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Mean Value Theorem Overview

Mean value theorem

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Vaibhav Upadhyay
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
8 views7 pages

Mean Value Theorem Overview

Mean value theorem

Uploaded by

Vaibhav Upadhyay
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Mean Value Theorem

Intervals
• Open interval:
(a, b) = {x ∈ R | a < x < b}
Endpoints are not included.

• Closed interval:

[a, b] = {x ∈ R | a ≤ x ≤ b}

Endpoints are included.

• Half-open intervals:

[a, b) = {x ∈ R | a ≤ x < b}, (a, b] = {x ∈ R | a < x ≤ b}.

Infinite Interval

(−∞, b) = {x ∈ R | x < b},


(a, ∞) = {x ∈ R | x > a},
(−∞, ∞) = R.

Note: Infinity ∞ is not a number, so we never use square brackets with it.

Mean Value Theorem


Rolle’s Theorem
Let f : R −→ R be a function such that

• f is continuous on [a, b]

• f is differentiable on (a, b)

• f (a) = f (b).

1
Figure 0.1: Geometrical Interpretation: Rolle’s Theorem

Then there exists a point c ∈ (a, b) such that f ′ (c) = 0.

Example 1. Verify the Rolle’s Theorem for the function f (x) = x2 − 4x + 3


on the interval [1, 3]

Answer:

• As f is a polynomial, it is differentiable and continuous everywhere.

• Now, f (1) = 12 −4+3 = 0, and f (3) = 32 −4·3+3 = 0. So f (1) = f (3).

• By Rolle’s Theorem, there must be at least one c ∈ (1, 3) such that


f ′ (c) = 0.

• To find c, solve f ′ (c) = 0, we have

f ′ (c) = 0 =⇒ 2c − 4 = 0 =⇒ c = 2

• Thus, c = 2 ∈ (1, 3).

• Rolle’s Theorem is verified.

Exercise 1. Verify Rolle’s Theorem for

• f (x) = x2 − 5x + 10 on [2, 3].

• f (x) = cos x on [0, 2π]

• f (x) = x2 + cos x on [− π4 , π4 ].

• f (x) = sin(x)
ex
in [0, π].

2
Figure 0.2: Geometrical Interpretation: Lagrange’s MVT

• f (x) = (x − a)m (x − b)n where m, n are positive integers in [a, b].

Exercise 2. Show that the following function does not satisfy the condition
of Rolle’s Theorem

• f (x) =| x | on [−1, 1]

• f (x) = 1− | x − 1 | on [0, 2].


2
• f (x) = 1 − (x − 1) 3 on [0, 2]

Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem


Let f be continuous in [a, b] and differentiable on (a, b). Then there exists a
point c ∈ (a, b) such that
f (b) − f (a)
= f ′ (c).
b−a
• Additionally, if f (a) = f (b), it becomes Rolle’s Theorem.

Example 2. Verify Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem for the function f (x) =
sin x on [0, π].
Answer:
• f is continuous and differentiable on [0, π].

• By MVT, we have
f (π) − f (0)
f ′ (c) = = 0.
π−0

• To find c,
π
f ′ (c) = 0 =⇒ cos c = 0 =⇒ c = ∈ (0, π).
2
3
• Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem is verified.

Exercise 3. Verify Lagrange’s Mean Value Theorem for

1. f (x) = x2 on [1, 3]

2. f (x) = ln x on [1, e]

3. f (x) = x(x − 1)(x − 2) on [0, 12 ]


x
4. f (x) = x−1
on [2, 4]

5. f (x) = x3 − 3x + 1 on [1, 3]
2
6. f (x) = 4 − (6 − x) 3 on [5, 7]

Cauchy Mean Value Theorem


Let f, g be continuous on [a, b] and differentiable in (a, b) and g ′ (x) ̸= 0 for all
x. Then there exists c ∈ (a, b) such that

f (b) − f (a) f ′ (c)


= ′ .
g(b) − g(a) g (c)

• Special Case: If g(x) = x, then g ′ (x) = 1, it becomes Lagrange’s


Mean Value Theorem.

Example 3. Find the value of c by applying Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem


for the functions f (x) = x2 , g(x) = x3 on [1, 2].

Answer:

• Both f, g are continuous on [1, 2] and differentiable in (1, 2).

• Here f ′ (x) = 2x and g ′ (x) = 3x2 ̸= 0 for all x ∈ [1, 2].

