MODULE 3 PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

MODULE 3
PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

PRESCRIPTION -D out patient

•
order for medication for use by a patient that is issued by ____________,
physicians ____________or
dentist vet other ,

licensed practitioner who is authorized to prescribe medications.

Al MEDICATION ORDER patient medication history ; in patient
>
-

• written on the patient chart and intended for use by a patient in an

institutionalized setting
PARTS OF A PRESCRIPTION

1. Prescriber’s Information * Cimetidine has endocrine side effect

-

gynecomastia
can cause

• Name of the Prescriber anti androgenic effect

• Clinic Address, Clinic Hours * Finasteride cause genital abnormalities

- can

• Contact Number on make fetus

1 CII pregnant :

2. Patient’s Information
• Name Antibacterial seven days validity

• Age/Sex viral
infective
• Address maintenance -3 mos

3. Date of the Prescription Dangerous

- 2 MOS

A 4. Superscription Superscription

• Rx symbol super
Rx

• Recipe, you take, take thou Inscription

* 5. Inscription -principal part
• Part: Name/s, Quantities Prescribed
subscription
A 6. Subscription
Directions to the______________
Pharmacist
A 7. Signatura Transcription
transcription
Directions to the ______________
patient trans people :

8. Refill Information
9. Prescriber’s Signature and License Numbers
• MD License, S2 license
• License for prescribers of dangerous drugs

AUXILIARY LABELS
• Aka Cautionary Labels
• Provide additional important information about the proper use of medications

Suspensions/Emulsions Topical lotions and creams

____________
Shake
well before using For _____________
external use only

CNS depressants Proton-pump inhibitors (Omeprazole)

drowsiness/dizziness
May cause ______________ Refrigerate (powder for suspension)
Do not _____________
chew or _____________
crush (capsule)
Must not be taken with ___________FOOd Food
130 mins-Thr before

DANGEROUS DRUGS
YELLOW PRESCRIPTION
AKA DDB (_________________________)
Dangerous Drugs Board Prescription
Written in TRIPLICATE
P________________
atient

P________________
harmacist

P________________
hysician

Issued by: __________________

DOH
 PDEA
/issued by
S Licenses
S1 Retail Distributor or Dispensers
(Drug Preparations containing a controlled chemical)
S2 Prescriber
S3 Retail Distributor or Dispensers
(Dangerous Drugs in any form)
S4 Wholesale/Distributor
S-5-I I___________________
mporter
S-5-C Manufacturer companies
S-5-E E___________
xporter

S-5-D Bulk D______________/Storage

epot

LIST OF DANGEROUS DRUGS

SCHEDULE I
DRUGS DESCRIPTION
methylenedioxy Methamphetamine
g
methamptamine Ecstasy Amphetamine
___________ No currently accepted medical use in the treatment of
3 . 4·

der . -acts stimulant

___________
cathinone diseases
___________
mescaline Has lack of accepted safety for use of the drug under
___________
LSP
medical supervision
___________
THC Stratnabinol
high potential for abuse

severe psychological/physical dependence

SCHEDULE II
Narcotic
analgesic DRUGS DESCRIPTION
Fentanyl Morphine Oxycodone May have currently accepted medical use Has high potential
Pethidine Methylphenidate OFADA -
+X
for abuse that may lead to
Remifentanil severe physical and psychological dependence

SCHEDULE III
DRUGS DESCRIPTION
Buprenorphine Pentobarbital Has a currently accepted medical use
Buprenorpine patch
should be
Has a potential for abuse less than the drugs in schedule I
yellow prescrip
but

CEDD Exempt DD)

need for

and II that may lead to moderate or low physical

- - no

in triplicate copies

dependence or high psychological high potential 1 for abuse < ,

1

physical dependence
dependence
moderate
-
low

high psychological dependence

SCHEDULE IV
Benzodiazepines DRUGS DESCRIPTION
Alprazolam, Has a currently accepted medical use
anti epileptic
E Clonazepam Clorazepate Diazepam
Midazolam Phenobarbital Barbiturate
Has a low potential for abuse that may lead to limited
psychological or physical dependence
Phentermine appetite suppressant - P
. 0 . -DEDD

Zolpidem BID sedative -

DnOn ;

