IT Concepts & Terminologies

Common Computing Devices

What systems use a Central Processing Unit (CPU) and memory?
●​ All types of computers

What type of computer is most likely to need peripheral devices?

●​ Desktop

What type of computer is best suited for using in a job where you have to make notes
and be able to move around easily?
●​ A tablet or smartphone or possibly a hybrid laptop/tablet.

Which is a true statement regarding whether or not laptops make good servers?
●​ There are limited options for expansion, and its components are not practical for
network-wide use cases.

Why is a smartphone NOT a good tool for writing a report?

●​ Touchscreen or mini keyboards are not optimized for writing lots of text.

What IoT device may contain a "black box" that is able to record event data?
●​ Smart Vehicle
Using a Workstation
What should you do before attempting to set up a new computer system?
●​ Verify that the environment is suitable and that the installation will be safe.

When setting up a desktop computer, what factor should you consider when deciding on
the location of the system case?
●​ You need to consider the position of power outlet(s) and peripheral devices as
well as air flow around the system unit.

What factors should you consider when positioning input and output devices?
●​ Ensure that they can be used without exerting strain, especially on the arms /
wrists and back / neck.

You have to sign in to Windows - does it matter if the CAPS LOCK light on the keyboard
is activated?
●​ Windows passwords are case sensitive, so the CAPS LOCK may prevent
successful login.

You have to open a word processing application, but you cannot see an icon on the
desktop. What should you do?
●​ Look for the shortcut in Start Menu or Start Screen.

Your colleague has to run many applications at the same time and finds it difficult to
know which icon to choose when switching between them. What alternative method
could you suggest?
●​ Press Alt+Tab - this shows previews of the window and allows the user to quickly
switch between windows.

Your colleague is using a laptop and you notice that he laboriously clicks the external
mouse repeatedly to scroll through the document you are co-editing. Which feature
could he use to be more productive?
●​ The mouse scroll-wheel on the external mouse to maneuver the scroll bar
Using OS

What function of an operating system is performed by the "shell"?

●​ Interface between the user and the computer.

Which system object provides the functionality for a hardware component?

●​ A device driver

What is an example of open source operating systems?

●​ Linux, Chromium, or Android

What type of computing device(s) is macOS designed for installation on?

●​ Workstations and laptops

Which of these statements is FALSE regarding the Windows 10 versions available?

●​ Windows 10 Enterprise is similar to the Pro edition but designed for licensing by
small businesses.

You are using the mouse to access a file located on a network server. There are
currently no mapped drives. What should be your first step?
●​ Open the Network object from Explorer and locate the server hosting the file

What is the technical term for a web address?

●​ Uniform Resource Locator (URL)

What key combination can you use to force the browser to ignore any locally cached
files when refreshing a page?
●​ Ctrl+F5

Which of the following methods can be used to open the Computer Management
console? (Select all that apply.)
●​ Right-click the Start button.
●​ Right-click the This PC object in File Explorer.
Managing an OS
What term is used to describe terminating a process that is not responding to user
input?
●​ This is often called "killing" the process.

Why might you use the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) Services snap-in to
manage background processes rather than Task Manager?
●​ Task Manager allows you to start and stop services but the Services snap-in also
allows you to configure service properties.

The Task Scheduler allows you to run a process automatically in Windows. What is a
widely-used Linux equivalent?
●​ Cron

Which method does a technician use to configure and improve a system's memory
usage?
●​ Use of virtual memory or a pagefile, where disk space is used to supplement
system RAM.

What two things are configured on a disk to make storage space on the disk available to
the Windows OS?
●​ The disk must contain at least one partition, typically allocated a drive letter, and
the partition must be formatted with a suitable file system.

What is a Command Line Interface (CLI)?

●​ A Command Line Interface allows the user to interact with the OS using typed
commands or scripts rather than a GUI.

What protection feature in Windows is designed to prevent a script or software from

making unauthorized changes to the OS configuration?
●​ User Account Control (UAC)

Which of these statements is true regarding a standard user and their password?
●​ Standard users can change their own password but cannot change anyone else's
password.
Troubleshooting and Support
You are advising a colleague about best practices when troubleshooting. You have
identified the following techniques to use to identify a problem: gather information,
duplicate the problem, question users, identify symptoms, and approach multiple
problems individually. If you are following CompTIA's troubleshooting model, what other
piece of advice should you give?
●​ Determine if anything has changed

You have asked a senior manager to authorize your plan of action for resolving a fault in
a software application. What name is given to the process you are following?
●​ Escalating the problem

You are setting up a new computer, but it doesn't seem to be working. Should you check
anything or contact the manufacturer?
●​ it would be best to double-check you have connected the cables correctly.

Your computer locks up (freezes) periodically and feels hot to the touch. Could these
things be related?
●​ Yes, many lockup problems are caused by overheating.’’

What crucial piece of information would you need when trying to locate support
information about a computer system on the manufacturer's website?
●​ The model number or a service code.​

If you do not have a support contract, what is likely to be the best option for obtaining
advice about a problem with an application?
●​ A product support or community forum

You are looking for content on a topic, but your search is returning millions of matches
that are not particularly helpful. Which option includes two methods that you could use
to get better search results?
●​ Use more search keywords (ideally with 'uncommon' words), or search for an
exact phrase by enclosing it in quotes.

You want to find something on a particular website, but the site does not have a search
tool. Could you use a general search engine (and if so, how)?
●​ Yes—you use an advanced search form and provide a URL such as [Link].
Using Data Types and Units
Which notation system supports presenting the largest numbers using the fewest digits?
●​ Hexadecimal

What is the decimal number 75 in binary and hexadecimal?

