JEE (Advanced) 2025 Mathematics Sample Paper

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : In all other cases.

Q.1 For , consider the quadratic equation

Let denote the roots of Then which of the following statements is FALSE?

(A) has distinct roots for all

(B) For infinitely many values of , the corresponding root is rational and for infinitely many
…...values of t, is irrational
(C) are real and positive, with both less than 1

(D) If , then

Q.2 Consider the square region and, let be the set of points , where
are integers. Let be the set of all lines passing through at least two distinct points from .
Suppose we choose a random line from Let be the probability that is tangent to the circle

. Then is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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Q.3 Let  be an ellipse and let and be its two foci. Let P be a point on the circumference of the
ellipse that is neither on the major axis nor on the minor axis. Let intersect  again at
and let intersect  again at . Then which of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) The perimeters of the triangles and are not equal

(B) The area of the triangles and are equal if and only if is parallel to QR
(C) The perimeters of the triangles and are bisected by
(D) The two lines and are always parallel

Q.4 Nine balls, numbered 1, 2, … ,9 are put randomly at 9 equally spaced points on a circle, each point
with a ball. Let S be the sum of the absolute values of the differences of the numbers of all two
neighboring balls. The number of ways such that S has the minimum possible value is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

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SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 16)

 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get 2 marks.

Q.5 Let f : −1, 1  ℝ be a function defined by

Then which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A)

(B) If , then

(C) There does NOT exist any   such that

(D)

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Q.6 Let be two distinct non-zero vectors. Define a sequence of vectors as follows

Let and .The vector 0 with 0 magnitude is

counted if it occurs in , but not in T . If denotes the total number of elements in the set ,
then which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) There exist vectors and for which

(B) There exist vectors and for which
(C) There exist vectors and for which
(D) If for some and , the set S is infinite, then the set T is also infinite

Q.7 Let ℂ be the set of all complex numbers. Consider the function h : ℂ  ℂ defined by ,
where . Then which of the following statement(s) is (are) TRUE?

(A) h maps the unit circle ℂ to

(B) h maps complex upper half plane ℂ to
(C) h maps the unit square centered at zero to itself
(D) maps a straight line passing through the origin to that line

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Q.8 For a function. , let denotes its i-th derivative with respect to x at x = a. Consider
the m n matrix A
. , where

Let , , p.
and q .Then which of the following statements is (are) TRUE?

(A)

(B) , if

(C) , where

(D) A is a symmetric matrix, if

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SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 18)

 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more
than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Q.9 Let the functions be defined by

Let be the composite function defined by Suppose is the

number of points of local maxima of in the interval , and suppose is the number of
points of local minima of in the interval Then the value of is _______.

Q.10 For positive integers n, p and q, define

If , where , then the value of is _____.

Q.11 Let and denote the lines

- - ℝ and
ℝ

Let ℱ be the family of all circles that has a point on as well as a point on . Let C be the circle
with radius .that has the smallest radius among the circles in ℱ, then the value of is _____.

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Q.12
Consider the ellipse . Let denote the locus of the points of intersection of a pair
of perpendicular tangents to E. A vertical line passing through the point P.h, 0 intersects and
at Q and R respectively in the first quadrant. Let the tangent to the ellipse at point Q meet x axis at
the point T. If and , . then

equals _____.

Q.13 For … ℝ , let

If for some positive integer , where n , then the maximum possible value of is
_______.

Q.14 Consider the closed interval [0,.1] and label it as . In the next step, divide the interval [0,.1] into
three parts , , and delete the middle interval . Let be the union of the two

intervals and . Similarly to construct , divide each interval in -

into three parts
and delete their respective middle intervals. The union of the remaining intervals is labelled as .
Continuing in this way, the sets are constructed for any n . . If denotes the sum of the
lengths of the intervals in , then equals _______.

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SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 16)

 This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs.

 Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
 For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer using the mouse and the on-
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

PARAGRAPH “I”

For any continuous function f : 0,   ℝ, define

where ℝ2 denotes ℝ ℝ. Let .S..be the set of all continuous functions : 0,   ℝ, for which area..
of the region for all .

