31-08-2025

1803CMD303001250022 MD

PHYSICS

1) A force of magnitude of 30 N acting along , displaces a particle from point (2, 4, 1)m to (3,
5, 2)m. The work done during this displacement is :-

(1) 90 J
(2) 30 J
(3) 30 J
(4) 30/ J

2)

Find work done by gravitational force if block starts slipping down from top most point and reaches

to the lower end:-

(1) 50 N
(2)
(3) –100 N
(4) –200 N

3)

A particle of mass 1 kg is moving along a straight line its velocity time graph is as shown in figure.
Work done by resultant of all forces acting on the particle from t = 0 to t = 8s is :-

(1) 25 J
(2) 50 J
(3) Zero
(4) 12.5 J

4) A body of mass 200 gram is moving in XY plane. Work performed by the force given by
acting on it when the body gets displaced from (0, 0) to (1, 2) will be equal to :-

(1) 3 unit
(2) 6 unit
(3) 5 unit
(4) 1.5 unit

5) A 2 Kg mass lying on a table is displaced in the horizontal direction through 50 cm. The work
done by the normal reaction will be –

(1) 0
(2) 100 joule
(3) 100 erg
(4) 10 joule

6) A ball of mass m moves with speed v and strikes a wall having infinite mass and it returns with
same speed then the work done by the ball on the wall is :

(1) zero
(2) mvJ
(3) (m/v)J
(4) (v/m)J

7) The total work done on a particle is equal to the change in its kinetic energy. This is applicable–

(1) Always
(2) Only if the conservative forces are acting on it
(3) Only in inertial frames
(4) Only when pseudo forces are absent

8) A weight-lifter lifts a weight off the ground and holds it up :-

(1) Work is done in lifting as well as holding the weight

(2) No work is done in both lifting and holding the weight
(3) Work is done in lifting the weight but no work is required to be done in holding it up
(4) No work is done in lifting the weight but work is required to be done in holding it up

9) Which of the following statements is TRUE for a system comprising of two bodies in contact
exerting frictional force on each other :-

(1) total work done by static friction on whole system is always zero
(2) work done by static friction on a body is always zero
(3) work done by kinetic friction on a body is always negative
(4) total work done by internal kinetic friction on whole system is always positive

10)

A position dependent force F acting on a particle and its force-position curve is shown in the figure.
Work done on the particle, when its displacement 0 to 5 m is :-

(1) 35J
(2) 25J
(3) 15J
(4) 5J

11) The displacement-time graph of a particle moving on the x-axis is given below, then :-

(1) The particle is continously going in +x-direction

(2) The particle is at rest
(3) The velocity increases up to a time 't0' and then becomes constant
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time 't0' and then stops.

12) A particle with total energy E moves in one dimension in a region where the potential energy is
U(x). The acceleration of the particle is zero where

(1) U(x) = 0

(2)
=0

(3)
=0
(4) U(x) = E

13) The work done in joules in increasing the extension of a spring of stiffness 10 N/cm from 4 cm to
6 cm is:

(1) 1
(2) 10
(3) 50
(4) 100

14) _______ of a two particle system depends only on the separation between the two particles. The
most appropriate choice for the blank space in the above sentence is

(1) kinetic energy

(2) total mechanical energy
(3) potential energy
(4) total energy

15) The potential energy function of a particle in the x-y plane is given by U = K (x + y) where K is a
constant. The work done by the conservative force in moving a particle from (1,1) to (2,3) is :

(1) –3K
(2) +3K
(3) K
(4) None of these

16) The momentum of a body is p and its kinetic energy is E, Its momentum becomes 2p then its
kinetic energy will be

(1)

(2) 3E
(3) 2E
(4) 4E

17) Two springs have their force constant K1 and K2 (K1 > K2) when they are stretched by same force:

(1) No work is done in case of both the springs

(2) Equal work is done in case of both the springs
(3) More work is done in case of second spring
(4) More work is done in case of first spring

18) If the momentum of a body is increased by 50%, its kinetic energy will increase by :-

(1) 100%
(2) 125%
(3) 150%
(4) 200%

19) A curve between force and displacement is drawn for a particle moving in x-axis :-
(1) At x1 and x3 particle in stable equilibrium
(2) At x1 and x2 particle in unstable equilibrium
(3) At x2 and x4 particle in stable equilibrium
(4) At x2 and x4 particle in unstable equilibrium

20) A block of mass m = 0.1 kg is released from a height of 4m on a curved smooth surface. On the
horizontal smooth surface, it collides with a spring of force constant 800 N/m. The maximum

compression in spring will be (g=10 m/s2) :-

(1) 1 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 20 cm

21) A particle of mass m at rest is acted upon by a force P for a time t. Its kinetic energy after an
interval t is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Two bodies with masses M1 and M2 have equal kinetic energies. If p1 and p2 are their respective
momentum, then p1/p2 is equal to :-

(1) M1 : M2
(2)
(3) M2 : M1
(4)

23) A particle of mass m at rest is acted upon by a force F for a time t, the kinetic energy after an
interval t is :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

24)
Find out acceleration of the system :-

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 6 m/s2

25) A particle moves under the influence of a force F = kx in one dimensions (k is a positive constant
and x is the distance of the particle from the origin). Assume that the potential energy of the particle
at the origin is zero, the schematic diagram of the potential energy U as a function of x is given by .

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The potential energy- position graph of a particle is shown in figure. Then particle :-
(1) is in stable equilibrium at x1
(2) is in stable equilibrium at x2
(3) is in unstable equilibrium at x2
(4) is in stable equilibrium at x3

27) If a force is conservative, then correct statements are :-

(i) work is path independent
(ii) it must be central
(iii) work done round a closed path is zero
(iv) potential energy remains constant

(1) (i,ii)
(2) (ii,iii)
(3) (i,iii)
(4) (i,ii,iv)

28) As shown in the figure, a particle is released from rest from highest point of curved smooth path.
The distance from A of point where particle strikes the horizontal surface passing through A, is (g =

10 m/s2)

(1) 10 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 15 m

29)

Potential energy of a particle of mass 1 kg moving along x-axis is given by joule

where x is in meters. For this force field :-
(i) x = 2cm and x = –2m are positions of equilibrium
(ii) x = 2m is the position of stable equilibrium
(iii) x = –2 m is the position of unstable equilibrium
(iv) Potential energy is minimum at x = 2m
(1) (i, ii)
(2) (ii, iv)
(3) (i, ii, iii)
(4) (i, ii, iii, iv)

30) A body is released from certain height then the ratio of its kinetic energy to that of potential

energy at the height of of the initial height is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The total work done on a particle is equal to the change in its kinetic energy :-

(1) always
(2) only if the forces acting on it are conservative
(3) only if gravitational force alone acts on it
(4) only if elastic force alone acts on it

32) An external agent moves the block m slowly from A to B, along a smooth hill such that every time
he applies the force tangentially. The work done by the agent in this interval will be:-

(1)

(2)

(3) mg (H + L)
(4) mgH

33) If a number of forces act on a body and the body is in static or dynamic equilibrium, then :-

(1) Work done by any individual force must be zero

(2) Net work done by all the forces is +ve
(3) Net work done by all the forces is –ve
(4) Net work done by all the forces is zero

34) A simple pendulum is released from A as shown in figure. If 'm' and 'l' represent the mass of bob
and the length of pendulum respectively, the gain in kinetic energy at B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
mgℓ

(4)

35) The work done by the frictional force on a surface in drawing a circle of radius r on the surface
by a pencil of negligible mass with a normal pressing force N. (Coefficient of friction is m) :-

(1) (4πr2 μN)

(2) –(2πr2 μN)
(3) 2πrμN
(4) –(2πr μN)

36) The work done by a force on a body moving from (1, 4)m to (3, 8) m is 44 J. The force can be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) What is true for potential energy :-

