28-09-2025

1015CMD303057250012 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two pith balls carrying equal charges are suspended from a common point by strings of equal
length, the equilibrium seperation between them is r. Now the strings are rigidly clamped at half the
height. The equilibrium separation between the balls now become.

(1)

(2)
r

(3)

(4)

2) Find electric field vector at point 'P' for given figure:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Three point charge shown in the figure be along a straight line the work done against electrostic
forces to exchange the position of central +ve charge with one of the negative charge is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two pith balls each with mass m are suspended from insulating threads. When the pith balls are
given equal positive charge Q, they hang in equilibrium as shown. We now increase the charge on
the left pith ball from Q to 2Q while leaving its mass essentiallty unchanged. Which of the following

diagrams best represents the new equilibrium configuration ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Two particles of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 16 cm. They do not

experience any force. The value of is :-

(1) λ

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Figure shows a charge q placed at the centre of a hemisphere, a second charges Q is placed at
one of the positions A, B, C, D and E in which position of this second charges, the flux of the electric

field through the hemispherical curved surface remains unchanged ?

(1) B, C, D
(2) A, E
(3) B, D
(4) All of these

7) Four charges are placed in a straight line with magnitude and separation as shown in the
diagram. What should be the value of q0 such that +10µ charge is in equilibrium?

(1) –80µC
(2) +40µC
(3) +80µC
(4) –20µC

8) Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of
lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d <<l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges
begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other
with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) Fig shows two equipotential surfaces in a certain region. Electric field in this space is (scales are

marked) :-

(1) 100 – 200 V/m

(2) –100 + 200 V/m

(3) –150 + 300 V/m

(4) 150 – 300 V/m

10) In given system find potential at the surface of outer shell :

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The resistance of a galvonometer is 10Ω and the range is 1 volt. The value of resistance used to
convert it into a voltmeter of range 10 volt is :

(1) 90
(2) 10
(3) 0.9
(4) 100

12) Infinite number of cells having emf and internal

resistance

are connected in series in same manner across an external resistance of . Current flowing
through the external resistor is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The potential at junction 'O' is :

(1) 8 volt
(2) zero
(3) 4 volt
(4) none of these

14) An infinite ladder network of resistance is constructed with 1Ω and 2Ω resistance. The 6V
battery between A and B has negligible internal resistance. The current that passes through 2Ω

resistance nearest to the battery is

(1) 1 A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 2 A
(4) 2.5 A

15) At t = 0°C resistance of two wires are R1 = 1Ω , R2 = 2Ω , temp. coefficient are "α1" and "α2"
respectively. Find equivalent temperature coefficient of their series combination :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) α1 + α2

16) A bulb of 40 W, 220V is connected in series with another bulb of 100 W, 220V and then
connected to a source of 440V. The result will be :-

(1) Both bulbs will get fused

(2) Bulb of 40 watt will get fused
(3) Bulb of 100 watt will get fused
(4) None of the bulbs will get fused

17) The current flowing through a wire depends on time as I = 3t2 + 2t + 5. The charge flowing
through the cross-section of the wire in time from t = 0 to t = 2 sec. is

(1) 22 C
(2) 20 C
(3) 18 C
(4) 5 C

18) The resistance of a wire is 10Ω. It is drawn in order to increase its length by 10%. The new
resistance of wire will be :-

(1) 11Ω
(2) 12.1 Ω
(3) 1.2Ω
(4) 15Ω

19) A rectangular solid made of carbon has sides of lengths 1.0 cm, 2.0 cm, and 4.0 cm, lying along
the x, y, and z axes, respectively. Determine the resistance for current that passes through the solid

in the x-direction. ρ = 3 × 10–3 Ωm.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio 1:3:5 and their lengths are in the ratio 5:3:1, the
ratio of their electrical resistance is :-

(1) 1:3:5
(2) 5:3:1
(3) 1:15:125
(4) 125:15:1

21) Effective resistance between points A and B for following network is :- (each branch of

resistance is R)

(1)

(2)

(3) R

(4)

22)

Find the equivalent resistance between P and Q. (If each wire has a resistance R) :-
(1)
R

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Find out the value of current through 2Ω resistance for the given circuit.

(1) 5A
(2) 2A
(3) Zero
(4) 4A

24) The figure shows part of certain circuit, find : Potential

difference VC – VB .

(1) 6 V
(2) 10 V
(3) 4 V
(4) 8 V

25)

A milliammeter of resistance 999 Ω with range of 1mA. Find out the value of required shunt to
convert it into an ammeter of range 2A.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) A cell of emf ε and internal resistance (r) is connected in series with an external resistance (nr)
then the ratio of the terminal potential difference to emf is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Figure shows three resistor configurations R1, R2 and R3 connected to 3V battery. If the power

dissipated by the configuration R1, R2 and R3 is P1, P2 and P3 respectively.

(1) P1 > P2 > P3

(2) P1 > P3 > P2
(3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) P3 > P2 > P1

28) Find the value of R so that power transfer in R2 resistance is maximum.

(1)
(2)

(3) 0 Ω
(4) None

29) What is the acceleration of block A when the system is released from rest ?

(1) g/2 downwards

(2) g/3 downwards
(3) g/3 upwards
(4) g/2 upwards.

30) A rope of length 10 m and linear density 0.5 kg/m is lying lengthwise on a smooth horizontal
floor. It is pulled by a force of 25 N. The tension in the rope at a point 8 m away from the point of
application is :

(1) 20 N
(2) 15 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 5 N

31) A rocket of mass 6000 kg is set for vertical firing. If the exhaust speed be 1 km/s, how much gas
must be ejected to give the rocket an upward acceleration of 20 ms–2?(Take g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 45 kg/s
(2) 90 kg/s
(3) 120 kg/s
(4) 180 kg/s

32) Whole system shown is at rest. Pulley and string are massless. Net force on the pulley by the

string is

(1) 100 N
(2) 100√2N
(3) zero
(4) 200 N
33) Mass m2 is hanged using a uniform spring whose other end is attached to a string which is

attached to m1. A string connects m1 to ground as shown. Tension in this string is :-

(1) zero
(2) m1g
(3) m2g
(4) (m2 – m1)g

34) A force represented as shown in figure acts on a body having mass 16 kg. The velocity of the

body at t = 10 s, if the body starts from rest :-

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 50 m/s
(3) 49 m/s
(4) 39 m/s

35) A block of mass M is kept stationary on an inclined plane as shown. Forces acting on it are:-

(a) Mg (b) Normal Reaction (c) Friction

(1) only a
(2) only a & b
(3) only b & c
(4) All a, b & c

36) A block of mass 4 kg is suspended through two light spring balances A and B. Then A and B will
read respectively :-

(1) 4 kg and zero kg

(2) Zero kg and 4 kg
(3) 4 kg and 4 kg
(4) 2 kg and 2 kg

37)
Find value of F so that acceleration of block is 6 m/sec2 towards right ?

