = E/ρ ⇒ ρ = E/J

(C)

(D) i = neAυd

J = neυd
(E) Mobility =

41)

Force on plate A = QAEB

Force =
At equilibrium
Force = kx

x=

42)
Minimum no. of capacitors required = 32

43)
(Qa + Qb)i = (–12 + 12)μC = 0
Finally:
 (Qa + Qb)f = –15 + 10 = –5μC
So, 5 μC charge from b → a

44)

45) Explanation:

Here, we need to find new potential difference across the parallel connected capacitors. When
battery is disconnected & dielectric slab is planed.

Concept :
In both the cares we have to calculate the total charge stored in the combination which will
remain constant before & after the slab inserted.

Diagram

Calculation :
Qnet = 3CV
attery removed i.e. Q → constant
C' = KC
Let potential difference V'
Q'net = KCV' + 2CV'
= (K + 2)CV'
Charge conservation
Q = Q'net
3CV = (K + 2) CV'

V' =

Answer : option (3) is Correct.

CHEMISTRY

46) Fact

47)

Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.

48)

Rate of esterification ∝

49) Here the reaction is as follows

50) In RDS of haloform reaction carbanion obtained as intermediate by cleavage of C–H bond

51)

P1(CH3COCH3)
+ P2(PhCHO)
Both compounds P1 and P2 reacts with NaHSO3.
P2 reduces tollens reagent but can not reduce Fehling’s solution.
Only P1 can undergo iodoform test.
Compound P2 can undergo positive 2,4-DNP test as well as Cannizzaro reaction.

52)
 53)

54) LiAlH4 reduced →

→ 4 group

NaBH4 reduced → Only

→ 2 group

55) Asking : We have to find correct statement

Concept :

Ans. (3)

56) Rate of estrification ∝

∵ II > I > III > IV
57)

58) , , ,

59) In Hoffman degradation one carbon decrease

60)

61) 1. Asking About: Correct statement.

2. Concept: Carbylamine Test.
3. Solution/Explanation
Carbylamine Test is Test only for 1°/primary amine in which 1° Amine is treated with
chloroform (CHCl3) and KOH (Basic medium) then foul smelling compound R-NC (Isocyanide)
is formed.
R-NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH → R-NC
Hence option 3 is correct answer.

62) Gabriel pthalamide synthesis

63) Adenine is purine base, which is present in DNA.

64) Theory Based

65)

66) i = i + (n – 1)α = 1+ (5 – 1)0.25 = 2

ΔTb = iKbm = 2 × 0.25 × 1 = 1.04
Tb = 373 + 1.04 = 374.04

67)

68)

A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

 69)

70) Explanation:-
Stronger intermolecular forces mean molecules are held together more tightly.
This makes it harder for them to escape into the gas phase (evaporate).
Weaker intermolecular forces mean easier evaporation.
Concept :-
Given A < B < C (intermolecular forces), A has the weakest forces, and C has the strongest.
Therefore, A will evaporate most readily, and C will evaporate least readily.
Answer option 3, (A evaporates more readily than C).

71)

260 mm

72)

(a) Plots AD and BC show that Raoult's law is obeyed for the solution in which B is a solvent
and A is solute and as well as for that in which A is solvent and B is solute.
(b) Plot CD shows that Dalton's law of partial vapour pressure is observed by the binary
solution of components A and B.

(c) EF + EG = EH and AC, BD corresponds to the vapour pressure of the liquids A and B.

73)

⇒
XB = 0.04, XA = 0.96

74)
75)

Explaining : Find mole fraction of solute ?

Concept : This question is based on relative lowering of vapour pressure.
Solution : RLVP = Xsolute

Xsolute =

⇒ ⇒
Final Answer : (4)

76)

(ΔTb)I = Kb × ....(i)

(ΔTb)II = Kb × ....(ii)
I/II

77)

100.25 °C

78)

wB = 3 g

79) πNaCl = i·CRT

= 2 × 0.1 RT
= 0.2 RT
= = i·CRT
= 3 × 0.08 RT
= 0.24 RT
80) Al2 (SO4)3

i=5∴a =

0.9 =
i = 3.6 + 1 = 4.6
π = i CRT

= 4.6 ×
= 0.568 atm

81)

Osmotic pressure of solution increases

82)

83) NCERT theory

84)

gets heated

85)

Zero

86)

4 PV

87)

Isothermal and Adiabatic

88)

+50 kJ

89)

Question Explanation:
Question is asking about find correct sign/value of q, w, ΔH for an gas during free expansion in
vaccum.
 Concept :
This question is based on first law of thermodynamics
ΔE = q + w

Solution :
∵ ΔE = q + w
ΔH = ΔE + Δ(PV)
During free expansion in vaccum w = 0
ΔE = q + 0 = q
ΔE = q
∵ In this question temperature is not given assume it as constant
ΔT = 0 ⇒ ΔE = 0 , ΔH = 0
ΔE = 0 , q = 0
ΔE = 0, q = 0

Final Answer :
Option (2)

90)

q = ΔU = 500 J; W = 0

BIOLOGY

91)

the probability that the offspring will be dwarf in size 0

92)

fraction of the offspring are expected to be homozygous recessive for the three traits 1/64

93)

Incomplete dominance

94)

Neither of the parental genes is dominant over the other

95)

The two genes are likely to be located on different chromosomes.