(1) It is the property of the system

(2) It is always +ve
(3) It is always –ve
(4) It is always zero

38) The mechanical energy of a freely falling body is :-

(1) Constant at all instants
(2) Maximum in the beginning
(3) Minimum in the beginning
(4) Maximum in the middle

39)

A body of mass 2kg initially at origin. State its motion along x-axis is such a way that its

displacement related with time as x = calculate in work done in first 2 second :-

(1) 98J
(2) 49 J
(3) 24.5 J
(4) 48 J

40)

For the path PQR in a conservative force field the amounts work done in carrying a body from P to Q
and from Q to R are 5 Joule and 2 Joule respectively. The work done in carrying the body from P to R
will be –

(1) 7J
(2) 3 J
(3)
(4) Zero

41)

Which of the following force is conservative:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A block of mass m is at rest an inclined plane wrt lift. Work done by net reaction force on the
block by the plane in time “t” is

(1)
(2)
(3) mgvt
(4) mg cosθ vt

43)

A chain is lying on a frictionless table such that its one fifth part is hanging at the edge (figure). If
the length of the chain is l and its mass is m, then the work done is pulling up the hanging part very
slowly will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) The potential energy of a body of mass 2.5 kg is given by U = 3x – 4y J, where x, y are the co-
ordinates of the body. The acceleration (m/s2) of the body is :

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

45) The potential energy of a system is represented in the first figure. The force acting on the system
will be represented by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following have one lone pair on the central atom ?
(I) NH3
(II) SF4
(III) XeF4
(IV) XeF6

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, IV
(3) I, IV
(4) I, II,III, IV

2) Which of the following compounds do not exist:-

(1) PH5
–2
(2) SiF6
–2
(3) CF6
(4) Both (1) and (3)
3) In the following electron dot structure, correct calculation of the formal charge from left to right
nitrogen atom is

(1) –1, –1, +1

(2) –1, +1, –1
(3) +1, –1, –1
(4) +1, –1, +1

4) Which of the following pair of compounds are isostructural ?

(1) CO2 and SO2

(2) SiF4 and SF4
XeF2 and
(3)

(4) SF6 and XeF6

5) Which of the following compound does not form pπ – pπ bond.

(1) SO3
–
(2) NO3
–2
(3) SO4
–2
(4) CO3

6)

The hybridisation of N atom in NO3–, NO2+, and NH4+ are respectively.

(1) sp, sp2, sp3

(2) sp2, sp, sp3
(3) sp3, sp, sp2
(4) sp2, sp3, sp

7) Which molecular orbital have same energy :-

(1) π2px = σ2s

(2) π2py = σ2s
(3) π2px = π2py
(4) σ2s = σ*2s

8) Which of the following has been arranged in increasing order of size of the hybrid orbitals ?

(1) sp < sp2 < sp3

(2) sp3 < sp2 < sp
(3) sp2 < sp3 < sp
(4) sp2 < sp < sp3
9) The d-orbitals which are involved in hybridisation of central atom in ICl4– :-

(1) dz , dx –y
2 2 2

(2) dx –y , dxy
2 2

(3) dz , dxy
2

(4) dxy, dxz

10)

Consider the following table :-

Hybrid orbitals lp on central

Shape of molecule
(σ bp + lp) atom

5 a Linear

b 1 See-Saw

6 c Square Planar

d 2 T-Shaped

The value of a + b + c + d is :-
(1) 10
(2) 9
(3) 15
(4) 8

11)

Correct order of C – O bond length in -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

12) Assertion (A): The molecule CO2 (carbon dioxide) has a linear structure, and its dipole moment
is zero.
Reason (R): Even though the bonds in CO2 are polar, the symmetrical arrangement of the two polar
bonds cancels out their dipole moments, resulting in no overall dipole moment.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect, but Reason is correct.

13) Total number of molecules/species from following which will be paramagnetic is ______.
O2, , , NO, NO2, CO

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 1

14) Correct order of bond order is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) The number of nodal planes present in -antibonding orbitals is

(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 2

16) Match the Column :-

Column - I Column - II

(i) London Force (a) SO2 & CO2

(ii) Keesome force (b) CO2 & CO2

(iii) Debye Force (c) H2O & SO2

(iv) ion-dipole forces (d) Cl– & H2O

(1) (i) - (c); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)
(2) (i) - (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)
(3) (i) - (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (d)
(4) (i) - (a); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (d)

17) W.O.F is the correct order of strength of vanderwaal force.

(1) Keesome forces > London forces > Debye forces

(2) Keesome forces > Debye Forces > London forces
(3) Debye forces > Keesome forces > London forces
(4) Debye forces > London forces > Keesome forces
18)
Which type of bond is represent in dotted line

(1) Coordinate bond

(2) Inter molecular H bond
(3) Intra molecular H bond
(4) Metallic bond

19) Hydrogen bond is not present in

(1) H2O
(2)
(3) HF
(4) H2S

20) Out of the two compound A and B shown below, the vapour pressure of B at a particular

temperature is expected to be.

(1) higher than that of A

(2) lower than that of A
(3) same as that of A
(4) can be higher or lower depending upon the size of the vessel tube.

21) The electrovalency of the element is equal to the–

(1) number of electrons lost only

(2) number of electrons gained only
(3) number of electrons shared
number of electrons lost or gained by the atom of the element during the formation of ions of
(4)
ionic compound

22) Among LiCl, BeCl2,BCl3 and CCl4, the covalent bond character follows the order :

(1) LiCl < BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4

(2) LiCl > BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(3) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
(4) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4
23) Select the correct order of hydration energy of ions.

(1) Li+ > Na+ > K+

(2) Li+ > K+ > Na+
(3) Cs+ > Rb+ > K+
(4) Li+ > Cs+ > K+

24) Statement-I : Ionic compounds are hard and brittle in nature.

Statement-II : Ionic bond is directional bond.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

25) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Most ionic compounds have cations from metallic elements and anion from non-
metallic elements.
Statement-II : The ammonium ion (made up off two non-metallic elements) is an exception.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct while II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct

26) MgBr2 and MgI2 are soluble in acetone because of :-

(1) Their ionic nature

(2) Their covalent nature
(3) Their coordinate nature
(4) None is correct

27) On the basis of structure the oxidation state of two Cl atoms in CaOCl2 respectively are :-

(1) –1 and +1
(2) +2 and –2
(3) –2 and +2
(4) –1 and +3

28) Which of the following is true about oxidation state of S in Na2S4O6 ?

(1) All S-atoms are in +2.5 state

(2) All S-atoms are in +2 state
(3) Two S-atoms are in 0 state and other two, in +5 state
(4) Two S-atoms are in –1 state and other two, in +6 state

29) In the reaction, 8Al + 3Fe3O4 —→ 4Al2O3 + 9Fe, the number of electrons transferred from
reductant to oxidant is :

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 7
(4) 24

30) Which of the following can act both as an oxidising as well as reducing agent ?

(1) HNO2
(2) KMnO4
(3) H2S
(4) H2SO4

31) Which of the following is disproportionation reaction :-

2– + 2–
(1) 2CrO4 + 2H → Cr2O7 + H2O
(2) CuSO4 + 4NH3 → [Cu(NH3)4] SO4
– – –
(3) 2NO2 + 2OH → NO2 + NO3 + H2O
(4) Cr2O72– + → 2CrO42– + H2O

32)

Which of the following pair have (+6) oxidation number of chromium?

(1) K2Cr2O7 and CrO5

(2) CrO2Cl2 and CrO5
2-
(3) CrO4 and CrO2Cl2
(4) All of the above

33) Oxidation number of oxygen in peroxides is :-

(1) – 1
(2) + 1
(3) – 2
(4) 1/2

34) 2 mole of N2H4 loses 20 mole of electrons determine final O.N of Nitrogen

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +5
(4) –3

35)

NO2– + H2O —→ NO3– + 2H+ + ne–

value of n is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

36) Oxidation state of carbon in HNC compund is -

(1) +2
(2) +3
(3) +4
(4) -2

37) What is the equivalent weight of NH3 in the given reaction ?

