Mean Value Theorem
Intervals
• Open interval:
(a, b) = {x ∈ R | a < x < b}
Endpoints are not included.
• Closed interval:
[a, b] = {x ∈ R | a ≤ x ≤ b}
Endpoints are included.
• Half-open intervals:
[a, b) = {x ∈ R | a ≤ x < b}, (a, b] = {x ∈ R | a < x ≤ b}.
Infinite Interval
(−∞, b) = {x ∈ R | x < b},
(a, ∞) = {x ∈ R | x > a},
(−∞, ∞) = R.
Note: Infinity ∞ is not a number, so we never use square brackets with it.
Mean Value Theorem
Rolle’s Theorem
Let f : R −→ R be a function such that
• f is continuous on [a, b]
• f is differentiable on (a, b)
• f (a) = f (b).
1
Figure 0.1: Geometrical Interpretation: Rolle’s Theorem
Then there exists a point c ∈ (a, b) such that f ′ (c) = 0.
Example 1. Verify the Rolle’s Theorem for the function f (x) = x2 − 4x + 3
on the interval [1, 3]
Answer:
• As f is a polynomial, it is differentiable and continuous everywhere.
• Now, f (1) = 12 −4+3 = 0, and f (3) = 32 −4·3+3 = 0. So f (1) = f (3).
• By Rolle’s Theorem, there must be at least one c ∈ (1, 3) such that
f ′ (c) = 0.
• To find c, solve f ′ (c) = 0, we have
f ′ (c) = 0 =⇒ 2c − 4 = 0 =⇒ c = 2
• Thus, c = 2 ∈ (1, 3).
• Rolle’s Theorem is verified.
Exercise 1. Verify Rolle’s Theorem for
• f (x) = x2 − 5x + 10 on [2, 3].
• f (x) = cos x on [0, 2π]
• f (x) = x2 + cos x on [− π4 , π4 ].
• f (x) = sin(x)
ex
in [0, π].
2
Figure 0.2: Geometrical Interpretation: Lagrange’s MVT
• f (x) = (x − a)m (x − b)n where m, n are positive integers in [a, b].
Exercise 2. Show that the following function does not satisfy the condition
of Rolle’s Theorem
• f (x) =| x | on [−1, 1]
• f (x) = 1− | x − 1 | on [0, 2].
2
• f (x) = 1 − (x − 1) 3 on [0, 2]
Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem
Let f be continuous in [a, b] and differentiable on (a, b). Then there exists a
point c ∈ (a, b) such that
f (b) − f (a)
= f ′ (c).
b−a
• Additionally, if f (a) = f (b), it becomes Rolle’s Theorem.
Example 2. Verify Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem for the function f (x) =
sin x on [0, π].
Answer:
• f is continuous and differentiable on [0, π].
• By MVT, we have
f (π) − f (0)
f ′ (c) = = 0.
π−0
• To find c,
π
f ′ (c) = 0 =⇒ cos c = 0 =⇒ c = ∈ (0, π).
2
3
• Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem is verified.
Exercise 3. Verify Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem for
1. f (x) = x2 on [1, 3]
2. f (x) = ln x on [1, e]
3. f (x) = x(x − 1)(x − 2) on [0, 12 ]
x
4. f (x) = x−1
on [2, 4]
5. f (x) = x3 − 3x + 1 on [1, 3]
2
6. f (x) = 4 − (6 − x) 3 on [5, 7]
Cauchy Mean Value Theorem
Let f, g be continuous on [a, b] and differentiable in (a, b) and g ′ (x) ̸= 0 for all
x. Then there exists c ∈ (a, b) such that
f (b) − f (a) f ′ (c)
= ′ .
g(b) − g(a) g (c)
• Special Case: If g(x) = x, then g ′ (x) = 1, it becomes Lagrange’s
Mean Value Theorem.
Example 3. Find the value of c by applying Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem
for the functions f (x) = x2 , g(x) = x3 on [1, 2].
Answer:
• Both f, g are continuous on [1, 2] and differentiable in (1, 2).
• Here f ′ (x) = 2x and g ′ (x) = 3x2 ̸= 0 for all x ∈ [1, 2].
• So, CMVT applies.
