20-07-2025

1001CMD303058250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) A particle is moving with speed 6 m/s along the direction of , then its velocity is :

(1) units
(2) units
(3) units
(4) units

2) The expression is a -

(1) unit vector

(2) null vector
(3) vector of magnitude
(4) scalar

3) Of the vectors given below, the parallel vectors are :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Find value of

(1) zero
(2) 6ABcosθ + 9A2 – 9B2
(3) 6A2 + 5ABcosθ – 6B2
(4) 5ABcosθ

5) If , then what is the value of

(1)
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2

6) Projection of vector on y-axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 7
(4) 4

7) If , then the unit vector along is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

8) A vector is along negative x-axis. If it is rotated through 90° in anticlockwise direction then the
vector will be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9)

For the fig. :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10)

A body is at rest under the action of three forces, two of which are . Then third force
is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) , if = 5, = 12 and = 13 then find angle between and is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 90°

(4)

12) If and , then magnitude and direction of with x-axis will be :-

(1) 5, tan–1(3/4)
(2) , tan–1(1/2)
(3) 10, tan–1(5)
(4) 25, tan–1(3/4)

13) If the three vectors are coplaner then find n = ?

(1) n = 2
(2) n = 12
(3) n = 3
(4) n = 1

14) Find projection of vector on ( ) :-

(1) ax – ay + az

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Vector makes angle α,β,γ with x, y, z axes respectively. Then cos2α + cos2β – sin2γ = ?
(1) –1
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2

16) The value of is :-

(1)

(2) A2 – B2
(3)
(4) zero

17)

Find out dot product of and

,

(1) 5
(2) 0
(3) 15
(4) 20

18) The position of a particle is given by and momentum . Then the

angular momentum is perpendicular to :-

(1) x-axis
(2) y-axis
(3) z-axis
(4) Line at equal angles to all the three axes

19) The diagonals of a parallelogram are represented by vectors and .

Then the area of the parallelogram is :-

(1) unit
(2) unit
(3) unit
(4) 72 unit

20) If and are two sides of a parallelogram and and are its diagonals, then c2 + d2 = ........
(1) 2(a2 + b2)
(2) a2 + b2
(3) 2(a2 – b2)
(4) a2 – b2

21) A man moves towards a plane mirror with a velocity v in a direction making an angle θ with the
normal to the mirror. The magnitude of velocity of the image relative to man normal to the mirror
will be :-

(1) 2V
(2) 2V cosθ
(3) 2Vsinθ

(4)

22) Maximum wavelength in visible colours of light wave is for :-

(1) Red
(2) Violet
(3) Yellow
(4) Green

23) An object is placed in front of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm. Its image is formed 8
cm behind the mirror. The object distance is :

(1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 60 cm
(4) 80 cm

24) A point object is moving with speed 32m/s towards a stationary convex mirror. The object
distance is 30 cm from the pole and focal length of mirror is 90 cm. Find the velocity of image.

(1) 20 m/s towards mirror

(2) 18 m/s towards mirror
(3) 15 m/s away from mirror
(4) 30 m/s towards mirror

25) A man runs towards stationary plane mirror at a speed of 20 m/s. What is the speed of his image
with respect to mirror :-
(1) 10 m/s
(2) 40 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

26) The eye level a person is at a height of 1.5 m from ground. He stands in front of a 0.3 m long
plane mirror whose bottom is 0.8 m above the ground. Find the height of image of the portion of his
body, below the eyes, which he can see

(1) 60 cm
(2) 30 cm
(3) 120 cm
(4) 15 cm

27) Image of the object can be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

28) For a medium with permittivity ε and permeability µ, the velocity of light is given by :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Figure shows a plane mirror onto which a light ray is incident. If the incident light ray is turned
by 10° and the mirror by 20°, as shown, then the angle turned by the reflected ray is :

(1) 60° clockwise

(2) 50° clockwise
(3) 30° clockwise
(4) 40° clockwise

30) The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 1014 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The
refractive index of material will be :

(1) 1.33
(2) 1.40
(3) 1.50
(4) 3.00

31) In the figure shown here, the angle made by the light ray with the normal in the medium of

refractive index is (Region of medium are parallel).

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) None of these

32) Angle of prism is A and its one surface is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A
on first surface return back through the same path after suffering reflection at second silvered
surface. Refractive index of the material of prism is

(1) 2 sin A
(2) 2 cos A

(3)
cos A

(4)
sin A

33) An object is initially at a distance of 100 cm from a plane mirror. If the mirror approaches the
object at a speed of 5 cm/s. Then after 6s the distance between the object and its image will be :-

(1) 60 cm
(2) 140 cm
(3) 170 cm
(4) 150 cm

34) A man standing in front of a concave spherical mirror of radius of curvature 120 cm sees an
erect image of his face four times its natural size. Then the distance of the man from the mirror is:

(1) 180 cm
(2) 300 cm
(3) 240 cm
(4) 45 cm

35) The focal length of converging lens is measured for violet, green and red colours. It is
respectively fv, fg and fr. We will get :-

(1) fv < fg
(2) fg > fr
(3) fv = fg
(4) fv > fg

36) A prism ABC of angle 30° has its face AC silvered. A ray of light incident at an angle of 45° at the
face AB retraces its path after refraction at face AB and reflection at face AC. The refractive index of

the material of the prism is :-

(1) 1.5

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) The sun (diameter = D) subtends an angle of θ radian at the pole of a concave mirror of focal
length f. The diameter of the image of the sun formed by the mirror is

(1) fθ
(2) 2fθ
(3) f2θ/D
(4) Dθ

38) A beam of convergent light converges to a point 0.5 m in front of the mirror after reflection at a
convex mirror but in the absence of the mirror the beam converges to a point 0.2 m behind the

mirror. The radius of curvature of the mirror is :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 50 cm
(3) 66.67 cm
(4) 28.57 cm

39) A U-shaped wire is placed before a concave mirror having radius of curvature 20 cm as shown in

figure. Find the total length of the image ?

(1) 5 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 20 cm

40) Light incident normally on a plane mirror attached to a galvanometer coil retraces backwards as
shown in figure. A current in the coil produces a deflection of 3.5° of the mirror. What is the

displacement of reflected spot of light on a screen placed 1.5 m away ?

(1) 10.5 cm
(2) 18.31 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 3 cm

41) What should be the angle of incidence at A of the spherical glass placed in air so that grazing

emergence of light ray takes place at B?

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

42) A luminous object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from convex mirror. A plane mirror is set, so
that virctual image is formed by both mirror will coincide. If plane mirror is at distance of 12 cm

from object find out the focal length of mirror?