●​ 0100 1011 in binary and 4B in hex

Which data type provides for whole numbers only?

●​ Integer

In general, what is the difference between the char and string data types?
●​ Char stores a single textual character in a fixed length field (typically 1 byte). A
string is a variable length field for storing a sequence of characters.

Which data representation format can encode the widest range of characters?
●​ Unicode

What is TRUE about legal protection for a novel software algorithm?

●​ Patent provides the best protection as it can enforce ownership even if someone
tries to write the algorithm in a slightly different way.

What data protection technology could you implement in order to restrict the type of
activity that a user could employ on digital products that they have purchased or rented?
●​ Digital Rights Management

What part of the process of data analytics is most closely supported by meaningful
reporting?
●​ Insights
Application and Software Development

Using App
What compatibility information should you confirm before installing a software
application?
●​ That it works with the version of the operating system that you have, and that
your computer meets the system (hardware) requirements.

Following installation of a program written for an older version of Windows, you receive
an alert that it might not have installed correctly. What feature could you use to make
the program run correctly?
●​ Use the program's Compatibility tab to use settings for the older Windows
version.

Why would Windows prompt you to enter a password if you try to install a software
application?
●​ Installing an application requires administrator privileges and is an action
protected by User Account Control

Windows comes with web server software, but it is not installed by default. How would
you install this software?
●​ Use the Turn Windows features on or off dialog from Programs and Features.

Following installation of an application, another program on your computer has stopped

working. What could you do to try to fix it?
●​ Try using the Repair option in Programs and Features (if available) or
re-installing the program.

Why might one of your first tasks on receiving a new computer be to remove software
applications?
●​ The computer may be bundled with pre-installed software that you do not want.

In order to obtain support on a currently installed application, the software vendor wants
to know the application's product ID. How would you locate this information?
●​ Usually via the Help > About menu.

What is the difference between freeware and open source software?

●​ Open source means that the programming code used to design the software is
publicly available.
What type of software would you use to configure a server by connecting to it over the
network?
●​ Remote desktop

What type of software manages tasks, dependencies, and timelines?

●​ Project management software

You have just bought a new computer but want to use the older version of Windows that
came with your previous computer. Windows was provided as an OEM license. Can you
use this license key to install the software on your new PC?
●​ Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses can only be used on the brand
and model it was initially installed on.

Programming and App Development

What shows the structure of code without using the specific syntax of any one
language?
●​ Pseudocode

What is an interpreted programming language?

●​ Interpreted languages do not need to be compiled because the code gets
converted to machine code at runtime.

How does a markup language differ from a compiled language?

●​ A markup language is not a programming language, rather it is a way of using
nested tags within a document to describe its structure and contents.

What are constants and variables examples of?

●​ Programming identifiers

What type of programming concept allows for a variable size container?

●​ A vector

You want to check whether a condition has been met, and if it has, perform one action.
Otherwise, you want your program to perform a second action. What sort of
programming operation would help achieve this?
●​ A conditional branch
In a program, what does a loop do?
●​ A loop performs one or more instructions until a condition is met.

What is the difference between a procedure and a function?

●​ A procedure does something, while a function does something and then returns a
value to the main program.

What three things define an object?

●​ Properties, attributes, and methods

What three scripting options are commonly used in Windows 10 to perform

administrative tasks?
●​ Batch files, Windows PowerShell scripts, and VBScripts

What is the best way to install a web application on your computer?

●​ You do not install a web application on your computer. You access it through your
browser.

In terms of data storage, what is the advantage of using a server over a workstation?
●​ If data is stored on the server and not on the local workstation, it is easier to
apply access controls and to back it up.
What type of software would you use to configure a server by connecting to it over the
network?
●​ Remote desktop

What type of software manages tasks, dependencies, and timelines?

●​ What type of software manages tasks, dependencies, and timelines?

You have just bought a new computer but want to use the older version of Windows that
came with your previous computer. Windows was provided as an OEM license. Can you
use this license key to install the software on your new PC?
●​ Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM) licenses can only be used on the brand
and model it was initially installed on.

Programming and App Development

What shows the structure of code without using the specific syntax of any one
language?
●​ Pseudocode

What is an interpreted programming language?

●​ Interpreted languages do not need to be compiled because the code gets
converted to machine code at runtime.

How does a markup language differ from a compiled language?

●​ A markup language is not a programming language, rather it is a way of using
nested tags within a document to describe its structure and contents.

What are constants and variables examples of?

●​ Programming identifiers

What type of programming concept allows for a variable size container?

●​ A vector

You want to check whether a condition has been met, and if it has, perform one action.
Otherwise, you want your program to perform a second action. What sort of
programming operation would help achieve this?
●​ A conditional branch

In a program, what does a loop do?

●​ A loop performs one or more instructions until a condition is met
What is the difference between a procedure and a function?
●​ A procedure does something, while a function does something and then returns a
value to the main program.

What three things define an object?

●​ What three things define an object?

What three scripting options are commonly used in Windows 10 to perform

administrative tasks?
●​ Batch files, Windows PowerShell scripts, and VBScripts

What is the best way to install a web application on your computer?

●​ You do not install a web application on your computer. You access it through your
browser.

In terms of data storage, what is the advantage of using a server over a workstation?
●​ If data is stored on the server and not on the local workstation, it is easier to
apply access controls and to back it up.
Using Databases
What are the structural elements of a database?

●​ Each query stores information about tables in reports.

●​ Each table stores information about records in fields.
●​ Each table stores information about queries and reports.
●​ Each report stores information about tables in fields.

What term is used to describe selecting and viewing information in a database?

●​ Create
●​ Query
●​ Storage
●​ Report

How does Microsoft SQL Server differ from Microsoft Excel when used to store a
dataset?