3CuO + 2NH3 → 3Cu + N2 + 3H2O

(1) 17

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) The oxidation number of C in CH4, CH3Cl, CH2Cl2, CHCl3 and CCl4 is respectively

(1) –4, –2, 0, +2, +4

(2) +2, 4, 0, –2, –4
(3) 4, 2, 0, –2, 4
(4) 0, 2, –2, 4, 4

39) A compound containing x, y and z atoms oxidation no of x is +3, y is –5 and z is +1 then the
possible formula of compound is :-

(1) xyz
(2) xyz2
(3) x2yz
(4) (xy)2z

40) Calculate value of (a+b) in following reaction:-

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 3

41) Zn + NO3– → Zn+2 + NH4+

The coefficient of NO3–, Zn and H+ in balanced equation respectively are :-

(1) 4, 1, 10
(2) 10, 4, 1
(3) 1, 4, 10
(4) 4, 1, 7

42) In the reaction :

NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O,
the equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) is :-

(1) 49
(2) 98
(3) 25
(4) 59

43)

The equivalent weight of FeC2O4 in the change FeC2O4 —→ Fe+3 + CO2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) In the following conversion of sulphite of phosphorous

P4S3 → P2O5 + SO2
Equivalent weight of P4S3 (molecular weight = M) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
45) N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 molecular weight of NH3 and N2 are x1 and x2 their equivalent weight are y1 and
y2. Then (y1 – y2) is :-

(1)

(2) (x1 – x2)

(3) (3x1 – x2)
(4) (x1 – 3x2)

BIOLOGY

1) During photosynthesis, oxidation of water occurs

(1) In the stroma of chloroplast

(2) Towards lumen of thylakoid membrane
(3) Towards stroma side of inner membrane of chloroplast
(4) Between outer and inner membrane of chloroplast

2) Correctly match column-I with column-II for C4-plant:

Column-I Column-II

Phosphoenol
A Site of PEPcase i
pyruvate

Regeneration
B ii Mesophyll cell
product

Calvin cycle Bundle sheath

C iii
takes place cell
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii
(3) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii

3) Light harvesting complexes (LHC) are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to
proteins. In LHC, reaction centre is formed by :-

(1) A single chlorophyll a molecule

(2) All the pigments except one molecule of chlorophyll a
(3) Carotenoids and xanthophylls
(4) Both 2 and 3

4) Which of the following conversions involve ATP synthesis during glycolysis ?

(1) Glucose → Glucose -6-phosphate

(2) Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate
(3) 1,3–bisphosphoglyceric acid (BPGA) → 3-phosphoglyceric acid (PGA)
(4) All of these

5) In lactic acid fermentation –

(1) Oxidation of pyruvate takes place

(2) Terminal acceptor of electron is pyruvate
(3) Net 4 ATP are produced
(4) More than one option are correct

6) Number of ATP molecules required for regeneration of RUBP during synthesis of 1 glucose
molecule, is _______.

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 18
(4) 30

7) Light reaction/photochemical phase includes

(1) ATP and NADPH2 formation

(2) Absorption of light, water splitting, and O2 release
(3) CO2 fixation and glucose formation
(4) Both (1) and (2)

8) In which compartment of cell does the process of glycolysis takes place :-

(1) Golgi complex

(2) Cytoplasm
(3) Mitochondrion
(4) Ribosome

9) Which of the following do not show Kranz anatomy in their leaves ?

(1) Maize
(2) Sorghum
(3) China rose
(4) Both (1) and (2)

10) Identify A, B, C and D in given figure and choose the correct option?
(1) A - Protons, B - Reaction centre, C - Primary acceptor, D - Accessory pigments
(2) A - Pigment molecules, B - Primary acceptor, C - Photons,D - Reaction center
(3) A - Primary acceptor, B - Photons, C - Reaction centre, D - Antenna molecules
(4) A - Antenna molecules, B - Reaction center, C - Photons, D - Primary acceptor

11) The figure below shows three stages (A, B, C) of Calvin cycle. Select the option giving correct

identification together with what it represents?

(1) C-Regeneration of the decarboxylating agent, step require action of RuBisCO enzyme
(2) A-Carboxylation is the fixation of CO2 into a stable 4 carbon intermediate.
(3) B-Reduction that do not require NADPH
(4) C-Regeneration of RuBP by utilisation of ATP

12) The LHC are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules bound to _____

(1) Proteins
(2) Lipids
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) None of the above
13) Z-scheme of photosynthesis involves :-

(1) PS-II
(2) PS-I
(3) Electron carriers
(4) All are correct

14)

Tropical plant have a............temperature optimum then the plant adapted to temperate climates :

(1) Lower
(2) Equal
(3) Higher
(4) None of these

15) Choose the correct option for A to D-

(1) A-Fat, B-key product of glycolysis, C-Lactic acid, D-Ethanol

(2) A-Carbohydrate, B-Pyruvic acid, C-Ethanol, D-Lactic acid
(3) A-Respiratory substrate, B-Key product of glycolysis, C-lactic acid, D-Ethanol
(4) A-Proteins, B-Pyruvic acid, C-Lactic acid, D-Ethanol

16) Choose the incorrect statement regarding early experiments on photosynthesis

(1) Priestley experiment revealed the essential role of air in the growth of a green plant
(2) Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is essential to the plant processes
(3) It is green parts of the plants that can release oxygen.
(4) Von sachs provided evidence for production of carbon dioxide when plants grow.

17) Reaction center of PSI and PSII are respectively :

(1) P680 and P700

(2) P700 and P640
(3) P680 and P720
(4) P700 and P680

18) Productivity of tomatos can be inhanced in green houses by increasing which of the following
factors :-

(1) Temperature
(2) CO2 concentration
(3) pH
(4) O2 concentration

19) Which of the following is a energy yielding process ?

(1) 2-Phosphoglycerate to 2-phosphoenol pyruvate

(2) Fructose to Fructose-6-phosphate
(3) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid to pyruvic acid
(4) Fructose 1, 6-biphosphate to PGAL and DHAP

20) Photosynthesis is a :-

(1) Physical process

(2) Chemical process
(3) Physico-chemical process
(4) Exergonic process

21) Find the incorrect statement :-

(1) In bundle sheath cells of C4 plants, first stable product of CO2 fixation is 3C compound.
(2) Regeneration of PEP occurs in mesophyll cells of C4 plants.
(3) PEP carboxylase plays important role in synthesis of sugar in mesophyll cells of C4 plants.
ATP requirement of C4 plants is higher as compared to C3 plants to produce one molecule of
(4)
sugar.

22) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation results in the formation of

(1) ATP and NADH + H+

(2) ATP only
(3) ATP and NADPH + H+
(4) ATP, ADP and NADH + H+

23) The first stable product of biosynthetic pathway of photosynthesis

(1) RuBP
(2) 1-3-Bisphosphoglyceric acid
(3) 3-Phosphoglyceric acid
(4) 3-Phosphoglyceraldehyde

24) Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis
through chemiosmosis? It involves :

(1) Breakdown of electron gradient

(2) Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
(3) Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side of the membrane
(4) Breakdown of proton gradient

25) In the given figure identify A,B,C and D:-

A B C D

(1) PEP Decarboxylation C4 Cycle Pyruvate

(2) Pyruvate Decarboxylation Calvin cycle C3 acid

(3) Pyruvate Carboxylation C4 Cycle C3 acid

(4) PEP Decarboxylation Calvin cycle C3 acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Statement-I: Each molecule of ribulose-1-5 bisphoshpate fixes one molecule of CO2
Statement-II: Three molecules of NADPH and two ATP are required for the fixation of one molecule
of CO2

(1) Statement-I is true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation
(3) The Statement-I is true, but the Statement-II is false
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false

27) During breakdown of proton gradient, protons cross the thylakoid membrane by :-

(1) the use of energy

(2) osmosis
(3) simple diffusion
(4) facilitated diffusion

28) Who described the first action spectrum of photosynthesis ?