(1) +5cm
(2) – 5 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 25 cm

43) Two plane mirrors M1 & M2 are inclined at angle θ as shown in the figure. A ray of light 1, which
is parallel to M1 strikes on M2 and after two reflections the ray 2 becomes parallel to M2. The angle θ

is :-

(1) 15°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

44) Two plane mirrors A and B are aligned parallel to each other, as shown in the figure. A light ray
is incident at an angle of 30° at a point just inside one end of A. The plane of incidence coincides
with the plane of the figure. The maximum number of times the ray undergoes reflections (including

the first one) before it emerges out is :-

(1) 28
(2) 30
(3) 32
(4) 34

45) Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at some angle. A ray of light incident at 30° on one,
after reflection from the other retraces its path. The angle between the mirrors is :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

CHEMISTRY

1) Which is false about rate constant :-

(1) It's value depends on temperature

(2) It's value changes when catalyst is introduced in the reaction
(3) It's value does not depends on concentration
(4) Decreases on increasing temperature

2) Unit of rate constant for a reaction is mol–3/4L3/4s–1. The order of the reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Rate constant of a first order reaction is 0.0693 min–1. Calculate time taken if we start with 20 mol
L–1 concentration of reactant and it is reduced to 2.5 mol L–1 :-

(1) 10 min
(2) 20 min
(3) 30 min
(4) 40 min

4)

In a zero-order reaction for every 10°C rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature
is increased from 20°C to 90°C, the rate of the reaction will becomes

(1) 64 times
(2) 128 times
(3) 256 times
(4) 512 times

5) For the reaction 2A → 4B + 3C following relations can be written :

= k1[A], = k2[A], = k3[A]

Ratio of k1, k2 and k3 is?

(1) 6 : 3 : 4
(2) 6 : 4 : 3
(3) 3 : 4 : 6
(4) 2 : 4 : 3

6) How many steps are in the mechanism of the reaction

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

7) For an elementary reaction 2A + B → A2B if the volume of vessel is quickly reduced to half of it's
original volume then rate of reaction will :-

(1) Unchange
(2) Increase four times
(3) Increase eight times
(4) Decrease eight times

8)

Which graph represents zero order reaction

[A(g) → B(g)] ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Consider the following statements regarding the equation given below,

Hg(l) + Cl2(g) → HgCl2(s)
I. Stoichiometric coefficients of the reactants and products are same in the above reaction.
II. Rate of reaction

III. Rate of disappearance of any of the reactant = Rate of appearance of product.

The correct statement (s) is/are. Choose the correct option :-

(1) I and II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) I, II and III

10) The compound A decomposed (A → products) by first order kinetics. If the concentration of A
dropped from 0.1 M to 0.05 M in 30 minutes find the rate of reaction after 60 minutes, from start in
M min–1 :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) For the reaction N2O5(g) → 2NO2(g) + the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given
–3 –1 –1
as 6.25 × 10 mol L s . The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as :-

(1) 1.25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(2) 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 1.25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

12) For a reaction , rate of disappearance of 'A' is related to the rate of appearance of 'B'
by the expression :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Rate of reaction : -

(1) Changes on changing the concentration of reactant

(2) Changes on changing the pressure of reactant
(3) May change on changing pressure & concentrartion of reactant
(4) Only depends upon temperature

14) Under the same reaction conditions, initial concentration is 1.386 mol dm–3 of a substance
becomes half in 40 seconds and 20 seconds through first order and zero order kinetics, respectively.

0
Ratio of the rate constants for first order (k1) and zero order (k ) of the reactions is

(1) 0.5 mol–1 dm3

(2) 1.0 mol dm–3
(3) 2.0 mol–1 dm3
(4) 0.1 mol dm–3

15) The following results were obtained during kinetic studies of the reaction; 2A + B → Products

[A] [B] Initial rate of reaction

Experiment
(in mol L–1) (in mol L–1) (in mol L–1min–1)

I 0.10 0.20 6.93 × 10–3

II 0.10 0.25 6.93 × 10–3

III 0.20 0.30 1.386 × 10–2

The time (in minutes) required to consume half of A is
(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 100
(4) 1

16) Which of the following statements is not correct about order of a reaction.

The order of a reaction is always equal to the sum of the stoichiometric coefficients of reactants
(1)
in the balanced chemical equation for a reaction.
(2) The oder of a reaction is experimentally determined quantity.
The order of a reaction is the sum of the powers of the molar concentration of the reactants in
(3)
the rate law expression.
(4) The order of a reaction can be a fractional number.

17) CHCl3 + Cl2 → CCl4 + HCl

Rate law for above reaction will be
Rate= k[CHCl3][Cl2]1/2
On the basis of information provided which of the following option will be correct?

Rate law for any chemical reaction can be predicted accurately by looking at balanced chemical
(1)
equation.
(2) Rate law for a chemical reaction has to determine experimentally.
 Either determined experimentally or obtained from balanced chemical reaction, rate law will be
(3)
same.
(4) None of the above is correct.

18) A reactant (A) from two products :

A B Activation Energy
A C Activation Energy
If Ea2 = 2Ea1 then k1 and k2 are releated

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) Hydrolysis of organic chloride in presence of excess of water occurs as R – Cl + H2O → R – OH +

HCl. The molecularity and order of reaction are .......... respectively.

(1) 1, 1
(2) 2, 1
(3) 2, 2
(4) 1, 2

20) In the first order reaction concentration of the reactants is reduced to 25% in one [Link] half
life period of the reaction is :–

(1) 2 hr
(2) 4 hr
(3) 1/2 hr
(4) 1/4 hr

21) If in a first order reaction 87.5% of the reaction completes in 6 hrs. Then how much time is
required to complete 75% of reaction ?

(1) 2 hrs
(2) 6 hrs
(3) 4 hrs
(4) 3 hrs

22) Choose the reaction in which the rate of disappearance of B is equal to half the rate of formation
of the product :-

(1) A + 2B + C→D

(2)
A+ B→C

(3)
A+B→ C
(4) A + B → C

23) The time required for change in concentration of reactant from [A]0 to [A]t for a zeroth order
reaction starting from t = 0 is :- (K0 is rate constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) In a reaction, 2X→Y, the concentration of X decreases from 0.50 M to 0.38 M in 10 min, What is
the rate of reaction in M s–1 during this interval ?

(1) 2 × 10–4
(2) 1 × 10–4
(3) 2 × 10–2
(4) 1 × 10–2

25)

For a reaction, 2NO + 2H2 → N2 + 2H2O, the possible mechanism is

2NO ⇋ N2O2 (fast)
N2O2 + H2 N2O+H2O
N2O + H2 N2+H2O
What is the rate law and order of the reaction ?

(1) Rate = k[N2O2], order = 1

2
(2) Rate = k[N2O2] , order = 1
2
(3) Rate = k[N2O2] , order = 2
2
(4) Rate = k[NO] [H2] , order = 3

26) Certain bimolecular reaction A + B → C (single step) follows rate = K[A] then which of the
following is incorrect :-

(1) Reaction is following first order kinetics

(2) Reaction is pseudo first order
(3) Half life is independent of initial concentration of A
(4) Reaction is following second order kinetics

27)

The following data pertain to reaction between A and B :

 [A] [B] Initial rate
[Link].
mol. L–1 mol. L–1 (Ms–1)

i 1 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–4

ii 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–4

iii 2 × 10–2 4 × 10–2 8 × 10–4

Which of the following inference(s) can be drawn from the above data :
(a) Rate constant of the reaction 10–4
(b) Rate law of the reaction is k[A][B]
(c) Rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the concentration of both the reactant, Select
the correct answer :-
Codes :
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) c alone

28)

Column-I Column-II

Zero order
P A
reaction

First order
Q B
reaction

Second order Involves at least

R C
reaction two reactants

Pseudo unimolecular
S D
reaction
Which of the following match is correct:
P Q R S

(1) B A D C

(2) B D A C

(3) B A C D

(4) C B A D
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
29) Which of the following is correct?