●​ Excel is an example of relational database software that is better suited for

larger volumes of information and more users, whereas SQL Server is a flat file
system.
●​ Excel is an example of relational database software, whereas SQL Server is a
flat file system that is better suited for larger volumes of information and more
users.
●​ Excel is an example of a flat file system, whereas SQL Server is relational
database software that is better suited for larger volumes of information and
more users.
●​ Excel is an example of a flat file system that is better suited for larger volumes
of information and more users, whereas SQL Server is relational database
software.
What language is usually used to request data from an RDBMS such as Oracle?

●​ Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) is used to query RDBMS-based database

platforms.
●​ Structured Query Language (SQL) is used to query RDBMS-based database
platforms.
●​ Java is used to query RDBMS-based database platforms.
●​ eXtensible Markup Language (XML) is used to query RDMBS-based database
platforms.

How is a relationship identified between two tables in an RDBMS?

●​ Each table contains a foreign key whose value is unique for each record in the
table. A secondary table can use the value of a foreign key as a relation,
storing the value in a primary key field.
●​ Each table contains a primary key whose value is unique for each record in the
table. A secondary table can use the value of a primary key as a relation,
storing the value in a foreign key field.
●​ A relationship between tables is created and identified by the schema.
●​ A constraint defines the relationship between tables.

Which of the following is NOT an example of unstructured data?

●​ PowerPoint presentation
●​ Image files
●​ Text files
●​ Relational databases
An INSERT statement is an example of what data language type?

●​ Data Manipulation Language

●​ Data Definition language
●​ Neither Data Manipulation Language nor Data Definition Language
●​ Both Data Manipulation Language and Data Definition Language

You need a development environment with a library of database functions. What

type of interface are you using?

●​ Programmatic access
●​ Query/Report Builder
●​ Utility Access
●​ Direct/Manual Access

How can a client-server application architecture be described if it could be

re-developed to split the application and presentation layers?

●​ This could be described as a one-tier application capable of becoming a

two-tier application.
●​ This could be described as a n-tier application that cannot be further
re-developed.
●​ This could be described as a two-tier application capable of becoming a
three-tier application.
●​ This could be described as a three-tier application capable of becoming a n-tier
application.
Infrastructure
What type of component provides persistent storage?

●​ The Hard Disk Drive (HDD) and Solid State Drive (SSD)
●​ The Central Processing Unit (CPU)
●​ The Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)
●​ The Random Access Memory (RAM)

What computer component is most restrictive in terms of determining upgrade

potential for a desktop computer?

●​ System firmware
●​ The motherboard
●​ The Graphics Processing Unit (GPU)
●​ The Network Interface Card (NIC)

What provides sound functionality in a personal computer?

●​ Sound functions are often provided by the motherboard chipset.

●​ Sound functions are provided by a plug-in card with external speakers.
●​ Sound functions in modern PCs will send your audio directly to an external
radio for processing.
●​ Sound functions must be provided by a plug-in sound card.

What is a typical speed for a mid-range CPU to run at?

●​ Around 2 GHz; budget models might run as low as 1 GHz, while faster ones
run at 3 or 4 GHz.
●​ Around 4 GHz for each core processor.
●​ 1.21 Gigawatts.
●​ Around 2 MHz, if you overclock it. Most still run at 1 MHz.

What is the main advantage of using a CPU in 64-bit mode?

 ●​ There are no advantages of a 64-bit CPU over a 32-bit CPU. They cost more
money and are not worth the cost.
●​ 64-bit software is more reliable and is faster than 32-bit software. It also
supports more system memory.
●​ It's new and technically more scalable than the 32-bit CPU.
●​ CPUs don't use 64-bit mode; they are limited to 16 bits. This means that each
instruction is 16-bits "wide".

You want to purchase a computer with a fast graphics interface. What type of
expansion slot should you look for?

●​ PCIe x16—this is a type of PCI Express slot that uses 16 'lanes'. Each lane
can transfer 250 MBps (or 500 MBps for PCIe 2 and 1 GBps for v3).
●​ Connect solid-state graphics to the high-speed SATA slots and mechanical disk
drives to the lower-speed slots.
●​ Motherboard SIMM slots—this type of slot has 30-pin slots typically used in
laptops while the 64-pin and 72-pin slots were found on desktop motherboards.
●​ SDRAM and DDR—this type of slot is common for desktop computers (if you
use a laptop, you need to look for a SODIMM) each having various types and
speeds.

What type of component provides a passive cooling solution?

●​ A cooling fan
●​ A heatsink
●​ An insulation blanket
●​ A liquid cooling system
How would you access the system setup program on a PC?

●​ Historically, by pressing and holding the Windows key (4 little white boxes) on
your keyboard. Modern PCs use the function key "F5"
●​ Logically, by pressing CTL+ALT+DEL twice during startup. Just like when you
want to exit a program on your PC.
●​ Logically, by pressing ALT+F4 during startup will access the startup menu
through windows.
●​ Historically, by pressing the appropriate key during startup (ESC, DEL, F1, F2,
or F10). Modern PCs often use fast boot modes that require some other means
of booting to the firmware setup program.

Mice and keyboards CANNOT connect to which types of ports?

●​ PS/2 ports
●​ Bluetooth interfaces
●​ Ethernet ports
●​ USB ports

Which of these statements is NOT true about Universal Serial Bus (USB)
cables?

●​ USB cables never have the same connectors at either end.

●​ There are now USB cables with reversible Type C connectors.
●​ The connectors for the host (PC) and device use different form factors.
●​ There are USB cables with normal size connectors on one end and mini or
micro device connectors on the other.

