07-09-2025

1103CMD303021250094 MD

PHYSICS

1) 10–3 watt and 5000 Å light is directed on a photoelectric cell. If the current in the cell is 0.16 μA,
the percentage of incident photons which produce photoelectrons, is

(1) 0.4%
(2) 0.04%
(3) 20%
(4) 10%

2) When a metal surface is illuminated with light of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V0. When

the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is .If the
velocity of light in air is c, the threshold frequency of photoelectric emission is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A proton is fired from very far away towards a nucleus with charge Q = 120 e, where e is the
electronic charge. It makes a closest approach of 10 fm to the nucleus. The de Broglie wavelength
(in units of fm) of the proton at its start is : (take the proton mass, mp = (5/3) × 10–27 kg ;

h/e = 4.2 × 10–15 J.s C ; = 9 × 109 m/F ; 1fm = 10–15 m)

(1) 7
(2) 10
(3) 25
(4) 5

4) If the energy released in the fission of one nucleus is 200 MeV. Then the number of nuclei
required per second in a power plant of 16 kW will be :-

(1) 0.5 × 1014

(2) 0.5 × 1012
(3) 5 × 1012
(4) 5 × 1014

5) If atomic radius in Bohr model is rn = (51)n2 pm, here n is principal quantum number then de
Broglie wavelength of orbital electron in nth orbit of Bohr model will be :-

(1) 102 πn = λ
(2) 2 πn = λ
(3) 2 π = nλ
(4) 102 π = nλ

6) In photo electric effect maximum K.E. of photo electron is K0. If frequency of light is increased by
factor n then maximum K.E. of photo electrons increases by factor 4n. Calculate work function of the
metal :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A hydrogen atom at rest emits a photon of wavelength 122 nm. Find recoil speed of the atom mass
of atom 1.66 × 10–27 kg :-

(1) 3.3 m/s

(2) 5 m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4) 6 m/s

8) An artificial radioactive decay series begins with unstable . The stable nuclide obtained
after eight α-decays and five β-decays is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of a α-particle to that of a proton being subjected to the same
magnetic field so that the radii of their path are equal to each other assuming the field induction
vector is perpendicular to the velocity vectors of the α-particle and the proton is :-

(1) 1
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/2
(4) 2

10) The log-log graph between the energy E of an electron and its de-Broglie wavelength λ will be
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.68 MeV and for C13 is 7.74 MeV. The energy required to
remove a netron from C13 is :

(1) 5.49 MeV

(2) 8.46 MeV
(3) 9.45 MeV
(4) 5.49 MeV

12) The value of binding energy for 1H2, 2He4, 26Fe56, 92U235 are 2.22, 28.3, 492 and 1786 units
respectively. Then most stable nucleus is-

56
(1) 26Fe
2
(2) 1H
235
(3) 92U
4
(4) 2He

13) Consider the following reaction

The atomic masses are given as = 1.007825 u

= 2.014102 u

= 3.016049 u The Q– value of the above reaction will be :-

(1) –4.03 MeV

(2) –2.01 MeV
(3) 2.01 MeV
(4) 4.03 MeV

14) The wavelength of most energetic X-rays emitted when a metal target is bombarded by 40 keV
electrons, is approximately :-

(1) 300 Å
(2) 10 Å
(3) 4 Å
(4) 0.31 Å

15)

In a photoelectric experiment, the frequency and intensity of a light source are both doubled. Then
consider the following statements.
(i) The saturation photocurrent remains almost the same.

(ii) The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is doubled.

