24-08-2025

2401CMD303001250009 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two blocks of masses M = 3kg and m = 2kg are in contact on a horizontal table. A constant
horizontal force F = 5N is applied to block M as shown. There is a constant frictional force of 2N
between the table and the block m but no frictional force between the table and the first block M,

then the acceleration of the two blocks is –

(1) 0.4 ms–2

(2) 0.6 ms–2
(3) 0.8 ms–2
(4) 1 ms–2

2) A block of mass 5 kg is projected on a horizontal surface with a velocity of 10 m/s. If it comes to

rest after 2 sec, then what will be the cofficient of friction ?

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.5

3) A block of weight 5N pushed against a vertical wall by a force of 12 N. If µ = 0.8 Find the

magnitude of force exerted by the wall on the block.

(1) 12 N
(2) 13 N
(3) 17 N
(4) 16 N

4) A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F = 600 – 2 × 105 t, where F is in
newtons and t in seconds. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What
is the average impulse imparted to the bullet ?

(1) 9 Ns
(2) Zero
(3) 0.9 Ns
(4) 1.8 Ns

5) Two bodies of mass 3 kg and 4 kg are suspended at the ends of masseless string passing over a
fricitionless pulley. The acceleration of the system is (g = 9.8 m/s2) :-

(1) 4.9 m/s2

(2) 2.45 m/s2
(3) 1.4 m/s2
(4) 9.5 m/s2

6) Three books (X, Y, and Z) rest on a table. The weight of each book is indicated. The net force

acting on book Y is:

(1) 4N down
(2) 5N up
(3) 9N down
(4) Zero

7) A 10 gm bullet moving at 100 m/s strikes a wooden block kept fixed. The bullet comes to rest &
stops in 10 cm. What is the average force (in N) experienced by the bullet ?

(1) 250 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 5000 N

8) A man slides down a light rope whose breaking strength is η times his weight (η < 1). What
should be his maximum acceleration so that the rope just breaks?

(1) ηg
(2) g/(1 + η)
(3) g(1 – η)
(4) g/(2 – η)

Common Content for Question No. 9 to 10

With almost four and half months are over in your present syllabus, it is foolish to ask "have you
heard of pulleys". Of course you all know about pulleys, but have you really thought about utility of a
pulley. The most important use of a pulley lies in the fact that a pulley not only can change direction
of your effort (force), but can also make you lift a bigger weight with a smaller force. Let us consider
figure 1 & 2. In both cases we have to just lift the block of mass M. It
is obvious that in case (2), Feffort will be half of Feffort in case (1) if we neglect mass of pulley and rope.
This ability of pulley to lift greater weight by applying smaller force can be measured by quantity
called "Mechanical Advantage". Mechanical advantage (M.A.) of a pulley system can be defined as

So M.A. in figure (1) is 1 and in figure (2) is 2.

9)

Mechanical advantage of system shown is (Assume pulleys and strings are massless and frictionless)
:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 6

10) A body of mass 6 kg moves in a straight line according to the equation x = t3 – 75t
where x denotes the distance in metre and t the time in second. The force on the body at t = 4
second is :–

(1) 64 newton
(2) 72 newton
(3) 144 newton
(4) 36 newton

11) A block can slide on a smooth inclined plane of inclination θ, kept on the floor of a lift. When the
lift is descending with a retardation a, the acceleration of the block relative to the inciline is-

(1) (g + a) sin θ
(2) (g – a)
(3) g sin θ
(4) (g – a) sin θ
12) A box of mass 8kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination θ its downward motion can
be prevented by applying an upward pull F. And it can be made to slide upwards by applying a force
2F. The coefficient of friction between the box and inclined plane is :-

(1)

(2) 3 tan θ

(3)

(4) 2 tan θ

13) The acceleration with which an object of mass 100 kg be lowered from a roof using a cord with a
breaking strength of 60 kg weight without breaking the rope is-

(1) 2 m/sec2
(2) 4 m/sec2
(3) 6 m/sec2
(4) 10 m/sec2

14) The average force necessary to stop a hammer with 25 N-s momentum in 0.05 s is :-

(1) 125 N
(2) 500 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 25 N

15) A body, under the action of a force , aquires an acceleration of 2m/s2. The mass
of this body must be :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) In given momentum-time graph is :-

(1) Force on particle is decreasing

(2) Force on particle is increasing
(3) Force on particle remains constant
(4) Force on particle is zero
17) Two masses of 8 kg and 4 kg are connected by a string as shown in the figure over a frictionless

pulley. The acceleration of the system is :-

(1) 4 ms–2
(2) 2 ms–2
(3) zero
(4) 9.8 ms–2

18) A lift is moving downwards with an acceleration equal to the acceleration due to gravity. A body
of mass M kept on the floor of the lift is pulled horizontally, if the coefficient of friction is µ, then the
frictional resistance offered by the body is

(1) Mg
(2) µMg
(3) 2µMg
(4) zero

19) A force of 6 N acts on a body at rest and mass 1kg. During this time the body attains a velocity of
30 m/s. The time for which force acts on the body is :-

(1) 10s
(2) 8s
(3) 7s
(4) 5s

20) A body of mass 2 kg moving on a horizontal surface with an intial velocity of 4 m/sec comes to
rest after 2 sec. If one wants to keep this body moving on the same surface with a velocity of 4 m/sec
the force requried is-

(1) 8 newton
(2) 4 newton
(3) zero newton
(4) 2 newton

21)

A position dependent force F acting on a particle and its force-position curve is shown in the figure.
Work done on the particle, when its displacement 0 to 5 m is :-
(1) 35J
(2) 25J
(3) 15J
(4) 5J

22) A uniform force of acts on a particle of mass 2kg. Hence the particle is displaced from

position to position .The work done by the force on the particle is :-

(1) 15 J
(2) 9 J
(3) 6 J
(4) 13 J

23) Work done in moving a body up an inclined rough plane which has coefficient of friction μ and
length s will be :-

(1) mg (sin θ – μcosθ)s

(2) mg (μsinθ + cosθ)s
(3) mg (μsin θ – cosθ)s
(4) mg (sin θ + μcosθ)s

24) If a force F varies with displacement x as F = 3x2 + 4 then the work done by force, if the particle
moves from x = 2 to x = 4m is:-

(1) 64 J
(2) 128 J
(3) 32 J
(4) None of these

25) A particle of mass m is taken from position A to position B along the circular path by a constant
horizontal force . What will be the work done by the force ? Here radius of Track is R.
(1) FR

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

26) On a particle a variable force F = – ax (where a is a positive constant) is acting. If U(0) = 0, the
graph between potential energy of particle U(x) and x is best represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
27) A block of mass m is released on the top of a smooth inclined plane of length x and inclination θ
as shown in figure. Horizontal surface is rough. If block comes to rest after moving a distance d on
the horizontal surface, then coefficient of friction between block and surface is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A block of mass 8 kg is released from the top of an inclined smooth surface as shown in figure. If
spring constant of spring is 200 N/m and block comes to rest after compressing spring by 1 m then

find the distance travelled by block before it comes to rest :- (g=10 m/s2)

(1) 2.5 m
(2) 3.5 m
(3) 2.0 m
(4) None of these

29) A man of mass 50 kg is standing in an elevator. If elevator is moving downwards with an

acceleration then work done by normal reaction of elevator floor on man when elevator moves by a
distance 12 m is (g = 10 m/s2) :- :-