SCHEDULE V
DRUGS DESCRIPTION
Ephedrine potent vaso constrictor -
Has a currently accepted medical use
Ketamine Nalbuphine Has a high potential for abuse that may lead to
partial opioid agonist
anasthetic
P U -IDEDD
. from low to high psychological or physical dependence
DD only in the Phils .
MODULE 3 PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

LATIN ABBREVIATIONS
Abbreviation Latin English
aa Of each ana
a.c. before meals ante cibos
ad up to (surfecient
as ad up to

ad lib Freely ; at pleasure ad libitum

a.m. before lunch (in the morning ante meridiem
aq. water aqua
as al left ear ; adauris dextraright
:
ear auris sinistra auris levo

a.u. each ear auris utraque

bid twice a day (2x) bis in die
c with cum
dil. to dilute disutum

disp. to dispense dispensatur

div. to divide dividatur

d.t.d give such doses dentur tales doses

et and

gtt. drops gutta/guttae

h. or hr. hour hora
h.s. at bedtime hora somni
lb. pounds libra
M mix Mice
Non rep do not repeat Non repetatur
NPO nothing by mouth bawalkumai
is
Non per os
,

o.d. right eye oculo dextra

o.l. left eye oculo levo -O Og Guris
o.u. each eye both eyes oculo utraque
p.c. after meals
post cibos "pagkatapos chumibog"
p.m. after lunch (afternoon) post meridiem
p.o. by mouth (orally) per os
p.r.n. as needed pro re nata
q. every quaque
q.s. ad Suffecient quantity quantum sufficiat
q.i.d 4X aday quarter in die
s. without sine
ss. 2 semis
stat immediately statim
tid 3xaday ter in die
ung. ointment unguentum
ft. to make
fiat
PP after meals Post prandial

ERROR-PRONE ABBREVIATIONS
(ISMP- Institute for Safe Medications Practices)

Do not use U or IU for units

abbreviations
May be mistaken 06 or or
as
Result The patient received 66 units of insulin instead of 6 units
Recommendations The word “units’ must be written out in full

Do not use QD, Q.D, qd, q.d.

abbreviations daily oncea
 May be mistaken QID or qid
as 4x a
day

Result Overdoses have occurred

Recommendations The word “Daily” must be written out
in full

Do not use Trailing Zero Example:

abbreviations 2.0 mg or 25.0 mg
May be mistaken 20 mg or 250 mg
as
Result The decimal point may be missed and an overdose may occur Example:
Warfarin 2.0 mg may be interpreted as 20 mg
Recommendations Trailing zeros should be omitted

Do not use Lack of leading zeros

abbreviations Example: Digoxin .25 mg
Warfarin .5 mg
May be mistaken The decimal point is missed
as Digoxin 25 mg
Warfarin 5 mg
Result Inaccurate dose
Recommendations Leading zeros must be added

Do not use MS, MSO4, MgSO4

abbreviations morphine
sOy
May be mistaken Abbreviations for morphine sulfate (MS, MSO4) have been confused with
as Magnesium
sulfate (MgSO4)
Result Wrong drug may be administered
Recommendations Write out each name in full

OTHERS:
Abbreviation May be mistaken as
cc instead of mL
>
-

0 ex50C.
+
5000 X

µg mg -instead of mcg
< “less than” I > “greater than”
HCT Hydrocortisone/ Hydrochlorothiazide SALAD
HCl HCI KCI SALAD
, Hydrochloric acid/Potassium Chloride

TALL-MAN LETTERING
• a term coined by the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), describes a method
for differentiating the unique letter characters of similar drug names known to have
been confused with one another.
• Starting with a drug name printed in lowercase letters, tall man lettering highlights the
differences between similar drug names by capitalizing dissimilar letters.
Vincristine Vinblastine
CRIS
Vin_______tine BLAS
Vin_______tine

Sound Alike Look Alike Drugs

(SALAD’s)
glipiZIDE glyBURIDE
niCARdipine NIFEdipine
predniSONE prednisoLONE
DOPamine* DOBUTamine
MODULE 3 PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

TOPIC QUIZ
1. Which of the following should be included in the auxiliary label of Omeprazole?
I. Refrigerate If reconstituted
>
-

II. Do not chew or crush ~

III. Must be taken with food X 30mins-Thr before meals
A. I
B. II
C. I and III
*
D. II and III
2. Which of the following should be part of the list of Dangerous Drugs monitored by the
pharmacist?
I. Tramadol X
II. Morphine (l)
III. Naloxone antidote-D opioid O antagonist
-