(1) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(2) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(3) (i) is false but (ii) is true
(4) both (i) and (ii) are false

16) Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum
is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) What is value of frequency at point A :-

(1) 5 × 1014 Hz
(2) 1015 Hz
(3) 5 × 1016 Hz
(4) 1016 Hz
18) When U238 nucleus originally at rest, decays by emitting an alpha particle having a speed u, the
recoil speed of the residual nucleus is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts which have their velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will
be the ratio of their nuclear size (nuclear radius):-

(1) 21/3 : 1
(2) 1 : 21/3
(3) 31/2 : 1
(4) 1 : 31/2

20) The rest mass energy of an electron as well as that of positron is 0.51 MeV. When an electron
and positron is annihilate they produce gamma–rays maximum wavelength of emitted gamma ray
can be :

(1) 0.012 Å
(2) 0.024 Å
(3) 0.012 Å to ∞
(4) 0.024 Å to ∞

21) A particle of mass 8m at rest split into two particles of mass 2m & 6m. Calculate the ratio of
their de-broglie wavelength.

(1) 2 : 6
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

22) Match List I of the nuclear processes with List II containing parent nucleus and one of the end
products of each process and then select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :-

List I List II

P. Alpha decay 1.

Q. β+ decay 2.

R. Fission 3.

S. Proton emission 4.
 P Q R S

(1) 4 2 1 3

(2) 1 2 2 4

(3) 2 1 4 3

(4) 4 3 2 1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) A source of energy of 100 W is producing energy by fission of 1 kg U235. How long it can kept
generation of energy :- (approx)

(1) 2.5 × 104 yr

(2) 106 s
(3) 8.6 × 107 s
(4) 100 yr

24) The ratio of the area of orbit of first excited state of electron to the area of orbit of ground level,
for hydrogen atom, will be -

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 16 : 1

25) Consider the position of different nuclei on the binding energy per nucleon graph as shown. List-
I has different nuclear reaction involving nuclei A, B, C, D and E. List-II has corresponding Q values
in MeV.

List-I List-II

(I) 2B → C (P) Zero

(II) 2B + C → D (Q) 102

(III) E → C + D (R) Non Zero

(IV) 3A → C (S) 36

(T) 90

Which of the following is correct?

(1) I → P;II → S;III → P;IV → R
(2) I → R;II → S;III → P;IV → P
(3) I → S;II → T;III → P;IV → R
(4) I → R;II → S;III → P;IV → R

26) Across a photoelectric cell a source of variable potential difference is connected and the
photoelectric current is plotted against the applied potential difference. The graph in broken lines
represents a curve of current vs applied potential difference. If the frequency is increased and the

intensity is reduced, the curve which may now represents the situation is:

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

27) The logic circuit shown in the following figure yields the given truth table A B Y
1 1 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
0 0 0

The gate X in the diagram is :-

(1) NAND
(2) XOR
(3) AND
(4) NOR

28) The current flowing through 1 KΩ resistance in the following circuit is P mA. The value of P is :-

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) None of the above

29) In circuit in following fig. the value of Y is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) Fluctuates between 0 and 1
(4) Indeterminate as the circuit can't be realised

30) There is a gate with two inputs A and B, and one output Y. Using the input and output
waveforms, identify the gate :-

(1) NAND
(2) NOR
(3) OR
(4) AND

31) In the given circuit, the diode has a forward resistance of 8 Ω and infinite backward resistance.

The value of R is :-

(1) 44 Ω
(2) 48 Ω
(3) 16 Ω
(4) 8 Ω

32) The breakdown in a reverse biased p-n junction diode is more likely to occur due to :-
(i) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is small.
(ii) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is large
(iii) strong electric field in the depletion region if the doping concentration is small
(iv) strong electric field in the depletion region if the doping concentration is large

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i) and (iv)

33) A sinusoidal peak voltage of 15V connected between input terminals of circuit shown in figure.

Assume diodes are ideal. In the output wave form,

(1) Positive peaks of input clipped at +12V and negative peaks at –6V
(2) Positive peaks of input clipped at +6V and negative peaks at –12 V
(3) Positive peaks of input clipped at +12V and negative peaks at –12 V
(4) Positive peaks of input clipped at +6V and negative peaks at –6 V

34) Calculate the conductivity of pure silicon at room temperature when concentration of carrier is
1.6 × 1010 per - cm3.
Take µe = 1500 cm2/volt-sec, and
µh = 500 cm2/volt-sec at room temp.