(1) –2000 J
(2) –4000 J
(3) –6000 J
(4) –8000 J

30) A block of mass 2 kg is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. Two forces F1 = 20 N and F2 = 25
N start acting on the block in opposite directions as shown. If block gets displaced by 5 m in the
direction of net force then work done by F2 is :-

(1) – 75 J
(2) 75 J
(3) – 125 J
(4) 125 J

31) A person holds a bucket of weight 60N. He walks 7m along the horizontal and then climbs a
vertical distance of 5m. The work done by the man on the bucket is-

(1) 300 J
(2) 420 J
(3) 720 J
(4) None of the above

32) A force of 10 N displaces an object by 10 m. If work done is 50 J, then direction of force, make an
angle with the direction of displacement :-

(1) 120°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) none of these

33)

Find work done by gravitational force if block starts slipping down from top most point and reaches

to the lower end:-

(1) 50 N
(2)
(3) –100 N
(4) –200 N

34) If work done in stretching a spring from x0 to 2x0 is W, then work done in stretching this spring
from 2x0 to 3x0 will be :-

(1) W
(2) 5W

(3)
(4)

35) The work done by spring force in joules in increasing the extension of a spring stiffness 10 N/cm
from 4cm to 6cm is :

(1) 1 J
(2) –1 J
(3) 10 J
(4) –10 J

36) A particle is moving in a potential region given by U = K (x² + y² + z²). The force acting on the
particle is given by-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done by a conservative force in moving a particle from 'A' to
'B' along three different paths 1, 2 and 3 respectively (as shown) then correct relation between W1,

W2 & W3 is

(1) W1 > W2 > W3

(2) W1 > W3 > W2
(3) W3 > W2 > W1
(4) W1 = W2 = W3

38) One end of a spring of natural length 2m and spring constant k = 100 N/m is fixed at the ground
and the other is fitted with a smooth ring of mass 1 kg which is allowed to slide on a horizontal rod
fixed at a height 2m (fig.) Initially, the spring makes an angle of 37° with the vertical when the
system is released from rest. Find the speed (in m/s) of the ring when the spring becomes vertical:-

(1) 2 m/sec
(2) 4 m/sec
(3) 5 m/sec
(4) 10 m/sec

39) A block of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from a height of 4m on a curved smooth surface. On the
horizontal smooth surface, it collides with a spring of force constant 800 N/m. The maximum

compression in spring will be (g=10 m/s2) :-

(1) 1 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 20 cm

40) A body is falling freely under the action of gravity alone. Which of the following quantities
remain constant during the fall ?

(1) Kinetic energy

(2) Potential energy
(3) Total mechanical energy
(4) Total linear momentum

41)

The whole wedge and block system is moving as shown in the figure block m is not slipping on the
wedge. Then which of the following statement is correct (surface between M and m is rough) :-

(1) Work done by normal on block is zero

(2) Work done by friction on block is non-zero
(3) Work done by normal on block is not zero
(4) None of these

42) If the amount of work done by a force depends only on the initial and final positions of the object
which has been moved, then such a force is called-

(1) Gravitational
(2) Dissipative
(3) Conservative
(4) Retarding

43) If potential energy is given by U = (2x2 – x) J then minimum possible value of potential energy :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) If the momentum of a body decreases by 40%, then percentage change in kinetic energy is :-

(1) 96%
(2) 80%
(3) 64%
(4) 150%

45) In the track shown in figure section AB is a quadrant of a circle of 1 metre radius in vertical
plane. A block is released at A and slides without friction until it reaches at B. After B it moves on a
rough horizontal floor and comes to rest at D, 3 metres from B. The coefficient of friction between

floor and the body will be :

(1) 1/3
(2) 2/3
(3) 1/4
(4) 3/8

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following has maximum lattice energy ?

(1) Na2O
(2) MgO
(3) Al2O3
(4) LiF

2) Which oxyacid(s) is/are named with 'ic' suffix.

(i) H2S2O3 (ii) H2S2O4
(iii) H3PO2 (iv) H2S2O6

(1) Only (i)

(2) Only (ii) & (iii)
(3) Only (i) & (iv)
(4) Only (iv)

3) Given :

ΔHƒ of NaCl is.

(1) S + I + D – E – U

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Select incorrect relation :

(1) AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI : Solubility order
(2) NaF > NaCl > NaBr > NaI : Lattice energy
(3) NaI > NaBr > NaCl > NaF : Covalent character
(4) None of these

5)

What is the dipole moment of XeO3F2?

(1) Zero
(2) Greater than XeO3
(3) Equal to XeO3
(4) None of these

6) Which of the following is least volatile ?

(1) HF
(2) HCl
(3) HBr
(4) HI
7)

The structure of ICl2+ would be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) none of these

8) The ion which is not tetrahedral in shape :

−
(1) BF4
+
(2) NH4
(3) XeO4
−
(4) ICl4

9) Number of pπ-dπ bond(s) in SO2Cl2 is/are :

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 0
(4) 2

10) The pair having similar geometry is :

(1) BF3, NF3

(2) BCl3, AlCl3
(3) BeF2, OF2
(4) BCl3, PCl3

11) The correct order of dipole moment is :

(1) CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I

(2) CH3Cl < CH3F < CH3Br < CH3I
(3) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I
(4) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3I > CH3Br

12) Which of the folowing does not exist ?

(1) PH5
(2) PCl5
(3) IF7
(4) SF6

13) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R) .
Assertion (A) : SiF62– is known but SiCl62– is not known.
Reason (R) : Size of F is small and its lone pair of electron is tightly bonded with orbitals.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(2) If (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) & (R) both are incorrect.

14) In which of the following set all compounds does not exist ?

(1) PF5, NF5, PH5

(2) XeF4, XeH4, OF4
(3) ClF7, XeF5, FCl3
–2
(4) PCl4, SiBr6 , OF2

15) How many electron pairs are present in valence shell of oxygen in water molecule

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

16) The relative Lewis acid character of boron trihalides is an the order

(1) BI3 > BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3

(2) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3
(3) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3
(4) BCl3 > BF3 > BI3 > BBr3

17) Maximum number of co-ordinate bonds are present in :-

(1) H2SO4
(2) HNO2
(3) HClO4
(4) H3PO4

18) The correct order of electronegativity of carbon

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) Match Column-I and Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) SF4 (1) Tetrahedral

(B) BrF3 (2) Pyramidal

(C) (3) See-saw

(D) (4) Bent -T

(1) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(3) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(4) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3

20) BCl3 does not exist as dimer but BH3 exists as dimer (B2H6) because

(1) Chlorine is more electronegative than hydrogen

(2) There is p -p back bonding in BCl3 but BH3 does not contain such multiple bonding
large sized chlorine atoms do not fit in between the small boron atoms where as small sized
(3)
hydrogen atoms get fitted in between boron atoms
(4) None of the above

21) In a compound

the number of σ and π bonds respectively are :

(1) 9, 9
(2) 0, 9
(3) 8, 9
(4) 9, 5

22) Match the orbital overlap figures shown in List-I and with the description given in List-II and
select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List-I List-II

P. (I) p-d π antibonding

Q. (II) s-p σ bonding

R. (III) d-d π bonding

S. (IV) p-p σ antibonding

(1) P-III ; Q-I ; R-IV ; S-II

(2) P-III ; Q-I ; R-II ; S-IV
(3) P-I ; Q-III ; R-II ; S-IV
(4) P-I ; Q-III ; R-IV ; S-II

23)

In PO43– ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and P — O bond order respectively are

(1) – 0.75, 0.6

(2) – 0.75, 1.0
(3) – 0.75, 1.25
(4) – 3, 1.25

24) Select the correct order –

(a) CO < CO2 < CO32– ⇒ Bond length
(b) O2 < O3 < O2–2 ⇒ Bond length
+
(c) N2 < N2 ⇒ Bond energy

(1) only a, c
(2) only a, b
(3) only b, c
(4) a, b, c

25) Which of the following has zero dipole moment

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

26) In which of the following molecule, the shown hydrogen bond is not possible :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The strongest force among the following is :

(1) London force
(2) Ion-dipole interaction
(3) Dipole-induced dipole interaction
(4) Dipole-dipole interaction

28) The correct order of decreasing N—N bond stability of is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) Which of the following is paramagnetic?