(1) 30 N
(2) 60 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 100 N

38)
If the system is going upwards with acceleration 'a0'=g/5, find the tension 'T' shown in figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The system is pushed by a force F as shown in figure. All surfaces are smooth except between B
and C. Friction coefficient between B and C is μ. Minimum value of F to prevent block B from

downward slipping is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) A 50 kg person stand on a 25 kg platform. He pulls on the rope which is attached to the platform
via the frictionless pulleys as shown in the figure. The platform moves upwards at a steady rate if the

force with which the person pulls the rope is

(1) 500 N
(2) 250 N
(3) 25 N
(4) None

41) At the instant when the 15 kg mass has acceleration of 6 m/sec2 then acceleration of 30 kg mass

will be :

(1) 2 m/sec2
(2) 3 m/sec2
(3) 4 m/sec2
(4) 6 m/sec2

42) A 3 kg ball strikes a heavy rigid wall with a speed of 10 ms-1 at an angle of 60o. It gets reflected
with the same speed and angle as shown in the figure. If the ball is in contact with the wall for 0.2 s,

what is the average force exerted on the ball by the wall?

(1) 150 N
(2) 0 N
(3)
(4) 55 N

43) A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is :-

(1) 2 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 100 N

44) If momentum of a particle is given by P = at – bt2. Find the time at which force on particle
becomes zero (a & b are constant) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A body, under the action of a force , acquires an acceleration of 1 m/s2 . The
mass of this body must be :

(1) 10 kg
(2) 20 kg
(3) kg
(4) kg

CHEMISTRY

1)
stability order is :-

(1) R > P > Q > S

(2) Q > R > S > P
(3) R > S > Q > P
(4) P > R > S > Q

2) Least basic among the following :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Which one of the following resonating structures of 1-methoxy-1,3-butadiene is least stable :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) All are same

4) Arrange the following decreasing order of their acidic strength

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > II > IV > III
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) IV > I > II > III

5) Which is maximum basic in nature ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6)

Correct order of acidic strength :-

(P) H–COOH (Q)

(R) CH3–COOH (S) Cl3C–COOH

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) Q > S > P > R
(3) S > Q > P > R
(4) S > P > Q > R

7)

Which of the following compound is strongest base :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Incorrect stability order is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which carbocation is most stable in the following:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) One among the following compounds will not give effervescence with sodium bi carbonate.

(1) C6H5CO2H

(2)

(3) C6H5OH

(4)

11) Which of the following pair is not pair of resonating structures?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which out of the following is aromatic hydrocarbon ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Which of the following is maximum stable free radical :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Which is an electrophile :-

(1)
(2) SO3
(3) CH ≡ CH
(4) H2O

15) Correct order of acidic strength is :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) II > I > III > IV
(4) II > IV > III > I

16) Which of the following resonating structure is least stable?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Which of the following cannot act as electrophile?

(1) :CCl2

(2)

(3) CO2
(4) CH2 = CH2
18) Which of the following molecules are expected to exhibit intermolecular H-bonding ?
(I) Acetic acid (II) o-nitrophenol (III) p-nitrophenol (IV) o-boric acid
Select correct alternate :-

(1) I, III
(2) II, IV
(3) II, III, IV
(4) I, III, IV

19)

Which of the following does not exist?

(1) SF4
(2) OF6
(3) OF2
(4) SF6

20) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) KCl + H2O ⇒ dipole-dipole

(2) Xe + H2O ⇒ Debye
(3) CF4 + CF4 ⇒ London
(4) SO2 + SO3 ⇒ Debye

21)

Correct order of Viscosity is :

(1) H2O > CH3OH > CH3–O–CH3

(2) H3PO4 > H2SO4 > HNO3

(3)

> > CH3OH

(4) All are correct

22)

In which pair of condition, covalent character is maximum -

(1) Large size of cation + Small size of anion

(2) More polarizing cation + Less polarizable anion
(3) High charge on cation + Low charge on anion
(4) High charge on cation + High charge on anion
23)

Select correct order :

(1) LiF < NaF < KF < RbF (lattice energy)

(2) NaI > NaBr > NaCl > NaF (Ionic character)
(3) K+ < Ca+2 < Cd+2 (polarising power)
(4) S–2 < O–2 < F– (Polarizability)

24)

Which of the compound is least soluble in water

(1) AgF
(2) AgCl
(3) AgBr
(4) AgI

25) Compound insoluble in NaOH :-

(1) K2O
(2) Al2O3
(3) BeO
(4) ZnO

26) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) s-block metal oxides are basic in nature except BeO which is amphoteric.
(2) P-block non-metal oxides are acidic in nature except NO, N2O, CO.
(3) In d-block all elements are metals
(4) In p-block all elements are metals

27) The V-C distances in V(CO)6 and [V(CO)6]– are respectively :-

(1) 200, 200

(2) 193, 200
(3) 200, 193
(4) 193, 193

28) The correct formula of diammine dichlorodicyano chromate(III) is :-

3+
(1) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
3–
(2) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
(3) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
–
(4) [CrCl2(CN)2(NH3)2]
29)

Which of the following is amphoteric oxide?

Mn2O7, CrO3, Cr2O3, CrO, V2O5, V2O4 :-

(1) V2O5, Cr2O3
(2) Mn2O7, CrO3
(3) CrO, V2O5
(4) V2O5, Mn2O7

30) Which of the following graphs shows correct trends in the size of +3 ions of lanthanides ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) IP and EA of O and S are 1.47, 10.3, 13.6 and 2.07 (eV) all in random order then :-

(1) IP of O is 10.3 eV
(2) EA of O is 13.6 eV
(3) EA of S is 2.07 eV
(4) IP of S is 2.07 eV

32) Which one of the following order of given properties is correct ?

(1) Atomic radius - Li < Be < B

(2) Ionisation potential - Li < Be < B
(3) Electron affinity - Li < Be < B
(4) Electronegativity - Li < Be < B
33) Which of the following property decreases on moving down a group ?

(1) Acidic nature of H-X (X-halogen)

(2) Basic nature of M2O3 (M-IIIA element)
(3) Acidic nature of H–O–X (X-Halogen)
(4) Basic nature of MH (M-IA metal)

34) The incorrect statement among the following is:-

(1) Helium has the highest first I.P. in the periodic table
(2) The process O–(g)+e– → O2–(g) is endothermic
(3) The electron affinities of S and P are less than that O and N respectively.
(4) In any period, the first ionisation potential of noble gas is the highest.

35) Which of following is correct ?

(1) Number of e– s in penultimate shell of d-block element are 1-10

(2) 5th period contains 10 elements which has one or more than one 5d e–
(3) Except Pd, maximum e– in outermost shell are 8
(4) total no. of groups in p-block are 6 because p-subshell can accomodate max. 6 e–s

36) Which is correct for F & Cl :-

(1) IPF + IPCl > EAF + EACl

(2) IPF – IPCl > EACl – EAF
(3) IPF + ENF > IPCl + ENCl
(4) All

37) In which one the following complex hybridisation of C.M.I. is d2sp3 & complex is paramagnetic :

(1) [Cr(CO)6]
(2) [V(CO)6]
(3) [Mo(CO)6]
(4) [W(CO)6]

38) In Na2[Fe(CN)5NO], sodium nitroprusside :-

(1) Oxidation state of Fe is +2

(2) It has NO+ as ligand
(3) Both are correct
(4) None is correct

39)

Which is incorrect for primary valency & secondary valency, as mentioned infront of the compound ?
(S = Secondary Valency, P = Primary Valency)
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3, P = 3, S = 6
(2) K2[PtCl4], P = 2, S = 4
(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2], P = 2, S = 4
(4) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4, P = 4, S = 4

40) Which of the following complex is not a chelate complex ?