(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.15 For ℝ, let [ ] be the greatest integer less than or equal to . Let such that .
If the area of the region is equal to A, then [A] equals ____.

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PARAGRAPH “I”

For any continuous function f : 0,   ℝ, define

where ℝ2 denotes ℝ ℝ. Let .S..be the set of all continuous functions : 0,   ℝ, for which area..
of the region for all .

(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.16 Let such that and, let be defined as follows

Then the value of equals ____.

tttttt
T

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PARAGRAPH “II”

Football teams and have to play two games against each other. It is assumed that the outcomes
of the two games are independent. The probabilities of winning, drawing and losing a game

against are and , respectively. Each team gets 3 points for a win, 1 point for a draw and 0

point for a loss in a game. Let X and Y denote the total points scored by teams and , respectively,
after two games.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.17 If P(X > Y) is equal to , then the value of is ____.

PARAGRAPH “II”

Football teams and have to play two games against each other. It is assumed that the outcomes
of the two games are independent. The probabilities of winning, drawing and losing a game

against are and , respectively. Each team gets 3 points for a win, 1 point for a draw and 0

point for a loss in a game. Let X and Y denote the total points scored by teams and , respectively,
after two games.
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.18 If P(X = Y) is equal to , then the value of is ____.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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 JEE (Advanced) 2025 Physics Sample Paper

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : In all other cases.

Q.1 A spherical water drop, when deformed slightly, oscillates about its equilibrium shape. The
frequency of this oscillation f. can be described by its mass M, radius R and a third variable X,
where X is either the universal gravitational constant G or the surface tension S. Using the
appropriate variable f can be expressed as

where k is a dimensionless constant. Then

(A) (B)
(C) (D)

Q.2 An unpolarised monochromatic beam of light is incident on a planar interface of two media of
refractive index and respectively, at an angle of incidence i. It is found that the reflected beam
is completely polarised. From this, it can be concluded that

II

I i r

(A) and (B) and

(C) (D)

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Q.3 One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes the thermodynamic cycle given below, where
processes and are isothermal carried out at constant temperatures and ,
respectively. Which one of the following statements is FALSE? [Given: ].

(A) For the efficiency of the cycle is

(B) For the ratio of heat transfer

(C) Work done in this thermodynamic cycle is

(D) For , the efficiency of this cycle approaches that of a Carnot cycle working between the
same maximum and minimum temperatures

Q.4 Consider a one-dimensional box of size L, which contain 4 electrons each of mass me. Define to be
the ground state energy, and , where is the Planck’s constant. Assume that the
electrons are non-interacting, obey the Pauli exclusion principle and are described by standing de
Broglie waves confined within the box. Then,

(A)
(B) The energy of the highest occupied state is 16
(C) The total energy of the first excited state is
(D) The total energy of the second excited state is

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SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 16)

 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get 2 marks.

Q.5 A particle of mass kg is initially at rest at the point . The particle is

subjected to a force at time , where . The angular
momentum and torque acting on the particle with respect to the origin, in SI units, are represented by
and respectively. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

(A) when the particle reaches the point

(B) when the particle reaches the point

(C) The magnitude of displacement of the particle at is

(D) The velocity of the particle when it reaches the point is

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Q.6 A conducting square loop of length , initially located at , is moving with velocity in
a non uniform magnetic field , as shown in the figure. If and are positive
constants and is the magnetic flux passing through the loop when its centre is at the point ,
then the correct statement(s) is/are:

(A)

(B)

(C) The emf .induced in the loop remains the same if the square loop is replaced by a circular loop of
…[Link]

(D) The emf .induced in the loop is proportional to

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Q.7 A liquid of density is slowly poured from a beaker into an empty cylindrical glass of cross sectional
area resting on a table at a constant volume rate of . The beaker is at height from the table, and
the water exits the beaker with negligible speed. Let be the time at which water initially hits the
bottom of the glass and let be the height of liquid in the glass at time Assuming the water doesn’t
overflow, which of the following option(s) is/are correct ?