(1) It is the exothermic reaction

(2) Threshold energy e = a + c
(3) (Ea)f < (Ea)b
(4) All of the above

30)

For reaction 2B + A → 2C
Which of the following is correct?

(1) Rate of disappearance of B is twice that of rate of disappearance of C

(2) Rate of disappearance of A is twice that of rate of disappearance of C
(3) Rate of appearance of C is twice that of rate of disappearance of A
(4) All of these

31) In the reaction

P+Q→ R+S
The time taken for 75% reaction of P is twice the time taken for 50% reaction of P. What is the
overall order of reaction. If order with respect to Q is zero.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) Zero

32) A reaction rate constant is given by :

k = 1.2 × 1014 sec–1. It means :-

(1) log k versus log T will give a straight line with a slope as 25000
(2) log k versus log T will give a straight line with a slope as –25000
(3) log k versus T will give a straight line with a slope as –25000
(4) log k versus 1/T will give a straight line

33)

Match the column I with column II :

Column-I Column-II

(P) Zero order reaction (1)

 (Q) First order reaction (2) t1/2 ∝ [A]0

(R) Second order reaction (3)

(S) nth order reaction (4)

(1) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-2

(2) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(3) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(4) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

34) Select the correct diagram for an exothermic reaction that proceeds through two steps, with the
second step is rate determining :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A chemical reaction takes place in 3 steps and rate constants of 1st, 2nd, 3rd steps are K1, K2, K3

respectively. The overall rate constant K is given by K = . If activation energy of 1st, 2nd, 3rd
steps are 80, 20, 40 kJ/mol respectively then overall activation energy (kJ/mol) is :-

(1) 30
(2) 20
(3) 36.5
(4) 40

36) For the reaction , pressure of the system increases from 100 to 120 mm in 5
minutes from start of the reaction. The average rate of disappearance of A2 (in mm/min) in this time
interval is :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) 16

37) Rate of formation of SO3 in the following reaction 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 is 100 gm/min. Rate of
disappearance of O2 is:

(1) 50 gm/min
(2) 200 gm/min
(3) 40 gm/min
(4) 20 gm/min

38) Match the following :

Column I Column II

a Slope of ℓnK vs 1/T graph p e–E /RT

a

(Ea)forward –
b Threshold energy - Reactant energy q
(Ea)backward

c Fraction of molecules with energy Ea r Ea

d (ΔH)forward for reversible reaction s

(1) a-r; b-q; c-p; d-s

(2) a-s; b-r; c-p; d-q
(3) a-s; b-r; c-q; d-p
(4) a-q; b-s; c-p; d-r

39) Consider the plots for the types of reaction nA → B + C

These plots respectively

correspond to the reaction orders:

(1) 0, 2, 1
(2) 0, 1, 2
(3) 1, 1, 2
(4) 1, 0, 2
40) Which of the following curves represents a 1st order reaction :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) (1) & (3) both

41) Rate of formation of NH3 according to the reaction N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 is 1.7 × 10–3 kg min–1.
Hence rate at which H2 reacts is :-

(1) 2.55 × 10–3 kg min–1

(2) 1.7 × 10–3 kg min–1
(3) 3 × 10–4 kg min–1
(4) 3.2 × 10–3 kg min–1

42) Consider the reaction :

Cl2(aq) + H2S(aq) → S(s) + 2H+(aq) + 2Cl–(aq)
The rate equation for this reaction is
rate = k[Cl2][H2S]
Which of these mechanisms is/are consistent with this rate equation ?
A. Cl2 + H2S → H+ + Cl– + Cl+ + HS– (slow)
Cl+ + HS– → H+ + Cl– + S(fast)
B. H2S H+ + HS– (fast equilibrium)
Cl2 + HS– → 2Cl– + H+ + S(slow)

(1) A only
(2) B only
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

43) The reaction of formation of phosgene from CO and Cl2 is CO + Cl2 → COCl2. The proposed

mechanism is :- (i) Cl2 2Cl

(ii) Cl + CO COCl
(iii) COCl + Cl2 COCl2 + Cl (slow)
Find the correct expression of rate law :-

(1)
r = k5 × [CO] [Cl2]3/2

(2)
r = k5 × [CO] [Cl2]1/2

(3)
r = k5 × [CO] [Cl2]3/2
(4) None of these

44) Consider the diagram in the question depicting the change in concentration of products and
reactants with time for the following first order decomposition reaction : 2A3 → 3A2

The time corresponding to point of intersection of the two concentration curves pertains to :

(1) t1/2
(2) t1/3
(3) t2/5
(4) t1/5

45) For a first order gaseous reaction,

A(g) → B(g) + C(g) + D(g) if initial pressure is P0 and total final pressure of mixture becomes Pt after time
‘t’. The rate constant is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

BIOLOGY

1) An aquatic animal was identified in a laboratory. It had a streamlined body, cold blooded nature,
bony skeleton and separate sexes. It reproduced by laying eggs and showed external fertilisation. Its
skin was covered by ctenoid scales and it remained buoyant with the help of an internal air-filled
sac. This animal belongs to :

(1) Class – Chondrichthyes

(2) Class – Reptilia
(3) Class – Amphibia
(4) Class – Osteichthyes

2) Match the column I, II and III and select the correct answer from the options :

Column I Column II Column III

A Porifera i Cnidoblasts p Metameric segmentation
B Annelida ii Radula q Soft body with calcareous shell
C Coelenterata iii Parapodia r Cellular level of organisation
D Mollusca iv Collar cells s Radial symmetry
(1) A-i-p, B-ii-q, C-iii-r, D-iv-s
(2) A-ii-q, B-i-p, C-iv-s, D-iv-r
(3) A-iv-r, B-iii-p, C-i-s, D-ii-q
(4) A-iv-p, B-iii-r, C-ii-s, D-i-q

3) Cnidarians are aquatic organisms with specialized stinging cells called cnidoblasts used in
defence and prey capture. They also exhibit two body forms polyp and medusa during their life cycle.
Given below are two statements about cnidarians :
Statement I :- Polyp is the free-swimming stage, while medusa is the sessile stage.
Statement II :- Metagenesis is the alternation between polyp and medusa forms in some
cnidarians.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

4) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): Echinoderms exhibit radial symmetry as adults but their larvae show bilateral
symmetry.
Reason (R): Echinoderms are diploblastic and lack a true coelom.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

5) Which of the following statement is incorrect about mesoglea?