(1) bis(dimethylglyoximato)nickel(II)
potassium
(2)
ethylenediaminetetrathiocyanatochromate (III)
(3) tetramminediazidocobalt(III) nitrate
(4) trans-diglycinatoplatinum(II)

41) When 1 mole of the following complex is treated with excess of aqueous AgNO3 solution , 3
moles of AgCl was precipitated out.
The correct formula of the complex is

(1) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(2) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(3) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(4) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]

42) In IUPAC name for the complex [Co(NO2) (NH3)5] Cl2 is :

(1) Pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (II) chloride

(2) Pentaammine nitrito-N-cobalt (III) chloride
(3) Nitrito-N-pentaammine cobalt (III) chloride
(4) Nitrito-N-pentaammine cobalt (II) chloride

43) Which of the following gives test of Ferrous ion ?

(1) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2
(2) Fe4[FeCN)6]3
(3) Mohr salt
(4) Both (1) and (3)

44) Select the incorrect Match –

(1) [FeF6]3– – sp3d2, μM= , outer orbital complex

(2) [Ni(dmg)2] – 2-chelating, μM= 0.0, inner orbital complex
⊕
(3) [Ag(NH3)2] – Linear complex, Diamagnetic
(4) [Fe(H2O)NO]SO4 – outer orbital complex μM = BM

45) Select the incorrect Match –

 3
(1) [Ni(CO)4] – sp , Diamagnetic
2– 3
(2) [NiCl4] – sp , Paramagnetic
+2 2
(3) [Cu(NH3)4] – dsp , Diamagnetic
2– 2
(4) [PtCl4] – dsp , Diamagnetic

BIOLOGY

1) Which chamber of the human heart pumps oxygenated blood to the whole body?

(1) Right Atrium

(2) Right Ventricle
(3) Left Atrium
(4) Left Ventricle

2) Statements:
A. Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood.
B. Pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood.
Choose the correct option:

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Both are wrong

3) Assertion (A): RBCs do not have nucleus in humans.

Reason (R): This helps in carrying more hemoglobin.

(1) A and R both true, R correct explanation

(2) A and R both true, R not correct explanation
(3) A true, R false
(4) A false, R true

4) Match the following:

Column I (Part) Column II (Function)

A SA node i Pacemaker of heart

B AV node ii Delay impulse conduction

C Coronary artery iii Supplies blood to heart muscle

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii

5) Correct sequence of blood flow in double circulation is:

(1) Body → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Lungs → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Body
(2) Lungs → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Body → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Lungs
(3) Body → Left atrium → Left ventricle → Lungs → Right atrium → Right ventricle → Body
(4) Body → Right ventricle → Right atrium → Lungs → Left ventricle → Left atrium → Body

6) In ECG, the QRS complex represents:

(1) Atrial depolarization

(2) Ventricular depolarization
(3) Ventricular repolarization
(4) Atrial repolarization

7) Which structure is the primary site of gaseous exchange in humans?

(1) Trachea
(2) Bronchi
(3) Alveoli
(4) Bronchioles

8) Normal inspiration in humans is carried out by the contraction of:

(1) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles

(2) Diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
(3) Abdominal muscles and diaphragm
(4) Only diaphragm

9) Which of the following has the highest affinity for hemoglobin?

(1) Oxygen
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Carbon monoxide
(4) Nitric oxide

10) In humans, the respiratory pigment hemoglobin is present in:

(1) Plasma
(2) RBCs
(3) WBCs
(4) Platelets

11) Which part of the brain controls the rhythm of respiration?

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Cerebellum
(4) Hypothalamus
12) Which of the following prevents collapse of the trachea?

(1) Smooth muscles

(2) Cartilaginous rings
(3) Elastic fibers
(4) Mucous lining

13) What is the normal tidal volume of air in a healthy adult human?

(1) 100 ml
(2) 500 ml
(3) 1500 ml
(4) 5000 ml

14) During transportation of carbon dioxide in blood, the maximum amount is carried as:

(1) Dissolved in plasma

(2) As carbaminohemoglobin
(3) As bicarbonate ions
(4) As carbonic acid

15) Which law explains the diffusion of gases across the respiratory membrane occurs through how
many layers ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Five

16) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of emphysema?

(1) Destruction of alveolar walls

(2) Thickening of tracheal wall
(3) Excess production of surfactant
(4) Increased number of RBCs

17) Which muscles are primarily responsible for forced expiration?

(1) Diaphragm and external intercostals

(2) Internal intercostals and abdominal muscles
(3) External intercostals and abdominal muscles
(4) Diaphragm only

18) A patient's blood pressure is recorded as 150/95 mm Hg. What condition does this indicate?

(1) Normal blood pressure

(2) Hypertension
(3) Hypotension
(4) Shock

19) In an ECG, the P wave is observed to be absent. Which cardiac event is not taking place?

(1) Ventricular depolarization

(2) Atrial depolarization
(3) Ventricular repolarization
(4) Atrial repolarization

20) A student observed that the blood group of a person agglutinated with Anti-B serum but not with
Anti-B serum. What is the blood group?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) AB
(4) O

21) During a practical, a teacher shows a slide of blood smear with abnormally low platelet count.
Which condition is most likely to occur?

(1) Faster clotting of blood

(2) Delayed clotting of blood
(3) Increased immunity
(4) Increased oxygen transport

22) Assertion (A): The diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon dioxide is about 20 times greater
than that for oxygen.
Reason (R): Carbon dioxide is more soluble in plasma and tissues compared to oxygen.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, R is false.
(4) A is false, R is true.

23) Which of the following compounds has a phosphate group and a ribose sugar in its structure?

(1) Adenine
(2) Guanosine
(3) Deoxy Cytidylic acid
(4) Uridylic acid

24) Number of N glycosidic bonds in a linear polynucleotide chain having 100 sugar molecules will
be:

(1) 99
(2) 100
(3) 199
(4) 200

25) A nucleic acid has 50 adenine molecules, 50 thymine molecules, 40 guanosine molecules and 60
cytosine molecules. This nucleic acid must be a :

(1) ssDNA
(2) ssRNA
(3) dsDNA
(4) dsRNA

26) Which of the following is a difference between nucleosides and nucleotides?

(1) Presence of sugar in nucleotides; but not in nucleosides

(2) Presence of phosphate group in nucleotides; but not in nucleosides
(3) Presence of sugar in nucleosides; but not in nucleotides
(4) Presence of phosphate group in nucleosides; but not in nucleotides

27) If the sequence of nucleotides in one strand of a dsDNA is ‘ATGCGTA’, then the total number of
hydrogen bonds present in this DNA will be :

(1) 14
(2) 17
(3) 18
(4) 21

28) How many sugar molecules are present in DNA of bacteriophage lambda?

(1) 24251
(2) 48502
(3) 97004
(4) 194008

29) Given below are two statements.

Statement 1: The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged nucleosome to
form a structure called histone octamer.
Statement 2: A typical nucleosome contains 10 base pairs of DNA helix.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 2 is correct.

30) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Two strands of the helix of dsDNA has approximately uniform distance.
Reason (R): Always a purine of one strand comes opposite to a pyrimidine of another strand.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.

31) Which of the following is a correct statement?

A nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1' C pentose sugar through a phosphoester linkage to
(1)
form a nucleoside.
When a phosphate group is linked to OH of 5' C of a nucleoside through a N-glycosidic linkage,
(2)
a corresponding nucleotide is formed.
(3) Two nucleotides are linked through peptide linkage to form a dinucleotide.
In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional –OH group present at 2'-position in the
(4)
ribose.

32) How many carbon atoms are present in sugar component of adenylic acid ?

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

33) Given below are two statements.

Statement 1: The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as ‘beads-on-string’ structure when viewed
under electron microscope (EM).
Statement 2: Heterochromatin is said to be transcriptionally active chromatin, whereas
euchromatin is inactive.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Statement 1 is incorrect, but statement 2 is correct.

34) Match the column I and II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Global animal diversity (%) (i) 1200

(b) Global plant diversity (%) (ii) 8.1

(c) Species diversity in India (%) (iii) 22

 (d) Bird species in India (iv) 70
(1) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-i, (d)-ii
(2) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-i
(3) (a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-ii, (d)-i
(4) (a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-i, (d)-iv

35) Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for products of economic importance is
called:-

(1) Biodiversity
(2) Bioprospecting
(3) Biopiracy
(4) Bioremediation

36) Which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Constant environment promote niche specialisation and lead to a greater species diversity
Rich biodiversity is not only essential for ecosystem health but imperative for the very survival
(2)
of the human race on this planet
(3) Species inventories are more complete in tropical than in temperate regions.
The number of fungi species in the world is more than the combined total of the species of
(4)
fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals.

37) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

i Biodiversity Hot spot Accelerated habitat loss High Biodiversity regions

Last refuges for a large number of rare &

ii Sacred groves Meghalaya
threatened species

Plants are taken out from

iii Botanical garden Ex-situ conservation
natural habitat for protection

(1) only (i)

(2) only (ii)
(3) (i) & (ii)
(4) (i), (ii) & (iii)

38) Which of the following is an in-situ conservation method ?

(1) National park

(2) Tissue culture
(3) Zoological park
(4) Botanical garden

39) Which one of the following is not included under in situ conservation ?
(1) National park
(2) Wild life sanctuary
(3) Cryopreservation
(4) Biosphere reserve

40) Which of the following is the reason for loss of passenger pigeon.

(1) Habitate loss

(2) Over exploitation
(3) Alien species invasion
(4) All of the above

41) Among the options given below the species found majority in nature are _________

(1) Reptiles
(2) Fishes
(3) Fungi
(4) Mammals

42) The following graph represent species-area relation of different area A, B & C which area shows

greatest species richness.

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) Only C
(4) Only A

43) Choose the correct match for the following :-

Column-I Column-II

a. Jhoom cultivation i. 8.1% of the world

b. Sacred grove ii. In-situ conservation

c. Land area of India iii. 2.4% of the world

d. Biodiversity of India iv. Deforestation

(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

44) How many species from world and India respectively facing the threat of extinction :-
(1) 45,000 and 1200
(2) 2,000 and 784
(3) 15,500 and 650
(4) 784 and 27

45) Which one of the following is correct regarding decomposition ?

I II

(1) Formation of dark coloured amorphous substance (i) Fragmentation

(2) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon (ii) Humification

(3) release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activities (iii) Minerlisation

(4) Break down detritus into smaller particles (iv) Leaching

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) Earth is an :

(1) Open system for energy and open system for minerals
(2) Closed system for minerals and open system for energy
(3) Closed system for energy and open system for minerals
(4) Closed system for energy and closed system for minerals

47) What is true for following food web ?

(1) B, C, D, E are primary producers

(2) E, F, G, H are carnivores
(3) K is herbivore
(4) I and J are secondary consumers

48) "They need a constant supply of energy to synthesise the molecules they require, to counteract
the universal tendency towards increasing disorderliness". Above lines indicates:-

(1) First law of Thermodynamics in food chain.

(2) Second law of Thermodynamics in food chain
(3) Surface volume ratio
(4) Internal homeostasis of organism
49) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is :-

(1) 190 billion tons

(2) 160 billion tons
(3) 170 billion tons
(4) 150 billion tons

50) Just as a person moving from delhi to shimla to escape the heat for the duration of hot summer,
thousands of migratory birds from siberia and other extremely cold northern regions move to :-

(1) Western ghats

(2) Meghalaya
(3) Corbett national park
(4) Keoladeo national park

51) What is common among Porphyra, Agaricus, Chlorella and Spriulina ?

(1) They all are placed under same Kingdom according to Five Kingdom classification.
(2) They all have nuclear membrane
(3) They all may be used as food or food supplement.
(4) They all are autotrophic

52)

Identify the A, B, C and D

A - Equisetum, B - Paramoecium,
(1)
C - Funaria, D - Sphagnum
A - Euglena, B - Agaricus,
(2)
C - Ginkgo, D - Nostoc
A - Agaricus, B - Ginkgo,
(3)
C - Euglena, D - Equisetum
A - Nostoc, B - Euglena,
(4)
C - Agaricus, D - Ginkgo

53) Choose the correct option of members of Rhodophyceae :-

(1) Ectocarpus, Porphyra, Fucus
(2) Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gelidium
(3) Dictyota, Chara, Gelidium
(4) Gelidium, Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia

54)

Read the statement (A-D) and answer the question asked next to them :-
(A) Lichens play an importent role in biological weathering.
(B) Gametophyte is not free in existance in plants like Capsella and Gnetum.
(C) Polysiphonia exhibit diplohaplontic life cycle.
(D) Funaria has more elaborated mechanism of seed dispersal than Marchantia.

The correct statements are :-

(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A and B
(4) A and D

55) In Pinus, the pollen grain has 6 chromosomes then in its endosperm will have

(1) 12
(2) 18
(3) 6
(4) 24

56) Match the incorrect option from Column-I and Column-II

Column-I Column-II

Chlamy-
(1) (a) (i)
domonas

(2) (b) (ii) Volvox

 (3) (c) (iii) Chara

Poly-
(4) (d) (iv)
siphonia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

57) Mannitol is the stored food material in :-

(1) Gracilaria
(2) Chara
(3) Porphyra
(4) Fucus

58) Which of the following is incorrectly paired ?

(1) Rhodophyceae - Polysiphonia and Gelidium

(2) Phaeophyceae - Fucus and Dictyota
(3) Basidiomycetes - Neurospora and Alternaria
(4) Phycomycetes - Rhizopus and Mucor

59) Find the correct statements from the followings

(A)Each rank or taxon, in fact represents a unit of classification
(B) Every step in taxonomic hierarchy represents a rank or category
(C) A taxonomic category is a part of overall taxonomic hierarchy
(D) Taxonomic categories are not distinct biological entities, they are only morphological aggregates

(1) A, B & D are correct

(2) A, C & D are correct
(3) A, B & C are correct
(4) Only A and B are correct

60) Read the following term carefully.

Cilia, Flagella, Zygote, Photosynthesis, Pellicle, Peptidoglycan wall, Nitrogen fixation ability,
Multicellular, heterocyst, decomposer.
How many terms from these are not related with kingdom protista:-

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 6

61) Identify the following figures and choose the option which gives correct description about them
:-

(1) B – Chara → Sexual organs are multicellular and jacketed.