• So, CMVT applies.

• By CMVT, we have

f ′ (c) f (b) − f (a)



=
g (c) g(b) − g(a)
2c f (2) − f (1)
=⇒ 2
=
3c g(2) − g(1)
2 4−1 3
=⇒ = =
3c 8−1 7
14
=⇒ c = ≈ 1.555 ∈ (1, 2)
9

4
• CMVT is verified.

Exercise 4. Verify Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem for

1. f (x) = sin x and g(x) = cos x on [ π4 , 3π


4
]

2. f (x) = x and g(x) = √1x on [1, 3]
1
3. f (x) = log x and g(x) = x
on [1, e]

Some Important Examples


Example 4. Prove that between any two consecutive roots of the polynomial
P (x), there exists at least one root of P ′ (x).

Answer:

• Let P (x) be a polynomial and r1 < r2 be its two consecutive roots.

• So, P (x) has no root in (r1 , r2 ) and P (r1 ) = P (r2 ) = 0.

• As P (x) is a polynomial, it is differentiable and continuous everywhere,


in particular, on [r1 , r2 ].

• By Rolle’s Theorem, there exists c ∈ (r1 , r2 ) such that

P ′ (c) = 0.

• That means, c is a root of the polynomial P ′ (x)

Quickly Verify
Take P (x) = (x − 1)(x − 3)(x + 2) = x3 − 2x2 − 5x + 6

• Roots of P (x) are −2, 1, 3.

• So, P ′ (x) = 3x2 − 4x − 5 must have at least one in (−2, 1) and in (1, 3).

• P ′ (x) = 3x2 − 4x − 5 = 0 =⇒ x = 4± 76
6
= −0.76, and 2.426

• −0.76 ∈ (−2, 1) and 2.426 ∈ (1, 3).

• It is verified.

Example 5. Prove that the equation (x−1)3 +(x−2)3 +(x−4)3 +(x−5)3 = 0


has only one real root.

Answer:

5
• If possible, let (x − 1)3 + (x − 2)3 + (x − 4)3 + (x − 5)3 = 0 has two real
roots, say r1 < r2 .

• Then its derivative, 3(x − 1)2 + 3(x − 2)2 + 3(x − 3)2 + 3(x − 4)2 = 0 has
one root in (r1 , r2 ).

• But,

3(x − 1)2 + 3(x − 2)2 + 3(x − 3)2 + 3(x − 4)2 = 0


=⇒ (x − 1)2 + (x − 2)2 + (x − 3)2 + (x − 4)2 = 0

has no real roots.

• So, the given equation can not have more than one root.

• Also, we know that complex roots appear pairwise.

• So the equation has exactly one real root.

Exercise 5. If c0 + c21 + c32 + · · · + n+1


cn
= 0, where c0 , c1 , . . . , cn are real, then
show that the equation c0 + c1 x + c2 x + · · · + cn xn = 0 has at least one real
2

root between 0 and 1.

Answer:
c1 x2 c 2 x3 cn xn+1
• Let P (x) = c0 x + 2
+ 3
+ ··· + n+1
.

• P (0) = P (1) = 0.

• P (x) is differential in (0, 1) and continuous in [0, 1].

• By Rolle’s Theorem, there exist α ∈ (0, 1) such that P ′ (α) = 0.

• Again,

P ′ (α) = 0
=⇒ c0 + c1 α + c2 α2 + · · · + cn αn = 0.

• So, α is a root of c0 + c1 x + c2 x2 + · · · + cn xn = 0, and 0 < α < 1.

Exercise 6. 1. Prove that between any two real roots of ex cos x + 1 = 0,


there is at least one real root of ex sin x + 1 = 0.

2. Prove that between any two real roots of ex sin x + 1 = 0, there is at least
one real root of tan x + 1 = 0.

Hints:

1. f (x) = e−x + cos x

6
2. f (x) = ex sin x + 1

Exercise 7. 1. Use Lagrange’s MVT to prove | tan x − tan y |≥| x − y |


for x, y ∈ (− π2 , π2 ).

2. If f is differentiable on [0, 1], show by Cauchy’s Mean Value Theorem


′ (x)
that the equation f (1) − f (0) = f 2x has a root in (0, 1).

3. Use Cauchy’s MVT to prove for all x, y > 0


x−y x+y
≤ .
ln x − ln y 2

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