(1) Julius Von Sachs

(2) Cornelius Van Niel
(3) T. W. Engelmann
(4) Jan Ingenhousz

29) Which is not produced during lactic acid fermentation :-

(1) ATP
(2) CO2
(3) CO2 & NADH2
(4) NADH2

30) The chief pigment associated with photosynthesis is

(1) Chlorophyll b
(2) Chlorophyll a
(3) Xanthophyll
(4) Carotenoid

31) Find out the incorrect statement from the following:

(1) Dark reaction depends on the product formed by light reaction

(2) In stroma, enzymatic reactions incorporates CO2 into the plant leading to the synthesis of sugar
(3) Purple and green sulphur bacteria use H2S as hydrogen donor
(4) There is no division of labour in chloroplast

32) Which of the following is the most crucial step of the Calvin cycle ?

(1) Triose phosphate → Sucrose

(2) 3 - phosphoglycerate → Triose phosphate
(3) Ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate + CO2 → 3-phosphoglycerate
(4) Triose phosphate → starch
33) In light reaction, plastoquinone facilitates the transfer of electrons from :

(1) PS-I to ATP synthase

(2) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(3) Cytb6f complex to PS-I
(4) PS-I to NADP+

34) To form one molecule of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde in calvin cycle

(1) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH required

(2) 3 ATP and 3 NADPH required
(3) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH required
(4) 1 ATP and 1 NADPH required

35) In glycolysis the electrons and protons are removed by

(1) Pyruvate
(2) ADP
(3) FAD
(4) NAD

36) There are three major ways in which different cells handle pyruvic acid produced by glycolysis.
These are :-

(1) Fermentation, TCA and ETS

(2) Fermentation, aerobic respiration and TCA
(3) Alcoholic fermentation, lactic acid fermentation and aerobic respiration
(4) Alcoholic fermentation, lactic acid fermentation and ETS

37) What amount of energy is released from glucose during lactic acid fermentation ?

(1) Less than 7%

(2) Approximately 15 %
(3) More than 18%
(4) About 10%

38) _____ is the energy currency of the cell :-

(1) ADP
(2) NADP
(3) ATP
(4) Minerals

39) Assertion : Carbon dioxide is the not major limiting factor for photo synthesis.
Reason : Water stress also makes leaves wilt, thus Reducing the surface area of the leaves and their
metabolic activity as well.
In the Light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

40) The law of limiting factor was given by

(1) Priestley
(2) Krebs
(3) Calvin
(4) Blackman

41) Number of NADH molecules produced in EMP pathway, is :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

42) The plant factor affecting photosynthesis is;

(1) Amount of chlorophyll

(2) Sunlight
(3) Soil water
(4) All of these

43) Find out the correct match from the following table :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Photochemical
(i) Photosystem- II Oxygen release
phase
Paper
(ii) Chlorophyll 'b' Yellow orange
Chromatography
Red light
(iii) Carotenoids Chief pigment
absorption
(1) (i) only
(2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (iii) only
(4) (ii) and (iii)

44) Which enzymes are/is used in fermentation:-

(1) Pyruvic acid dehydrogenase

(2) Alcohol decarboxylase
(3) Lactate dehydrogenase
(4) Both (1) and (3)

45) How many of the following are glycolysis compounds ?

DHAP, OAA, Malate, PEP, α-Ketoglutarate, Fructose-1,6-Bis-P, Succinyl CoA, 3-PGA, Citrate

(1) Two
(2) Six
(3) Four
(4) Five

46)

What type of vision is found in cockroach ?

(1) Mosaic
(2) Super position
(3) Binocular
(4) None of them

47) Ommatidia are units in the eyes of :

(1) Amphibians
(2) Mammals
(3) Insects
(4) Fishes

48)

Ootheca of Cockroach has fertilized eggs, this numbers is :

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 24

49)

Number of moultings in cockroach after hatching and development of complete animal are :

(1) Less than 7

(2) Upto 8
(3) Upto 9
(4) more than 10

50)
Juvenile of cockroach is known as :

(1) Tadepole
(2) Amocyte
(3) Nymph
(4) Naid

51) The body cavity of arthropods is

(1) Pseudocoel
(2) Coelom
(3) Haemocoel
(4) Acoelom

52) The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by :

(1) Muscular tissue

(2) Arthrodial membrane
(3) Cartilage
(4) Cementing glue

53) The main muscles controlling functioning of tracheae of insects are

(1) Alary
(2) Tergosternal
(3) Both above
(4) None above

54) .......... is the part of alimentary canal of cockroach which secretes peritrophic membrane

(1) Gizzard
(2) Midgut
(3) Oespophagus
(4) Crop

55) In cockroach, the position of heart is

(1) Central
(2) Dorsal
(3) Ventral
(4) Lateral

56) The heart of cockroach is

(1) Myogenic
(2) Neurogenic
(3) Neuro-myogenic
(4) None of the above

57) Fore wings of cockroach are articulated to–

(1) First abdominal segment

(2) Prothorax
(3) Metathorax
(4) Mesothorax

58) Which of the two parts in cockroach are fundamentally similar in function ?

(1) Anal style and labrum

(2) Mandibles and gizzard
(3) Maxillae & Legs
(4) Maxillae and anal cerci

59) Assertion: Cockroach is pest.

Reason: Cockroach destroys food and contaminates it with their excreta.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

60) Assertion: Cockroach is monoecious.

Reason: Male and female sex organ is present in single organism.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

61) Frogs can hide itself from enemies by :-

(1) Clawed toes

(2) Spiny skin
(3) Camouflage
(4) Sharp teeth

62) Tympanum helps frog in :-

(1) Hearing
(2) Respiration
(3) Jumping
(4) Swimming

63) Assertion : Frogs are poikilothermic animals.

Reason : Frogs do not have constant body temperature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

64) Assertion : Frogs exhibits sexual dimorphism.

Reason : Male frogs can be distinguished by the presence of sound producing vocal sacs and also a
copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs which are absent in female frogs.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

65) Assertion : Any person ever touched the skin of frog feels the skin is smooth and slippery.
Reason : Mucous gland are present on the skin of frog that always maintained a moist condition.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

66) Assertion : Frog is a tetrapod, four limbs are attached to its head.
Reason : Hind feet have webbed digits that help in swimming.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason is True but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

67) In frog respiratory organ for cutaneous respiration is :

(1) Lung
(2) Diaphragm
(3) Buccal epithelium
(4) Skin

68) Which of the following correctly state as it happens in the common cockroach?

(1) Malpighian tubules are excretory organs projecting out from the colon
(2) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin in blood
(3) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea
(4) The food is grinded by gizzard

69) Select the correct sequence of organs in the alimentary canal of cockroach starting from mouth:

(1) Pharynx Oesophagus Crop Gizzard Ileum Colon Rectum

(2) Pharynx Oesophagus Gizzard Crop Ileum Colon Rectum
(3) Pharynx Oesophagus Gizzard Ileum Crop Colon Rectum
(4) Pharynx Oesophagus Ileum Crop Gizzard Colon Rectum

70) Assertion : Frogs helps in maintaining ecological balance.

Reason : Species which maintain ecological balance serve as an important link in food chain and
food web.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion and Reason both false.