(1) N2
(2) H2
(3) Li2
(4) O2

30) Which of the following species does not exhibits the diamagnetic behaviour?

(1)
(2)
(3) N2
(4) C2

31) Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order ?

(1) CN– and NO+

(2) CN– and CN+
(3)
(4) NO+ and CN+

32) Among LiCl, BeCl2, BCl3 and CCl4 the covalent character follows the order :

(1) LiCl < BeCl2 < CCl4 < BCl3

(2) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4
(3) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(4) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 > CCl4

33) Which of the following order incorrect ?

+ + +
(1) Li (aq) < Na (aq) < K (aq) → conductivity
+ + +
(2) Li (aq) < Na (aq) < K (aq) → mobility
 +2 +2
(3) Be (aq) > Mg (aq) → Hydrated radius
(4) Melting point → AlCl3 > AlF3

34)

Select species which is planar at nitrogen:

(1) (CH3)3N
(2) (SiH3)3N
(3) NF3
(4) NH3

35) Three centred four electron bond is present in

(1) BF3
(2) Al2Cl6
(3) B2H6
(4) BeH2

36) In B2H6, the maximum no. of atoms present in a plane is :-

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 8

37) Which of the following does not exist in free form ?

(1) BF3
(2) BCl3
(3) BH3
(4) BBr3

38) Correct order of bond angle is.

(1) α = β
(2) β > α
(3) α > β
(4) None

39) Which of the following halides does not hydrolyse?

(1) PbCl4
(2) SiCl4
(3) CCl4
(4) SnCl4

40) Which of the following is tribasic ?

(1) H3PO2
(2) H3PO3
(3) H4P2O7
(4) H3PO4

41) The correct order of acidic strength of oxy acids of chlorine is

(1) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

(2) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(3) HClO > HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2
(4) HClO4 < HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO

42) Which is an acid–

(1) B(OH)3
(2) Al(OH)3
(3) Fe(OH)3
(4) None

43) Pb+4 act as an oxidising agent because :-

(1) Pb+2 is less stable than Pb+4

(2) Pb+2 is more stable than Pb+4
(3) Pb+2 readily convert into Pb+4 hence oxidising
(4) None

44) Which compounds existence can be explained on the basis of inert pair effect ?

(1) Tl2O3
(2) PbI4
(3) BiCl5
(4) PbCl2

45) The hydrolysis of PCl3 produces :

(1) H3PO3 + HClO

(2) H3PO3 + HCl
(3) H3PO4 + HCl
(4) PH3 + HClO

BIOLOGY

1) Given figure represents which algae :-

(1) Chara
(2) Fucus
(3) Laminaria
(4) Pinus

2) Which option is not related with phaeophyceae ?

(1) Gelatinous coating of algin.

(2) Gametes are pear shaped and bears two, unequal laterally attached flagella.
(3) The food is stored as floridean starch.
(4) They possess chlorophyll a,c, carotenoids and xanthophylls.

3) Which of the following forms motile colony ?

(1) Volvox
(2) Hydrodictyon
(3) Porphyra
(4) Polysiphonia

4) What is the unique feature of bryophytes ?

(1) Vascular bundles

(2) Medicinal importance
(3) Gametophyte is parasitic
(4) Sporophyte attached to gametophyte

5) In which of the following plants sporophyte is compeletly dependent on gametophyte :-

(1) Funaria
(2) Riccia
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Polytrichum

6) The group of plant kingdom in which vegetative reproduction takes place by fragmentation and
buds on secondary protonema and sex organs are produced at the apex of leafy shoot and after
fertilization zygote develops into sporophyte via embryo foramtion is ?

(1) Liverworts
(2) Mosses
(3) Ferns
(4) Hornworts

7) Majority of pteridophyte are ?

(1) Homosporous
(2) Heterosporous
(3) Anisosporous
(4) Isogamous

8) "Agar-agar" is obtained from :-

(1) Green Algae

(2) Red Algae
(3) Brown Algae
(4) Yellow green Algae

9) Which of the following is not a heterosporus :-

(1) Selaginella
(2) Salvinia
(3) Marsilea
(4) Psilotum

10) If the haploid no. of chromosomes in gymnosperm is 12, what will be the no. of chromosomes in
its root and endosperm.

(1) 12, 12
(2) 12, 24
(3) 24, 12
(4) 24, 36

11) In Cycas :-

(1) Male strobilus and megasporophylls occurs on the same individual

(2) The same cone consists of both micro and megasporophylls
(3) The same sporophyll bears microsporangia and ovules
(4) Male strobilus (cone) and megasporophylls occur on separate individuals
12) Roots arise from parts of the plant other than the radicle called :

(1) Tap roots

(2) Fusiform roots
(3) Adventitious roots
(4) Pneumatophores

13) Stem originates from :-

(1) Radicle
(2) Plumule
(3) Cotyledon
(4) Leaf

14) In which of the following plants, stem perform the function of storage and perennation :-

(1) Sweet potato

(2) Dahlia
(3) Onion
(4) Turmeric

15) Match of the following Column-I and Column-II and choose correct option:-

Column-I Column-II

Pinnately
(A) (i) Most monocot
compound leaf

Palmately
(B) (ii) Mango
compound leaf

(C) Simple leaf (iii) Neem

(D) Parallel venation (iv) Silk cotton

A B C D

(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16)
Study the given figure and identify the kind of phyllotaxy :-

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) Alternate Opposite Opposite

(2) Alternate Opposite whorled

(3) Opposite Alternate whorled

(4) Opposite whorled Alternate

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
:
(a) In some leguminous plants, the leafbase may become swollen, which is known as pulvinus.
(b) Long thin flexible petioles allow leaf blades to flutter in wind there by cooling the leaf and
bringing fresh air to leaf surface.
(c) A single leaf arises at each node in mustard and chinarose.

(d) Leaves originate from shoot apical meristem and arranged in basipetal manner.
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a and b only
(4) c and d only

18) What type of phyllotaxy is found in chinarose and mustard ?

(1) opposite
(2) alternate
(3) whorled
(4) none of above
19) Bud is present in axil of which of the following ?