(2) A – Cycas → Male and female cones are borne on same tree
(3) D – TMV → Genetic material is ds DNA.
(4) C – Euglena → Shows mixotrophic nutrition.

62) Identify the following diagram (A, B, C) and select the correct option:-

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Laminaria Funaria Salvinia

(2) Dictyota Sphagnum Salvinia

(3) Fucus Chara Salvinia

(4) Polysiphonia Sphagnum Salvinia

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
63) Identify the structure marked A, B and C for Marchantia :-

(1) A = Antheridiophore, B = Gemma cup, C = Rhizoids

(2) A = Rhizoids, B = Gemma cup, C = Archegoniophore
(3) A = Antheridophore, B = Rhizoids, C = Gemma cup
(4) A = Archegoniophore, B = Gemma cup, C = Rhizoids

64) Evolutionary relationship of three major group of organisms is shown in the diagram where A,
B, C, D, E are liverworts, moss, fern, cycadales and gnetales respectively. In this diagram Funaria,

Adiantum, Cycas and Ephedra will be placed respectively:-

(1) B, C, D, E
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) A, C, D, E
(4) C, D, B, A

65) Which of the following pair is an example of heterosporous pteridophyte ?

(1) Psilotum and Adiantum

(2) Salvinia and Selaginella
(3) Lycopodium and Dryopteris
(4) Nephrolepis and Adiantum

66) Most distinct type of alternation of generation in plant kingdom occurs in :-

(1) Mosses
(2) Ferns
(3) Cycas
(4) Grass
67) Which of the following plant kingdom is called ‘amphibians’?

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Thallophyta
(3) Tracheophyta
(4) Bryophyta

68) How many plants in the list given below are the members of non vascular embryophytes :-
Spirogyra, Volvox, Fucus, Polysiphonia, Riccia, Sphagnum, Marchantia, Selaginella, Equisetum.

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

69) Flagellated gametes are found in :-

(1) Sphagnum, Porphyra, Ulothrix

(2) Fucus, Pinus, Cycas
(3) Dryopteris, Marchantia, Pinus
(4) Funaria, Pteris, Ulothrix

70) Select the incorrect statement

(1) Madcow disease is the most notable neurological disease, caused by prions.
(2) In lichen, algal and fungal components are heterotrophic and autotrophic respectively.
(3) In isogamy, non flagellated gametes are founds in Spirogyra.
(4) Numerical taxonomy becomes more significant when there is no fossil evidence.

71) Select the incorrect pair -

(1) Viroid - naked RNA

(2) Salvinia - water fen
(3) Glomus - Lichen
(4) Selaginella - Heterospory

72) Choose the incorrect statement from followings

(1) The sporophyte of liverwort is more elaborate than that in moss

(2) In Selaginella female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophytes for variabe period.
(3) In pteridophytes sporophyte is independent
(4) In gymnosperm, gametophyte do not have an independent free-living existence

73) Read the following statements (a – e) and answer the question which follows them.
(a) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free living
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are heterosporous
(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Allbugo is oogamous
(d) The sporophyte in liverworts is more elaborate than that in mosses
(e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are dioecious
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

74) In majority of angiosperm female gametophyte is :-

(1) 7 celled 7 nucleated structure

(2) 7 celled 8 nucleated structure
(3) 7 celled 6 nucleated structure
(4) 4 celled 4 nucleated structure

75)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only.
(a) Pollen grains are spherical and measure 25-50 micrometer in diameter.
(b) At germpore sporopollenin is absent.
(c) Pollen grain consumption increase performance of athletes and race horses.
(d) Pollen grain are shed at 3-celled stage in more than 60% angiospermic plants.

Option :-
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

76) Multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in:

(1) Rose
(2) Lotus
(3) Papaver
(4) Michelia

77) A diagrammatic view of a typical anatropous ovule is shown in the following [Link]

labelled structures [A], [B] and [C] of given figure :-

 [A] Micropyle
(1) [B] Filiform apparatus
[C] Nucellus
[A] Micropyle
(2) [B] Embryo
[C] Nucellus
[A] Stigma
(3) [B] Embryo
[C] Nucellus
[A] Micropyle
(4) [B] Nucellus
[C] Embryo-sac

78) The pollen viability in some cereals like wheat and rice is with in :-

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 30 seconds
(3) 30 Hours
(4) 30 Days

79) Read the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) The sporogenous tissue occupies the centre mass of each microsporangium.
(B) Proximal end of filament attaches to thalamus.
(C) Endothecium is present in between middle layer and tapetum.
(D) The anther is four sides (tetragonal) structure consisting of four microsporangia at the corner.
How many of them are incorrect?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

80) In fully developed male gametophyte the number of nuclei is :-

(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

81) What are A, B, C and D in this figure :

(1) A-thalamus, B-style, C-ovary, D-stigma
(2) A-style, B-stigma, C-ovary, D-thalamus
(3) A-stigma, B-style, C-ovary, D-thalamus
(4) A-ovary, B-stigma, C-thalamus, D-style

82) Which one of the following plant is monocious?

(1) Papaya
(2) Marchantia
(3) Pinus
(4) Cycas

83) If leaftip cells possess 28 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes in middle layer, generative
cell and male gametes will be:

(1) 14, 28, 14

(2) 28, 14, 14
(3) 14, 14, 28
(4) 28, 28, 14

84) In the diagram given, parts labelled as a,b,c,d,e and f are respectively identified as :-

(1) Synergids, polar nuclei, central cell, antipodals, filiform apparatus and egg
(2) Polar nuclei, egg, antipodals, central cell, filiform apparatus and synergids
(3) Filiform apparatus, polar nuclei, egg, antipodals synergids and central cell
(4) Central cell, polar nuclei, filiform apparatus, antipodals, synergids and eggs

85)

Given below is the diagramatic sketch of a transverse section of young anther, Identify the parts
labelled A, B, C and D :-

A B C D
 1 Epidermis middle layer Endothecium Tapetum

2 Epidermis Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum

3 Epiblema Tapetum Middle layer Endothecium

4 Epidermis middle layer Endothecium Tapetum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) In the given diagram identify labelled structures [A] and [B] :-

(1) [A] Epidermis, [B] Microspore tetrad

(2) [A] Epidermis, [B] Megaspore tetrad
(3) [A] Nucellus, [B] Megaspore tetrad
(4) [A] Nucellus, [B] Microspore tetrad

87) Few events of male gametophyte development in angiosperm are shown in figure given below.
Arrange the diagram in progressive order of their occurence and select the correct order from
options given below:

(i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(v)

(1) i, ii, iii, iv, v

(2) i, v, iv, iii, ii
(3) i, ii, iv, iii, v
(4) i, v, ii, iv, iii

88) Given below a diagram of mature embryosac. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select
correct option about them.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Central
(1) Synergids Egg Antipodals
cell
Central
(2) Egg Synergids Antipodals
cell
Central
(3) Antipodals Synergids Egg
cell
(4) Central cell Egg Synergids Antipodal
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) The following figure shows the :

(1) Multicarpellary syncarpus gynoecium of papaver

(2) Multicarpellary syncarpus gynoecium of china rose
(3) Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium of Michelia
(4) Multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium of papaver

90) What is the ploidy of the microspore tetrad ?