A user has two USB drives connected to her PC. She complains that when she
copies large files to both drives at the same time, it seems to take much longer.
Why might this be?

●​ The flash drive partitions haven't been formatted.

●​ Bandwidth on the USB bus is shared between all devices.
●​ Writing to USB drives can only occur one at a time.
●​ She has the cables swapped backwards.
You want to purchase a flat panel monitor that can show widescreen movies.
Which native resolution should you choose?

●​ 1400x1050
●​ 1024x768
●​ 1920x1440
●​ 1920x1080

Which type of display interface does NOT support high definition digital picture
resolution?

●​ Thunderbolt
●​ HDMI
●​ DVI
●​ VGA

You are considering buying a new display device. The model you are
considering accepts digital inputs only. Your computer's graphics adapter has a
blue port with 15 holes. Would this flat panel be a wise purchase?

●​ No, as this connector is VGA which supports analog output only.

●​ Yes, as this connector is DVI which supports digital only.
●​ No, as this connector is DisplayPort which supports analog output only.
●​ Yes, as this connector is HDMI which supports both digital and analog.

You need to configure settings for a bluetooth device. What should be your first
step?

●​ Configure the wireless adapter to connect to the new input device.

●​ Open the Settings app or Control Panel.
A friend is asking for your help in using her computer. When your friend presses
the key marked @, the " symbol appears. What could be the cause?

●​ Somebody has moved a key to a different place on the keyboard.

●​ The keyboard is broken.
●​ The Shift button doesn't work properly.
●​ The keyboard is set to use a UK layout.

What type of mouse would you recommend for someone who uses their
computer principally to play computer games and why?

●​ Mechanical mouse — it requires less wrist movement and you don't need a
mouse pad.
●​ A stylus mouse — as its accuracy is high and can easily be moved around the
input field.
●​ Optical mouse — it senses movement relative to a surface using light instead
of a roller ball.
●​ Laser mouse — this registers cursor movements more quickly and accurately.

Which Windows interface is used for advanced management and

troubleshooting of devices?

●​ Personalization applet
●​ Device manager
●​ Display tab
●​ Web configuration

What do you need to know to connect to a device that is configured over the
network?

●​ Typically, the Media Access Control (MAC) address of the device you want to
connect to
●​ Typically, the port in the wall where the network cable is plugged into
●​ Typically, the Internet Protocol (IP) address of its management page or the
device's hostname
●​ Typically, the physical location of the computer
Which of these statements is true regarding how you set up your display?

●​ Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configurable using your computers IP-based
interface.
●​ Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configured via the Personalization applet.
●​ Dots Per Inch (DPI) or scaling is configured via Display settings.
●​ Dots Per Inch (DPI) is determined by the monitor and device driver and cannot
be user configured.

You are configuring dual monitors positioned side-by-side. You want to increase
the amount of screen space available. Which multiple display option should you
set?

●​ Show only on display #2

●​ Extend the displays.
●​ Portrait orientation
●​ Duplicate the displays.

You need to plug a microphone into a computer to make a recording. How would
you identify which jack to use?

●​ Use the HDMI connection.

●​ The jack is typically color-coded green.
●​ The jack is typically color-coded pink.
●​ Plug into the RJ45 Jack.

What type of printer uses a fuser?

●​ Impact printer
●​ A 3D printer
●​ Color bubblejet printer
●​ Laser printer
Which four toners are used to produce color prints?

●​ Red, blue, yellow, and black

●​ Red, green, blue, black
●​ Cyan, magenta, yellow, and black
●​ Light blue, pink, yellow, black

What type of wired interface is a printer MOST likely to use?

●​ HDMI
●​ USB
●​ VGA
●​ S/PDIF

You want to configure a printer to use both sides of the paper (duplex) by
default. You have right-clicked the printer object. Which command should you
select to proceed?

●​ Printing preferences
●​ Open
●​ Troubleshoot
●​ Printer properties

What basic command demonstrates that a printer is connected properly to a

computer and that its driver is installed correctly for Windows?

●​ Check devices and features

●​ Printing preferences
●​ Print test page.
●​ Run the troubleshooter
What function of a scanner would you use if you want to convert a letter that
someone has mailed to you into a computer-editable document?

●​ Portable Document Format (PDF) or Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG)

●​ Optical Character Recognition (OCR).
●​ Windows Image Acquisition (WIA)
●​ TWAIN

Which of these statements is false?

●​ You can remove the flash media from the camera and insert it into a flash
reader.
●​ You can connect the camera's flash memory card directly into your computer's
USB port.
●​ You can transfer images from the camera over Wi-Fi or Bluetooth if supported.
●​ You can connect the camera itself to the PC over a USB cable.

A printer is rated at 20ppm. What is the significance of this statistic?

●​ This is the number of projects per minute that your printer can handle.
●​ This is the voltage measurement of your printer.
●​ This is the number of pages per minute the printer can output. High page rates
are important in high-volume environments.
●​ This is an image format used to measure the quality of an image the printer
can produce.

What type of print technology uses toner?

●​ Inkjet
●​ Thermal transfer
●​ Impact
●​ Laser
You are trying to find a use for an old dot matrix printer. The only port on the
printer is a large edge-style one with 36 contacts. What type of port is this?

●​ HDMI port
●​ RJ45 port
●​ Parallel port
●​ USB port

You have a motherboard that is designed for Double Data Rate 2 (DDR2)
memory that works at a bus speed of 533 MHz. You have some DDR3 memory
modules that also work at a bus speed of 533 MHz. Are the modules compatible
with the motherboard?

●​ DDR3 modules can be used in DDR2 slots.