71) Identify the A, B, C, D and E in this figure

(1) A–Vasa efferentia, B–Cloacal aperture, C–Adrenal gland, D–Urino genital duct, E–Fat bodies
(2) A–Urini genital duct, B–Vasa efferentia, C–Fat bodies, D–Clocal aperture, E–Adrenal gland
(3) A–Adrenal gland, B–Urino genital duct, C–Cloacal aperture, D–Vasa efferentia, E–Fat bodies
(4) A–Fat bodies, B–Adrenal gland, C–Cloacal aperture, D–Vasa efferentia, E–Urino genital duct

72) How many pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain of frog?

(1) 12
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 6

73) Which of these characteristics of frog is the reason for its short alimentary canal?

(1) Carnivorous
(2) Sexual dimorphism
(3) Amphibian
(4) Chordate

74) The colour of dorsal side of body in frog is generally__A___where as on the ventral side the skin
is __B__

(1) A-green; B-yellow

(2) A-green; B-olive green
(3) A-olive green; B- Pale yellow
(4) A-pale yellow; B- dark green

75) Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs?

(1) Internal fertilization

(2) Nucleated RBCs
(3) Ureotelic mode of excretion
(4) Four chambered heart

76) How many digits does the forelimb and hindlimb of frog have respectively?

(1) 3, 4
(2) 5, 4
(3) 4, 5
(4) 4, 3

77) Identify A, B, C & D.

A B C D
I. Testes Rectum Lungs Stomach
Claocal
II. Fatbodies Liver Intestine
Aperture
Claocal
III. Ovary Lungs Stomach
Aperture
IV. Fatbodies Rectum Liver Intestine
(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

78) Identify ‘3’ in the pathway of food ingested by frog.

(1) Larynx
(2) Pharynx
(3) Gizzard
(4) Crop

79) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram showing male reproductive system.

A B C

(1) Testes Vasa efferentia Cloaca

(2) Vasa efferentia Adrenal gland Urinary bladder

(3) Adrenal gland Testes Cloaca

(4) Vasa efferentia Urinogenital duct Urinary bladder

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) On land, frog respires by

(1) Skin only

(2) Skin and buccal cavity only
(3) Skin, lungs and buccal cavity
(4) Lungs only

81) Select the correct statement regarding Rana tigrina.

(1) A very long tail is present in posterior part of the body.
(2) Frog is homeothermal animal.
(3) Bidder’s canal is found in the kidney.
(4) Dorsal part is generally pale yellow.

82) Assertion: Frogs are not seen during peak summer and winter, as they take shelter in deep
burrows. This is known as aestivation and hibernation respectively.
Reason: Frogs are called cold blooded or poikilotherms i.e., their body temperature varies with the
temperature of the environment.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

83) The frogs are similar to the humans with respect to the presence of

(1) Nucleated RBCs

(2) Sinus venosus
(3) Hepatic portal system
(4) Three-chambered heart

84) Pericardium is an example of:-

(1) Adipose tissue

(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Dense regular white fibrous tissue
(4) Dense irregular white fibrous tissue

85) Strongest cartilage of body is :-

(1) Hyaline
(2) Elastic
(3) White fibrous
(4) Calcified

86)

Fibres and fibroblast are compactly packed in which type of tissue

(1) Dense connective tissue

(2) Loose connective tissue
(3) Specialised connective tissue
(4) All of above

87) Brush-bordered appearance in epithelial cell is due to presence of :-

(1) Stereocilia
(2) Kinocilia
(3) Cilia
(4) Microvilli

88) Which of the following tissue has highest regeneration power ?

(1) Nervous tissue

(2) Epithelial tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Connective tissue

89) Match the column I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given.

(1) a–1–M, b–2–N, c–4–K, d–3–L

(2) a–2–N, b–1–M, c–3–L, d–2–K
(3) a–1–M, b–2–N, c–3–K, d–2–L
(4) a–2–N, b–2–N, c–4–M, d–3–L

90) In the following diagram, identify and label the structures A, B, C and D :
 (A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Labium Maxilla Mandible Labrum

(2) Labrum Mandible Maxilla Labium

(3) Mandible Mandible Labrum Labium

(4) Maxilla Labrum Mandible Labium

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 1 1 1 1 3 1 4 4 2 1 3 1 4 3 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 3 1 3 3 1 4 4 1 4 4 3 4 1 1 1 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 2 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 1 3 4 1 1 3 3 2 2 3 4 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 1 2 1 2 1 3 4 1 3 4 1 2 2 1 4 1 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 2 1 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 1 3 2 1 4 2 3 2 4 1 4 3 3 4 4 2 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 3 1 4 3 4 3 3 2 4 3 2 4 4 3 1 3 3 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 1 3 3 1 3 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 4 2 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 1 1 4 4 4 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 3 2 2 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 3 4 3 1 4 2 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Answer is "30 J"

2) Question Explanation :
A 1 kg block slides down a 10 m inclined plane at 30°. We need to calculate the work done by
gravity as it moves from the topmost point to the lower end.

Concept-Based (Work Done by Gravity on an Inclined Plane)

Formula Used :

Calculation :
Given

A. m = 1 kg,
B. g = 10 m/s2,
C. θ = 30∘,
D. d = 10 m.

Correct answer : (1)

3)

Answer is "Zero"

4)

5)

Answer is "0"

6)

Answer is "zero"
 7)

Answer is "Always"

8) When a weight lifter lifts a weight,

(i) Work doen by the lifting force F,
W1 = Fs cos 0° = + Fs
but (ii) work done in holding it up, W2 = 0 (because the displacement = 0).

9)

Answer is "total work done by static friction on whole system is always zero"

10)

W = (Area)1 – (Area)2

W = × (3 + 1) × 10 – × (2 + 1) × 10
=5J

11) Concept: & Explanation

• The displacement-time graph represents how the position of a particle changes with time.
• The slope of the displacement-time graph gives the velocity of the particle.

A. A positive slope indicates motion in the positive x-direction.

B. A horizontal segment (zero slope) means the particle is at rest.
C. A constant slope corresponds to uniform velocity.
D. A changing slope indicates varying velocity.

Analysis of the Given Graph:

A. From t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The graph shows a straight line passing through the origin with a positive slope.
B. This indicates that the particle is moving with a constant velocity in the positive x-direction.

B. From t = t0 onwards:

A. The graph becomes a horizontal line (zero slope).

B. This means the particle has stopped moving and is at rest.

Formula used:
The velocity v is the slope of the displacement-time graph:

Where:

A. is the change in displacement.

B. is the change in time.

Calculation:
[Link] t = 0 to t = t0:

A. The slope of the line is constant.

B. Let the displacement at t = 0 be [Link],

A. The particle moves with this constant velocity until t = t0.

2. For t > t0:

A. The graph is horizontal, so the velocity v = 0 The particle is at rest.

Final Answer:
The correct option is:
(4) The particle moves at a constant velocity up to a time t0 and then stops.

12)

acceleration = 0 ⇒ force = 0 ⇒ =0

13)

Answer is "1"

14)

Answer is "potential energy"

15)

Answer is "–3K"

16)

Answer is "4E"

17)

Answer is "More work is done in case of second spring"

18)

E=

E' = , p' =
 ⇒ E' = = =

Fractional change in E =
percentage change

= × 100 = × 100 = 125%

19)

Answer is "At x2 and x4 particle in stable equilibrium"

20)

Using work energy theorem,

mgh =

x= = 0.1 m = 10 cm

21) 1. Question explain with given data

A particle of mass m is initially at rest. A constant force P acts on it for a time t. We are to find
its kinetic energy after time t.