[ is the atmospheric pressure and is the acceleration due to gravity]

(A) The total force of the water on the glass when is

(B) The total force of the water on the glass when is

(C) The total force of the water on the glass increases with

(D) The impact force of the water on the glass, when is

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Q.8 A capacitor consists of two circular parallel plates both with radius R separated by distance d,
where d << R. The top plate is connected to a constant voltage source at a potential V while the
bottom plate is grounded, then a thin and small disk of mass m with radius r (<< R, d) and
thickness t (<< r) is placed on the center of the bottom plate, as shown in the figure. Assume that
the space between the plates is in vacuum with the dielectric constant ; the plates and the disk
are made of perfect conductors; and inductance of whole circuit can be neglected. Then the correct
statement(s) is (are)

(A) The magnitude of the force between the plates before inserting the disk is

(B) When the disk is placed on the bottom plate the charge q on it is

(C) To lift up the disk at rest initially in presence of a uniform gravitational field g perpendicular
to the plates the applied voltage has to be increased beyond a threshold voltage where

(D) When the disk undergoes an up and down motion and eventually comes to rest

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SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 18)

 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more
than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Q.9 A ball is thrown horizontally from a tower of height with an initial speed . For the resulting
motion the time taken for the ball to hit the ground for the first time after it is thrown is Each time
it hits the ground its vertical velocity instantly reverses and decreases by . Its motion continues
for a long time as shown in the figure. If the duration of the entire motion is 9 and the total
distance travelled by the ball in the horizontal direction is meters, the value of is ______.

[Given: and ]

Q.10 A solid metallic sphere of radius is cut into two identical hemispheres. The cut surface (flat) is
coated with a thin insulating layer of thickness , and the two parts are put together back. One
of the hemispheres is then given a positive charge while the other one remains neutral. If the
electrostatic force between the two hemispheres is , where , then the value of is ____.

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Q.11 A rectangular wave pulse of width 0.4 cm is travelling to the right on a taut string of linear mass
density . The string is attached to another taut string (dashed line) of linear mass density as
shown in the figure. The tension in both the strings is same. If the transmitted wave pulse has a
width 0.6 cm, the ratio is _______.

0.4 cm

Q.12 A door is opened with a high angular velocity about its hinge. Over a very short period of time, its
angular velocity increases to ω = 9 rad/s due to the force applied at the end opposite from the hinge.
The door can be considered to be a uniform thin rod of length L = 1.00 m and mass M = 9 kg. The
hinge (pivot) is located at one end of the rod. If the distance from the hinge of the door to the point
where the door is most likely to break is , then the value of is ______.

[Ignore gravity]

Q.13 Consider a concave mirror and a convex lens (refractive index = 1.5) of focal length 10 cm each,
separated by a distance of 50 cm in air (refractive index = 1) as shown in the figure. An object is
placed at a distance of 15 cm from the mirror. Its erect image formed by this combination has
magnification . When the set- up is kept in a medium of refractive index 7/6, the magnification
becomes . The magnitude is _______.

15 cm

50 cm

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Q.14 In the circuit given below, the switch S closes when VC > 2V/3 and opens when VC < V/3 The
variation of VC with time is as shown in the graph below. The period T of the waveform is nRC,
where n is _____.

[Given: R1 = R, R2 = 2R,

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SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 16)

 This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs.

 Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
 For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer using the mouse and the on-
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

PARAGRAPH “I”

A thin rod with length L, mass m and uniform density lies on the y-axis with its midpoint at the
origin. A point object A with mass m travels with velocity u in the positive x direction hits the
rod with impact parameter h, where – , as shown in the figure. The collision is
perfectly inelastic.

(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.15 If , the velocity v of point C at the top end of the rod just after the collision between A
and the rod is zero. In such a case, the value of is _____.

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PARAGRAPH “I”

A thin rod with length L, mass m and uniform density lies on the y-axis with its midpoint at the
origin. A point object A with mass m travels with velocity u in the positive x direction hits the
rod with impact parameter h, where – , as shown in the figure. The collision is
perfectly inelastic.

(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.16
If , the total kinetic energy just after the collision between A and the rod is ,
where N is _____.