IV. Fentanyl (11)

A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II and IV
C. I and III
D. II and IV
3. What license should be current to legally dispense drugs for the requirements of patients?
A. P1 license precursor
-o

B. S3 license S1- dispenser

C. S4 license wholesaler
-

D. S2 license prescribers
-

4. Which of the following are TRUE regarding the dispensing of Dangerous Drugs?
I. Partial filling is allowed
II. Not all Dangerous Drugs require a Yellow Prescription for it to be dispensed EDD
III. Brand name is required in prescribing Dangerous Drugs
A. I and III not required
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
5. What is written in the Superscription?
A. Rx
B. Information about the patient
C. Give 10 mL three times a day for 7 days signa
D. Metronidazole 25mg/mL inscription
o
-

6. A STAT order means that the drug should be administered _______________.

A. As needed
B. As a single dose
C. Immediately
D. Continually
7. Which government agency issues yellow prescription?
A. PDEA
B. DOH
C. FDA
D. DDB
8. How many copies of the yellow prescription are issued when used?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2
9. What part of the prescription can the pharmacist read the drugs prescribed?
A. Superscription RX
B. Inscription medication
-

C. Subscription to pharmacist
>
-

D. Signa to patient (Trans)

-
D
10. Which of the following is the correct Tall-Man Lettering for Dopamine and Dobutamine?
A. DOPamine, DOBUTamine
B. dopAMINE, dobutamine Y
C. DOPAMINE, DOBUTAMINE X
D. dopamine, dobutamine X
11. Which of the following is considered as “Error prone abbreviations” by the Institute of Safe
Medication Practices?
I. mcg
II. IU -
III. Cc
IV. mL
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I, III and IV
C. II and III
D. II
12. Post-prandial means
A. Before meals
B. After meals
C. Take with water
D. At bedtime nS
13. Pharmacist PRC ID expires after how many years?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
14. A physician prescribed a medication for a patient. Transcribe the instructions for the
patient: 2 gtts a.d. qid 4 weeks
A. Instill 2 drops on left eye, four times a day for four weeks
B. Instill 2 drops on right eye, four times a day for four weeks
C. Instill 2 drops on left ear, four times a day for four weeks
D. Instill 2~drops on right
-
ear, four times
- a day for four
- weeks

REVIEW OF PHARMACOLOGY
Medroxyprogesterone
• Brand Name:___________________Ⓡ
Depo-prover
• ____________________-derivative
Progesterone
• MOA: inhibits Gonadotropin Hormone, Luteinizing Hormone secretion (causes uterine lining to
shed)
• Uses
§ Contraceptive
§ Treatment of Endometriosis
§ Treatment of Endometrial ______________
Cancer (endometrial cancer cells shed)

Goserelin
• Brand Name: ___________________Ⓡ
ZoladcX

• MOA: synthetic analog of LHRH (Luteinizing Hormone Releasing Hormone) àinhibit the ↓ estrogen
formation of sex hormones such as _____________
estrogen and _____________
testosterone (androgen)
• Treatment of breast cancer (estrogen-dependent) and prostate cancer (androgen-dependent)

Tamoxifen
• Brand Name: ___________________Ⓡ
Nolvadex Zolade
,

• MOA: SERM (Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator)

• Treatment of _______________
Breast Cancer
MODULE 3 PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

Flutamide
• Brand Name: ___________________Ⓡ
Eulexin

• MOA: synthetic analog of LHRH (Luteinizing Hormone Releasing Hormone) à inhibit the
formation of sex hormones such as estrogen and testosterone but not as monotherapy

• Treatment of __________________
Prostate Cancer
• Finasteride- treatment of BPH or __________________________
Benign prostatic hypertrophy
not for malignant

Sildenafil
• Brand Name: ___________________Ⓡ
viagra
• 5(V)
Phosphodiesterase _________________ inhibitor vasodilation : Blood flow to the penis
• Treatment of ________________ Dysfunction
erectile

• A/E: ________________
priapism uncontrollable penile erection

Inamrinone and Milrinone- PDE-3 inhibitors

1st

Streptomycin S griscus only

most
- .