96)
The closer two genes are on a chromosomes, the lower the probability that a crossover will
occur between them.

97)

translocation of SRY to an X chromosome

98)

A and G

99)

15 map units separate these genes

100)

n + 1; n + 1; n – 1; n – 1

101)

The cell's DNA could not be packed into its nucleus.

102)

Heterochromatin is highly condensed, whereas euchromatin is less compact.

103)

DNA ligase

104)

D is the results in the figure would be expected after one round of DNA replication in the
presence of 14N

105)

DNA polymerase can add nucleotides only to the free end.

106)

to add nucleotides to the end of a growing DNA strand

107)
The nucleotides have the sugar deoxyribose; ATP has the sugar ribose

108) The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the
replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

109)

the OH

110)

Prokaryotic chromosomes have a single origin of replication, whereas eukaryotic chromosomes

have many.

111)

The direction of one strand runs counter to the direction of the other strand.

112)

DNA in both daughter cells would be radioactive.

113)

114)

A+C=G+T

115)

22%

116)

Mixing a heat-killed pathogenic strain of bacteria with a living nonpathogenic strain can
convert some of the living cells into the pathogenic form.

117)

RNA

118)

type of sugar
119)

120) The assertion is true as in cymose inflorescence, the growth of the main axis is limited
because it terminates in a flower. The reason is also true and is the correct explanation for the
assertion because in cymose inflorescence, the flowers are indeed borne in a basipetal order,
which means that the oldest flowers are at the top and the youngest at the bottom, reflecting
the termination of the main axis in a flower.

121) The assertion is true as Salvia and mustard exhibit heteranthery, where there is a
variation in the length of stamens within a single flower. This is indeed an adaptation to
promote cross-pollination by ensuring that different pollinators can access the pollen, or that
the pollen is placed at different positions on the same pollinator, thus increasing the likelihood
of pollen transfer to other flowers. Therefore, both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A.

122) Module 3 page 201

123)

Both c & d

124)

Chromosomes & genes occure in pairs in diploid & haploid cell respectively

125) Explain Question –Analyze a genetic cross between red-eyed female drosphila, white -
eyed mole.

Concept – This question based on sex -linked inheritance red eye is dominant, white eye is
recessive.

Solution –
Female Red eyed (XRXR or XRXW)
Male = white eyed (Xwy)

Final Answer – Option (2) Female parent was heterozygous.

126)
Module

127)

Autosomal recessive

128) NCERT-XII Pg # 92

129)

Hypogynous flower – Rose

130)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which of the given statements about China rose (a
plant) are true. It lists various botanical features such as leaf arrangement (phyllotaxy), ovary
position, stamen structure, and placentation type, and asks you to select the correct
combination.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves understanding the botanical characteristics
of China rose, focusing on leaf arrangement (phyllotaxy), flower anatomy (including ovary
position and stamen cohesion), and placentation types within the ovary. These are basic plant
morphology concepts important in identifying and classifying angiosperms.

Tips and Tricks: Remember key morphological features unique to China rose: alternate
phyllotaxy and axile placentation are quite distinctive. Also, focus on the position of the ovary
(superior vs inferior) as a quick identification trait.

Common Mistakes: One common error is assuming the ovary is inferior or mistaking the type
of stamen cohesion. Also, confusing leaf arrangement types can lead to wrong answers.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options mentioning imbricate aestivation or

diadelphous cohesion of stamens are incorrect because China rose has valvate aestivation and
monadelphous stamens, respectively.

131)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to arrange different zones of a root in their correct
vertical sequence from the tip upward, choosing the correct order from given options.

Underlying Concept: Roots grow through distinct zones each with specific functions: the root
cap protects the tip, the meristematic zone is where cell division occurs, the elongation zone is
where cells increase in length, the root hair zone is where root hairs develop for absorption,
and the maturation zone is where cells differentiate into mature tissues.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the sequence using an acronym or phrase starting from the root
tip, such as 'Cool Boys Eat Rooty Mutants' for Cap, Bud (meristem), Elongation, Root hairs,
Maturation.

Common Mistakes: Mixing up the zones such as placing the root hair zone before elongation
or mistaking the root cap as the first zone above the root tip instead of at the tip.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options placing zones out of biological order (for
example, root hair zone before elongation or root cap above meristem) are incorrect because
they do not follow root growth and tissue differentiation patterns.

132)

A–Aleurone layer, B–Endosperm, C–Coleoptile, D–Coleorhiza

133)

134)

135)

136) Thick myofilaments : myosin

Thin myofilaments : actin, tropomyosin, troponin.