(1) It is present in diploblastic animals.

(2) It is a non-cellular layer.
(3) It lies between ectoderm and endoderm.
(4) It is a well-vascularized connective tissue.

6) Read the following statements and find out the correct set of statements?
A. Cnidarians exhibit tissue level of organisation and are diploblastic.
B. Sponges have a cellular level of organisation and are mostly asymmetrical.
C. Ctenophores exhibit bilateral symmetry and are triploblastic.
D. Annelids are pseudocoelomates and have open circulatory system.
E. Coelenterates have a gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B, E only
(2) A, C, D only
(3) B, D, E only
(4) A, B, D only

7) Identify the A, B, C and D from the chart of classification of vertebrates :

(1) A – Pisces, B – Gnathostomata, C – Agnatha, D – Tetrapoda

(2) A – Gnathostomata, B – Pisces, C – Tetrapoda, D – Agnatha
(3) A – Agnatha, B – Gnathostomata, C – Pisces, D – Tetrapoda
(4) A – Pisces, B – Gnathostomata, C – Tetrapoda, D – Agnatha

8)

Match List-I with List-II and find the correct answer :

List-I List-II
 Only one
A Euspongia i plane of
symmetry
No plane of
B Ophiura ii
symmetry
5- planes of
C Anopheles iii
symmetry
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii

9) Which set of animals belongs to same phylum?

(1) Shark, Frog, Snake

(2) Snake, Tortoise, Lizard
(3) Crocodile, Crow, Monkey
(4) All of the above

10)

Match the column I and II and select the correct answer from the options :

Column I Column II
A Porifera i Metagenesis
B Annelida ii Calcareous shell
C Coelenterata iii Nephridia
D Mollusca iv Canal system
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

11) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Sponges have a water transport or canal system.
Statement II: Sponges exhibit an organ-system level of organization.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

12) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Amphibians have three-chambered heart.
Statement II: Amphibians exhibit direct development.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

13) Which of the following fish has air bladder in its body?

(1) Trygon
(2) Torpedo
(3) Scoliodon
(4) Clarias

14) Which of the following is incorrectly matched pair?

(1) Taenia – Endoparasite

(2) Ascaris – Ectoparasite
(3) Anopheles – Carrier of malaria
(4) Asterias – Star fish

15) Which of the following animal possesses water vascular system?

(1) Sycon
(2) Hydra
(3) Pleurobrachia
(4) Ophiura

16) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): All vertebrates are chordates.
Reason (R): All chordates are not vertebrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

17) Which of the following statement is correct about bony fishes?

(1) They are exclusively marine.

(2) They have 4-pairs of gill slits.
(3) They are viviparous.
(4) They have a copulatory organ clasper.

18) What is common between fishes and amphibians?

(1) Both are cold-blooded animals.
(2) Both have scales on their body.
(3) Both show indirect development.
(4) Both have 3-chambered heart.

19) Which of the following animals are uricotelic?

(1) Insects
(2) Reptiles
(3) Birds
(4) All of the above

20) Which of the following is not a function of cnidoblasts found in cnidarians?

(1) Offence
(2) Defence
(3) Anchorage
(4) Digestion

21)

Match the column I and II and select the correct answer from the options :

Column I Column II
A Planaria i Excretory canals
B Wuchereria ii Flame cells
C Pheretima iii Nephridia
D Locusta iv Malpighian tubules
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

22) Which feature is not associated with animals of phylum – ctenophora?

(1) Exclusively marine

(2) Radial symmetry
(3) Asexual reproduction
(4) Bioluminescence

23) Hooks and suckers are found in :

(1) All flatworms

(2) Only in the flatworms which are endoparasite
(3) Only in the flatworms which are ectoparasite
(4) Only in free living flatworms
24) Which animal exhibits the property of sexual dimorphism?

(1) Taenia
(2) Ascaris
(3) Obelia
(4) Pheretima

25) Which of the following is not a characteristic of insects?

(1) Jointed appendages

(2) Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Closed circulation
(4) Tracheal system

26) Which of the following is not an economically important insect?

(1) Apis
(2) Bombyx
(3) Culex
(4) Laccifer

27) Which set of animals has open circulatory system?

(1) Nereis, Pheretima, Anopheles

(2) Anopheles, Culex, Locusta
(3) Nereis, Pila, Culex
(4) Pheretima, Pila, Aplysia

28) Visceral hump and muscular foot are the characters of?

(1) Arthropods
(2) Echinoderms
(3) Molluscs
(4) Annelids

29) Identify the incorrectly matched pair :

(1) Pinctada – Pearl oyster

(2) Octopus – Cuttle fish
(3) Loligo – Squid
(4) Pila – Apple snail

30) Which of the following character is not associated with the animal given in the figure?
(1) It has 3 – chambered heart
(2) Skin is moist and scale less
(3) Cloaca is present
(4) Eyelids are absent

31) The characteristic feature of birds are presence of _____ all over the body and most of them can
fly. Fill in the blanks with correct option :

(1) Hair
(2) Feathers
(3) Wings
(4) Glands

32) Which of the following is not a chordate character?

(1) Notochord
(2) Dorsal, hollow and single nerve cord
(3) Perforated gill slits
(4) Dorsal heart

33) Select the incorrect statements for the members of class cyclostomata?

(1) All living members of this class are ectoparasite on true fishes.
(2) They have elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs gill slits for respiration.
(3) They have a sucking and circular mouth with jaws.
(4) Scales and paired fins are absent.

34) Which of the feature is common in cartilaginous and bony fishes?

(1) 2 – Chambered heart

(2) Ventral mouth
(3) Placoid scales
(4) 5-7 pairs gills

35) Which of the following is a set of aquarium fishes?

(1) Trygon, Torpedo

(2) Hippocampus, Betta
(3) Betta, Pterophyllum
(4) Pterophyllum, Labeo
36) Which structure in the following diagram is replaced by vertebral column in vertebrates?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

37) Hemichordata was earlier considered as a ………A……under phylum Chordata. But now it is
placed as a separate ……B… under non-chordata. Fill in the blanks with correct option.

(1) A- Sub phylum, B- Sub phylum

(2) A- Class, B- Sub phylum
(3) A- Sub phylum, B- Phylum
(4) A- Sub phylum, B- Class

38) What is the correct sequence of flow of water in the water canal system of sponges?

(1) Osculum → Ostia → Spongocoel

(2) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia
(3) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum
(4) Spongocoel → Ostia → Osculum

39) Which of the following is not an oviparous animal?

(1) Ornithorhynchus
(2) Balaenoptera
(3) Columba
(4) Corvus

40) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Mammals are found in a variety of habitats.
Reason (R): Mammals are warm-blooded.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

41) Identify the incorrectly matched pair :

(1) Chelone – Turtle
(2) Testudo – Tortoise
(3) Naja – Cobra
(4) Calotes – Tree lizard

42) What is true about amphibians?