(1) Simple leaf

(2) Compound leaf
(3) Leaflets
(4) Both 1 and 2

20) Opposite simple leaves with reticulate venation are present in :-

(1) Neem
(2) Calotropis
(3) Sunflower
(4) Alstonia

21) Study the following statements carefully and give the answer :-
(A) Petioles holds the lamina to light
(B) Veins provide rigidity to the leaf blade and act as channels of transport.
(C) A bud is present in the axil of both leaf and leaflet
(D) In pinnately compound leaf, all leaflets are attached to a common point petiole.
Option :-

(1) Both A and B are correct

(2) Both A and D are correct
(3) Both B or D are wrong
(4) Both B and C are wrong

22) A plant with parallel venation is -

(1) Castor
(2) Grass
(3) Gram
(4) Mustard

23) Which one of the following is not an example of opposite phyllotaxy ?

(1) Guava
(2) China rose
(3) Calotropis
(4) Oscimum

24) Presence of sheathing leaf base is characteristic of :-

(1) Gymnosperm
(2) Pteridophyte
(3) Dicot
(4) Monocot
25) Phyllotaxy is pattern of :-

(1) Arrangement of veins in leaf

(2) Arrangement of phyllode on stem
(3) Arrangement of leaves on stem or branch
(4) Arrangement of ovules in ovary

26) Function of petiole :-

(1) Hold the leaf blade

(2) Flutter the leaf blade in wind
(3) Bringing fresh air to leaf surface
(4) All of the above

27) Rachis bears a number of lateral leaflets. It is

(1) Simple leaf

(2) Palmately compound leaf
(3) Multifoliate compound leaf
(4) Pinnately compound leaf

28) Whorled phyllotaxy present in

(1) Banana
(2) Ginger
(3) Alstonia
(4) Pea

29) In which inflorescence flower are born in basipetal order :-

(1) Racemose
(2) Cymose
(3) Cyathium
(4) Above both (1) & (2)

30) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower ?

(1) Pollination can not be normal

(2) It is always solitary
(3) Flower opening is centripetal
(4) Growth is indefinite

31) In Cymose inflorescence the main axis :-

(1) has unlimited growth

(2) bear a solitary flower
(3) has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flower
(4) terminates in a flower

32) Which of the following is correct for the type of inflorescence given below :

(1) The main axis terminates in a flower

(2) The main axis is of limited growth
(3) The flowers are borne in a basipetal order
(4) All are correct

33) Cymose inflorescence is present in :

(1) Trifolium
(2) Solanum
(3) Brassica
(4) Sesbania

34) Racemose inflorescence is identified by:

(1) acropetal arrangement of flowers on peduncle

(2) presence of sessile flowers
(3) continuous growth of main axis
(4) Both (1) and (3)

35)

(a) Flower is a modified root

(b) Arrangement of flowers on floral axis is known as inflorescence
(c) In cymose type of inflorescence flowers are arranged in basipetal or acropetal order.
Which of the following statements are not correct ?

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) a, c

36) Which of the following is not a function of root system ?

(1) Anchorage to plant

(2) Storage of food material
(3) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
(4) Storage of water

37) Monocot plants are characterised by the presence of

(1) Tap roots

(2) Fibrous roots
(3) Annulated roots
(4) Stilt roots

38) Which one is incorrect for Tap root system :-

(1) Elongated radicle

(2) Primary root short lived
(3) Lateral roots present
(4) Found in dicots

39) Coralloid roots are associated with :-

(1) Cicer (Fungus)

(2) Pinus (Fungus)
(3) Cycas (Cyanobacteria)
(4) Pinus (BGA)

40) Choose the correct statement regarding gymnosperm -

(1) Seeds are developed pre-fertilization

Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed, both before and after
(2)
fertilization
(3) They show double fertilization
(4) They form haploid endosperm after fertilization

41) Identify the given figures :

(1) A - Cycas B - Ginkgo

(2) A - Cycas B - Cycas
(3) A - Ginkgo B - Cycas
(4) A - Ginkgo B - Ginkgo

42) The seeds in gymnosperms are :-

(1) Naked
(2) Enclosed within ovule
(3) Present in fruit
(4) Without embryo

43) Siphonogamy is observed in :-

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) All of these

44) The leaves of gymnosperms, are well adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity
and wind, because of which of the following features?

(1) Needle like leaves

(2) Thick cuticle
(3) Sunken stomata
(4) All of these

45) Read the following statement & select the correct option :-
(A) Gymnosperms include trees, & shrubs.
(B) In Cycas coralloid roots are associated with mycorrhiza
(C) In conifers needle like leaves reduce the surface area.
(D) The gymnosperms are heterosporous.
How many above statements are correct & incorrect ?

(1) 2-correct, 2-incorrect

(2) 3-correct, 1-incorrect
(3) 1-correct, 3-incorrect
(4) 0-correct, 4-incorrect

46) Excretory organs in Crustacea are :-

(1) Green gland

(2) Coxal gland
(3) Nephridia
(4) Flame cell

47) Which of the following is produced by kidney ?

(1) Renin
(2) Erythropoietin
(3) Calciferol
(4) Both 1 & 2

48) If loop of Henle is absent in mammalian nephron, then urine will be -

(1) Concentrated
(2) Diluted
(3) No change
(4) No urine

49) Ultrafiltration in glomerulus occurs due to :-

(1) Bowman's capsule has higher hydrostatic pressure than glomerulus

Colloidal osmotic pressure and capsule's hydrostatic pressure are lower than glomerular
(2)
hydrostatic pressure
(3) Glomerulus hydrostatic pressure is less than capsular pressure
(4) Osmotic pressure is more than Hydrostatic pressure

50) In counter current system :-

(1) Descending arm of loop of Henle exchange its material with descending arm of vasa recta.
(2) Ascending arm of loop of Henle exchange its material with descending arm of vasa recta.
(3) "NaCl is returned to interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta"
(4) Both (2) & (3)

51) The amount of the filtrate formed by the kidney per minute is called GFR (Glomerular filtration
rate). The GFR of a healthy adult is :-

(1) 80 ml/min
(2) 125 ml/min
(3) 300 ml/min
(4) 20 ml/min

52) Match the excretory functions of section I with the part of the excretory system in section II.
Choose the correct combination from among the option given :-

Section-I Section - II
(Function) (Parts of excretory systems)

(A) Ultra filtration (1) Henle's loop

(B) Concentration of urine (2) Ureter

(C) Transport of urine (3) Urinary bladder

(D) Storage of urine (4) Malpighian corpuscle

(5) Proximal convoluted tubule

(1) A–4, B–1, C–2, D–3
(2) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
(3) A–5, B–4, C–1, D–3
(4) A–5, B–4, C–1, D–2

53) Capillary network over the loop of Henle and PCT respectively are known as
(1) Vasa-vasorum and vasa recta
(2) Vasa recta and vasa vasorum
(3) Peritubular network and vasa recta
(4) Vasa recta and peritubular network

54)

In some of the nephrons, the loop of Henle is very long and runs deep into the medulla. These
nephrons are called :-

(1) Cortical nephrons

(2) Medullary nephrons
(3) Juxtamedullary nephrons
(4) Juxtaglomerular nephrons

55) Which part of nephron is impermeable to water?

(1) Descending limb of henle's loop

(2) Ascending limb of henle's loop
(3) PCT
(4) DCT

56) Which of following help to increase GFR and B.P.?

(1) JGA
(2) Renin
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None of the above

57) Which of the following condition are indicative of diabetes mellitus ?