• _________________
1st aminoglycoside to be discovered (Selman Waksman) ; most vestibulotoxic aminoglycoside
• Only Aminoglycoside used as a first line agent against Mycobacterium ____________________ tuberculosis Koch discase
· (zoonotic infections)BmculosisLague Rabbit Fever (Francisella tularensis)"Francis and fulalang
Also used for the treatment of Tularemia or ________________ Rabbit"

• Route of Administration:__________________

Co-trimoxazole
• Brand Name:___________________Ⓡ
Bactrim

• Combination of ___________________
Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole (both exert and anti-______________
bacterial
effect)
• Dosage forms: tablet, suspension, parenteral
• Indications: ________________
UTI
and _______________
PCP
(Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia)

Mechanism of Action
Pteridine + PABA
Synthase O Sulfamethoxazole
condensation Dihydroperate
(DHPS inn)
Dihydropteroate
F

Dihydrofolate
Reduction & Dihydrofolate Reductase OTrimethoprim
(DHPRinn)
Tetrahydrofolate
↓
Thymidine
↓
Bacterial DNA

Pneumocystis carinii Pneumonia

• Now: Pneumocystis _________________,
jiroveci a fungus that cause diffuse pneumonia in
immunocompromised patients (HIV/AIDS)

Sulfisoxazole
• Sulfonamide antibacterial with an oxazole substituent
• MOA: competitive inhibitor of ____________________
Dinydropteroate Synthetase
am
• In neonates, the drug may displace _________________,
Bilirubin which then crosses the blood brain
barrier, reaches the CNS causing KERNICTERUS
Crystallur
a
A
/E :

Anemia

i
aused
ernicterus
tevens Johnson syndrome
 Nitrofurantoin
• MacrobidⓇ, MacrodantinⓇ
• Urinary ____________________
antiinfective antiseptic
• MOA: inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis
• Effective against G(+) and G(-) bacteria

Niclosamide
• Treatment of _________________
tapeworm infections
Taenia saginata or _____________
BCeF tapeworm Tae-pray-NiC
Taenia solium of _____________
Pork tapeworm
• MOA: inhibits oxidative phosphorylation in worms =
nO ATP

•
(tapeworm
_________________- DOC for flatworms
cestodes
Praziquantel (Flukes Trematodes

Febuxostat
• Brand Name: UloricⓇ
• MOA: Non-purine _________________
Xanthine oxidase inhibitor
• Treatment of Hyperuricemia (increase uric acid in the blood)
• Alternative to patients with Allopurinol allergy
1st line for gout

Enalapril
• ACE-inhibitor
• MOA: inhibit the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II (potent vasoconstrictor) * BP
• Inhibits breakdown of bradykinins causing _______________
dry cough
• Alternative: Angiotensin II receptor blockers (-sartans)

Lovastatin
• _________________
HMG COA reductase inhibitor 3. hydroxy-3-methylglutary) Coenzyme A reductase
• Given to patients with hyper________________
cholesterolemia

• May cause _______________

Liver damage when taken with enzyme inhibitors
• Rhabdomyolysis- breakdown of skeletal muscles, resulting in the release of sarcoplasmic
proteins (AST and CK) and electrolytes. It presents with myalgia and muscle weakness
(_________________)
Myasthenia

Fluoxetine
• Brand Name: ProzacⓇ
• SSRI (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor)
• Inhibit the reabsorption of Serotonin to the end plate of sending neuron
• May cause ___________________________
scrotonin syndrome
(Augmented ADR)
• F_______, A_______,
ever gitation S______,
weating T_______
remors

Erythromycin Estolate
• A_________________
macrolide antibiotic 1-thromycin) ErythromySin * ester of erythromycin causing cholestatic hepatitis ? Erythromycin estolate

• May cause ___________________

cholestatic hepatitis (liver injury develops about 1-3 weeks after starting the
medications; presented as ________________ jaundice and right upper quadrant pain)

BoTox A (Botulinum Toxin A) blethal

-

• Released by Clostridium botulinum

• A neurotoxin (inhibits the release of __________________)
acetylcholine -
severe muscle relaxation

• Medicine
• Treat blepharospasms (uncontrollable blinking) and strabismus (crossed- eyes)
• Cosmetics ID/IM -

• Prevent ______________
wrinkles and fine line formation
MODULE 3 PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