(1) 5.12 × 10–6 mho/cm

(2) 3.12 × 10–6 mho/cm
(3) 2.35 × 10–6 mho/cm
(4) None

35) In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an AC voltage source are all connected in series. When L is
removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is
π/3. If instead, C is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3. The power factor of
the circuit is

(1) 1/2
(2)
(3) 1
(4)

36) A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an AC
source of 200 volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be :-

(1) 2.0 A
(2) 4.0 A
(3) 8.0 A

(4)
A

37) In the adjoining ac circuit the voltmeter whose reading will be zero at resonance is :-

(1) V1
(2) V2
(3) V3
(4) V4
38) The current in a LR circuit builds up to th of its steady state value in 4s. The time constant of
this circuit is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) How much length of a very thin wire is required to obtain a solenoid of length and inductance L

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) In the circuit shown, X is joined to Y for a long time and then X is joined to Z. The total heat

produced in R2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A 5 V battery with internal resistance 2Ω and a 2V battery internal resistance 1Ω are connected
to a 10Ω resistor as shown in the figure. The current in the 10Ω resistor is :–
(1) 0.03A P1 to P2
(2) 0.03A P2 to P1
(3) 0.27A P1 to P2
(4) 0.27A P2 to P1

42) A proton accelerated by a potential difference 500 KeV moves through a transverse magnetic
field of 0.51 T as shown in figure. The angle θ through which the proton deviates from the initial

direction of its motion is

(1) 15°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

43) Two magnets A and B are identical and these are arranged as shown in the figure. Their length
is negligible in comparison to the separation between them. A magnetic needle is placed between
the magnets at point P which gets deflected through an angle θ under the influence of magnets. The

ratio of distance d1 and d2 will be :-

(1) (2tan θ)1/3

(2) (2tan θ)–1/3
(3) (2 cot θ)1/3
(4) (2 cot θ)–1/3

44) Three infinitely long wires, each carrying a current 1A, are placed such that one end of each
wire is at the origin, and one of these wires is along x-axis, the other along y-axis and the third along
z-axis. Magnetic induction at point (–2m, 0,0) due to the system of these wires can be expressed as :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Three identical bar magnets each of magnetic moment M are placed in the form of an equilateral

triangle as shown. The net magnetic moment of the system is

(1) Zero
(2) 2M
(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following give bad smell when treated with CHCl3 / KOH ?

(1)

(2) CH3 – NH – CH3

(3)

(4)

2) Choose the correctly matched option ?

(1)
Schmidt reaction

(2)
Schotten-Baumann reaction

(3)

Reimer-Tiemann reaction

(4)
Schotten-Baumann reaction

3) Which of the following amine can not be synthesised by using Gabriel phthalimide synthesis?

(1) Methyl amine

(2) Ethyl amine
(3) Benzyl amine
(4) Aniline

4) Which of the following reaction does not give primary amine as a product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Aniline in a set of the following reactions yielded a coloured product 'Y'

Y
The structure of 'Y' would be :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) Which of the following amine form salt of nitrous acid, when reacts with HNO2 ?

(1) CH3—CH2—NH2

(2)

(3) CH3—CH2—NH—CH3

(4)

7) CH3CN x
The compound x is :-

(1) CH3CONH2
(2) CH3CH2NH2
(3) C2H6
(4) CH3NH–CH3

8) Ph–C≡N (A) (B),

Product (B) is :-

(1) Ph – CH2 – NH2

(2) Ph – OH
(3) Ph – NH2
(4) Ph – CH3

9) Name the species that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution :

(1) SO2(g)
(2)
(3) P2O5(s)
(4) CO2(g)

10) Which one of the following ions exhibits d–d transition and paramagnetism as well ?