(1) (n)
(2) (2n)
(3) (3n)
(4) (6n)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 1 4 4 2 3 3 3 3 1 4 1 2 2 2 1 2 4 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 3 1 4 3 3 3 2 4 4 2 4 4 4 3 4 1 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 3 1 3 3 2 2 4 3 1 3 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 3 4 1 4 3 4 1 2 3 4 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 4 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 1 1 1 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 4 2 1 2 2 3 2 1 4 2 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 4 3 3 2 4 2 3 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 4 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 4 1 2 2 4 2 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 4 1 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 1 2 3 4 1 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

At equilibrium

tan θ =

r3 ∝ y

2)

3) W = UF – UI

4)

tan θ =
Fe = Electrostatic force.

5) FG = Fe

FG = Gravitational force
Fe = Electrostatic force

6) At position A & E. electric field lines of Q Cut the surface of hemisphere two times thats
why flux is zero.
7)

Fnet =
q0 = 80µC

8) Here, we have to assume that ball is moving very slowly

tanθ =

⇒
⇒ x 3 ∝ q2
differentiating above equation w.r.t. time

3x2 ∝ 2q but is constant

so x2(v) ∝ q

9)

and

10) Let charge on inner sphere be q'

Hence,

11) Value of resistance = (n – 1) Rg

= (10 – 1) × 10 = 90
12)

13) Apply KCl at junction

I1 + I2 + I3 = 0

on solving we get
x = 8 volt

14)

Effective circuit is

R=1+
On solving R = 2Ω

Now i = = 3A

i= = 1.5 A

15) ∵ αseries =
16)

Ratio of resistance of bulbs

Vp → same for both bulbs

so

In series current is same so V ∝ R

V40 R =
which is greater than print voltage so bulb of 40 W will get fused

17)

18) R ∝ ℓ2

R1 = 1.21 × 10 = 12.1 Ω

19) R = = =

20)

R∝
R 1 : R2 : R 3

: :
125 : 15 : 1
21) ⇒ ⇒

⇒ RAB =

22)

23)

24) VC + 5 + 12 – 12 – 3 – 8 = VB
VC – VB = 6V

25)

ig (G + S) = i S
1 × 10–3 (999 + S) = 2 × S
999 + S = 2000 S

S=

26)

V = ε – ir = ε – =ε–

V=

27) P = ; (Req)1 = 1Ω ;

(Req)2 = Ω = 0.5 Ω
(Req)3 = 1.5Ω
⇒ ⇒ P2 > P1 > P3 (∵ V = 3 volt)

28) R = 0 ⇒ Imax

29) 2mg – T = 2ma

T – mg = ma

a=

30) Mass of the rope = 10 × 0.5 = 5 kg

Mass of the rope upto 8m = 8 × 0.5 = 4 kg

Force acting on it = 4 × 5 = 20 N
Remaining force = 25 – 20 = 5 N

31) ⇒ ⇒ α = 180 kg/s

32) FNet = 100√2N

33)
For m2 : Fs = m2g
For m1 : Fs = m1g + T
m2g = m1g + T ∴ T = (m2 – m1)g

34)

Area under (F–t) curve = M(vf – vi)

or 50 × 5 + 75 × 5 = 16(vf – 0)
∴ vf = 39 m/s.

35) Three forces acting on the block of mass M, that are

(i) gravitational force = Mg
(ii) Normal reaction
(iii) Friction
 36)

Reading of spring balance = Tension in each spring

= 4 kg

37)

since the acceleration is towards right

(Fnet) along horizontal
⇒ Fcos60° – 20 = 5 × 6
⇒ Fcos160° = 30 + 20

⇒
⇒ F = 100N
(Note: the weight and vertical component of force 'F' gets balanced by normal force N)

38) We know

T=

T=

⇒T= mg

39)

Horizontal acceleration of the system is,

a=

Let N be the normal reaction between B and C.

Free body diagram of C gives

Now, B will not slide downward if

or

or

So,

40)
T + N = mg ...(1)
& 2T = N + mg ...(2)
From (1) & (2)
T = 250 N

41)

42) ΔP = 2mv sin 60°

= 2 × 3 × 10 × =

Force = =

43) Given: horizontal force, F = 10 N and coefficient of friction between block and wall (μ) =
0.2.
We know that at equilibrium horizontal force provides the normal reaction to the block against
the wall. Therefore, normal reaction to the block (R) = F = 10 N
We also know that weight of the block
(W) = Frictional force = μR = 0.2 × 10 = 2 N.

44) p = at – bt2

F= = a – 2bt = 0
 45)

Acceleration , a = 1 ms–2

∴Mass,

CHEMISTRY

46)

OH and NH2 are EDG and NO2 is EWG.

47)

LP is involved in aromatic system.

48) Due to cross conjugation

49)

EWG increases acidic strength.

50)
l.p. of N-atom is sp3 hybridized and does not show resonance.

51)

EWG increases acidic strength and EDG decreases acidic strength.

52) Question Explanation :

This question is asking about strongest base is :
Concept :
This question is based on

Solution :
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
∴ Kb = (2) > (1) > (3) > (4)
Final Answer :
Option (2)

53)

Stability of C⊕ ∝
Stability of Co ∝ +M / Resonance / +H.C. / +I
Stability of C– ∝ –M / Resonance / –I

54)

Positive charge is part of aromatic ring.

55)

Phenol is less acidic than sodium bicarbonate

56)

Position isomers.

57)

Hydrocarbons have only C & H.

58)

Resonance + 5αH.
59)

60)

Carboxylic acid is more acidic than Phenol.

61) is least stable due to less number of covalent bond (incomplete octet of O) and
+ve charge on more EN atom.

62) CH2 = CH2 act as nucleophile (it can donate π electrons to electrophile such as H⊕)

63)

64) Due to absence of vacant orbital

65)
⊕ ⊖
KCl + H2O → K + Cl

66)

[Viscosity ∝ No. of H-bond]

No. of –OH ↑es = viscosity ↑es

67)

Covalent character ∝ polarisation

68)
* NaF < NaCl < NaBr < NaI (Ionic)

* (Polarisation primer)
–2 –2 ⊖
* S > O > F ⇒ (Polarizibility)

69)

Solubility ⇒ AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI

→ Size of Anion↑es = solubility↓es

70) Explanation : Compound insoluble in NaOH

Concept : acid dissolve in base
Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
NaOH (basic in nature) it can dissolve acidic/amphoteric oxide.
K2O (basic oxide) it is not dissolve in NaOH
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

71)

In p-block-metal, Non-metal & metalloid's present.