●​ DDR3 modules cannot be used in DDR2 slots.
●​ DDR2 and DDR3 are packaged in DIMMs and can be used in any slots.
●​ DDR2 and DDR3 are both packaged in SO-DIMMs and can be used in any
slots.

Why can't you use memory modules designed for a desktop computer in a
laptop?

●​ Laptops use a smaller form factor called SO-DIMM while desktops use DIMMs.
●​ The functionality of laptop and desktop memory are different enough so that
one cannot be used in the other.
●​ Desktops use a different voltage level and it is unsafe to use DIMMs in a
SO-DIMM slot because of overheating.
●​ You should be able to swap them because laptops and desktops both use the
same type of DIMM Memory cards.

A hard drive is rated at 10,000 rpm. What is the significance of this statistic?

●​ A measurement of the access time for information on the drive

●​ A measurement of the composition of the drive's platters
●​ A measurement of the capacity of the drive
●​ A measurement of the speed of the drive
What type of connector would you NOT use for an external hard drive to connect
to a Windows PC?

●​ Firewire
●​ eSATA
●​ RGB
●​ USB

Your computer has 4 SATA ports. How many hard drives can be installed?

●​ Zero drives
●​ Four drives
●​ Eight drives
●​ Two drives

What type of disk has the greatest capacity?

●​ DVD that is dual layer and double sided

●​ Blu-ray that is a single layer
●​ DVD that is dual layer and single sided
●​ DVD that is single layer and single sided

What sort of device would you need to transfer data from a "Memory Stick"?

●​ Memory card reader / multi-card reader.

●​ A keyboard
●​ A wireless adapter
●​ A microphone and headset
What sort of device could you use to expand the storage capacity of a
smartphone?

●​ A flash memory card

●​ An extra battery
●​ A SIM card
●​ An SSD

In Windows, do letter-labeled "drives" correspond exactly to physical disks?

●​ Not in the case of optical drives, which can be configured with multiple
partitions, each of which can be assigned a drive letter.
●​ Only in the case of hard disks, which are usually allocated the letter "a."
●​ Not in the case of hard disks, which can be configured with multiple partitions,
each of which can be assigned a drive letter.
●​ Only in the case of hard disks, which are usually allocated letter "c."

What type of file system must be used for the partition where Windows 10 is
installed?

●​ The FAT-32 files system

●​ The NTFS file system
●​ The ext file system
●​ The HFS+ file system

What default installation folders contain system and application files that should
not normally be deleted or modified manually?

●​ The Windows and Program Files folders.

●​ The Downloads folder
●​ The Desktop folder
●​ The Temp folder
What is the file path to the Documents folder for a user named "David",
assuming Windows is installed to a hard disk with a single partition using the
default settings?

●​ c:\Users\David\Documents
●​ D:\Windows\David\Documents
●​ d:\Users\David\Documents
●​ C:\Windows\DAVID\Documents

How is a Windows library different from a folder?

●​ A library acts as a virtual folder by displaying the contents of multiple folders,

which could be located on different drives.
●​ A library and a folder are virtually the same thing.
●​ A folder acts as a virtual library by displaying the contents of multiple libraries,
which could be located on different drives.
●​ A library is the user's private folder containing subfolders for different types of
files like documents, music, and pictures.

If you have made changes to a file and want to keep both the original file and
the modified version, what command should you use?

●​ Save As.
●​ Save
●​ Export
●​ Share
Why should you be more careful about deleting files from a USB flash drive than
from the main hard drive?

●​ The files from the flash drive get recycled to the Windows recycle bin, making
for easy recovery at a later time.
●​ The files from a flash drive will not be recycled, so retrieving them if you
change your mind will be very difficult.
●​ The files from the main hard drive will not be recycled, so retrieving them if you
change your mind will be very difficult.
●​ The files from the main hard drive get flagged for deletion but remain until the
next Windows Update cycle.

What view options could you use to show files of a particular type sorted by
date?

●​ Group the files by file type, then sort by category.

●​ Group the files by file type, then sort by date.
●​ Group the files by date, then sort by file type.
●​ Group the files by category, then sort by date.

What kind of data would you expect to find in a file with a TIFF extension?

●​ This is a video format.

●​ This is a text format.
●​ This is an image file format.
●​ This is a sound format.

What is a zip file?

●​ An image file format most widely used for photographic pictures.

●​ A container file format designed to deliver Flash Video.
●​ A Windows installer file used to install and uninstall software applications.
●​ A file archive containing other files in a compressed format.
What type of software is an ODF file associated with?