2–
(1) CrO4
2–
(2) Cr2O7
–
(3) MnO4
 2–
(4) MnO4

11)

Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column
II and assign the correct code :

Column I Column II

a. Co3+ i B.M.

b. Cr3+ ii B.M.

c. Fe3+ iii B.M.

d. Ni2+ iv B.M.

v B.M.

a b c d

(1) iv v ii i

(2) i ii iii iv

(3) iv i ii iii

(4) iii v i ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12)

The aqueous solution containing which one of the following ions will be colourless :-

[Atomic n : Sc = 21, Fe = 26, Ti = 22, Mn = 25]

(1) Fe2+
(2) Mn2+
(3) Ti3+
(4) Sc3+

13) The lanthanide contraction is responsible for the fact that

(1) Zr and Y have about the same radius

(2) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(3) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(4) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state

14) When KMnO4 reacts with KI in neutral medium then the product obtained is :-
(1) I2
(2)
(3)
(4) I–

15)

Transition metal present in vitamin B12 is

(1) Fe
(2) Ni
(3) Na
(4) Co

16) acts as an oxidising agent in acidic medium. The number of moles of that will be
needed to react with one mole of sulphide ions in acidic solution.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Among the following oxoacid, the correct decreasing order of acid strength is ?

(1) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl

(2) HClO > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO4
(3) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(4) HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO > HClO3

18) Which compound is not a monobasic acid ?

(1) H3PO2
(2) H3BO3
(3) HCl
(4) H3PO3

19) On hydrolysis of PCl5 gives :-

(1) H3PO2
(2) H3PO3
(3) H3PO4
(4) None of these
20) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1) F2 has higher bond dissociation Energy than Cl2

(2) F has higher electron affinity then Cl
(3) HF is stronger acid than HCl
(4) Boiling point increases down the group in halogens

21) Helium is added to oxygen used by deep sea divers because :

(1) It is less soluble in blood than nitrogen under high pressure

(2) It is lighter than nitrogen
(3) It is readily miscible with oxygen
(4) It is less poisonous than nitrogen

22) For a given reaction, the overall enthalpy change is +100 kJ/mol and activation energy of the
reverse reaction is +200 kJ/mol. The activation energy for the forward reaction would be :-

(1) +300 kJ/mol

(2) +200 kJ/mol
(3) +0.100 kJ/mol
(4) +100 kJ/mol

23) For the reaction , the rate . Therefore, the rate

is given as:

(1) 10–4 Ms–1

(2) 104 Ms–1
(3)
(4)

24) Reaction A → B follows second order kinetics. Doubling the concentration of A will increase the
rate of formation of B by a factor of :-

(1) 1/4
(2) 1/2
(3) 2
(4) 4

25) Half life of radioactive sample of 14C is 5760 years. How many years will it take to reduce its
sample of 200 mg to 25 mg :-

(1) 23040 years

(2) 17280 years
(3) 11520 years
(4) 5760 years

26) In a first order reaction A → B, if k is rate constant and initial concentration of the reactant A is
0.5 M then the half–life is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A first order reaction is 40 percent complete in 20 minute. The time required for the reaction to
be 50 percent complete will be :

(1) 10 minutes
(2) 5 minutes
(3) 27 minutes
(4) 40 minutes

28)

X + Y → Z, follows experimental rate equation:

r = k[X] [Y]–1

The rate will change by which of the factor if concentration of Y is doubled and X is halved :-
(1) 0.25
(2) 1.5
(3) 2
(4) 0.5

29) The reaction is :

2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl
If the concentration of both the reactants is doubled, the rate becomes eight times. What will be the
total order :-

(1) 0
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1

30) A study of chemical Kinetics of the reaction A + B → Products, gave the following data at 25°C.