72)

(V – C)B.O = –ve charge > Neutral > +ve charge

(V – C)B.O. = [V(CO)6]– > [V(CO)6]
B.L. = [V(CO)6]– < [V(CO)6]

73)

74)

Amphotoric oxide ⇒ V2O5, Cr2O3, MnO2

75) Asking for: Which of the following graphs shows correct trends in the size of +3 ions of
lanthanides
Concept: Lanthanide contraction, ionic radii, periodic trends.
Formula: N/A, but understanding the concept of lanthanide contraction.
Solution/Explanation:
1. Lanthanides: The lanthanide series consists of elements from lanthanum (La) to lutetium
(Lu).
2. Lanthanide Contraction: As we move across the lanthanide series, the effective nuclear
charge increases due to the poor shielding of 4f electrons. This leads to a gradual decrease in
the ionic radii of the L n^ 3- ions.
3. Trend: The size of L n3+ ions decreases from L a3+ Lu3+
4. Correct Graph: The graph that shows a gradual decrease in ionic size from La3+ to is the
correct representation. Ln3+
Analyzing the Options:
• Option 1: Shows an increase in ionic size, which is incorrect.
• Option 2: Shows a decrease in ionic size, which is correct.
• Option 3: Shows a linear increase in ionic size, which is incorrect,
• Option 4: Shows a V-shaped trend, which is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct graph is the one that shows a gradual decrease in ionic size from La to
Lu
Answer:
Option: 2

76)

(EN)0 > (EN)S

(IP)0 > (IP)S
(EA)0 < (EA)S

77)

A.r ⇒ Li > Be > B

I.P. ⇒ Li < B < Be
EA ⇒ Be < B < Li
EN ⇒ Li < Be < B

78)

HF < HCl < HBr < HI – Acidic Nature

IIIA :
HOF > HOCl > HOBr > HOI (Acidic)
LiH < NaH < KH < RbH < CSH (Basic)

79)

(1) Highest I.P. in P.T. = He

(2) ΔH = ΔHeg1 + ΔHegz

(3) EA : S > O > P > N

80) (1) d-block : (n – 1)d1–10

⇒ (n – 1)s2p6d1–10 (9 – 18)
(2) In 5th period, 5d e– abscent
0
(3) Pd = [Kr]4d105s
 ⇒

81)
(EN)F > (EN)Cl
(IP)F + (EA)F > (IP)Cl + (EA)Cl

82)

(1) Cr(CO)6 = 3d54s1

= d2sp3, Dia. magnetic
(2) V(CO)6 = 3d34s2
= d2sp3, Para.
(3) Mo(CO)6 = d2sp3, Para.
(4) W(CO)6 = d2sp3, Dia.

83) Question Explanation:

The question asks about the iron oxidation state and NO ligand form in sodium nitroprusside
(Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]), both of which are correct.
Concept: (Oxidation State & Ligand in Na2[Fe(CN)5NO])
Answer Explanation:
In Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] the complex ion is [Fe(CN)5NO]2–.
The NO ligand exists as NO+. The CN– ligands contribute a –5 charge.
Solving for Fe's oxidation state: x – 5 + 1 = –2, yields +2.
Thus, both Fe's +2 oxidation state and NO+ are correct.
Final Answer: Option (3)

84) P = 2 S = 4 for [Cu(NH3)4]SO4

85) Monodentate ligands do not show chelation.

86)

Conductivity ∝ No. of ions

[Co(NH3)6]Cl3 = 4 ions
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 = 3 ions
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl = 2 ion
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] = 0 ions.

87)

Pentamine nitrito-N cobalt(III) chloride

 88)

Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 → Fe+2 + [Fe(CN)6]–3

Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 → Fe+3 + [Fe(CN)6]4–
FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O ⇒ Fe+2

89)

(1) [FeF6]3– – sp3d2, μM = 5.83 BM

(2) [Ni(dmg)2] – Four chlatiering μM = 0.0
(3) [Ag(NH3)2]⊕ – sp, Linear
(4) [Fe(H2O)(NO)]SO4 – sp3d2, μM = 3.83 BM

90)

Ni(CO)4 = sp3, n = 0
[NiCl4]2– ⇒ sp3, n = 2
[Cu(NH3)4]+2 ⇒ dsp2, n = 1
[PtCl4]2– = dsp2, n = 1

BIOLOGY

91) The thickest and strongest chamber of the heart pumps blood into the aorta.

92) Artery from the heart to lungs carries CO2-rich blood, vein from lungs to heart carries O2-
rich blood.

93) Lack of nucleus in human RBCs increases the space for hemoglobin molecules.

94) SA node initiates impulse, AV node delays it, coronary artery supplies the myocardium.

95) Double circulation always includes heart → lungs → heart → body.

96) QRS wave corresponds to ventricular contraction.

97) Gas exchange occurs across thin membranes surrounded by capillaries.

98) The dome-shaped muscle flattens and ribs move upward and outward during inspiration.

99) This gas binds irreversibly to hemoglobin, blocking oxygen transport.

100) The biconcave cells transport oxygen by carrying hemoglobin.

101) The respiratory center is located in the hindbrain region that also controls heartbeat.

102) C-shaped supportive structures keep the trachea open.

103) It is the volume of air exchanged during normal quiet breathing.

104) Enzyme carbonic anhydrase in RBCs converts CO2 to this major form.

105) Alveolar epithelium, basement membrane & endothelium.

106) In this disorder, alveolar surface area for gas exchange is drastically reduced.

107) These muscles contract to reduce thoracic volume during active breathing out.

108) Normal BP is about 120/80 mm Hg; higher values indicate raised arterial pressure.

109) The P wave represents excitation of atria.

110) Agglutination with Anti-A means antigen A is present.

111) Platelets release factors required for blood coagulation.

112)

Rapid solubility of CO2 help in faster diffusion across respiratory membrane.

113) NCERT (XI) ; Page: 106

114) In a polynucleotide chain, number of N glycosidic bonds equals to number of

nucleotides. Further, each nucleotide has one sugar molecule.

115) In a dsDNA, number of adenine molecules always equals to number of thymine molecules
and number of guanosine molecules always equals to number of cytosine molecules

116) A nucleotide equals to a nucleoside plus a phosphate group.

117) NCERT(XII); Page: 81

118) NCERT(XII); Page: 80
There is present a sugar molecule with each nitrogenous base in a polynucleotide chain.

119) NCERT(XII); Page: 83

120) NCERT(XII); Page: 81

121) NCERT(XII); Page: 80 and 81

122) NCERT(XI); Page: 107

123) NCERT(XII); Page: 83 and 84

124)

Explain Question :
Asked to correctly match global and Indian biodiversity statistics from Column-I with the
corresponding values in Column-II.

Concept : Biodiversity-genetic, ecological and species diversity, number of species

Explanation :
(a) Global animal diversity → 70%
(b) Global plant diversity → 22 %
(c) Species diversity in India → 8.1% of global species
(d) Bird species in India → Around 1200

Final answer: 3

125)

Question Explanation:

Identifying a term for exploring diversity.

Concept:

Bioprospecting.

Solution:

Bioprospecting is the exploration of biodiversity for new genetic resources and chemical
compounds of economic importance, such as medicines, enzymes, and other commercially
valuable products. This process involves searching for and studying plants, animals, and
microorganisms to discover useful biological materials.

Final Answer:
 Bioprospecting

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 219
Question Explanation :
Identify the incorrect statement from the given options related to biodiversity.

Concept :
Biodiversity and conservation.

Solution:
Statement 3 is incorrect : Species inventories are more complete in temperature regions, not
tropical, due to better exploration and documentation.

Final Answer :
Option (3)

127) NCERT-XII, Pg # 224

Question Explanation :
The task is to identify which matches are correct.

Concept :
Hotspots of biodiversity
Sacred groves as in-situ conservation sites
Botanical gardens as ex-situ conservation methods

Solution :
Evaluate each row:

A. (i) Biodiversity Hotspot

Correct : These are regions with high biodiversity and accelerated habitat loss.

A. (ii) Sacred groves

Correct : These are ecologically unique areas often protected by local traditions; serve as last
refuges for many rare and threatened species.
Example : Found in Meghalaya, Kerala etc.