137) Meromyosin is the monomer of myosin.

138) ATP binding site is located on the myosin head where ATPase is present.

139) Due to anaerobic contraction of skeletal muscle, deposition of lactic acid takes place
which results in fatigue of muscles.

140) 80% of the lactic acid is converted to glycogen in the liver. The whole phenomenon is
known as 'Cori's cycle'.
141) Head of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity present in the scapula

142) The unpaired U-shaped bone upon which the tongue rests is known as hyoid bone.

143) Tarsal – 7, (talus, calcaneum navicular, cuboid, 3rd cuneiform, 2nd cuneiform 1st
cuneiform)
Phalanges – 14, (3 in each finger other than toe which has 2)
Meta tarsal – 5
Femur – 1

144) In myasthenia gravis, neuromuscular junction is affected. It is an autoimmune disease in

which the antibodies attack and block the acetylcholine receptors at the post synaptic
membrane inhibiting the excitatory effects of neurotransmitter.

145)
A band is present in the middle of the sarcomere.
H-zone is present in the middle of the A-band
M-line is present in the middle of H-zone.

146) • Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level many folds in the sarcoplasm.
• Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin (troponin "C") which is masking the active site on
actin filament and displaces the sub-unit of troponin.
• Once the active site is exposed, head of the myosin attaches and initiate contraction by
sliding the actin over myosin.

147) Osteoporosis in aged female after menopause is due to decreased level of estrogen.

148) Maximum movement is possible at the 'diarthrose joint'. Also known as synovial or free
movable joint.
Amphiarthroses have limited movement.

149) A muscle doesn't follow the 'All or None principle'. How much the muscle contracts
depends on how many muscle fibres are stimulated to contract. So, all muscle fibres follow 'All
or None' principle.

150) Correct matching is:

(a) Mons pubis – Female external genitalia
(b) Antrum – Graafian follicle
(c) Trophoectoderm – Embryo formation
(d) Nebenkern – Sperm

151) Fertilization in human is practically feasible only if the sperms and ovum are transported
simultaneously at ampullary-isthmic junction.

152) Inhibin is produced by granulosa cells in ovary and has direct effect on the secretion of
FSH.

153) High level of estrogen and progesterone gives negative feedback to hypothalamus for the
release of GnRH.

154) In 28 days reproductive cycle, ovulation occurs on 14th day due to LH surge. In the mid
cycle, the level of FSH and estrogen are also high. The female gamete is released from the
ovary in secondary oocyte stage after completing meiosis I.

155) At the time of parturition there is decrease in progesterone; release of prostaglandins and
oxytocin, this will stimulate the contraction of smooth muscles of uterus.

156) Zona reaction makes the zona pellucida impervious to second sperm by destroying sperm
receptors

157) Secondary oocyte is arrested at metaphase-II state and meiosis-II is completed only when
sperm enters the mature egg.

158) Acrosome is filled with enzymes that help in fertilization.

159) Periodic abstinence is a natural method, also termed as safe period.

160) High level of prolactin inhibits the release of gonadotropins.

161) Protection from STDs is mainly provided by male and female condoms.

162) Chemical method includes spermicides. Barrier methods are mechanical devices
preventing the deposition of sperms into vagina and their passage into uterus. Both together
will decrease the failure rate.

163) Failure rate of oral contraceptive is 2-3 per 100 women.

164) It does not allow ovulation due to presence of progestin. It makes cervical mucus thick
and is effective for 5 years.
165) The drugs used for emergency contraception are morning after pills.

166) Genital warts is caused by human papilloma virus.

167) Progestin and oestrogen are responsible for maintaining the endometrium and its further
thickening respectively.
This increased level of progestin prevents menstruation (and afterwards ovulation). These
hormones are maintained at high levels for longer time.

168) Progesterone arrests the menstrual cycle at luteal phase. Decreased level of progesterone
leads to the next phase, i.e., menstrual phase.

169) Divergent evolution occurs in the same structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
vertebrates which have developed along different directions due to adaptation to different
needs whereas eye of octopus, bat and man are examples of analogous organs showing
convergent evolution.

170) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Darwin’s theory revolves around variation among individuals and survival through
natural selection.
Final Answer : (3)

171) Correct sequence of events in the origin of life is

Synthesis of organic monomers

Synthesis of organic polymers

Formation of protobionts

Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

172) Refer NCERT Biology XII, Chp: 06 , 6.1

173) Wings of bird and flipper of whale are modified fore limbs but wings help in flying and
flippers help in swimming.

174) The earliest organisms that appeared on earth were anaerobic chemoheterotrophs.
Chemoautotrophs were the first autotrophic organisms unable to perform photolysis of water
and never released oxygen.

175) Darwinian variations are small and directional.

176) Australian marsupials exhibit adaptive radiation.

177) Genetic similarities are most accurate to compare organisms.

178) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny

179) Serine

180) In jurassic period, gymnosperms were dominant, dinosaurs were dominant and first birds
appeared.