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PARAGRAPH “II”

Consider two insulated vessel containing equal mass m of water. The vessels are connected by a
conducting rod through which heat energy can be transferred only along its length from one vessel to
another vessel. Initial temperature at time of the water in the vessels are and as
shown in the figure.

, ,
100 0

[s: Specific capacity of water, : Thermal conductivity; A: cross-sectional area]

(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “II”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.17 If the time after which the temperature difference between the vessels become is
, then the value of is _____.

PARAGRAPH “II”

Consider two insulated vessel containing equal mass m of water. The vessels are connected by a
conducting rod through which heat energy can be transferred only along its length from one vessel to
another vessel. Initial temperature at time of the water in the vessels are and as
shown in the figure.

, ,
100 0

[s: Specific capacity of water, : Thermal conductivity; A: cross-sectional area]

(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “II”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.18 If amount of heat energy flows from one end of the rod to another end, then the decrease in
temperature difference of water in the two vessels is , where is _____.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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JEE (Advanced) 2025 Chemistry Sample Paper

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 12)

 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the
correct answer.
 For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −1 In all other cases.

Q.1 The elements manganese and oxygen form a crystalline compound P. The compound P is composed
of cubic unit cells. Each corner and face-centre of the cubic unit cell is occupied by the oxide ion
whereas the body centre and each edge-centre of the cubic unit cell is occupied by the manganese
ion. The incorrect statement about P is

[Given: Atomic number of Mn = 25, O = 8]

(A) P is a basic oxide

(B) The spin only magnetic moment of the manganese ion in P is 5.92 BM
(C) The d-orbitals of the manganese ion in P split as the lower energy set and higher energy set
(D) A sample of P has net non-zero magnetic moment at all temperatures

Q.2 Consider the following statements related to alkali metals.

(I) The crystal structures of Li2O, Na2O and K2O are anti-fluorite.
(II) LiF, LiCl and LiBr are soluble in alcohol and ethers.
(III) The density of alkali metals from Li to Cs increases down the group.
(IV) All 5 alkali metals from Li to Cs can be induced to form normal oxide, peroxide or superoxide
by dissolving the metal in liquid ammonia and bubbling in appropriate amounts of O2

The option with the correct set of statements is

(A) (I) and (II)

(B) (II) and (III)

(C) (III) and (IV)

(D) (I) and (IV)

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Q.3 Consider the isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas and a real (Van der Waals) gas, from
the same initial volume to the same final volume , at the same temperature T. The absolute
value of the work done

(A) by the real gas is always higher than the work done by the ideal gas, if the interparticle
…...interaction in the former is negligible

(B) by the real gas is always higher than the work done by the ideal gas, if the volume of the
…...particles in the former is negligible

(C) in both the cases will always be the same, since the initial and final volumes in both the cases
…...are the same.

(D) by the ideal gas is always higher than the work done by the real gas, since there is no hindrance
…...due to interparticle interaction and the volume of the particles

Q.4 Consider the following reactions (unbalanced)

Pt./.800
NH3 + O2 X (N-oxide) + Q

Conc. H2SO4
KNO3 Y (N-oxide) + R + S + H2O
heat

P4O10 + HNO3 Z (N-oxide) + T

In the N-oxides (X, Y and Z), the oxidation state of nitrogen follows the order

(A) X < Y < Z (B) Y < X < Z

(C) Y < Z < X (D) Z < X < Y

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SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 16)

 This section contains FOUR (04) questions.

 Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four
option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
 For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 ONLY if (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a
correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : −2 In all other cases.
 For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct
answers, then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (B) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (B) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (B) will get +1 mark;
choosing ONLY (D) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks; and
choosing any other combination of options will get −2 marks.

Q.5 To determine the percentage of iron in magnetite, a sample of the ore was dissolved in acid, thus
2+
reducing the iron to Fe completely. The solution was then titrated with aqueous acidic KMnO4.
The correct statement(s) is(are)

(A) The number of electrons involved in the redox reaction during titration is 5.
2+
(B) The paramagnetism of the solution increases during the reaction of Fe with KMnO4.
(C) Dissolution of magnetite in sulfuric acid reduces the iron from +3 to +2.
(D) During the titration, the manganese containing species changes its geometry from square planar
…...to tetrahedral.