Ipratropium Bromide (Relievers)

• Anticholinergic agent (dilators

Relievers
• Bronchodilator (immediate relief of asthma) controllers (steroids)
• Tiotropium vs Ipratropium
G Lshort
Long POA ; Ixaday DOA ; 3-4x a
day

Desmopressin
• Synthetic ____________________
vasopressin or anti-diuretic hormone
• Indication: Diabetes ________________
insipidus
" no ADH , 2012 urine ,
colorless , odorless , tasteless

Sirolimus Tacrolimus

• Immunosuppressant
• Indication: prevent organ rejection

Meclizine
• Anti-histamine and anti-cholinergic or anti-muscarinic sidation -

• For nausea, vomiting and dizziness caused by motion sickness

• Dosage form: ____________________
tablet chewable tablet
,

• Take 25-50 mg, ___________________ 1 hour before traveling and another dose after 24 hours while
travelling Conce day a

Other drugs for motion sickness: Buclizine, Cyclazine, Promethazine Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) -morning sickness

Memantine
• NMDA (N-methyl-d-aspartate) receptor antagonist
• for __________disease
Alzheimer's

accumulation of beta-amyloid plaques severe dementia =

increase glutamate levels neurotoxicity =

Varenicline
• Treatment of _________
nicoting addiction
-nicotine dopamine-mood
• __________ acetylcholine receptor partial agonist M
altering effect
nicotinic

Heparin
• ROA: ___________
Parenteral Polymer(glycosaminoglycan
Parentral (IIsa)
• Dose expressed in __________
usp units
Pregnant (hypercoagulable State

Antidote: __________
Protamine sulfate Protamine SulfateCantidote

APTTT -"monitoring parameter

Chemical Antagonism Lactivated Partial Thromboplastin Time
Heparin + Protamine Sulfate

Warfarin
• ROA: ___________
or al CII :
pregnant
• Dose expressed in __________ mg PT-INR -monitoring parameter
• Antidote: __________
vit K (clotting Factors) Koagulant
(international Normalized Ratio
BN: ____________
coumadin

Physiologic Antagonism
Warfarin + Vitamin K

Rosuvastatin Rhabdomyolysis
- P

• HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor hypercholesterolemia -

• Induces ______________injury
liver due to reduction of mevalonate and elevation of liver enzymes
Before administration, check the patient’s ___________function
liver
 Oxacillin
• A beta-lactam antibiotic B-lactam ring
opens the
of penicillin = inactivation of antibiotic

• __________________resistant
B-lactamase agent
1st Blactamase resistant

Others: Nafcillin, Cloxacillin

____________ Methicillin
Dicloxacillin and _______________
,
-

Sitagliptin
• competitive inhibitor of DPP-4 (_______________)
Dipeptidyl Peptidase 4 and reduce the ability of the enzyme to
inactivate the incretin hormones GLP-1 and GIP. Glucagon -
Like pepride
Gastric-inhibitory polypeptide

• Result: ___________synthesis
Insulin and secretion are increased and ___________secretion
61UCOSS reduced

Pindolol
• Beta-blocker with ISA (_________ __________
intrinsic sympathomimetic ___________) ↓ Co = BP
Activity
• Advantage: decrease blood pressure and systemic ____________ vascular
(rasodilator
resistance, while heart rate and
cardiac output are maintained bradycardia no
Bet niAcc ap PePini Isa
" "

Other beta-blockers with ISA- __________lol accbuto and __________lol

penbuto

Entecavir antiviral ↑

• orally administered cyclopentyl guanosine analogue

• use: treatment of _____________
Hepatitis B virus infection
chronic hepatitis -
Liver cancer - sexually transmitted

Iopamidol & lothalamate meglumine

-

• ________________
Radiopaque contrast agent
Allows organs and blood vessels to be seen more clearly on CT scan and X-rays

Granisetron
• _____________
5 His -

receptor antagonist toxic to rapidly dividing cells

Use: to prevent ____________and

naused ____________
vomiting caused by cancer chemotherapy

Enoxaparin unfrac Heparin : THMW

• ___________
low Molecular Weight Heparin (LMWH)
• Longer ___________
duration of action than Unfractionated Heparin : less Frequency