2. Concept :
Kinetic energy.

3. Formula used

Kinetic Energy = mv2, where . t (from Newton's second law and v = at)

4. Calculation
v = (a) (t)

So, KE = m

Answer:
Hence, the correct answer is option (2)

22)
 Given that;

or

23)

Answer is " "

24) (1) Asking About

We need to determine the acceleration of the system for a pulley system consisting of three
masses: m1 = 4 kg, m2 = 5 kg, and m3 = 1 kg, connected as described.
(2) Concept

A. In a pulley system, all the masses are connected, so they will share a common acceleration a.
B. The tension in the strings and the net forces acting on each mass need to be considered.
C. Using Newton's Second Law of Motion (F = ma) for each mass, the equations of motion can
be set up.

Key Assumptions:

A. The string is inextensible and massless.

B. The pulley is ideal (frictionless and massless).
C. Gravitational acceleration, g, is 10 m/ s2.

(3) Formula
Newton's Second Law for each mass gives:
1 . For m1 :

2 . For m2 :

(Negative acceleration as m2 moves upward relative to m1.)

3. For m3:

We solve these equations to find the common acceleration a.

(4) Solution/ Explanation
Step 1: Write down the forces on each mass.

A. For m1 = 4kg:

A. For m2 = 5 kg:

A. For m3 = 1kg:
Step 2: Solve the equations simultaneously.
From Eq. (3):

Substitute T2 - 10 - a into Eq. (2):

Simplify:

Substitute T1 = - 40 + 4a into Eq. (1 ):

Simplify:

This gives:

(5) Final Answer

The acceleration of the system is:

(6) Correct Option : 3

The correct option is :

25) From F = से

∴ U(x) =
as U(0) = 0 Therefore, the correct option is (1).

26)

Answer is "is in unstable equilibrium at x2"

27)

Answer is "(i,iii)"

28) For point O and B,

By energy conservation-

⇒ v = 10 m/s
⇒ Now from B to C -
time of flight, T
Range ,

29)

Answer is "(i, ii, iii, iv)"

30)
At 1, M.E1 = 0 + mgh

At 2,

so

31)

Answer is "always"

32)

Answer is "mgH"

33)

Answer is "Net work done by all the forces is zero"

34)

Answer is " mgℓ"

35) Work = –f.d

= –(µN) (2πr)
= 2πr.µN
 36) only (1) option satisfies this.

37)

Answer is "It is the property of the system"

38)

Answer is "Constant at all instants"

39)

Answer is "48 J"

40)

Answer is "7J"

41)

For conservative force,

42) Since block is at rest wrt lift hence net contact force will be equal to mg in upward
direction. (Work done = mgvt)

43)

44)

45) = – Veconstant (0 < x < a)

F = 0 (x > a)

CHEMISTRY

46) EXPLANATION:- Central atom having one lone pair

Concept Used: VSEPR

SOLUTION:-

(I) NH₃

A. Nitrogen: 5 valence electrons

3 single bonds with H (3 electrons used)

B. Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair

(II) SF₄

A. Sulfur: 6 valence electrons

B. 4 bonds with F → 4 electrons used

C. Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair

D. Molecular geometry: See-saw

(IV) XeF₆

A. Xenon: 8 valence electrons

6 bonds with F (6 electrons used)

B. Remaining: 2 electrons = 1 lone pair

Shape: Distorted octahedral

Correct Answer: (2) I, II, IV

47)

Explanation - The question asks which of the given chemical formulas (PH5, SiF6²⁻, CF6²⁻)
represent compounds that do not exist due to bonding limitations.
Concept - (Bonding Limitations)
The compounds that do not exist are PH5 and CF6²⁻. Therefore, the correct answer is option 4.

Here's why:

A. PH5 (Phosphorus Pentahydride):

A. PH5 : drago compound
B. Therefore, it cannot form six bonds.
B. SiF6²⁻ (Hexafluorosilicate):
A. Silicon is also in the third period and can expand its octet.
B. SiF6²⁻ is a known and stable compound.
C. CF6²⁻ (Hexafluorocarbon):
A. Carbon is in the second period and does not have available d-orbitals to expand its octet.
B. Therefore, it cannot form six bonds.

Therefore, PH5 and CF6²⁻ do not exist.

Final Answer - Option (4)

48)

49)

Explanation

A. Isostructural compounds have the same shape and arrangement of atoms (same
molecular geometry), regardless of the elements involved. This is determined by the
number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons around the central atom (VSEPR
theory).

Concept

A. Analyze the structure of each pair:

A. CO₂ and SO₂:

A. CO₂: Central C has 2 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs → Linear shape.

B. SO₂: Central S has 2 bond pairs and 1 lone pair → Bent (V-shaped) shape.

C. Not isostructural.

B. SiF₄ and SF₄:

A. SiF₄: Central Si has 4 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs → Tetrahedral shape.

B. SF₄: Central S has 4 bond pairs and 1 lone pair → See-saw shape (distorted
tetrahedron).

C. Not isostructural.

C. XeF₂ and I₃⁻:

 A. XeF₂: Central Xe has 2 bond pairs and 3 lone pairs → Linear shape.

B. I₃⁻: Central I has 2 bond pairs and 3 lone pairs → Linear shape.

C. Isostructural.

D. SF₆ and XeF₆:

A. SF₆: Central S has 6 bond pairs and 0 lone pairs → Octahedral shape.

B. XeF₆: Central Xe has 6 bond pairs and 1 lone pair → Distorted octahedral (or
capped octahedron) shape.

C. Not isostructural.

Answer option 3, (XeF₂ and I₃⁻).

50)

sp3 hybridisation can only have pπ-dπ bond as it can not form pπ-pπ bond.

51)

Explanation :

Concept : (Hybridization of center atom)

NO3-

Hybridisation = ( 3 σ bond sp2)

NO2+
Hybridisation = ( 2σ bond sp)
NH4+

Hybridisation = ( 4σ bond sp3)

Final Answer - Option (2)

52)

Explanation -
The question asks which pair of molecular orbitals from the given options have the same
energy level (are degenerate).

Concept - (Degenrate energy level)

π2px and π2py molecular orbitals are degenerate, meaning they have the same energy. They
are formed from the sideways overlap of 2p atomic orbitals. Other orbital combinations listed
have different energy levels.

Final Answer - Option (3)

53) As the p-character in hybrid orbital increases the size of hybrid orbital increases.

54) ⇒ sp3d2 (dz , dx –y )

2 2 2

55)

[Link]. = + ℓ.P.
5 = 2 +(a = 3)
(b = 5) = 4 + 1
6 = 4 + (c = 2)
(d = 5) = 3 + 2

56)

A. Question Explanation:

The question asks for the correct order of C-O bond lengths in a series of molecules/ions. This
requires understanding the relationship between bond order and bond length.

B. Given Data:
The species to be compared are CO (carbon monoxide), CO₂ (carbon dioxide), and CO₃²⁻
(carbonate ion).

C. Concept:

Bond Order and Bond Length

D. Mathematical Calculation/Reasoning:

A. CO (Carbon Monoxide): CO has a triple bond (C≡O). This is a very strong bond with a
bond order of 3.

B. CO₂ (Carbon Dioxide): CO₂ has two double bonds (O=C=O). Each C-O bond has a bond
order of 2.

C. CO₃²⁻ (Carbonate Ion): The carbonate ion has resonance structures where the double
bond is delocalized over all three oxygen atoms. This results in each C-O bond having a
bond order of 1.33 (approximately).

Since bond length is inversely proportional to bond order, the order of bond lengths will be:

CO < CO₂ < CO₃²⁻

E. Final Answer:

The correct order of C-O bond length is CO < CO₂ < CO₃²⁻.

57) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion.

58) Explaining the question : Identify which listed molecules/species possess unpaired
electrons (paramagnetic).
Concept : This Questions based on application of MOT
Solution :

Paramagnetic species :

O2→2 unpaired electrons according to MOT

O2+→1 unpaired electrons according to MOT
O2–→1 unpaired electrons according to MOT
NO→ odd electron species
NO2→ odd electron species
Final Answer : 1

59)
Bond order

Bond order

Bond order
Correct order of bond order :

60) σ* (1s) or σ* (2s) molecular orbital is represented as follows :

It has one nodal plane.