• By CMVT, we have
f ′ (c) f (b) − f (a)
′
=
g (c) g(b) − g(a)
2c f (2) − f (1)
=⇒ 2
=
3c g(2) − g(1)
2 4−1 3
=⇒ = =
3c 8−1 7
14
=⇒ c = ≈ 1.555 ∈ (1, 2)
9
4
• CMVT is verified.
Exercise 4. Verify Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem for
1. f (x) = sin x and g(x) = cos x on [ π4 , 3π
4
]
√
2. f (x) = x and g(x) = √1x on [1, 3]
1
3. f (x) = log x and g(x) = x
on [1, e]
Some Important Examples
Example 4. Prove that between any two consecutive roots of the polynomial
P (x), there exists at least one root of P ′ (x).
Answer:
• Let P (x) be a polynomial and r1 < r2 be its two consecutive roots.
• So, P (x) has no root in (r1 , r2 ) and P (r1 ) = P (r2 ) = 0.
• As P (x) is a polynomial, it is differentiable and continuous everywhere,
in particular, on [r1 , r2 ].
• By Rolle’s Theorem, there exists c ∈ (r1 , r2 ) such that
P ′ (c) = 0.
• That means, c is a root of the polynomial P ′ (x)
Quickly Verify
Take P (x) = (x − 1)(x − 3)(x + 2) = x3 − 2x2 − 5x + 6
• Roots of P (x) are −2, 1, 3.
• So, P ′ (x) = 3x2 − 4x − 5 must have at least one in (−2, 1) and in (1, 3).
√
• P ′ (x) = 3x2 − 4x − 5 = 0 =⇒ x = 4± 76
6
= −0.76, and 2.426
• −0.76 ∈ (−2, 1) and 2.426 ∈ (1, 3).
• It is verified.
Example 5. Prove that the equation (x−1)3 +(x−2)3 +(x−4)3 +(x−5)3 = 0
has only one real root.
Answer:
5
• If possible, let (x − 1)3 + (x − 2)3 + (x − 4)3 + (x − 5)3 = 0 has two real
roots, say r1 < r2 .
• Then its derivative, 3(x − 1)2 + 3(x − 2)2 + 3(x − 3)2 + 3(x − 4)2 = 0 has
one root in (r1 , r2 ).
• But,
3(x − 1)2 + 3(x − 2)2 + 3(x − 3)2 + 3(x − 4)2 = 0
=⇒ (x − 1)2 + (x − 2)2 + (x − 3)2 + (x − 4)2 = 0
has no real roots.
• So, the given equation can not have more than one root.
• Also, we know that complex roots appear pairwise.
• So the equation has exactly one real root.
Exercise 5. If c0 + c21 + c32 + · · · + n+1
cn
= 0, where c0 , c1 , . . . , cn are real, then
show that the equation c0 + c1 x + c2 x + · · · + cn xn = 0 has at least one real
2
root between 0 and 1.
Answer:
c1 x2 c 2 x3 cn xn+1
• Let P (x) = c0 x + 2
+ 3
+ ··· + n+1
.
• P (0) = P (1) = 0.
• P (x) is differential in (0, 1) and continuous in [0, 1].
• By Rolle’s Theorem, there exist α ∈ (0, 1) such that P ′ (α) = 0.
• Again,
P ′ (α) = 0
=⇒ c0 + c1 α + c2 α2 + · · · + cn αn = 0.
• So, α is a root of c0 + c1 x + c2 x2 + · · · + cn xn = 0, and 0 < α < 1.
Exercise 6. 1. Prove that between any two real roots of ex cos x + 1 = 0,
there is at least one real root of ex sin x + 1 = 0.
2. Prove that between any two real roots of ex sin x + 1 = 0, there is at least
one real root of tan x + 1 = 0.
Hints:
1. f (x) = e−x + cos x
6
2. f (x) = ex sin x + 1
Exercise 7. 1. Use Lagrange’s MVT to prove | tan x − tan y |≥| x − y |
for x, y ∈ (− π2 , π2 ).
2. If f is differentiable on [0, 1], show by Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem
′ (x)
that the equation f (1) − f (0) = f 2x has a root in (0, 1).
3. Use Cauchy’s MVT to prove for all x, y > 0
x−y x+y
≤ .
ln x − ln y 2