●​ Database software
●​ Word processing software
●​ Email client software
●​ Video conferencing software
Network and Security
Networking Concepts
1.​ What are the key features of a packet switching network?
●​ Nodes within the network can perform a forwarding function, allowing a packet to
utilize any available path through the network.
●​ A packet sent down the network can switch its destination mid-stream.
●​ Packets can be switched from a TCP/IP protocol to another available protocol to
increase the transmission speed.
●​ A packet switching network opens a direct channel on which to transmit the
packet, so a break in the channel stops the transmission.
2.​ Which protocol allows people to use names/labels, rather than numeric
addresses, to address network resources?
●​ MAC address
●​ IP address
●​ URL
●​ Domain Name System (DNS)
3.​ What is the difference between HTTP and HTTPS protocols?
●​ HTTP serves web pages on the extranet, whereas HTTPS serves web pages on
the intranet.
●​ HTTPS serves SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) secured HTML web pages, whereas
HTTP serves unsecured web pages.
●​ HTTP does not require DNS to resolve a web address to an IP address, whereas
HTTPS does.
●​ HTTP can serve HTML web pages, whereas HTTPS can serve HTML web
pages, as well as XML pages displayed as HTML.
4.​ What is a Wide Area Network (WAN)?
●​ A company that specializes in providing Internet access
●​ A company that operates the national telephone networks
●​ A network that connects sites in different geographic locations
●​ A network in a single location
5.​ What is a packet made up of?
●​ A packet consists of a number of fields contained within a header section plus a
payload.
●​ A packet is the data inside the wrapper used for each data unit transmitted over
the network.
●​ A packet consists of a payload wrapped around a header section.
●​ A packet is the destination address of a unit of data being transmitted over the
network.
6.​ What protocol is usually used to provide logical addressing on networks?
 ●​ Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)
●​ Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
●​ Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
●​ Internet Protocol (IP)
7.​ Which email protocol(s) are used to download messages from a mail server?
●​ Either Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
(SMTP)
●​ Either Mail Exchanger (MX) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
●​ Either Post Office Protocol (POP) or Mail Exchanger (MX)
●​ Either Post Office Protocol (POP) or Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
8.​ What type of device is used to transfer packets between different networks?
●​ A hub
●​ A Network Interface Card (NIC)
●​ A router
●​ A switch
9.​ Which of the following parts of a friendly URL is dependent on a name resolution
service?
●​ Top level domain
●​ File path
●​ Protocol type
●​ IP address
10.​ What type of address identifies a network interface in the context of the local
network segment only?
●​ DNS
●​ IP address
●​ A Media Access Control (MAC) address
●​ URL

Connecting to a Network
1.​ What does attenuation mean?
●​ Inactive access point
●​ Loss of strength of a signal
●​ Bluetooth signal strength
●​ Signal interference
2.​ What is the difference between a modem and a router?
●​ The modem transmits frames across the WAN link while the router forwards
packets between the local network and the Internet.
●​ The modem forwards packets between the local network and the Internet while
the router transmits frames across the WAN link
 ●​ The modem transmits frames across the WAN link while the router translates the
server's web address into an IP address.
●​ The modem and the router have exactly the same responsibilities, so the terms
are often used interchangeably.
3.​ What is the latest Wi-Fi standard and which frequency band(s) does it use?
●​ IEEE 802.11g works in the 2.4 GHz band.
●​ IEEE 802.11b works in the 5 GHz band.
●​ IEEE 802.11n works in the 5 GHz band.
●​ IEEE 802.11ac works in the 5 GHz band.
4.​ What device is used to connect computers together in an Ethernet network?
●​ A switch
●​ Internet modem
●​ An access point
●​ Internet router
5.​ Which of the following is NOT a medium used for Internet access?
●​ Digital Subscriber Line (DSL)
●​ Internet Service Provider (ISP)
●​ Fiber to the Curb (FTTC)
●​ Cable/Hybrid Fiber Coax
6.​ What can you do to reduce the risk of using a free Wi-Fi network to place an
order from an online shop?
●​ Ensure that the online store uses a secure (HTTPS) connection.
●​ Request an encrypted transaction.
●​ Change your password.
●​ Change your credit card number often.
7.​ You log into a SOHO router and review current settings to prepare it for use.
Which of the following items is NOT needed to configure a wireless connection
on the router?
●​ SSID
●​ Authentication info
●​ Encryption type
●​ IP address

Secure Web Browsing

1.​ You are using a computer in an Internet cafe. What should you do at the end of
the session?
●​ Log out of all applications you've been using.
●​ Wrong answer.
●​ Power off the computer.
●​ Log off the computer you're using.
 ●​ Clear the browser cache.
2.​ You want to use a website that hosts training modules in a custom media format.
What type of add-on would you need to install to play this media?
●​ A Theme
●​ A Plug-in
●​ An Extension
●​ A Cookie
3.​ Select the one UNTRUE statement in regard to cookies.
●​ A cookie is a plain text file created by a website you've visited and stored on your
hard drive.
●​ It's not legal for a web site to store cookies on your computer.
●​ Cookies may contain more information about you than you are aware of.
●​ Spyware and adware may extract data from your cookies to track your computer
use.
4.​ You have installed a screensaver application. Later, after updating your anti-virus
software, a malicious program is found. This appears to have infected your
system at the same time as the screensaver was installed. What class of
malware is this?
●​ Virus
●​ Spyware
●​ Adware
●​ Trojan Horse
5.​ Select the one UNTRUE statement in regard to browser pop-up windows.
●​ Pop-up windows are always a sign of viruses.
●​ Pop-up windows are usually designed to be helpful to the user.
●​ Pop-up windows are implemented using scripts or add-ons.
●​ Pop-up windows can be controlled using browser settings.
6.​ If you use an open network, what email configuration setting should you
configure?
●​ Enable anti-malware software to protect from viruses
●​ Enable Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) encryption to
protect the account password
●​ Enable a script blocker to prevent scripts from running
●​ Disable active content types like flash and Java to protect the web browser
7.​ What identifies a website as using the secure HTTPS protocol with a valid
certificate?
●​ The URL shows the "[Link] protocol and the browser shows a padlock icon.
●​ The website has a recent copyright date.
●​ Check the Better Business Bureau.
●​ The URL shows the "[Link] protocol and the browser shows a padlock icon.
8.​ You want to restrict access to a computer on your network to a single internet
host running a particular application. What two things do you need to configure in
your firewall's access control list?
●​ The SSID and the application name
●​ The IP address of the host and the port number of the application
●​ The SSID and the IP address
●​ The IP address of the host and the application name