• LMWH ROA: _____________

subcutaneously

• UFH ROA: ___________IV or SC

• Other LMWH: Dalteparin, Tinzaparin
• Indications: prevent
DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis)
Pulmonary embolism
DIC Disseminated intravascular coagulation

Atracurium arrow poison

ulaxation
screre music
• Brand Name: Tracrium
• Skeletal muscle __________during
relaxant
*
surgery or mechanical ventilation choline
Depo : succiny /

• __________-depolarizing
Non Neuromuscular Blocker Neuromascular blocking agent non : curo , curi , cura

Glutathione
• Reduced form of Glutathione (GSH) is an ___________ antioxidant

• MOA: repress ____________

Melanin (skinlightening a production by REDOX mechanisms

• The Philippine FDA has approved oral glutathione products as ___________________.

nutritional supplement

• Injectable glutathione has been approved as a drug to protect cancer patients from the nerve
side effects of _______________-based
cisplatin chemotherapy
• OFF LABEL USE: Skin whitening agent

Fondaparinox
-
binds to antithrombin 111

inhibitor of activated Factor X

-
Synthetic
-anti wagulant agent
MODULE 3 PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

Mebendazole Antioxi
• used to treat infections caused by worms such as nematodes roundworms ,

Whipworm Trichuris trichiura whip-TT abibilog

Pinworm Enterobius vermicularis "Enter your pin" M itosis
enendazole
inno

Roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides

Hookworm NewWorld Necator americanus ; Old world Ancytostoma duodenale

: :

NeNC An tanda
• Available dosage forms:
Oral tablet
po[ Chewable tablet
Compounding powder
______________absorbed
poorly in the digestive tract making it effective medication for managing
intestinal helminthic infections with very few side effects

Tetrahydrozoline
• Imidazoline derivative - redness
Visine Eyemo
,

• Dosage forms: _________ drops and__________

decongestant
ophthalmic nasal spray-nasal Tyzine
• Alpha-adrenergic __________ agonist
Causes ____________
constriction of conjunctival blood vessels to decrease eye redness caused by ocular
irritants
Arachidonic acid-cox prostaglandin
Aspirin
• Anti-inflammatory agent
Inhibit the activity of COX (_________________)
Cyclooxygenase which leads to a decrease in the formation of
______________
Prostaglandins that cause inflammation, swelling, pain and fever

Erlotinib
• Tyrosine kinase inhibitor
• Used in the treatment of advanced or metastatic ___________or
breast non-small cell
___________cancer
lung

Pegfilgrastim
• Filgrastim + __________________
PEG
Eosinophils
chemotherapy attacks Granulocytes
Recombinant human granulocyte colony stimulating factor (G-CSF) Basophils Neutrophils

Docetaxel
• ___________
Taxans antineoplastic agent For breast & Ovarian cancer
-

inn microtubule depolymerization

Others: Paclitaxel, _____________
cabazitaxel -

Bevacizumab
• Human IgG monoclonal antibody that targets VEGF Vascular endothereal

Blocks ______________
angiogenesis ; antitumor

Vitamin E
• Aka _______________
Tocopherol
• ___________-soluble
Fat Vitamin ADEK
Antioxidant of biological membranes

Sulbactam
• Ampicillin (unasyne)
A beta-lactamase inhibitor oftentimes combined with _______________.

Dichlorobenzyl Alcohol
• + Amyl meta-cresol (_______________________Ò)
strepsils

• solid to be dissolved slowly

Dosage Form: __________________
-*

lozenges
 Griseofulvin
• Antifungal Antibiotic Fungus : P griscofulrum (ringworm
.

• Must be taken with a ____________________

Fatty milk to increase ________________.
absorption

Drugs for Cough and Colds

• Dextromethorphan: __________________
antitussive

• Guaifenesin: __________________
expectorant

• Pseudoephedrine: ______________________
nasal decongestant

• Fexofenadine: _____________________
anti-histamina

FOOD SUPPLEMENTS

Melatonin • Reduce sleep _________________

onset latency latency in sleeping disorders for _______________
adults

and _______________
children

Ginkgo Ginkgolides • Inhibits _________________

platelet aggregating factors (improve blood circulation)
biloba Bilobalides • Also used as a memory enhancer
• Must not be administered with _______________ anti-platelets or blood thinners (risk of
_______________
bleeding (hemorrhage)
St. John’s • Anti- ____________________
depressant
Wort Flavonold • Enzyme ______________________
inducer cyp450-oxides (_________________
↓ serum concentration of the
(hypericia object drug)
Grapefruit • Good source of vitamins and anti-oxidants
Juice • Enzyme _______________
inhibitor cyp450 (_______________
:
i toxicity serum concentration of the object drug)