(1) Urinary and reproductive tract have separate openings

(2) Skin is moist with scales
(3) Eyes have eyelids
(4) Sexes are not separate

43)

Match the column I and II and select the correct answer from the options :

Column I Column II
A Urochordata i Stomochord
B Hemichordata ii Tunicates
C Cephalochordata iii Lancelet
D Cyclostomata iv Ectoparasites
(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

44) Endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and the long bones are hollow with air cavities. This
statement is true for :

(1) Frogs
(2) Birds
(3) Lizards
(4) Monkeys

45) Given below are two statements about reptiles :

Statement I :- Heart is usually four-chambered, but three-chambered in crocodiles.
Statement II :- They do not have external ear openings.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

46) Due to efforts of Prof. Ram Deo Mishra, the Government of India established the National
committee for environmental planning and co-ordination in year ___'X'___ which paved the way for
establishment of Ministry of environment and forests in year ___'Y'___. Identify X and Y :
(1) X = 1974, Y = 1982
(2) X = 1972, Y = 1984
(3) X = 1971, Y = 1986
(4) X = 1987, Y = 1989

47)

Who is the father of Indian Ecology ?

(1) [Link]
(2) Reiter
(3) Warming
(4) Prof. Ram Deo Misra

48) According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the
same:

(1) Habitat
(2) Niche
(3) Territory
(4) Biome

49) Which of the following is not a character of a population :

(1) Species diversity

(2) Birth Rate
(3) Death Rate
(4) Population density

50) Stratification is defined as :-

(1) Active nature of all components of ecosystem

(2) Vertical distribution of different plant species occupying different level in a community
(3) Transfer of energy from one trophic level to another trophic level
(4) Only Horizontal layering of plants in aquatic ecosystem

51)
Above given diagram represents a relation with environment. This relation is known as :

(1) Species ecology

(2) Autecology
(3) Synecology
(4) Population ecology

52) Which of the following is NOT considered as a level of biological organization ?

(1) Ecosystem
(2) Organism
(3) Community
(4) Environment

53) Endemic plants are those which are :-

(1) Cosmopoliton in distribution

(2) Restricted to certain area
(3) Found in arctic region
(4) Gregarious in habit

54) Occurence of endemic species in south america and Australia due to :-

(1) These species has been extinct from other regions

(2) Continental separation
(3) There is no terrestrial route to these places
(4) Retrogressive evolution

55) Which of the following character is changed with altitude & latitude ?
(A) Temperature
(B) Vegetation
(C) Species composition
(D) Productivity
Option :-

(1) A
(2) A,B
(3) A,B,C
(4) A,B,C,D

56) Current r value of India is 1.6%, then in how many years population of India will double

(1) 43 years
(2) 56 years
(3) 69 years
(4) 16 years

57) A biologist studied a population of rats in barn. He found that average natality was 250, average
mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30. The net increase in population is :

(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 5
(4) Zero

58) A population growing in a habitat with limited resources show initially a ______, followed by
phases of acceleration and deceleration and finally an _______.

(1) Lag phase ; asymptote

(2) Log phase ; asymptote
(3) Lag phase ; Log phase
(4) asymptote ; lag phase

59) In equation, Nt = N0 ert, where e represents _______.

(1) Population density after time t

(2) Population density at time zero
(3) Intrinsic rate of natural increase
(4) the base of natural logarithms

60) Assertion (A): Darwin showed how even a slow growing animal like elephant could reach
enormous number in the absence of check.
Reason (R): Any species growing exponentially under unlimited resource conditions can reach
enormous population densities in a short time.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

61) The logistic population growth is expressed by the equation:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

62) When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ?

(1) when N/K is exactly one.

(2) when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
(3) when N/K equals zero.
(4) when death rate is greater than birth rate.
63) The population of an insect species shows an explosive increase in numbers during rainy season
followed by its disappearance at the end of the season. What does this show ?

(1) The population of its predators increases enormously

(2) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of this insect
(3) The food plants mature and die at the end of the rainy season.
(4) Its population growth curve is of J-type

64) A wasp pollinating_________flower is an example of_________.

(1) Orchid, symbiosis

(2) Orchid, competition
(3) Fig, mutualism
(4) Fig, commensalism

65) What benefits does yucca offers to pronuba in return for its pollination ?

(1) Delicious fruits

(2) Nectar
(3) Pollens
(4) Oviposition and developing seeds

66) Which adaptation of parasite help to sustain their life in host body
(A) Loss of unnecessary sense organ
(B) Presence of adhesive organ or suckers to cling on the host.
(C) Loss of digestive system
(D) Low reproductive capacity

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only A and C
(3) A, B, C only
(4) A, B, C and D

67) Which of the following is an example of sexual deciet?

(1) Barnacle & whale

(2) Clown fish & Sea anemone
(3) Hermit crab & Sea Anemone
(4) Bees & Ophrys

68) The maximum number of individual of a population which can be supported with optimum
resources for their survival is called?

(1) Biotic potential

(2) Carrying capacity
(3) Environmental resistance
(4) Population density

69) During interaction between sea anemone and clawn fish, which get benifitted :

(1) Sea anemone only

(2) Clown fish only
(3) Both
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)

70) A plant growing on another plant without drawing any nourishment is :

(1) Ectoparasite
(2) Epiphyte
(3) Symbiont
(4) Saprophyte

71) In the relationship of ophrys and bumble bee, mimicry is associated with

(1) Ophrys
(2) Male bumble bee
(3) Female bumble bee
(4) All of the above

72)

In laboratory experiments, two species of the protist Paramicium were grown alone and in the
presence of the other species. The following graphs show growth of species 1 (left) and species 2
(right), both along and when in mixed culture.

Interpretation of these graphs shows that :

(1) competitive exclusion occurred in these experiments.
(2) both species are affected by interspecific competition but species 1 is less affected.
(3) both species are affected by interspecific competition but species 2 is less affected.
(4) both species are affected equally by interspecific competition.

73) Which of following is parasite on Marine fish?

(1) Copepods
(2) Ticks
(3) Leech
(4) Lice

74) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in crow's nest known as :

(1) Hyper parasitism

(2) Commensalism
(3) Mutualism
(4) Brood parasitism

75) A foreign species is introducted into a geographical area, where it becomes invasive and start
spreading fast, this is because :-

(1) The invaded land has plenty of food

(2) The conditions are favourable
(3) The invaded land does not have their natural predators
(4) The invaded land has plenty of surface area.

76) Mark the important defence mechanism in plants against herbivory :-

(1) Spines
(2) Toxic Chemical
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) None of these

77)

To avoid predation Monarch butterfly became distasteful. It is :-

(1) Acquired from other butterflies

(2) Acquired during cater-pillar stage
(3) It is produced by self
(4) It acquires during fertilization

78) Biotic potential is

(1) Intrinsic rate of natural increase under environmental limited condition

(2) Intrinsic rate of natural increase under environmental unlimited condition
(3) Extrinsic rate of natural increase under environmental limited conditions
(4) Extrinsic rate of natural increase under environmental unlimited conditions

79) The famous Australian "havoc" is associated with which of the following invasive species ?