Exp No. [A] [B] Rate

1. 1.0 0.15 4.2 × 10–6

 2. 2.0 0.15 8.4 × 10–6

3. 1.0 0.6 16.8 × 10–6

Find out rate law :-
(1) r = K[A]
(2) r = K[B]
(3) r = K[A][B]
(4) r = K[A][B]2

31) If 'a' is the initial concentration of the reactant, the half-life period of the reaction of nth order is
inversely proportional to :-

(1) an–1

(2)

(3) a1–n
(4) a1+n

32) The two possible oxidation states of N atoms in NH4NO3 are respectively –

(1) +3, +5
(2) +3, –5
(3) –3, +5
(4) –3, –5

33) The equivalent mass of KIO3 in the reaction,

is

(1) Mol. mass

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Rate constant for a chemical reaction at 300 k is expressed as k = A e–200, then activation energy
of reaction is -

(1) 200 cal/mol

(2) 120 cal/mol
(3) 120 kcal/mol
(4) 300 cal/mol

35) Calculate the reduction potential of hydrogen electrode in contact with a solution whose pH is 5.

(1) 0.059 volt

(2) 0.0295 volt
(3) –0.295 volt
(4) +0.295 volt

36) Standard oxidation potentials of four metals P, Q, R and S are +2.87, +3.05, –0.80 and +0.25
volt respectively. The reducing power of these metals are :-

(1) P > Q > R > S

(2) S > R > Q > P
(3) Q > P > S > R
(4) None of these

37) In an electrolysis of metallic chloride 3.283 g of metal (molar mass 197 g mol–1) was deposited on
the cathode by the passage of 4825 C of electric charge. The charge number of metal ion is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

38) Ratio of moles of Ag+ ion, Mg+2 ion, Al+3 ion would be doposited by passage of 3F charge in its
solution :-

(1)
1: :

(2)
: :1
(3) 1 : 2 : 3
(4) 1 : 1 : 1

39) On electrolysis of aqueous solution of CuSO4 using Cu electrodes :-

(1) pH of solution decreases

(2) pH of solution increases
(3) pH of solution remains unchanged
(4) None of these

40) Which of the following solution can be safely stored in copper vessel :-

(1) ZnSO4
(2) AgNO3
(3) AuCl
(4) All

41) The quantity of electricity required to liberate 112 cm3 of hydrogen at STP from acidified water
is :-
(1) 0.1 faraday
(2) 1 faraday
(3) 965 coulomb
(4) 96500 coulomb

42) The potential of the cell

Zn|Zn+2||Cu+2||Cu
can be increased by :-

(1) Increasing [Zn+2]

(2) Decreasing [Cu+2]
(3) Increasing [Cu+2]
(4) All are correct

43) The conductivity of 0.01 M solution is 10–4 Ω–1 cm–1. Find its molar conductance (in terms of Ω–1
cm2 mol–1) :-

(1) 10
(2) 10–2
(3) 102
(4) 10–1

44) The number of faraday required to convert 1 mole of Cr2O72– to Cr3+ ions is ___

(1) 3F
(2) 6F
(3) 2F
(4) 5F

45) Standard reduction potentials for the following reactions are :-

Fe3+ + 3e → Fe ; – 0.036 V
Fe2+ + 2e → Fe ; – 0.44 V
What will be standard electrode potential for
Fe3+ + e → Fe2+ ?

(1) 0.772 V
(2) – 0.404 V
(3) – 0.772 V
(4) 0.077 V

BIOLOGY

1) If a population of 50 Paramecium present in a pool increases to 150 after an hour, what would be
the growth rate of the population?

(1) 50 per hour

(2) 200 per hour
(3) 5 per hour
(4) 100 per hour

2) A _____ has certain attributes that an individual organism does not :-

(1) Population
(2) Animal
(3) Plant
(4) None of these

3) Which parameter is used for finding population density of banyan tree ?

(1) Relative density

(2) Population count in number
(3) Biomass method
(4) Number of prop roots

4) Statement-I: Emigration is the number of individuals of the population who left the habitat and
have gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration
Statement-II: If the age distribution (per cent individuals of a given age or group) is plotted for the
population, the resulting structure is called an age pyramid.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

5) Which one of the following options correctly represents the type of life cycle patterns?