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Q.6 Considering the following set of reaction sequences,

HBr, benzoyl peroxide

C8H14 P
Δ (major)

i) MeMgBr
CrO3, H2SO4 ii) H2O
R S T
(major) iii) 20% H3PO4, 360 K (major)

the correct option(s) is(are)

(A) Br CH3
P= Q = i) B2H6 T=
CH3 CH3
ii) NaOH, H2O2, H2O

(B) Br CH3
P= + T=
Q = H2O/H
CH3 CH3

(C) Br O CH3
P= S= T=
CH3 CH3 CH3

(D) CH3
P= Q = i) Hg(OAc)2, H2O T=
Br
CH3
ii) NaBH4

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JEE (Advanced) 2025 Paper 1

Q.7 The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide which is catalyzed by iodide ion in an alkaline medium
undergoes a two-step mechanism given below:

Reaction: 2H2O2.(l)  2H2O.(l) + O2(g)

Mechanism:
k1
H2O2.(l) + I− (aq)  H2O.(l) + IO− (aq) (slow reaction)
k2
H2O2.(l) + IO− (aq)  H2O.(l) + I− (aq) + O2(g) (fast reaction)

Among the following, the correct plot(s) for the above reaction is(are)
( denotes the initial concentration of species P)

(A) …….(B)
Initial rate

time

(C) .(D)
Potential energy

reactants
products

reaction progress

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Q.8 In the given reaction scheme, P, Q, and R are the major products.

O
OH
(i) Br2/NaOH (i) KMnO4 - KOH, Δ HO
P Q R
(ii) H3O+ (ii) H3O+ CH3CO2Na

The correct statement(s) about P, Q, and R is(are)

(A) Q is a monomer of polymer dacron

(B) R is a cross-linked condensation polymer
(C) P is more acidic than benzoic acid
(D) Q on heating in presence of P2O5 followed by reaction with glycerol in acidic medium gives R

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JEE (Advanced) 2025 Paper 1

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 18)

 This section contains SIX (06) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
 For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more
than two decimal places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

Q.9 A solution was prepared by dissolving 2g of a non-volatile non electrolyte solid B in 100g of solvent
A. At 354K, the vapour pressure of the solution became exactly equal to the atmospheric pressure of
- -
1.0 atm. If the molar mass of A is 80 , the molar mass (in ) of solid B is ______.

- -
[Given: Gas constant, = 8.3 Vapour pressure of A at 353K = 1.0 atm, Standard
- -
entropy of vapourisation of A at 353K = 85 ]

Q.10 An aqueous solution containing Copper(II) ions is treated with excess of potassium iodide to obtain
a dark solution P and a white precipitate Q. The solution P turns colourless on titration with
standard sodium thiosulphate solution. In this process, what will be the number of millimoles of
copper ions estimated for each millimole of sodium thiosulphate consumed?

Q.11 Consider the gas-phase reaction . 1 mol of and……

2 1 mol of are mixed at in a sealed vessel of 2L capacity. When equilibrium is
established, the concentration of in the vessel is found to be 2 1 . If the standard
-
Gibbs energy of this reaction at is X kJ , then the value of is ______.

- -
[Given: Gas constant, = 8.3 1 2 2 ]

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JEE (Advanced) 2025 Paper 1

Q.12 Consider the following reaction

OH OH O
HO HI, Δ
Q
H
OH OH

If A,B,C and D are the four structural isomers of compound Q and their boiling points vary in the
order A > B > C > D, then the maximum number of possible isomers which may be formed on
mono-bromination of C is ______.

Q.13 Consider the organic compound X shown below

Compound X is subjected t je dah ’s eth d f r the deter inati n f nitr en. The a unt f
..Ammonia liberated (in g) from 2.21 g of X is _______.

[Use: Molar mass (in g mol–1 ): H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Cl = 35.5]

Q.14 X, Y and Z are atoms of three non metallic elements belonging to period 2 of the modern periodic
table. The relative variation in the covalent radius , the first ionization enthalpy and
the electron affinity of X, Y and Z are displayed below. If the atomic number of X, Y and Z
are − 1 1, respectively, then the value of is ______.