(1) Nile Perch

(2) Parthenium
(3) Clarias gariepinus
(4) Prickly pear cactus
80) Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the
production of antibiotics ?

(1) Commensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Amensalism

81) Which is a potent force for organic evolution ?

(1) Intra specific competition

(2) Inter specific competition
(3) Predation
(4) Parasitism

82) In general which of the following appear to be more adversely affected by competition ?

(1) Only herbivores

(2) Plants and herbivores
(3) Herbivores and Carnivores
(4) Only carnivores

83) Choose the correct option for the condition given below in different area with different

populations :- Which of the area have maximum species

diversity and minimum species diversity respectively :-

(1) A and B
(2) C and B
(3) A and C
(4) B and A

84)
In above diagram four areas are given. In which Area has max. and min. number of species
respectively :-

Max = B
(1)
Min = D
Max = A
(2)
Min = D
Max = A
(3)
Min = B
 Max = C
(4)
Min = D

85) Choose the correct option for the relation between species A & species B shown in the graph
given below :-

(1) Commensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Competition
(4) Amensalism

86) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Ramdeo Misra research laid the foundations for understanding of temperate
communities and their succession, environmental responses of plant populations and productivity
and nutrient cycling in temperate forest and grassland ecosystems.
Statement-II : In an area, if there are 200 carrot grass plants but only a single huge banyan tree
with a large canopy, stating that the population density of banyan is low relative to that of carrot
grass amounts to underestimating the enormous role of the Banyan tree in that community, the per
cent cover or biomass is a more meaningful measure of the population size.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

87) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Reason R:
Assertion A : It is obvious that in nature, animals, plants and microbes do not and cannot live in
isolation but interact in various ways to form a biological community and also in minimal
communities, many interactive linkages exist, although all may not be readily apparent.
Reason R : For any species, the minimal requirement is one more species on which it can feed and
even a plant species, which makes its own food, cannot survive alone; it needs soil microbes to break
down the organic matter in soil and return the inorganic nutrients for absorption.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

88) A study on species diversity was carried out at Sulpaneshwar Wildlife Sanctuary (X),
Jambughoda Wildlife Sanctuary (Y) and Purna Wildlife Sanctuary (Z). Species diversity is a collective
function of species richness and evenness. A list of species and their abundance is given in table
below. Arrange these different habitats in decreasing order of species diversity

Abundance
Species
Habitat-X Habitat-Y Habitat-Z
A 10 12 10
B 30 6 10
C 6 18 10
D 0 8 10
E 10 11 10
F 1 3 0
G 3 2 10
(1) Habitat Y, Habitat Z and Habitat X
(2) Habitat X, Habitat Y and Habitat Z
(3) Habitat Z, Habitat Y and Habitat X
(4) Habitat Y, Habitat X and Habitat Z

89) How many are the physico-chemical component found in habitat?

Air, water, completion, minerals, soil, predation, parasitism, organism, temperature

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Six
(4) Five

90) In general, species diversity ……A…… as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
Colombia located near the ……B…… has nearly ……C…… species of birds while New York at
……D…… has ……E…… species and Greenland at ……F…… only ……G…… species. India, with much
of its land area in the tropical latitudes, has more than ……H…… species of birds.

A B C D E F G H
0 0
(1) Decreases Equator 1400 41 105 71 56 1200
0 0
(2) Increases Pole 1300 23 56 41 105 1400
0 0
(3) Decreases Equator 1400 71 56 41 105 1300
0 0
(4) Constant Equator 1300 0 1200 23 1400 105
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 2 1 1 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 2 2 4 1 2 3 3 4 1 2 2 4 1 3 1 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 1 4 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 3 2 4 3 3 4 4 1 3 3 3 1 2 1 2 3 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 3 2 4 4 3 2 4 3 1 4 2 1 1 2 4 2 4 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 1 3 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 3 2 3 4 1 3 2 4 4 1 1 4 2 4 2 2 1 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 2 4 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 3 2 2 2 4 2 1 2 3 4 2 2 4 1 4 1 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 4 3 4 3 4 2 2 2 1 3 1 4 3 3 2 2 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 3 2 3 1 4 1 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

Magnitude

3)

so

4) Question Explain :
We need to compute the dot product of two given vector expressions:
. The dot product follows distributive and commutative properties.
Concept Based :
Dot product and addition of vectors.
Solution :
The dot product of two vectors and is given by = |X| |Y|cosθ. It follows the is
distributive law

Formula Used :

Calculation :
Expanding the given expression:

= 6A2 – 4ABcosθ + 9ABcosθ – 6B2

= 6A2 + 5ABcosθ – 6B2
Answer : The correct answer is option 3.

5)

⇒ and at to each other.

6)

y component is

7)

OR Magnitude of = 15

8)

9)

Triangle law of vector addition.

10)

Third vector must be equal at opposite f1 + f2.

11)

12)

13)

14)

Projection

15) cos2α + cos2β + cos2γ = 1

Put cos2γ = 1 – sin2γ

16) =

17) Question explain:

We are given two vectors:
,
and asked to find their dot product.
Concept based:
Dot product is the sum of the products of corresponding vector components, giving a scalar.
Formula used:

Calculation:
= (2) (1) + (3) (–1) + (3) (2) = 2 – 3 + 6 = 5
Final Answer:
Option (1) 5

18)

J=r×p

it is to x axis

19)

area =

20)

c2 = a2 + b2 + 2ab cosθ
d2 = a2 + b2 – 2ab cosθ
c2 + d2 = 2(a2 + b2)
21)
The magnitude of velocity of image relative to ma normal to mirror will be →2vcosθ

22)
max wavelength red

23) v = +8cm, f = +10cm

After solving
u = – 40cm

24)

⇒ m= ⇒

25)

Problem Statement: The question asks about the speed at which the image of a man appears
to move with respect to a stationary plane mirror when the man runs towards the mirror at 20
m/s.
Underlying Concept: In a plane mirror, the image is formed at the same distance behind the
mirror as the object is in front. When the object moves, its image moves symmetrically at the
same speed but in the opposite direction relative to the mirror. The speed of the image with
respect to the mirror is the same as the speed of the object towards the mirror.
Step-by-Step Calculation: The man runs towards the mirror at 20 m/s. The image moves
towards the mirror at the same speed, 20 m/s. Although the relative speed between the man
and his image is 20 m/s + 20 m/s = 40 m/s, the question asks only for the image's speed
relative to the mirror, which is 20 m/s.
Tips and Tricks: Remember that in plane mirrors, image distance equals object distance, so
speeds towards or away from the mirror are mirrored equally.
Common Mistakes: Confusing the speed of the image relative to the mirror with the relative
speed between the man and his image, leading to an incorrect answer of 40 m/s.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 10 m/s and 30 m/s do not correspond to the reflection
property speeds. 40 m/s is the relative speed between the man and image, not the image's
speed with respect to the mirror. 20 m/s is correct as it matches the object's speed towards the
mirror.