TOPIC QUIZ
1. This/these drugs are indicated for the treatment of motion sickness?
~
I. Dimenhydrinate
II. Meclizine ~
III. Memantine AD
A. I, II, and III
B. I and II
C. II
D. III
2. A patient was prescribed Varenicline. This drug used for ________.
A. Obesity prevention
B. Drug rehabilitation
C. Smoking cessation
D. Treatment of alcohol withdrawal symptoms
3. To differentiate the drugs Heparin and Warfarin, which of the following is/are TRUE?
-
I. Heparin is administered parenterally while warfarin is given orally.
II. Dosage strength of both heparin
units
and warfarin are expressed in “Units”. mg
- III. They are both anticoagulants. soy
: protamin
X
IV. They have the same antidotes in cases of overdose. Heparin
warfarin : Vit K
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II, III, and IV
C. I and III
D. II and III
4. Which of the following drugs belongs to the same pharmacologic class as Drug LMWH?
A. Vasopressin
B. Terazosin
C. Warfarin
D. Enoxaparin
5. Which of the following would be the indication of Drug LMWH to the patient?
A. CHF treatment
B. DVT treatment
C. AMI treatment
MODULE 3 PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

D. BPH treatment
6. How are low molecular weight heparins (LMWH) administered?
A. Oral unfractionated : SQB IV
B. Subcutaneous Heparin
C. intramuscular
D. intravenous
7. Before the drug Rosuvastatin is given, which of the following parameters should be
monitored in relation to a known adverse effect of this drug?
A. Liver function test
B. Blood glucose level
C. Kidney function test
D. Blood pressure
8. A patient with pneumonia has a sputum culture that is positive for a beta-lactamase positive
staphylococcal strain. What is the BEST choice of penicillin therapy for this patient?
A. Ampicillin
B. Piperacillin
C. Penicillin G
D. Oxacillin
9. Which anti-diabetic drug works as a competitive reversible inhibitor of DPP-4, reducing
enzymatic inactivation of the incretin hormones, GLP-1 and GIP?
A. Metformin
B. Nateglinide
C. Pioglitazone
D. Sitagliptin
10. Which of the following beta-blockers has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity?
A. Timolol
B. Propanol
C. Nebivolol
D. Pindolol
11. Increased levels of this lipoprotein is associated with a decreased risk of atherosclerosis
A. Very Low Density
B. Low Density ↑ LDL Atherosclerosis
=

C. High Density
D. Triglycerides
12. What adverse effect may result from the intake of HMG CoA reductase inhibitors?
A. Bleeding (-statins)
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Hypertensive crisis
13. Hepatitis B is a viral infection severely affecting the liver cells. Which of the following drugs
would be indicated for the treatment of chronic hepatitis B?
A. Amphotericin B antifungal
B. Niclosamide anthelmintic
C. Entecavir
D. Meropenem antibacterial
14. Iopamidol, an iodine containing compound is used as a _____________.
A. Household chemical
B. Disinfectant
C. Food supplement
D. Contrast media
15. Atracurium is classified as a/an _______.
A. Anticoagulants
B. Anesthetic agents
C. Antipsychotic drugs
D. Neuromuscular blockers non depolarizing NMB
16. A cancer patient receives Granisetron during chemotherapy. The drug is given to
__________________.
A. Increase immune system of the patient
 B. Reduce duration of neutropenia
C. Prevent nausea and vomiting
D. Increase appetite of patient
17. A patient asked the pharmacist about the use of the drug Fondaparinux. What is the
correct response? anticoagulant
A. It is an NSAID indicated for moderate to severe pain.
B. It is an antibiotic to prevent infection.
C. It is a blood thinner given to prevent blood clot formation.
thrombolytics
D. It dissolves any clot that will develop
18. Glutathione is an antioxidant commonly used today as a skin lightening agent. Which of
the following is/are TRUE regarding IV glutathione?
I. It affects the production of melatonin
- II. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is as adjunct treatment in cisplatin
chemotherapy.
III. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is for skin lightening.
A. III
B. I and II
C. II
D. I, II and III
19. Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding Mebendazole?
- I. It is a medication for ascariasis.
- II. It is poorly absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract.
III. It is administered parenterally.
-