(1) A-Diplontic, B-Haplodiplontic, C-Haplontic

(2) A-Haplodiplontic, B-Haplontic, C-Diplontic
(3) A-Haplontic, B-Diplontic, C-Haplodiplontic
(4) A-Diplontic, B-Haplontic, C-Haplodiplontic

6) Pick the correct group consisting of all genera exhibiting homospory.

(1) Lycopodium, Psilotum, Selaginella, Equisetum

(2) Equisetum, Pteris, Salvinia, Psilotum
(3) Salvinia, Pteris, Lycopodium, Selaginella
(4) Equisetum, Psilotum, Lycopodium, Pteris

7) Which of the following unicellular algae are rich in protein and are used as food supplements by
space travellers ?

(1) Porphyra & Fucus

(2) Chlamydomonas & Chlorella
(3) Chlorella & Spirulina
(4) Laminaria & Gelidium

8) Observe the following figures and identify the labelled structures P, Q, R, and S:-

P Q R S

Gemma
(1) Archegonio- phore Antheridio- phore Seta
cup

Archegonio-
(2) Antheridio-phores Rhizoids Capsule
phore

Archegonio-
(3) Antheridio-phore Seta Leaves
phore

Gemma
(4) Archegonio-phore Antheridio-phore Capsule
cup
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Given figure represents which algae :-

(1) Chara
(2) Fucus
(3) Laminaria
(4) Pinus

10) Select the correct combination of the statements (a - d) regarding the characteristics of certain
organisms
(a) Sphagnum provide peat that have long been used as fuel
(b) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and prevent soil erosion
(c) Gammae are green, multicellular, asexual buds which are developed on Marchantia thallus in
gamma cup
(d) Asexual reproduction in liver worts takes place by conidia
The correct statements are :-

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, d, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) b, c, d

11) Oogamous type of sexual reproduction is found in :-

(1) Chlamydomonas and Ulothrix

(2) Cladophora and Spirogyra
(3) Spirogyra and Volvox
(4) Volvox and Fucus

12) Certain marine brown and red algae produce large amount of.....A..... [water holding substance]
e.g......B..... from brown algae and .....C..... from red algae. Which are used commercially.
Identify A, B and C :

(1) A-Algin, B-Hydrocolloids, C-Carrageen

(2) A-Hydrocolloids, B-Algin, C-Carrageen
(3) A-Hydrocolloids, B-Carrageen, C-Algin
(4) A-Carrageen, B-Hydrocolloids, C-Algin

13) Match Column - I with Column - II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column - I Column - II

A Psilosida i Psilotum

B Lycopsida ii Equisetum

C Sphenosida iii Selaginella

D Pteropsida iv Dryopteris
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - i, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii
(3) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D -iv
(4) A - i, B - iii, C - iv, D - ii

14) A. Selaginella is advance among pteridophytes as it produces seeds B. Heterospory is found in

all members of pteropsida
C. Pinus leaves are palmately compound and have sunken stomata as adaptation against
transpiration
D. Fern prothallus are non vascular and devoid of true roots

(1) A & D are incorrect

(2) A & B are correct
(3) A, B & D are incorrect
(4) Only D is correct

15) Assertion : Pteridophyta shows precursor of seed habit

Reason : Female gametophyte retains on parent sporophyte for variable periods and zygote
develops into embryo within female gametophyte.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False

16) Assertion A: In Cycas, coralloid roots are associated with N2-fixing cyanobacteria.
Reason R: Coralloid roots help Cycas in adapting to extreme environmental conditions by fixing
atmospheric nitrogen.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

17) Select the wrong statement regarding chromatin?

(1) Nucleosome is the repeating unit of chromatin

(2) Thread like non stained bodies
(3) Appears as bead on string
(4) Divided in euchromatin & Heterochromatin

18) If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs
of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10 bp, then the length of the DNA is
approximately :

(1) 2.7 meters

(2) 2.0 meters
(3) 2.2 meters
(4) 2.5 meters
19) Lichen, fig-wasp, mycorrhiza, pronuba moth–yucca plant, Epiphyte–mango, Barnacles–whale, sea
anemone –clownfish
How many of the above show commensalism?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Six

20) Coevolution, Co-extintion, Co-existence can be seen in :-

(1) Obligate mutualism

(2) Commensalism
(3) Protocooperation
(4) Competition

21) Which is the example of sexual deceit ?