Using Shared Storage

1.​ Which admin tool or screen would you use to configure a Windows computer to
join a domain?
●​ Select Settings and choose Remote Desktop
●​ Select Settings and then Network and Internet
●​ Administrative Tools in Control Panel
●​ The System Properties applet in Control Panel
2.​ Which protocol would be best used to provide encrypted file downloads directly
from a web server?
●​ P2P
●​ FTP
●​ HTTPS
●​ HTTP
3.​ What type of connection would a NAS device NOT be able to use?
●​ A wired Ethernet port
●​ Wi-Fi
●​ Twisted pair (RJ-11)
●​ LAN port on a SOHO router
4.​ What does a hard disk connected to a computer via a USB port describe?
●​ Cloud-based storage
●​ Network attached storage
●​ Direct attached storage
●​ Network printer sharing
5.​ How could you access a network folder called DATA on a network server called
TOWER1 using the Explorer address bar?
●​ Enter the web address.
●​ Enter the Universal Naming Convention (UNC) path.
●​ Enter the IP address.
●​ It is not possible to access a network folder from the address bar.
6.​ You have made a backup of system data using a removable hard disk. Time and
security are of great importance. What should you do next?
●​ Complete the restore procedure.
 ●​ Delete the original, since the backup is current.
●​ Make a copy of the disk on the cloud.
●​ Store the disk in a secure, off-site location.
7.​ When a client connects to a folder on a network server via a drive letter, what is
the drive called?
●​ Shared folder
●​ Client-server drive
●​ A mapped drive
●​ Drive share
8.​ Which version or edition of Windows can be used to share files with other users?
●​ Versions and editions after Windows 7
●​ Enterprise versions only
●​ Any non-server edition
●​ Any version or edition

Using Mobile Devices

1.​ What is the purpose of an accelerometer, as fitted in a mobile device?
●​ It is the component that detects a fingerprint to unlock the screen
●​ It is the software interface for speech recognition.
●​ It is one of the components that detects how the user is moving the device
around.
●​ It is a software component that provides faster access to applications.
2.​ What is the result of putting a phone in "airplane mode?"
●​ GPS is connected to the airplane's system.
●​ The volume is muted.
●​ The phone is shut down.
●​ Wireless features are disabled.
3.​ What type of gesture is typically used for zooming on a touchscreen?
●​ Slide
●​ Swipe
●​ Tap-and-hold
●​ Pinch
4.​ Which feature allows data to be removed from a device if it is lost or stolen?
●​ Encryption
●​ Remote wipe
●​ Screen lock
●​ Lockout policy
5.​ How can a smartphone join a Wi-Fi network if the SSID is not being broadcast?
●​ Enter the network name manually, as with a computer.
●​ Use a generic SSID.
 ●​ Use the Forget Network command to bypass the network.
●​ It is not possible.

Security Concerns
1.​ What impact is presented when users reveal their passwords to technical support
staff?
●​ It exposes users to social engineering attacks that try to gather login credentials
for malicious use.
●​ It provides technical support staff with access to the user's personal files stored
on the network.
●​ It exposes the passwords to brute-force attacks from malicious hackers.
●​ It prevents the user from needing to change a password following the password
history component of the policy.
2.​ Why is prioritization a critical task for disaster recovery?
●​ Network cabling should be designed to allow for multiple paths between the
various servers.
●​ Services may have dependencies that make restoring them in the wrong order
futile.
●​ System demand will need to be monitored after rebuilding to verify stability.
●​ Integrity of the data will need to be checked before access is re-enabled.
3.​ What are the three main areas where redundancy should be provisioned?
●​ Circuits, power generators, Uninterruptible Power Supplies (UPSs)
●​ RAID 1, RAID 5, and RAID 10
●​ Authentication, authorization, and accounting
●​ Data, network links, and power
4.​ What security concern is snooping most affected by?
●​ Availability
●​ Confidentiality
●​ Authentication
●​ Integrity
5.​ Which specific attack uses a botnet to threaten availability?
●​ Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
●​ Man-in-the-Middle (MitM)
●​ Power outage
●​ Replay
6.​ In considering availability concerns, what use might a lockable faceplate on a
server-class computer be?
●​ It may prevent a natural disaster from damaging the hardware and corrupting the
data.
●​ It may prevent a hacker from obtaining remote unauthorized network access.
 ●​ It may prevent the user from switching the machine on/off or accessing
removable drives and ports.
●​ It may prevent the computer or server from overheating and shutting down.
7.​ An attacker has used a rogue access point to intercept traffic passing between
wireless clients and the wired network segment. What type of attack is this?
●​ A replay attack
●​ A Denial of Service (DoS) attack
●​ An impersonation attack
●​ A Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack
8.​ Which of the following is NOT a method that a malicious person can use to
masquerade as someone else when using email or Instant Messaging?
●​ Using malware such as a Trojan
●​ Overwhelm the server with a Denial of Service (DoS)
●​ Stealing a user's login information
●​ Using an unattended computer that is still logged in
●​
9.​ What type of access mechanism is MOST vulnerable to a replay attack?
●​ Use of a token generated by software
●​ Use of multi-factor authentication
●​ Use of a complex password
●​ Use of biometrics