A. I and II
B. I
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
20. Which of the following is/are true regarding Tetrahydrozoline?
I. It has an otic preparation Visine

-
II. It is a vasoconstrictor
III. It is an adrenergic antagonist agonist
A. II
B. III
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
21. The anti-inflammatory effect of aspirin is due to_______.
A. An antiplatelet effect
-

B. Its acidity
C. The stimulation of endogenous hydrocortisone production
D. The inhibition of the synthesis of prostaglandins
22. Which of the following is a Monoclonal Antibody?
A. Docetaxel
B. Bevacizumab
C. Erlotinib
D. Pegfilgrastim
23. Which of the following is a “fat-soluble vitamin”?
A. Riboflavin B2 ADEK
B. Alpha-tocopherol
C. Vitamin B6 pyridoxine
BD
D. cyanocobalamin
24. Which of the following is used as a treatment of Taenia saginata infection?
A. Niclosamide
B. Ceftriaxone Fac-Nic-pray
C. Mebendazole
D. Primaquine Praziquantel
25. Indication for prescribing the drug Febuxostat to a patient.
A. High uric acid
B. Low hemoglobin
MODULE 3 PRACTICE OF PHARMACY

C. High Low Density Lipoprotein

D. High Triglyceride
26. Which of the following is/are true about Co-trimoxazole? Oral ; clotrimazole (Canesten8) topical
-

I. It is a combination of Trimethoprim and Sulfisoxazole sulfamethoxazole

- II. The drugs are antibacterial agents
III. Topical preparations are locally available
A. I and II
B. II
C. I, II and III
D. I
27. Which of the following is/are True about Sildenafil?
-
I. It causes priapism
- II. It is indicated for erectile dysfunction
- III. It is a PDE 5 inhibitor
A. I and II
B. III
C. I, II and III
D. II
28. Which of the following medicines will bring down the patient’s cholesterol levels?
- I. Atorvastatin HMG Redacid
- wa .
hypercholesterolemia
Bile
-II. Cholestyramine sequestrant ↓ Blood choles feol levels
=

-
III. Fenofibrate hypercholesterolemia
-

A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D. II and III
29. Which of the following are TRUE about Streptomycin? 30S
I. Mechanism of action is similar to Erythromycin macrolide 50s
II. Belongs to Aminoglycosides -- micin
-
mycin

III. Effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis -

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I, II and III
D. II and III
30. A reversible cholestatic hepatitis with fever and jaundice has been observed as an adverse
reaction in patients taking Erythromycin _____________.
A. Estolate
B. Base
C. Ethyl succinate
D. Stearate
31. What is the enzyme inhibitor commonly combined with Ampicillin?
A. Sulbactam + Ampicillin
B. Tazobactam piperacillin
+

C. Beta-lactamase
D. Clavulanic acid - Amoxicillin
32. Which of the following has been found to reduce sleep onset latency in many sleep related
disorders in both adults and children?
A. Melatonin
B. Glucosamine
C. Ginkgo biloba
D. St. John’s Wort
33. In the classification of drugs in the formulary, which of the following will not be included in
the list under anti-cancer drug?
A. Goserelin Breast & prostate
B. Bevacizumab Gangiogenesis
C. Sirolimus immunosuppressant
D. Asparaginase anti cancer
-
-
34. Which of the following may cause drug-induced kernicterus in neonates?
A. Doxycycline
B. Chloramphenicol
sulfonamides

C. Isoniazid
D. Sulfisoxazole
35. Which of the following is an antitussive?
A. Guaifenesin expectorant
-

B. Pseudoephedrine nasal decongestant

-

C. Dextromethorphan anti tussive

-

D. Fexofenadine anti-histamine
36. What is the available dosage form of Dichlorobenzyl Alcohol (Strepsilsâ)
A. Oral solution
B. Lozenge
C. Sublingual Tablet
D. Enteric-coated Tablet
37. Which of the following is a non-narcotic antitussive?
A. Codeine opiate
B. Noscapine opiate
C. Butamirate Citrate
D. Dextromethorphan opioid