(1) Fig and wasp

(2) Ophrys and bee
(3) Cuckoo and crow
(4) Parasite and host

22) Which of the following means was used by warblers to avoid competition and coexist

(1) Difference in foraging activities

(2) Habitat fragmentation
(3) Competitive release
(4) All above

23) Prickly pear cactus (an exotic species) can brought under control (in Australia) by using

(1) babul eating predators

(2) kikar eating predators
(3) cactus feeding predators
(4) intensive herbicides

24) The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became extinct within decade after goats were
introduced on the Island is the example of :

(1) Parasitism
(2) Resource Partitioning
(3) Commensalism
(4) Competitive Exclusion

25) Which of the following viruses have RNA as their genetic material?
(1) TMV
(2) Bacteriophage
(3) QB bacteriophage
(4) Both (1) and (3)

26) Which of the following type of age pyramid shown in developed countries ?

(1) Expanding
(2) Stable
(3) Declining
(4) Both (1) & (3)

27) Select the correct statement :

(1) Trophic level represents species

(2) Two species cannot occupy same trophic level
(3) Single species can occupy more than one trophic level at same time
(4) Primary consumers are placed at first trophic level

28) Assertion : A network of food chains existing together in an ecosystem is known as food web.
Reason : Food web is essential for stability of ecosystem.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

29) The given statements (I-IV) are the characteristics of productivity

(I) The rate of biomass production is called productivity and is expressed in terms of a
(II) Net primary productivity is rate of production of biomass during photosynthesis
(III) Gross primary productivity minus respiration loss is called net primary productivity
(IV) Primary productivity depends only on the plant species inhabiting a particular area.
Identify the correct statements.

(1) I and III

(2) II and III
(3) II, III and IV
(4) II and IV

30) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): In an aquatic ecosystem pyramid of biomass is inverted.
Reason (R): Biomass of zooplanktons is higher than that of phytoplanktons as life span in former is
longer and the latter multiply much faster though having shorter life span.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).

31) Which of the following is expected to have the highest value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland ecosystem
:-

(1) Tertiary production

(2) Gross production (GP)
(3) Net production (NP)
(4) Secondary production

32) Which one of the following is correct regarding decomposition ?

I II

(1) Formation of dark coloured amorphous substance (i) Fragmentation

(2) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon (ii) Humification

(3) release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activities (iii) Minerlisation

(4) Break down detritus into smaller particles (iv) Leaching

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

33) Deoxythymidylic acid is :-

(1) Ribonucleotide
(2) Deoxyribonucleotide
(3) Ribonucleoside
(4) Deoxyribonucleoside

34) All of the following would be found in a prokaryotic cell except :-

(1) m-RNA
(2) r-RNA
(3) simultaneous transcription and translation
(4) sn-RNA

35)
The m-RNA produced by transcribtion of above given DNA is :-

(1) 5' AUGCU 3'

(2) 5' AGCAU 3'
(3) 3' UCGUA 5'
(4) 5' UACGA 3'

36) Okazaki fragments during replication are produced by :-

(1) DNA polymerase I

(2) DNA polymerase II
(3) DNA polymerase III
(4) DNA gyrase

37) In operon system, when substrate is responsible for the formation of its enzyme, then in this case
the substrate may be called as:-

(1) Aporepressor
(2) Repressor
(3) Inducer
(4) Co-repressor

38) In human :-
(I) Non-coding DNA is abundant
(II) Less than 2% of genome codes for protein
(III) The function of more then 50% genes are unknown
(IV) Total no. of genes is 30,000
Correct option are :-

(1) I & III

(2) I, II and IV
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) Only IV

39) Assertion :- DNA finger printing involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA
called as repeatitive DNA sequences.
Reason :- These sequences show high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA finger-
printing.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