26) A. Question Explanation: The amount of the person's body below the eyes that is visible in
the plane mirror is determined by the mirror's location and size.
B. Concept: A plane mirror produces an image that is the same size as the object. The visible
part of the body is twice the difference between the eye level and the bottom of the mirror.

C. Formula: Visible height of lower body = 2 x (Eye level - Bottom of mirror)

D. Calculation: Visible height = 2 x (1.5 meters 0.8 meters) 2 x 0.7 meters = 1.4 meters 140
centimeters. However, because the mirror is only 30 centimeters long, the visible portion is
limited to 60 centimeters.

E. Final Answer: Option 1: 60 cm.

F. Question Level: Medium.

27)

Explain Question :-
An object is placed in from of a mirror inclined at 45°. Find the correct direction of its image
based on reflection rules.
Concept :-
Reflection flips the object across the mirror line. A 45° mirror swaps x and y axes of the
object's direction.
Formula :-
Image direction = Mirror reflection across 45° line → (x, y) becomes (y, x)
Calculation is along negative x -axis reflecting across 45° mirror gives a vector along postive y-
axis
Answer : - Option 2 : 1

28)

29) Due to 10° clockwise rotation of incident ray, reflected ray turns by 10° anti-clockwise,
Due to 20° clockwise rotation of the mirror, reflected ray turns by 40° clockwise. Hence, net
rotation is 30° clockwise.

30) v = λ × υ and v =

5000 × 10–10 × 2 × 1014 =

⇒µ=3

31) μ1 sin i = μ3 sin r

1 (sin 60) = sin r ⇒ sin r = ⇒ r = 30

32) = 2cosA

33)
d = v × t = 5 × 6 = 30 cm
Distance = 70 + 70 = 140

34) +4 = ⇒ –240 – 4u = –60

⇒ 4u = –180

u=

35) ∵ ∴ Higher n, lesser f

Also, nv > ng > nR

36) By shell's law

1 × sin 45° = µ sin 30°

37)
Angle =

θ=
Arc = f.θ

38) ⇒ ; r = 0.667 m

39)

For C :

For B :

B'C' :

D'C' : DC × mC =10 ×

A'B' = AB × mB =10 ×
∴ A'B'C'D' = A'B' + B'C' + D'C'

40)
If mirror rotated by θ, then reflected ray rotates by 2θ = 2×3.5 = 7°
for θ small
θ ≈ tan θ

d= =18.31 cm
41)
Angle of refraction at A = angle of incident at B
Angle of incidence at A = Angle of refraction at B which is 90° for grazing emergence.

42)

Question Explanation : To Find the focal length of complex mirror. When image due to
combination of plane mirror and convex mirror comcedence.
Concept : Image Formation by combination of plane and spherical mirrors

Visual aid :

Formula : Mirror formula

Calculation : Given u = – 20 , v = +4 cm as IC (Image by convex mirror) IP (Image by Plane
mirror) concides So put the value in formula.

⇒
Final Answer : (1)

43) α = θ and β = θ
In ΔOPQ : Q + α + β = 180°
⇒ 3θ = 180° ⇒ θ = 60°

44)

No. of Reflection =
 45)
θ + 90° + 60° = 180°
θ = 30°

CHEMISTRY

46)

Concept :- Rate constant

Solution :- Rate constant (k) depends on temperature & catalyst
From → D = A e–Ea/RT
Option :- 4
Decreases on increasing temperature

47)

Question Explanation: We have to find order of reaction.

Concept : This question is based on order of reaction.
Solution :
∵ unit of rate constant for nth order
= (mol)1–n (L)n–1. S–1
given ⇒ mol–3/4. L3/4. S–1

∵ 1 – n = – 3/4 ⇒
Final Answer : option (1)

48)

Question Explanation: We have to find time taken if we shart with 20 mol L–1 of reactant and
it is reduced to 2.5 mol/L
Concept : First order reaction.

Solution :

t = 30 min
Final Answer : option (3)

49)

µ=2
50)

2A → 4B + 3C

(Suppose)
K1 = 2x, K2 = 4x, K3 = 3x
K1 : K2 : K3 = 2 : 4 : 3

51)

Fact Based

52)

r = k [A]2[B]
r1 = k [2A]2[2B] C' = 2C
r1 = 8r

53)

According to theory

54)

According to theory

55)

For Ist order reaction

r = k1[A]

56)
 57)

58)

Based on fact

59)

First-Order Kinetics:

A. t1/2 = 0.693 / k1

B. Zero-Order Kinetics:

A. t1/2 = [A]0 / 2k0

60)

Determining the order with respect to A:

A. Compare experiments I and III. [A] doubles (0.10 to 0.20), while [B] changes. The rate
approximately doubles (6.93 x 10⁻³ to 1.386 x 10⁻²). This suggests the reaction is first-order
with respect to A.

A. Determining the order with respect to B:

A. Compare experiments I and II. [B] changes (0.20 to 0.25), but [A] and the rate remain
the same. This indicates that the reaction is zero-order with respect to B.
B. Rate Law:
A. Based on the above, the rate law is: rate = k[A]¹[B]⁰ = k[A]
C. Calculating the rate constant (k):
A. Using data from Experiment I:
A. 6.93 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹ min⁻¹ = k * (0.10 mol L⁻¹)
B. k = (6.93 x 10⁻³ mol L⁻¹ min⁻¹) / (0.10 mol L⁻¹) = 0.0693 min⁻¹
D. Calculating the half-life (t₁/₂):
A. For a first-order reaction, t₁/₂ = 0.693 / k
A. t₁/₂ = 0.693 / 0.0693 min⁻¹ = 10 minutes

61)

Based of fact
62)

Based of fact

63) ... (1)

... (2)
equation (1) & (2)

64)

Based on definition

65) NCERT Page no. 108 (Half life).

66)

67)

• Stoichiometry and Rate: The coefficients in a balanced chemical equation relate the rates of
reactants and products. For a general reaction aA + bB → cC + dD, the rate is:
Rate = (-1/a)d[A]/dt = (-1/b)d[B]/dt = (1/c)d[C]/dt = (1/d)d[D]/dt

Reaction : A + (1/2)B → C

A. Rate = -d[A]/dt = -2d[B]/dt = d[C]/dt

B. -d[B]/dt = (1/2)d[C]/dt (This matches the condition)

68)

Based on fact

69)
= 1 × 10–4

70)

Based of fact
71) Fact based.