(1) Glucosuria
(2) Proteinuria
(3) Ketonuria
(4) Glucosuria and ketonuria (both)

58) The principal nitrogenous excretory compound in humans is synthesized :-

(1) In kidneys but eliminated mostly through liver

(2) In kidney as well as eliminated by kidneys
(3) In liver and also eliminated out from the body by the same
(4) In the liver, but eliminated out from the body mostly through kidneys

59) Refer the given figure of human urinary system and select the option that correctly identifies
the labelled parts A to E

(1) A-Superior vena cava, B-Inferior vena cava, C-Dorsal aorta, D-Urethra, E-Pelvis
(2) A-Inferior vena cava, B-Superior vena cava, C-Dorsal aorta, D-Urinary bladder, E-Cortex
(3) A-Ureter, B-Inferior vena cava, C-Dorsal aorta, D-Urinary bladder, E-Pelvis
(4) A-Dorsal aorta, B-Inferior vena cava, C-Superior vena cava, D-Urinary bladder, E-Cortex

60) The given figure represents the Malpighian body. Identify the labelled parts A to D and select

the correct option :-

A-Efferent arteriole,
B-Afferent arteriole,
(1)
C-Bowman's capsule,
D-Proximal convoluted tubule
A-Afferent arteriole,
B-Efferent arteriole,
(2)
C-Renal artery,
D-Proximal convoluted tubule
A-Afferent arteriole,
B-Efferent arteriole,
(3)
C-Bowman's capsule,
D-Proximal convoluted tubule
A-Afferent arteriole,
B-Efferent arteriole,
(4)
C-Bowman's capsule,
D-Distal convoluted tubule

61) Which of the following is the correct pathway for passage of urine in humans ?

(1) Collecting tubule → Ureter → Bladder → Urethra

(2) Renal vein → Renal ureter → Bladder → Urethra
(3) Pelvis → cortex → Bladder → Urethra
(4) Cortex → Medulla → Bladder → Ureter

62) Columns of Bertini in the kidneys of mammals are formed as extensions of :-

(1) Cortex in medulla
(2) Cortex in pelvis
(3) Medulla in pelvis
(4) Pelvis in ureter

63) The bunch of capillaries present in the Bowman's capsule is called :-

(1) Pacinian corpuscle

(2) Bowman's fibres
(3) Glomerulus
(4) Malpighian corpuscle

64) Podocytes are the cells present in the

(1) Bowman's capsule

(2) Collecting duct
(3) Neck of nephron
(4) Wall of glomerular capillaries

65) The given figure shows reabsorption and secretion of major substances at different parts of the
nephron. the movment of which of the following substances is wrongly depicted ?

(1) NaCl and K+ at DCT

(2) NaCl and NH3 at PCT
(3) NaCl at ascending limb of loop of Henle
(4) H2O at descending limb of loop of Henle

66) Which of the following sequences is correct regarding regulation of kidney function ?

An excess loss of water from body → Hypothalamus → Osmoreceptors → Neurohypophysis →

(1)
ADH → Increases water permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of diuresis
An excess loss of fluid from body → Osmoreceptors → Hypothalamus → Neurohypophysis → ADH
(2)
→ Increases water permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of diuresis
An excess loss of fluid from body ® Osmoreceptors ® Hypothalamus → Neurohypophysis →
(3)
Aldosterone → Water permeability of DCT and CT increases → Prevention of diuresis
 An excess loss of water from body → Osmoreceptors → Hypothalamus → Adenohypophysis →
(4)
ADH → Increases water permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of diuresis

67) Choose the mismatched part of nephron with their function :-

(1) Bowman's capsule → Glomerular filtration

(2) PCT → Reabsorption of Na+ and K+
(3) DCT → Reabsorption of glucose
(4) Loop of Henle → Urine concentration

68) Under which of the following conditions there will be the presence of abnormally high ketone
bodies in urine ?

(1) Excessive breakdown of proteins

(2) Excessive breakdown of nucleic acids
(3) Starvation and diabetes mellitus
(4) Fasting and diabetes insipidus

69) Which blood vessel contains maximum amount of urea ?

(1) Hepatic vein

(2) Renal vein
(3) Hepatic portal vein
(4) QueHepatic artery

70)

Given below are four statement (a–d) regarding human blood circulatory system.
(a) The walls of veins are thin, less muscular, non elastic and collapsable
(b) When the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply. Called as heart
attack.
(c) In walls of atria are much thicker than that of the ventricles
(d) Persons with 'O' group can accept blood from person with O as well as the other groups of blood

Which two of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) (a) and (b)
(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (a) and (d)

71) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) A person of ‘O’ blood group has anti-A and anti- B antibodies in blood plasma
(2) A person of ‘B’ blood group can’t donate blood to a person of ‘O’ blood group
ABO blood grouping is based on the presence or absence of two antigen- A and B in blood
(3)
plasma.
(4) A person with AB+ blood group is universal recipient
72) Assertion :- Thrombin plays an important role in blood clotting.
Reason :- It converts/change fibrinogen into fibrin.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

73) If due to certain disease, one kidney is removed from a person. What are the problems he may
face due to removal of the kidney?

(1) In blood, urea will be increased to very high level and leads to death of the person
(2) Immunity will be decreased drastically
(3) Urine formation severely affected
(4) Person will survive normally

74) Lub sound produced by heart is due to

(1) Ventricular systole

(2) Ventricular diastole
(3) Atrial diastole
(4) Atrial systole

75) Match the column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

A. Aves (i) Incomplete double circulation

B. Amphibians (ii) (2A+2V)

C. Pisces (iii) (2A+1V)

D. Mammals (iv) (1A+1V)

(v) Single circulation

(vi) Complete double circulation

(1) A-ii, vi; B-iii, i; C-iv, v ; D-ii, vi
(2) A-iii, i; B-iv, i; C-ii, v; D-ii, vi
(3) A-iii, vi; B-iii, v; C-ii, vi; D-iv, i
(4) A-ii, v; B-ii,vi; C-iv, vi; D-iii, i

76) Assertion: The AV node delay the electrical impulse moving from the SA node and the atria to
the ventricles.
Reason: The delay allows the atria to empty completely, filling ventricles fully before they contract.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

77) Which of the following statement is not true?

(1) Cardiac output of an athlete is much higher than that of an ordinary man
(2) In each minute a single cardiac cycle is performed
(3) Cardiac sounds are of clinical diagnostic significance
(4) Cardiac cycle includes Auricular systole, ventricular systole and joint diastole/complete diastole

78) The correct sequence of layers found in the walls of arteries from inside to outward is :-

(1) Tunica adventitia, tunica interna & tunica media

(2) Tunica interna, tunica externa & tunica media
(3) Tunica interna, tunica media & tunica externa
(4) Tunica media, tunica externa & tunica interna

79) Blood colloidal osmotic pressure mainly maintained by which plasma protein :-

(1) Globulin
(2) Albumin
(3) Fibrinogen
(4) Prothombin

80) Assertion :- Lumen of arteries is narrow as compared to that of veins.

Reason :- Tunica media layer is very thick in arteries as compared to veins.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true & the Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

81) ABO blood grouping is based on:-

(1) Surface antibodies on RBC

(2) Surface antigen on WBC
(3) Surface antigen on RBC
(4) Plasma antigens

82) Tissue fluid has same distribution of ______ as that in plasma. Choose the option that correctly
fills the blanks to complete the statement.