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JEE (Advanced) 2025 Paper 1

SECTION 4 (Maximum Marks: 16)

 This section contains TWO (02) paragraphs.

 Based on each paragraph, there are TWO (02) questions.
 The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
 For each question, enter the correct integer value of the answer using the mouse and the on-
screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
 Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct integer is entered in the designated place;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

PARAGRAPH “I”

The following reaction schemes describe the conversion of P to R and S to U. Compound P has two
primary carbon atoms, and the molar mass difference between compounds T and S is 169 g mol–1.

i) Cr2O3, 770 K, 20 atm O

–
ii) Cl2/ hv (3 eq.) O Cr Cl
N+ O
iii) H2O H
P Q R
(C7H16) iv) LiAlH4 (major)

v) H3O+

i) Br2/FeBr3 N 2H 4
T U
ii) conc. HNO3 and EtOH, 70°C (major)
conc. H2SO4
S
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.15 Treating R with excess of ammonia gives compound X. Starting with 3 moles of R, the amount
of X produced in gram is ____.

[Use: Molar mass (in g mol–1 ): H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Br = 80, Cl = 35.5]

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JEE (Advanced) 2025 Paper 1

PARAGRAPH “I”

The following reaction schemes describe the conversion of P to R and S to U. Compound P has two
primary carbon atoms, and the molar mass difference between compounds T and S is 169 g mol–1.

i) Cr2O3, 770 K, 20 atm O

–
ii) Cl2/ hv (3 eq.) O Cr Cl
N+ O
iii) H2O H
P Q R
(C7H16) iv) LiAlH4 (major)

v) H3O+

i) Br2/FeBr3 N 2H 4
T U
ii) conc. HNO3 and EtOH, 70°C (major)
conc. H2SO4
S
(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.16 R reacts with U to form a colored crystalline compound Z. The number of H-atoms bonded to
hybridised carbon atoms in Z is x, and the degree of unsaturation of Z is y.

The value of is ____.

[Use: Molar mass (in g mol–1): H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Br = 80, Cl = 35.5]

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JEE (Advanced) 2025 Paper 1

PARAGRAPH “II”

When 100 mL of 1.0 M HCl was mixed with 100 mL of 1.0 M NaOH in an insulated beaker at
constant pressure, a temperature increase of 5.7 ºC was measured for the beaker and its contents.
(Expt-1). Because the enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid with a strong base is a constant .(–
57.0 kJ mol–1), this experiment could be used to measure the calorimeter constant. .
–5
In a second experiment (Expt-2), 100 mL of 2.0 M acetic acid (Ka = 2.0 × 10 ) was mixed with 100
mL of 1.0M NaOH (under identical conditions to (Expt-1))where a temperature rise of 5.6 ºC was
measured.
–1
(Consider heat capacity of all solutions as 4.2 Jg–1 K –1 and density of all solutions as 1.0 g mL )

(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.17 Enthalpy of dissociation (in kJ mol–1) of acetic acid obtained from the Expt-2 is ____.

PARAGRAPH “II”

When 100 mL of 1.0 M HCl was mixed with 100 mL of 1.0 M NaOH in an insulated beaker at
constant pressure, a temperature increase of 5.7 ºC was measured for the beaker and its contents.
(Expt-1). Because the enthalpy of neutralization of a strong acid with a strong base is a constant .(–
57.0 kJ mol–1), this experiment could be used to measure the calorimeter constant. .
–5
In a second experiment (Expt-2), 100 mL of 2.0 M acetic acid (Ka = 2.0 × 10 ) was mixed with 100
mL of 1.0M NaOH (under identical conditions to (Expt-1))where a temperature rise of 5.6 ºC was
measured.
–1
(Consider heat capacity of all solutions as 4.2 Jg–1 K –1 and density of all solutions as 1.0 g mL )

(There are two questions based on PARAGRAPH “I”, the question given below is one of them)

Q.18 –1
If the pH of the solution after Expt-2 is n×10 , then the value of n is ____.

END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

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