Using Best Practices

1.​ What is a reputable source of management software and drivers for a particular
system?
●​ An OEM website
●​ A public forum website
●​ A peer-to-peer download application
●​ A third-party driver website
2.​ Malware encrypts the user's documents folder and any attached removable disks
then extorts the user for money to release the encryption key. What type of
malware is being described?
●​ Ransomware
●​ Spyware
●​ Worm
●​ Trojans
3.​ What is the main means by which anti-virus software identifies infected files?
●​ Using heuristics to detect suspicious behavior
●​ Using definitions or signatures of known virus code
 ●​ Using signatures of zero-day exploits
●​ Using AutoRun to execute files of unknown provenance
4.​ What is the main difference between virus and worm malware?
●​ A virus has to infect a file whereas a worm propagates in memory and over
computer networks.
●​ A virus uses a macro programming language to automate tasks where as a worm
executes when the application is executed.
●​ A virus uses sequences of code that insert themselves into an executable
whereas a worm uses document macros.
●​ A virus propagates in memory and over computer networks whereas a worm has
to infect a file.
5.​ Which of the following configuration changes does NOT reduce the attack
surface?
●​ Closing unnecessary network ports
●​ Disabling unused OS features and services
●​ Removing unwanted and unnecessary software
●​ Configuring data back-ups in case ransomware *encrypts the file system
6.​ How might spyware be able to steal a password?
●​ By performing a Man-in-the-Middle attack over Wi-Fi
●​ By installing ransomware that locks users out of their files
●​ By monitoring key strokes or stealing a password database
●​ By forcing the use of Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) encryption
7.​ What are the two main ways that spam might expose recipients to hazardous
content?
●​ Through third-party sites hosting fake drivers and through poisoned app store
applications
●​ Through websites vulnerable to cross-site scripting and through fake login pages
●​ Through vulnerable web browser add-ons and through unpatched operating
systems
●​ Through malware-infected attachments and through links to malicious websites
8.​ How might malware hosted on a website be able to infect your computer simply
by your browsing the site?
●​ By exploiting a vulnerability in software installed on your computer
●​ By exploiting outdated hardware installed in the computer chassis
●​ By exploiting a human vulnerability related to deception
●​ By exploiting an improperly configured firewall
9.​ What is it called when antivirus software remediates a system by blocking access
to an infected file but not actually deleting it.
●​ Erasing the file
●​ Quarantining the file
 ●​ Cleaning the infection
●​ Updating the signatures
10.​Your friend sent you an email link, which you have opened, and now the browser
is asking whether you should install a plug-in to view all the content on the page.
What should you do next?
●​ Prevent the browser from installing the plug-in and change your passwords due
to phishing.
●​ Allow the browser to install the plug-in as it can be uninstalled later.
●​ Check whether your friend actually sent the link in good faith first.
●​ Run an antivirus scan because you have an active malware infection.

Using Access Controls

1.​ What system policy ensures that users do not receive rights unless granted
explicitly?
●​ Implicit deny
●​ Deny all
●​ Least privilege
●​ Allow all
2.​ What class of data is a transport encryption protocol designed to protect?
●​ Data being hashed
●​ Data in storage
●​ Data at rest
●​ Data in transit
3.​ How does a one-time password work?
●​ A temporary password is sent to a user via email after requesting a password
reset.
●​ A unique password is generated using an algorithm known to both a device (fob)
and the authenticating server.
●​ A user must enter a hardware token, like a smart card, and enter a password or
PIN.
●​ The existing password is sent to a user after having requested a password
change on a website.
4.​ What type of system allows a user to authenticate once to access multiple
services?
●​ A one-time password
●​ Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)
●​ Virtual Private Network (VPN)
●​ Single Sign-On (SSO)
5.​ Which non-discretionary access control type is based on the idea of security
clearance levels?
 ●​ Role-based Access Control (RBAC)
●​ Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
●​ Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
●​ Rule-based access control
6.​ A user sends an email to another user. The email sender receives a delivery
receipt from the receiving server. Which security-related concept validates that
the email was successfully delivered?
●​ Authentication
●​ Accounting
●​ Non-repudiation
●​ Authorization
7.​ What technique makes password cracking fairly easy?
●​ Choosing a passphrase instead of a password
●​ Using simple words or names as a password
●​ Including numbers, special characters, and letters
●​ Reusing the password across many sites
8.​ What sort of account allows someone to access a computer without providing a
user name or password?
●​ User account
●​ Guest account
●​ Microsoft Account
●​ Administrator account
9.​ What does AAA stand for and in which order are they typically performed?
●​ Accounting, Authorization, Authentication
●​ Accounting, Authorization, Access control
●​ Authentication, Appropriation, Accounting
●​ Authentication, Authorization, Accounting
10.​ What are the four processes of an access control system?
●​ Identification, authentication, authorization, and accounting
●​ DAC, RBAC, MAC, and rule-based
●​ Subjects, objects, Access Control Lists (ACLs), and permissions
●​ User, default, administrator, and guest
11.​ What type of cryptographic operation(s) are intended to be non-reversible?
●​ Key-pair
●​ Hashing
●​ Symmetric
●​ Asymmetric
Behavioral Security Concepts
1.​ What is a Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)?
●​ General instructions for when situations have not been fully assessed or
because the decision-making process is too complex
●​ A measure by which to evaluate compliance with the policy
●​ An inflexible, step-by-step listing of the actions that must be completed for any
given task
●​ Policies that include privilege management, data/information handling, incident
response, and use of company devices
2.​ Why might a company ban use of the corporate network and desktop software for
personal communications?
●​ The company has purchased, and therefore owns, the network and software.
●​ The company wants employees to focus 100% of their energy on job duties.
●​ Wrong answer.
●​ The company might be held responsible for inappropriate content posted by its
employees.
●​ The company's resources are too limited to allow personal use.
3.​ Which of the following is NOT a privacy issue that is related to using a social
networking site?
●​ You need to control how far the information that you post to the site is
distributed.
●​ You need to know how the company processes, stores, and transfers or sells
any data it collects about you.
●​ You can never take back information that is publicly posted, as others may
have downloaded or duplicated it.
●​ You need to ensure that private information is physically shredded prior to
disposal.
4.​ What type of information would NOT be considered confidential and governed by
classification and handling procedures?
●​ Personally identifiable information
●​ Company confidential information
●​ Website information
●​ Customer information