61) (i) - (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)

62) (1) Keesome forces → dipole - dipole Fattr.

(2) Debye forces → dipole - Induced dipole.
(3) London forces.

63)

64) Sulphur cannot from hydrogen bonds

65)

NCERT XI Pg. # 132 (Part-I)

66)

Explain Question : The question asks us to identify the correct definition of electrovalency.

Concept : This question is based on Electrovalency.

Solution : Electrovalency equals the number of electrons an atom loses or gains to form ions
in an ionic compound, representing the charge acquired.

Final Answer : option (4)

67) Explain Question : The question asks us to determine the order of increasing covalent
character
Concept : This Question is based on Fajan's rule
Solution : Covalent character increase with smaller, more charged cations (Fajan's rules).
Thus, LiCl < BeCl2 < BeCl3 < CCl4.
Final Answer option (3) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4

68)

So order of H.E.
Li+ > Na+ > K+

69)

Ionic bond is non-directional bond.

70)

Theoretical.

71) NCERT Page No. 303

72) 1. Explaining Question

The question asks to determine the oxidation states of the two chlorine atoms in calcium
hypochlorite (CaOCl₂).

2. Concept
In peroxides, the oxidation number of oxygen is typically -1. In CaOCl2, the oxidation state of
chlorine in
the Cl– ion is –1, and in the OCI– ion, chlorine has an oxidation state of +1.

3. Solution
• In CaOCl2, the oxidation state of Cl– in Cl– is -1, and in OCI–, it is +1.

4. Final Answer (1) -1 and +1

73)

A → 12 g MgSO4 =
B → 0.2 × NA × 3 = 0.6 NA

C→

D→
74)

Given Data:
The balanced chemical equation is:
8Al + 3Fe3O4 → 4Al2O3 + 9Fe
Concept:

A. Redox Reaction: A reaction involving both oxidation (loss of electrons) and reduction
(gain of electrons).

B. Oxidation State: The charge an atom would have if all bonds were ionic.

C. Oxidant: The substance that accepts electrons and gets reduced.

D. Reductant: The substance that donates electrons and gets oxidized.

Mathematical Calculation:

A. Assign oxidation states:

A. In 8Al, the oxidation state of Al is 0.

B. In 3Fe3O4 , the oxidation state of O is -2. The oxidation state of Fe is found as

follows: 3(3x) + 4(-2) = 0 9x - 8 = 0 9x = +8 x = +8/3

C. In 4Al2O3 , the oxidation state of O is -2. The oxidation state of Al is: 2(2x) + 3(-2) =
0 4x - 6 = 0 4x = +6 x = +3

D. In 9Fe, the oxidation state of Fe is 0.

B. Identify oxidation and reduction:

A. Al is oxidized (0 to +3): Al → Al3+ + 3e–

B. Fe is reduced (+8/3 to 0). Each Fe atom gains 8/3 electrons.

C. Calculate total electron transfer:

8 Al atoms each lose 3 electrons, so total electrons lost = 8 × 3 = 24 electrons.

In 3Fe3O4 , there are 9 Fe atoms. Each Fe atom gains 8/3 electrons, so total electrons gained =
9 × (8/3) = 24 electrons.

Final Answer:
The total number of electrons transferred from the reductant (Al) to the oxidant (Fe3O4 ) is 24.
Therefore, the correct option is (4).

75) Central atom nitrogen (O.N. = +3) present in intermediate oxidation state so it can act as
oxidant as well as reductant.

76) Question Asking - Disproportional

Concept - Type of Redox

solution -

option 3 -

No2 Shows the Disproportional

77)
Vtotal = V1+V2+V3

78)

Given :
The compound in question is a peroxide.
Concept : Oxidation number
In peroxides, the oxygen atom is bonded to another oxygen atom, and each oxygen atom
typically has an oxidation state of – 1 .
This is different from the typical oxidation state of oxygen, which is usually – 2 in most
compounds.
Calculation :
No calculation is needed, as the oxidation number of oxygen in peroxides is well-defined by the
rules.
Final Answer : (1) – 1

79) 2 mole N2H4 → 20 mole e–

1 mole N2 H4 → 10 mole e–
2 N atom → 10 mole e–
1 N atom → 5 mole e–
N–2 → N+3 + 5e–
80) n=2

81)

82)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking to find the equivalent weight of ammonia (NH₃)
in a given chemical reaction. Equivalent weight helps to understand how much of NH₃ reacts
based on its change in oxidation state during the reaction.

Underlying Concept: The key concept here is equivalent weight in redox reactions.
Equivalent weight is the mass of a substance that reacts with or supplies one mole of electrons
in a redox process. To find it, we determine how many electrons are lost or gained per formula
unit of the substance by analyzing the change in oxidation number.

Relevant Formulas: Equivalent weight (Eq. wt.) is given by: where is

the number of electrons transferred per molecule of the substance in the reaction.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Write the half-reaction for the oxidation of NH₃ to N₂:

Step 2: Determine change in oxidation number per nitrogen atom:

Each goes from -3 in NH₃ to 0 in N₂, so electrons per nitrogen. For one molecule of
NH₃ (which has one nitrogen), the number of electrons transferred, . Step 3: Calculate

equivalent weight:

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the equivalent weight depends on how many electrons are
transferred per molecule, not just the molar mass. For nitrogen, oxidation state in NH₃ is -3,
and in Nâ‚‚ it is 0.

Common Mistakes: Students often confuse the number of electrons transferred for the entire
reaction with the electrons transferred per molecule of NH₃. They may also forget to divide
by the number of electrons per molecule when calculating equivalent weight.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices like 17, 17/4, or 17/2 are incorrect because
they do not correctly account for the number of electrons (3) involved per NH₃ molecule in
the redox process.
83)

84) (1) xyz

+3 –5 +1 ≠ 0
(2) xyz2
+3–5+1×2 = 0
(3) x2yz
3x2 – 5 + 1 ≠ 0
(4) (xy)2z
(+3–5)×2 + 1 ≠ 0

85)

MnO4– + 5Fe+2 +8H+ → Mn+2 + 5Fe+3 + 4H2O

86)

4Zn + + 10 H+ → 4Zn+2 + + 3H2O

87) E =

88)
So, total = 3

89)
 90) N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
equivalent weight = molecular weight / v.f.

y1 – y2 =

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 213

92) The correct answer is: A-ii, B-i, C-iii.

Explanation:
• A: Site of PEP case (Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase) → ii: Mesophyll cell.

A. PEP case is located in the mesophyll cells, where it initially fixes CO2 into a four-carbon
compound (oxaloacetate), which is later converted into malate or aspartate.

• B: Phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) product → i: Phosphoenolpyruvate.

A. PEP is the molecule that reacts with CO2 in the mesophyll cells, catalyzed by PEP case, to form
the 4-carbon product (oxaloacetate).

• C: Calvin cycle takes place → iii: Bundle sheath cell.

A. After CO2 is fixed into a 4-carbon compound in the mesophyll cells, it is transported to the
bundle sheath cells, where the Calvin cycle occurs, leading to glucose production.

This matches the steps of C4 photosynthesis, where CO2 is initially fixed in the mesophyll cells and
then transferred to the bundle sheath cells for the Calvin cycle.

93) NCERT Pg. # 211

94)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 156

95) Terminal acceptor of electrons in lactic acid fermentation is pyruvic acid.

Reduction of pyruvate takes place & Net 2 ATP are produced.
NCERT Pg157 12.3 Fermentation

96) NCERT Page No. 144 & 145

97) Module No-3, [Link]. 188

98)
NCERT Pg. # 155

99) NCERT Page no. 145

100) NCERT Page No.138

101) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 217

102)

The correct answer is: Proteins.