(1) RBCs
(2) WBCs
(3) Clotting factors
(4) Minerals
83) Match column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II
A. Lymph i. Plasma without large protein but having WBCs
B. Serum ii. Contains antibodies against blood grouping antigens
C. Plasma iii. Plasma without clotting factors
Venous
D. iv. Is present in pulmonary artery
blood
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

84) Assertion : SA node is known as the pacesetter of the heart.

Reason : SA node generates maximum number of action potential.

(1) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

85) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Plasma is a straw coloured, viscous fluid constituting nearly 55 per cent of the blood
and is composed mostly of water, with proteins contributing 6-8 per cent of it.
Statement II: Fibrinogens, which are one of the major proteins in plasma, are not involved in the
clotting or coagulation of blood. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from
the options given below:

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

86) The chances of erythroblastosis foetalis is the most, in which of the following case?

(1) Father (Rh +ve) and Mother (Rh –ve)

(2) Mother (Rh +ve) and Father (Rh –ve)
(3) Father (Rh +ve) and Mother (Rh +ve)
(4) Father (Rh –ve) and Mother (Rh –ve)

87) Right atrioventricular apperture is guarded by :-

(1) Mitral valve

(2) Tricuspid valve
(3) Bicuspid valve
(4) Semilunar valve
88) Among ammonia, uric acid and urea, which one needs the least amount of water to excrete -

(1) Ammonia
(2) Urea
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Uric Acid

89) Major site of reabsorption and selective secretion in nephron is :-

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Loop of Henle
(4) PCT and loop of Henle

90) Which of the following is responsible for excretion of concentrated urine?

(1) More secretion of vasopressin

(2) Less secretion of ADH
(3) More secretion of PTH
(4) Less secretion of PTH
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 2 3 3 4 2 3 3 3 4 1 2 2 3 1 3 4 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 2 4 1 1 2 3 1 2 4 1 3 1 4 2 1 4 3 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 3 4 1 1 4 4 4 2 2 1 3 3 1 2 3 1 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 3 2 2 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 4 2 2 2 3 2 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 2 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 1 4 2 2 1 2 4 3 4 3 2 4 4 2 1 2 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 2 2 4 3 4 4 3 2 2 4 4 2 4 4 4 2 2 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 3 4 2 1 4 2 2 4 2 1 4 3 2 3 4 4 3 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 1 3 1 2 2 3 3 1 3 3 1 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 2 3 4 1 2 4 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

2) Asking about : coefficient of friction to stop.

Concept : F = ma

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
V = u + at

O = 10 + a(2) ⇒
this retardation is above to friction force
f = uN = ma
= u × mg = ma

Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

3)

fsmax = μsN = 0.8 (12) = 9.8N

Fext = 5N < fsmax
so f = 5N
FNet =

4) F = 600 – 2 × 105 t = 0 ⇒ t = 3 × 10–3 sec

Impulse I =

= = 0.9 N × sec

5)

m/s2
6)

as acceleration y = 0
Fnet = 0

7)

0 = (100)2 – 2 × a × 0.1

a=
F = 10 × 10–3 × 5 × 104
F = 500 N

8)

T = mg – ma ≥ η mg
a ≤ g(1 – η)

9)

M.A. =

10)

v=

a= = 6t
F = ma = 6 × 6 × t
at t = 4, F = 36 × 4 = 144 newton

11)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

12)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer
13)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

14) Explain:
Find the average force required to stop a hammer with momentum = 25 N-s in 0.05 s.
Concept:
Based on Newton's Second Law, force is the rate of change of momentum:
Formula Used:

where:
• Δp = 25 N-s (change in momentum)
• Δt = 0.05 s (time taken)
Calculation:

Final Answer: Option (2) 500 N

15)
=
F = ma

m=
m= kg

16) Concept:

F= , Slope of impulse time graph gives the value of force.

Since (slope) is decreasing force on particle is also decreasing.

17)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

18)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

19)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer
20)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

21)

W = (Area)1 – (Area)2

W = × (3 + 1) × 10 – × (2 + 1) × 10
=5J

22)

23)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

24)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

25) For constant force

W = Force × (displacement along direction of force)
W = FR

26)
Hence option (2)

27) From work – energy theorum,

Wall = Kf – Ki
⇒ mgxsinθ – μmgd = 0

28) By mechanical energy conservation

decrease in gravitational potential energy = energy stored in the spring
⇒ 8g (x + 1) sin 30° =
⇒ 100 = 40(x+1) ⇒ x = 1.5 m
so total distance travelled = 2.5 m
Hence option (1)

29) For the motion of person

Mg – N = Ma

⇒N= work done by normal reaction

= (N)(displacement)(cos 180º)

=–
= –4000 J
Hence option (2)

30) Work done by F2 = Fx cosθ

(25) (5) cos0° = 125 J
Hence option (4)

31)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

32)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

33) Question Explanation :

A 1 kg block slides down a 10 m inclined plane at 30°. We need to calculate the work done by
gravity as it moves from the topmost point to the lower end.

Concept-Based (Work Done by Gravity on an Inclined Plane)

 Formula Used :

Calculation :
Given

A. m = 1 kg,
B. g = 10 m/s2,
C. θ = 30∘,
D. d = 10 m.

Correct answer : (1)

34)

35) = –1J

36)

37)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

38) As ring is always at same horizontal level so work done by gravity force is zero.

tan 37° =
x = extension in spring

= –h=
 ⇒v=

39)

Using work energy theorem,

mgh =

x= = 0.1 m = 10 cm

40)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

41)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

42)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

43) U = 2x2 – x

take,

4x – 1 = 0

44)

45)
 Kinetic energy at B = Potential energy at A
KB = mg(1)

mv2 = mg
v2 = 20
v= m/s
By conservation of energy,

mv2 – µ mgx = 0

(20) – µ(10)(3) = 0

µ=

CHEMISTRY

46)

Concept
Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

47)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

48)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

49)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

50)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

51)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer
52)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

53)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

54)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

55)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

56)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

57)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

58) Question Explanation :

Question is asking about assertion and reason and their relation.

Concept :
This question is based on exsistence and no gimitence covalency,

Solution :
A→ exist does not exist
R → Yes, size of side atom F is small so exist.
So assertion and reason both are true and reason explain assertion.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

59)

NCERT, Pg. # 118-120

60) Water molecule has following structure

Therefore, there are 4 pairs of electrons (2 lone pairs and 2 bond pairs) in the valence shell of
O-atom in water molecule.

61)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

62)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

63)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

64)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

65)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

66)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

67)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
68)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

69)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

70) Answer - Option(2)

Explanation - The question is about determining which compound has a zero dipole moment.
Here's how we can analyze each option
Concept -
Option 1 (OH groups on a benzene ring):
The hydroxyl (OH) groups are at the para-position, but the electronegativity difference
between oxygen and hydrogen creates strong dipoles. The dipoles of the OH groups do not
perfectly cancel out due to differences in the electron-withdrawing nature of the groups and
resonance effects in phenols.
Dipole moment ≠ 0.
Option 2 (Cl groups on a benzene ring):
The chlorine atoms are at the para-position. Chlorine is less polarizing in terms of inductive
effects compared to OH or SH, and the dipoles cancel out perfectly because of the molecule's
symmetry.
Dipole moment = 0.
Option 3 (SH groups on a benzene ring):
Although the SH groups are at the para-position, the dipole moments do not cancel out due to
the asymmetry in the distribution of electron density caused by sulfur's weaker
electronegativity and the polarizability of the SH group.
Dipole moment ≠ 0.
Conclusion:
Only Option 2 (Cl groups on the benzene ring) has a zero dipole moment due to perfect
symmetry and cancellation of dipoles.