A. (iii) Botanical garden

Correct : A method of ex-situ conservation, where plants are removed from their natural habitats
and grown under protection.

Final Answer: Option (4)

128)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 225

129)

Explaining the Question :- The question is asking which one of the following is not included
under in-situ conservation. In-situ conservation refers to the conservation of species in
their natural habitats, where they naturally occur.
Solution :-
3. Cryopreservation
Cryopreservation: This is not an in-situ method. It is a form of ex-situ conservation, where
biological material (e.g., sperm, seeds) is preserved outside of its natural habitat by freezing.
Final Answer :- (3)

130) NCERT XIIth Pg. # 265

131) NCERT XIIth Pg. # 260

132) Option 4 : Only A is the correct answer, it means that area A has the highest species
richness.
Explanation :-
Species-Area relationship (by alexander von Humboldt):
Greater the area, more species due to increased habitat diversity.
The curve that is highest on the graph represents the area with maximum species richness
If Area A is positioned at the highest point in the graph, it has the greatest species richness
compared to B and C.
Final answer :-
Option 4 only A

133) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 261, 267, 284

134) NCERT Pg. # 264

135) Question Explanation : Which of the following is correctly matched regarding

decomposition.
Concept : Decomposition.
Solution :
• Decomposition : The breakdown of organic matter into simpler forms.
• Fragmentation : Physical breaking down of detritus into smaller particles.
• Humification : Formation of dark colored amorphous substances like humus.
• Leaching : Movement of soluble substances like nutrients down through soil layers.
• Minerlisation : Release of inorganic nutrients from organic matter by microbes.
Final Answer : Option (3)

136) Question Explanation : What is the correct statement about Earth in ecological terms.
Concept : Open and closed system (Ecology)
Solution : Open and closed system : Open system exchange both matter and energy with their
surroundings ; closed systems exchange energy but not matter ; isolated system exchange
neither.
Final Answer : Option (2)

137) Question Explanation : Give the correct statement for the given food wed.

Concept : Food Web.

Solution : The correct statements is : 4. I and J are secondary consumers.
Final Answer : Option (4)

138) Question Explanation : "They need a constant supply of energy to synthesis the
molecules they require, to counteracts the universal tendency towards increasing
disorderliness". What is indicated by the above line.
Concept : Functions of Ecosystem.
Solution : The line indicates : Second Law of Thermodynamics in the food chain.
Final Answer : Option (2)

139)

NCERT page no. 207

140)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 225

141)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 18

142)

NCERT XI, Pg.# 13 ,15, 17, 33

143)

Explain Question : The question asks to identify the group of algae that belongs to the class
Rhodophyceae, commonly known as red algae
Concept : This question is based on Rhodophyceae - red algae
Explanation : “Members of Rhodophyceae (red algae) include Polysiphonia, Porphyra, and
Gelidium.”
Final answer : 2
144)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 21

145)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 33

146)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 25

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 27

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 18

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 6

150)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 15

151)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 31

152) NCERT-XI, Pg # 33
Certainly, let's analyze the diagram and identify the correct option.
Analysis of the Diagram:
• Diagram A: This appears to be a brown alga with a branched, feathery structure. This is
characteristic of Polysiphonia.
• Diagram 8: This shows a plant with a leafy, moss-like appearance. This is consistent with
Sphagnum.
• Diagram C: This depicts a plant with a floating stem and submerged, feathery leaves. This is
characteristic of Salvinia. Matching with the Options: Looking at the options provided, only
option (4) correctly matches the identified plants:
• (A): Polysiphonia
• (B): Sphagnum
• (C): Salvinia
Therefore, the correct answer is (4).
153)

NCERT XI Pg. # 28

154)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 30

155)

Explanation:

Among pteridophytes, only a few genera exhibit heterospory(Microspores and Megaspores ),

including-Salvinia (a water fern) and Selaginella (a club moss).

156)

NCERT Pg. No. 42, 43

157)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 29

158)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 29

159)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 30

160)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 21

161)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 21

162) NCERT XI. # 38,39

163) NCERT XI ; Pg. No. 26 to 32

164)
Question Explanation: The typical cell and nucleus composition of a female gametophyte in
angiosperms.

Concept: Embryo Sac Structure

Solution: The majority of angiosperms have the Polygonum type of female gametophyte
(embryo sac), which at maturity is composed of seven cells (one egg, two synergids, one
central cell, three antipodals) and a total of eight nuclei (the central cell has two polar nuclei).

Final Answer: 7 celled 8 nucleated structure

165)

Explain Question : The question presents four statements about pollen grains and asks which
combination includes all the correct statements.

Concept : This question is based on Pollen grain.

Solution : (a) True – Pollen grains are spherical, 25–50 μm in diameter.

(b) True – Sporopollenin is absent at germ pores to allow pollen tube emergence.
(c) True – Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and sometimes consumed for health; claimed to
improve performance in athletes and racehorses.
(d) False – Only ~40% of angiosperms shed pollen at the 3-celled stage; majority shed at 2-
celled stage.

Final Answer : option (2)

166)

Question Explanation: Identifying the plant with a multicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium.

Concept: Gynoecium Types

Solution: A syncarpous gynoecium means multiple carpels are fused together. Papaver
(poppy) is a classic example of a flower with a multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil. In contrast,
Rose, Lotus, and Michelia typically have apocarpous (free) carpels.

Final Answer: Papaver

167)

NCERT XII pg.# 25(E), 26(H)

168) Question Explanation: Pollen viability in cereals.

Concept: Pollen Viability
Solution: Pollen viability is the ability of pollen grains to germinate and fertilize the ovule.
In cereals like wheat and rice, the pollen grains have a very short period of viability, losing
their ability to function after approximately 30 minutes of being released from the anther.
Final Answer: 30 minutes
169) NCERT-XII Pg. # 22

170) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 23

171)

Question Explanation: Identifying the labeled parts A, B, C, and D of the pistil structure.

Concept: Pistil Structure

Solution: The female reproductive organ (pistil) is labeled as:

A → Stigma (receptive tip).
B → Style (slender stalk).
C → Ovary (swollen basal part containing ovules).
D → Thalamus (receptacle, floral axis base).

Final Answer: A-stigma, B-style, C-ovary, D-thalamus

172)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 33

173) Answer:(2.) 28, 14, 14

Solution:
The leaf tip cells are somatic cells and are diploid (2n), so the chromosome number is 28.
The middle layer of the anther is also somatic tissue and will have the same chromosome
number as other diploid cells, i.e., 28 chromosomes.
The generative cell is haploid, derived after meiosis of pollen mother cells, so it will have 14
chromosomes.
The male gametes are formed from the generative cell, and they are also haploid, so they will
have 14 chromosomes.
Thus, the correct sequence is 28, 14, 14

174)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 10

175) Question Explanation: Identifying the labeled anther wall layers from the external to
internal direction.
Concept: Anther Wall Layers
Solution: The layers, from outside to inside, are:
1. A
→ Epidermis.
2. B
→ Endothecium.
3. C
→ Middle layer.
4. D
→ Tapetum.
Final Answer: 2

176) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 26

177) NCERT XIIth Pg.#7, Fig. 1.5

178)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 10, Fig. 1.8

179) NCERT-XII, Pg#9, Fig. 1.7

180) NCERT-XII, Pg # 5