The Light Harvesting Complexes (LHC) are made up of hundreds of pigment molecules (such
as chlorophyll) bound to proteins. These complexes help capture light energy and transfer it to
the reaction center during photosynthesis. The proteins help stabilize the pigments and
facilitate the transfer of the absorbed energy.

103) NCERT Pg.# 13.6/212

104) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 224

105) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 230, Figure 14.2

106) Module No.-3, Pg. # 185

107) NCERT Page no. 138

108) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 223

109) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 229

110)

The correct answer is option (3)

Explanation : Photosynthesis is best described as a physico-chemical process. This is because
it involves :
Physical processes as the absorption of light by chlorophyll and other pigments in the
thylakoid membranes.
Chemical processes including the conversion of CO2 and water into glucose and oxygen via a
series of biochemical reactions.

111) Allen module.

112) Solution -
Non - cyclic photophosphorylation is the process in photosynthesis where light energy is used
to produce ATP and NADPH + H+ . This process involves the flow of electrons through both
photosystem II and photosystem I , ultimately resulting in the production of these two
molecules.
The correct answer is : Option (3) ATP and NADPH + H+

113)

NCERT Fact.

114) Solution -
According to the process of chemiosmosis, the statement that is not true regarding the release
of energy during ATP synthesis is " Breakdown of electron gradient".
Explanation -
Chemiosmosis primarily relies on the movement of protons across a membrane to generate
ATP, not the breakdown of an electron gradient.
The Correct Answer is : Option (1) Breakdown of electron gradient

115)

NCERT XI Pg. # 146

116)

NCERT Fact.

117)

NCERT Eng. Page # 215 (1st para)

118)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 207

119)

NCERT, Pg # 230, Fig. 14.2

120)

The correct answer is:

Chlorophyll a
Explanation:
The chief pigment associated with photosynthesis is chlorophyll a. This pigment is directly
involved in the light reactions of photosynthesis, where it absorbs light energy and converts it
 into chemical energy.

A. Chlorophyll b: This pigment is an accessory pigment that helps capture light energy and
transfers it to chlorophyll a.

121)

There is division of labour in chloroplast.

122) NCERT XI pg.# 217 (fig. 13.8) and pg # 216 (last para)

123) Solution -
In the light reaction of photosynthesis, plastoquinone (PQ) is an important electron carrier in
the electron transport chain (ETC). It facilitates the transfer of electrons from photosystem II
(PS-II) to the cytochrome b6f complex (Cyt b6f complex ).
The correct Answer is : Option (2) PS -II to Cyt b6f complex

124)

NCERT Fact. (PGA + ATP + NADPH PGAL + ADP + NADP + H2PO4) .

125) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 229

126) Module No-3 Pg. # 211

127) NCERT page no 230-231

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 154

129) NCERT XI Pg. 224

130) NCERT Page No.222

131) NCERT-XI Pg. # 229

132) NCERT Page No. 149

133)

The given question asks to identify the correct matches from the given columns:
1. Photochemical phase ➔ Photosystem ➔ Oxygen release (i):

A. Photochemical phase refers to the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis.

 B. Photosystem: Photosystem II (PSII) is where photolysis of water occurs, releasing oxygen.
C. Oxygen release: This is correct because oxygen is released during the photochemical phase
in photosystem II. This match is correct.

2. • Paper Chromatography ➔ Chlorophyll 'b' ➔ Yellow orange Red light (ii):

A. Paper Chromatography is a method used to separate pigments in plants.

B. Chlorophyll 'b' absorbs blue and red light (not yellow-orange). Yellow-orang is typically
associated with carotenoids.
C. Hence, the match with "Yellow orange Red light,, is incorrect. )( This match is incorrect.

3. Carotenoids ➔ Chief pigment ➔ Absorption (iii):

A. Carotenoids are accessory pigments in plants.

B. They are not "chief pigments 11 ( as chlorophyll is the main photosynthetic pigment), but they
absorb light (mainly in the blue-violet region) and appear yellow-orange.
C. The word "absorption,, correctly matches carotenoids. X This match is incorrect.

134) The correct answer is: 3. Lactate dehydrogenase

Lactate dehydrogenase is used in lactic acid fermentation. Alcohol decarboxylase and alcohol
dehydrogenase (not pyruvic acid dehydrogenase) are involved in alcohol fermentation.

135) NCERT Pg # 156

136)

Answer is "Mosaic"

137)

Answer is "Insects"

138)

Answer is "16"

139)

Answer is "more than 10"

140)

Answer is "Nymph"

141)

Answer is "Haemocoel"
 142)

Answer is "Arthrodial membrane"

143)

Answer is "Tergosternal"

144)

Answer is "Midgut"

145)

Answer is "Dorsal"

146)

Answer is "Neurogenic"

147)

The fore wings of a cockroach are articulated to the mesothorax.

Final Answer : option (4) Mesothorax

148) Question Explanation :

Identify the two parts of cockroach that have a similar function.

Concept :
This question is based on Cockroach.

Solution : Because both are involved in grinding [Link] of all the structures are having
different functions.
Hence,
Option (2) is correct : Mandibles and gizzard

149) Explanation:

A. The assertion that cockroaches are pests is true, as they are harmful to food and hygiene.
B. The reason that cockroaches destroy food and contaminate it with their excreta is also true, as
cockroaches are known to spread bacteria and contaminate food.
C. The reason directly supports the assertion by explaining how cockroaches harm food and
contribute to their status as pests.

Final Answer : option (1) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a
correct explanation of the assertion.
150)

Question Explanation : Assess the correctness of a statement and reason about cockroach
reproductive biology.

Concept : This question is based on Reproductive system – cockroach

Solution : The correct answer is option 4.

Assertion: Cockroach is monoecious → False
→ Cockroach is dioecious, meaning separate male and female individuals.
Reason: Male and female sex organ is present in single organism → False
→ This describes a monoecious/hermaphroditic condition, not applicable to cockroach.

Final Answer : option (4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

151)

NCERT XI _ Pg. 116

152) NCERT-XIth, Pg # 116

153) NCERT XI Page No. # 80

154) NCERT XI Page No. # 81

155) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 116

156)

Answer is "Both Assertion and Reason are False."

157) Ncert Page 118.

158)

Answer is "The food is grinded by gizzard"

159)

Answer is "Pharynx Oesophagus Crop Gizzard Ileum Colon Rectum"

160)

Answer is "Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion."
161)

Answer is "A–Vasa efferentia, B–Cloacal aperture, C–Adrenal gland, D–Urino genital duct,
E–Fat bodies"

162) New NCERT XI Page # 83

163) New NCERT XI Page # 81

164)

Answer is "A-olive green; B- Pale yellow"

165)

Answer is "Ureotelic mode of excretion"

166)

Answer is "4, 5"

167)

Answer is "II"

168)

Answer is "Pharynx"

169) NCERT XI Page # 83

170) [NCERT Pg. 118]

171) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 80, 83

172)

Answer is "Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion"

173)

Answer is "Hepatic portal system"

174)

Answer is "Dense irregular white fibrous tissue"

175)

Answer is "White fibrous"

176)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

177)

The correct answer is 4. Microvilli.

Here's why:Microvilli are tiny, finger-like projections of the cell membrane that increase the
surface area of the cell.

178)

Epithelial tissue: Epithelial tissues, which cover surfaces and line cavities, generally have
high regenerative capacity. Skin, for example, is constantly renewing itself thanks to the rapid
regeneration of its epithelial layers. The digestive lining also undergoes frequent regeneration
due to exposure to harsh conditions.
the tissue with the highest regeneration power among the options is 2. Epithelial tissue.

179)

Answer is "a–2–N, b–2–N, c–4–M, d–3–L"

180) NCERT XII Pg. # 112, Figure 7.15(b).