71)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

72)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

73) bond stability

16 = 2
14 = 3
 13 = 2.5
15 = 2.5

74)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

75)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

76)

Ans. (1)
1 is the correct answer

77)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

78)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

79)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

80)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

81)

Only 4 terminal H and 2B atoms of B2H6 are in a common plane.

∴ Total 6 atoms.

82) NCERT Pg. # 311

 83)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

84)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

85)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

86)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

87)

Asking for: The species that is an acid among B(OH)₃, Al(OH)₃, and Fe(OH)₃.

Concept: Acidic nature of hydroxides. B(OH)₃ acts as a Lewis acid by accepting OH⁻ ions.
Al(OH)₃ and Fe(OH)₃ are amphoteric and basic, respectively.

Formula: N/A (conceptual understanding)

Solution / Explanation:

A. B(OH)₃ (Boric acid) : B(OH)₃ is a Lewis acid. It accepts OH⁻ ions to form [B(OH)₄]⁻.

B. Al(OH)₃ (Aluminum hydroxide) : Al(OH)₃ is amphoteric, meaning it can act as both an acid
and a base, but in most cases, it behaves as a weak base.

C. Fe(OH)₃ (Iron(III) hydroxide) : Fe(OH)₃ is a base.

Therefore, B(OH)₃ is an acid.

88)

Asking for: The reason why Pb⁴⁺ acts as an oxidizing agent.

Concept: Inert pair effect and the stability of oxidation states in group 14 elements.

Formula: The general trend of stability of +2 oxidation state increases down the group 14
elements.

Solution/Explanation:
 Oxidizing Agent: An oxidizing agent gains electrons and gets reduced. Since Pb⁴⁺ is less
stable, it tends to gain electrons to form the more stable Pb²⁺. This means Pb⁴⁺ readily accepts
electrons, making it an oxidizing agent.

Final Answer: The correct option is (2).

89)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

90)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XII) Pg # 12

92) Explain Question: Quesiton asking about which character not related to phaeophyceae

Concept: This question is based on Phaeophyceae.

Solution:
1. Gelationous coating of algin. Correct
2. Gametes are pear shaped and bears two, Unequal laterally attached flagella. Correct
3. The food is stored as floridean starch. Incorrect food is stored a floridean starch in
Rhodophyceae
4. They posses chlorophyll a,c, carotenoids and xanthophylls. Correct

Final Answer: (3)

93) The correct answer is: 1) Volvox.

Explanation:
Volvox is a colonial green alga that forms a motile colony. The individual cells within the
colony are connected and work together to move in a coordinated way, allowing the colony to
move through the water.
• Hydrodictyon is a non-motile colonial alga.
• Porphyra is a red alga that forms a thallus (not a motile colony).
• Polysiphonia is a red alga that forms branched filaments and does not have a motile colony.
Therefore, Volvox is the correct answer, as it forms a motile colony.

94) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 35

95) NCERT XI Pg. 35,36,38

96)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

97) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 38

98)

"Agar-agar" is obtained from Red Algae

99)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

100)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

101)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

102) NCERT Pg.#66

103)

Ncert page 59.

104)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

105) Question Explanation :

The question asks to match the items in Column-I with their correct examples in Column-II.

Concept :
This question is based on morphology of leaves.
Solution :
(A) Pinnately compound leaf → (iii) Neem
Neem has pinnately compound leaf - leaflets are arranged on either side of the rachis.
(B) Palmately compound leaf → (iv) Silk cotton
Silk cotton (Bombax) has palmately compound leaves - leaflets arise from a common point.
(C) Simple leaf → (ii) Mango
Mongo has a simple leaf - single undivided lamina.
(D) Parallel venation → (i) Most monocots
Most monocots plants (like grasses, lilies) show parallel venation.

Final Answer :
Option (4)

106) Question Explanation :

The question gives you three figures showing types of leaf arrangements (phyllotaxy).

Concept:
This question is based on Leaf: Phyllotaxy

Solution:
The correct answer is 2. Alternate, Opposite, Whorled

Explanation :
(i) Alternate - One leaf per node, alternating sides
(ii) Opposite - Two leaves per node, placed opposite each other
(iii) Whorled - More than two leaves from a single node

Final answer: 2. Alternate, Opposite, Whorled

107) NCERT Pg.76

108)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
109) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 70

110)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

111) NCERT-XI, Pg # 70-71

112)

Ncert Pg No: 60

113)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

114)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 71

116) NCERT-XI Page No. # 60

117)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

118)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

119) Question Explanation :

The question is asking in which type of inflorescence flowers are arranged in basipetal order,
meaning the older flowers are at the top or center, and younger ones are at the base or
periphery.

Concept:
This question is based on Inflorescence.
 Solution:
The correct answer is 2. Cymose

Explanation:
Cymose inflorescence shows:

A. Basipetal order of flowers (older at the top/center, younger below/sides).

B. Main axis ends in a flower (limited/determinate growth).

Final answer: 2. Cymose

120) Question Explanation :

Question asking about what happens when a shoot tip transforms into a flower.

Concept:
This question is based on Inflorescence.

Solution:
When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, it is always solitary
Final answer: 2. It is always solitary

121) Question Explanation :

The question is asking about the growth pattern of the main axis in a cymose inflorescence-a
type of flower arrangement on a plant.

Concept:
This question is based on Inflorescence.

Solution:
In cymose inflorescence, the main axis terminates in a flower, so its growth is limited in
growth. The flowers are borne in a basipetal order.

Final Answer: 4. terminates in a flower

122)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

123) NCERT (XI) Pg # 72

124)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

125) NCERT-XI, Pg#71, Para-5.4

 126)

Explain Question : Question asking about function of root

Concept : This question is based on Plant Morphology-root

Solution : The main functions of the root system are absorption of water and minerals from
the soil, providing a proper anchorage to the plant parts, storing reserve food material and
synthesis of plant growth regulators.

Final Answer : option (4)

127) NCERT (XI) Pg.# 66

128)

The correct answer is:

Primary root short lived
Explanation:

A. Elongated radicle: This is correct. In the tap root system, the radicle (the first root)
elongates and develops into the primary root.
B. Primary root short lived: This is incorrect. In a tap root system, the primary root is typically
the dominant root and is long-lived. It may branch to form lateral roots but remains the main
root for the plant's lifetime.
C. Lateral roots present: This is correct. Lateral roots arise from the primary root in the tap
root system.
D. Found in dicots: This is correct. The tap root system is characteristic of dicot plants, where
the primary root grows thick and strong

129) Coralloid roots are specialized roots found in Cycas, which have an association with
cyanobacteria (Blue-Green Algae - BGA) like Nostoc and Anabaena for nitrogen fixation.
Correct Answer: Cycas (Cyanobacteria)
Hence, the correct answer is option (3).

130) NCERT (XI) Pg # 38, 39

131) Question Explanation :

Question asking about to identify two plant figures (A and B) from the given options.