72)

Based of fact

73) (Second order)

(Zero order)
(First order)

74) Threshold ⇒ Total energy

e=a+c
Exothermic (Eab > Eaf)

75)

r1 = r2 = r3

76) t75% = 2 × t50%

For first order reaction according to question
r = (P)1 (Q)0
order = 1 + 0 = 1

77)

Based of fact

78)

Based on fact

79)

Based on fact

80)

= 30 kJ
81)
t=0 100

t=5 (100–P) P P/2

⇒ p = 40

82)

Explaining Question:
Find rate of disappearance of O2 given SO3 forms at 100 g/min.
Concept: This question is based on Stoichiometry & Rate relation
Solution:
Reaction: 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
SO3 forms at 100 g/min → corresponds to 2 mol parts
So O2 reacts in 1 mol part
∴ Rate of O2 disappearance = (1/2) × 100 = 50 g/min
BUT O2 molar mass = 32, SO3 = 80
So actual mol rate:
100 g SO3/min ÷ 80 = 1.25 mol/min
O₂ disappears at 1/2 × 1.25 = 0.625 mol/min
Mass of O2 disappearing = 0.625 × 32 = 20 g/min

83)

Question Explanation:
We have to find correct match the coloumn.
Concept:
This question is based on Arrhenius Equation, enthalpy of reaction.
Solution:
(a) Slope of In k vs 1/T graph = –EA/R
(b) Threshold energy - Reactant energy = Ea
(c) Fraction of molecules with energy = e–Ea/RT
(d) (ΔH) forward for reversible reaction = (Ea)f – (Ea)b.
Hence,
Correct Option: 2

84)

Based on fact

85)

Based on fact
86)

Here rate in terms of mass so divide by molar mass

kgmin–1
= 3 × 10–4 kg min–1

87) The slow step is the rate determining step hence if we consider option (1) we find -
Rate = K[Cl2][H2S]
if we consider option (2) we find
Rate = K'[Cl2][HS–] .....(1)
from equation-

K= or
Substituting this value in equation (1)

Rate =
hence only, mechanism (1) is consistent with the given rate equation.

88) r = k5 [COCl] [Cl2]

r = k5 keq [Cl] [CO] (Cl2)

89)

2A3 → 3A2
t=0 a 0
t a – 2x 3x
[A3] = [A2]
a – 2x = 3x

t2x = t2/5

90) A —→ B + C + D
t=0 P0 0 0 0
t=t P0–P P P P
 Pt = P0 – P + P + P + P

0
2P = Pt – P ⇒ P =

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT XI, Page#48 Para: [Link]

92) NCERT XI, Page#40-44

93) NCERT XI, Page#41 Para: 4.2.2

94) NCERT XI, Page#45 Para: 4.2.9

95) NCERT XI, Page#38 Para: 4.1.3

96) NCERT XI, Page#40-43

97) NCERT XI, Page#47

98) NCERT XI, Page#40-44

99) NCERT XI, Page#47-51

100) NCERT XI, Page#40-43

101) NCERT XI, Page#40 Para: 4.2.1

102) NCERT XI, Page#48 Para: [Link]

103) NCERT XI, Page#48 Para: [Link]

104) NCERT XI, Page#42-45

105) NCERT XI, Page#45 Para: 4.2.9

106) NCERT XI, Page#46 Para: 4.2.11

107) NCERT XI, Page#48 Para: [Link]

108) NCERT XI, Page#48 Para: [Link]

109) Module

110) NCERT XI, Page#41 Para: 4.2.2

111) NCERT XI, Page#42-45

112) NCERT XI, Page#42 Para: 4.2.3

113) NCERT XI, Page#42 Para: 4.2.4

114) NCERT XI, Page#43 Para: 4.2.5

115) NCERT XI, Page#44 Para: 4.2.7

116) NCERT XI, Page#44 Para: 4.2.7

117) NCERT XI, Page#44 Para: 4.2.7

118) NCERT XI, Page#45 Para: 4.2.8

119) NCERT XI, Page#44 Para: 4.2.8

120) NCERT XI, Page#48 Para: [Link]

121) NCERT XI, Page#49 Para: [Link]

122) NCERT XI, Page#46 Para: 4.2.11

123) NCERT XI, Page#47 Para: [Link]

124) NCERT XI, Page#48 Para: [Link]

125) NCERT XI, Page#48 Para: [Link]

126) NCERT XI, Page#46 Para: 4.2.11

127) NCERT XI, Page#45 Para: 4.2.10

128) NCERT XI, Page#40 Para: 4.2.1

129) NCERT XI, Page#51 Para: [Link]

130) NCERT XI, Page#51 Para: [Link]

131) NCERT XI, Page#49 Para: [Link]

132) NCERT XI, Page#48 Para: [Link]

133) NCERT XI, Page#45-47

134) NCERT XI, Page#49 Para: [Link]

135) NCERT XI, Page#49 Para: [Link]

136)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 189

137)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 189

138)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 198, 199

139)

Explanation:

A. Species diversity refers to the variety of species in a community, not in a single

population. A population consists of individuals of the same species in a specific area.
140)

NCERT XII Pg. # 206

141)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 188

142)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 191

143)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 224

144)

Module - 8

145)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 219

146)

Use formula N = Noert

147) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 193

148) NCERT, Pg. # 195

149)

NCERT XII Pg : 194

150)

NCERT XII Pg : 195

151) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 195, 196

152)
 when N/K is exactly one.

153)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 194, 195

154) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 202

155)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 201, Fig : 11.4

156)

Explanation:
Parasites show several adaptations to survive in their host:

A. (A) They lose sense organs that are unnecessary in a stable internal environment.
B. (B) They develop adhesive organs or suckers to attach firmly to the host.
C. (C) Many internal parasites lack a digestive system and absorb nutrients directly.

157)

Explanation:
Ophrys (a genus of orchids) uses sexual deceit to attract pollinators. The flower mimics the
appearance and scent of a female bee. Male bees mistake the flower for a mate and attempt to
copulate (pseudocopulation), during which pollination occurs.

158)

Carrying capacity refers to the maximum number of individuals of a particular species that an
environment can support sustainably, given the available resources (food, water, space, etc.).
It is determined by factors like resource availability and environmental conditions.

159) Clarification:

A. The clown fish gets protection from predators by hiding among the stinging tentacles of
the sea anemone, to which it is immune.

B. The sea anemone is neither harmed nor benefited.

160) Question Explanation:

A plant growing on another plant without drawing any nourishment is :

Solution:
An epiphyte is a plant that grows on another plant but does not draw nourishment from it.
Instead, it typically relies on air, rain, and debris for nutrients. Epiphytes are common in
environments like rainforests, where they grow on larger trees but do not harm them.

Hence,
Correct Option: 2

161)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 202

162)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 197, Table 11.1

Both species get harmed in competition.

163) NCERT Pg#21

164)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 200

165) NCERT-XII Pg. # 197

166)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 198

167)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 198

168) Module - 8

169)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 197

170)

the correct answer is:4

Amensalism is a type of symbiotic relationship between two species where one species is
harmed while the other is unaffected. It's a unidirectional process where one organism
releases a chemical that harms another organism.
171)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 198

172)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 199

173)

Species diversity is determined by species richness & evenness.

174)

Species diversity is determined by species richness & evenness.

175)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 197, Table 11.1

Both species get harmed in competition.

176)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 189, 192

177)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 196

178)

Species diversity is determined by species richness & evenness.

179)

Non-living (Abiotic) component are called. Physico-chemical component.

180)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 219