Concept :
This question is based on Gynmosperm

Solution :
Ggymnosperm: (a) Cyces and (c) Ginkgo (B) :

Final Answer : (1)

132)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

133)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

134)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

135) NCERT XI- Pg # 38, 39

136)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

137) Renin: The kidneys produce and secrete renin, an enzyme involved in blood pressure
regulation. Erythropoietin: The kidneys are the primary site for the production of
erythropoietin, a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production. Calciferol: The kidneys
play a crucial role in the final activation step of vitamin D into its active form, calcitriol. While
the kidney doesn't produce the precursor to vitamin D, it performs the final conversion to the
active hormone.

Final Answer : (4) Both 1 & 2

138)
 Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer

139)

Explain Question : Ultrafiltration in glomerulus occurs in ?

Concept : This question is based on Mechanism of urine formation.

Solution : option (2) is correct

Blood colloidal osmotic pressure + Capsular Hydrostatic pressure are lower than glomerular
Hydrostatic pressure
Net filtration = BGHP – (BCOP + CHP)
= 10-25 mg

Final Answer : option (2)

140) The correct answer is: Option (4) Both (2) & (3)

Solution/Explanation:

A. Incorrect: The descending limb of the loop of Henle primarily loses water, not NaCl. Also, the
exchange isn't with the descending vasa recta.
B. Correct: The ascending limb of the loop of Henle loses NaCl, which is picked up by the
descending vasa recta. This is a key part of the countercurrent exchange.
C. Correct: As the vasa recta ascends back toward the cortex, it loses water (which went into the
descending limb of the loop of Henle) and returns the NaCl to the interstitium (the space
surrounding the loop of Henle), maintaining the high salt concentration in the medulla.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

141)

Question Explanation:

Asks for the normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healty asult, expressed in milliliters
per munute (ml/min).

Solution Explanation:

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal glomerular
capillaries into Bowman's capsule per unit time. In a healty adult, the GFR is approximately
125 ml/min.

Final Answer:

Therefore, the correct answer is:

Option 2. 125 ml/min

142)
 NCERT - Pg. No.# 295

143)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

144) 1. Asking About:

In some of the Nephrons the loop of hemle is very long and runs deep into the meduls these
nephrons are called.
2. Concept : Types of Nephron
3. Solution/ Explanation: In human kidney there are two types of Nephron, cortical and
Inxtamedullry.
(A) Cortical Nephron :
One more in Number (85 %) , major part is situated in cortex, loop of Henle is shoot and vara
reets is highly reduced or absent, but peritubular network of capillaries are present.
(B) Inxta medullary Nephron :
They are less in number (15%), major part is situated in medulla, loop of Henle is very long
and owns deep in medulla, vasa reets is present.
Hence correct answer is option (3)

145)

NCERT - Pg. # 293

146) Explanation :

A. JGA: The JGA indirectly helps increase GFR and BP by releasing renin.
B. Ronin: Ronin directly initiates the RAAS pathway, leading to increased GFR and BP.
C. Both (1) & (2): This is the correct answer. Both the JGA (through renin release) and renin itself
play essential roles in increasing GFR and BP.
D. None of the above: Since option 3 is correct, this option is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (3) : Both (1) & (2). Both the JGA and renin contribute to
increasing GFR and BP through the RAAS pathway.

147) Explain Question: Identify the condition are indicative of diabetes mellitus ?
Solution:

A. Indicative Conditions of Diabetes Mellitus:

B. Fasting blood glucose ≥ 126 mg/dL

C. Random blood glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL with classic symptoms

D. 2-hour blood glucose ≥ 200 mg/dL after OGTT (Oral Glucose Tolerance Test)
 E. HbA1c ≥ 6.5%

F. Presence of the 3 P's:

A. Polyuria – Frequent urination

B. Polydipsia – Increased thirst

C. Polyphagia – Increased hunger

G. Unexplained weight loss

H. Fatigue, blurred vision, slow wound healing

Final Answer: (4)

148) Question Explanation: Asks where the principal nitrogenous excretory compound in
humans is synthesized and how it is eliminated.
Explanation :
The principle nitrogen excretory compound in humans is urea. Urea is synthesized in the liver
through the urea cycle, which converts toxic ammonia into less toxic urea. Urea is then
transported by the blood to the kidneys.
The kidneys filter urea from the blood and excrete in in urine.

Final answer:
Option 4. in the liver, but eliminated out from the body mostly through kidneys

149)

Class XI Ncert page 206.

150)

NCERT Page # 208

151)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

152) Explanation :
The Columns of Bertini are formed by extensions of the renal cortex into the renal medulla.
 The correct answer is option 1: Cortex in medulla.

154) The correct answer is option (1) Bowman's capsule.

A. Bowman's Capsule Structure: Bowman's capsule has two layers:

A. Parietal layer: The outer layer, made of simple squamous epithelium.

B. Visceral layer: The inner layer, composed of podocytes.

The podocytes' foot-like projections (pedicels) interdigitate and form the filtration slits, which are
essential for the filtration process.

Hence, option (1) is correct.

155)

NCERT - Pg. # 295

156)

Explain Question : correct regarding regulation of kidney function ?

Concept : This question is based on Regulation of kidney function.

Solution : An excess loss of fluid from body → Osmoreceptors → Hypothalamus →

Neurohypophysis → ADH → Increases in H2O permeability of DCT and CT → Prevention of
diuresis

Final Answer : option (2)

157) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 294, 295

158)

During use of substances such as amino acids, fats reproduction as in case of starvation and
diabetes mellitus.

159) Question Explanation:

To identify the blood vessel that carries the highest concentration of urea.

Explanation:
Urea of produced in the liver.
The hepatic vein carries blood away from the liver after urea has been synthesized. Therefore,
the blood vessel with the maximum amount of urea would be the one carrying blood
immediately after the liver has produced it, but before the kidneys have filtered it out. That is
the hepatic vein.
Answer : The correct answer is (1) : hepatic vein
160) NCERT Pg No. # 280, 4st Para, 281, 2st Para, 283, 2st Para, 288

161)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

162)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

163)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

164)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

165) NCERT XI Page # 197

166)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer
Pg.285

167)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
Pg.285

168)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

169)

Ans. (2)
2 is the correct answer
170)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

171)

Ans. (3)
3 is the correct answer

172)

Ans. (4)
4 is the correct answer

173)

What the Question Is Asking: Match the terms in Column I with their correct descriptions
in Column II.

Solution:

A. A. Lymph: It is plasma without large proteins but contains WBCs. Matches (i).

B. B. Serum: It is plasma without clotting factors. Matches (iii).

C. C. Plasma: It contains antibodies against blood grouping antigens. Matches (ii).

D. D. Venous blood: It is present in the pulmonary artery. Matches (iv).

Final Answer : option (2). (A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv).

174) Assertion (A): SA node is known as the pacesetter of the heart. This statement is
incorrect. AV node act as pacesetter.

Reason (R): SA node generates maximum number of action potential. This statement is also
correct. The SA node has the highest intrinsic firing rate (spontaneous depolarization rate)
compared to other potential pacemaker cells in the heart (like those in the AV node or Purkinje
fibers).

Final Answer (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

175)

Statement I: Correct. Plasma is indeed a straw coloured, viscous fluid that makes up about 55
per cent of the blood, and it is mostly water with proteins contributing 6-8 per cent. Statement
II: Incorrect. Fibrinogens are major proteins in plasma and are essential for the clotting or
coagulation of blood, not the other way around.

176)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer

177) NCERT XI Pg.# 283 para 1

178) Ans. (4) 4 is the correct answer

179) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 300

180)

Ans.(1)
1 is the correct answer