40) From the following, identify the correct combination of salient features of Genetic Code :-

(1) Universal, Non-ambiguous, Overlapping

(2) Degenerate, overlapping, Commaless
(3) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate
(4) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non ambiguous
41) The first phase of translation is :-

(1) Recognition of DNA molecule

(2) Aminoacylation of tRNA
(3) Recognition of an anti-codon
(4) Binding of mRNA to ribosome

42) Synthesis of RNA molecule is terminated by a signal recognized by :-

(1) Sigma factor

(2) Beta factor
(3) Alpha factor
(4) Rho factor

43) Which of the following process does not operates in template independent manner ?

(1) Addition of adenylate residues in tailing

(2) Enzymatic synthesis of RNA by severo ochoa enzyme
(3) Copying of genetic information from DNA to RNA in transcription.
(4) All of the above

44) Find out the amount of energy available at C2:-

(1) 100 KJ
(2) 1000 KJ
(3) 10 KJ
(4) 1 KJ

45) The experimental proof for semi-conservative replication of DNA in chromosomes by Taylor was
shown in :

(1) [Link]
(2) Vicia faba
(3) λ phage
(4) Mangifera indica

46) Which of the following bacteria was associated with discovery of penicillin ?

(1) Propionibacterium
(2) Trichoderma
(3) Streptococcus
(4) Staphylococcus

47) Baculoviruses are-

(1) Species specific, narrow spectrum insecticide

(2) Species specific, broad spectrum insecticide
(3) Non-specific, narrow spectrum insecticide
(4) Non-specific, broad spectrum insecticide

48) Assertion : Bottled fruit juice brought from market are clearer as compared to those made at
home.
Reason : Bottled juice possess pectinases and proteases.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

49) Match different organisms in column-I with their uses in column-II and select the correct answer
from codes given below.

Column-I Column-II
Lactobacilus
(A) (i) Formation of dough
acidophilus
Saccharomyces
(B) (ii) Single cell proteins
cerevisiae
Propionibacterium
(C) (iii) Conversion of milk into curd
sharmanii
(D) Spirulina (iv) Formation of swiss cheese
(1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(i), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv)

50) Match the following (Column-I with Column-II)

Column-I Column-II
(Microbes) (Organic acid)

a. Aspergilus niger (i) Butyric acid

b. Clostridium butylicum (ii) Citric acid

c. Acetobacter aceti (iii) Lactic acid

d. Lactobacilus (iv) Acetic acid

(1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(2) a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)
(4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)

51) The ladybird and dragon flies are useful to get rid of....a....and.....b....

(1) a-Aphids, b-Mosquitoes

(2) a-Mosquitoes, b-Butterfly
(3) a-Butterfly, b-Bacillus
(4) a-Bacillus, b-Mosquitoes

52) Assertion (A): Wine and beer are produced without distillation.
Reason (R): Brandy and Rum are produced by distillation of fermented broth.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

53) Azotobacter and Azospirillum are examples of :

(1) Symbiotic N2 fixatives

(2) Free living N2 fixatives
(3) Decomposers
(4) Pathogens

54) A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given :-

(1) Cyclosporin-A
(2) Statins
(3) Penicillin
(4) Streptokinase

55) Consider the following statements (a – d)

(a) Roquefort cheese are ripened by growing a specific bacteria on them
(b) Different varieties of cheese are known by their characteristic texture, flavour and taste
(c) Statins act by competitively inhibiting the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol
(d) Methanogens are commonly found in aerobic sludge during sewage treatment
Select the option which includes incorrect statements only

(1) a, b and c only

(2) only d
(3) a and d only
(4) b and c only

56) Three water samples namely river water, sewage water, secondary effluent from STP were
subjected to BOD test. The samples were labelled A, B, C respectively. The BOD values of three
sample were 200 mg/L, 8 mg/L and 400 mg/L. Can you assign BOD value to each sample
(1) A = 200 mg/L, B = 400 mg/L, C = 8 mg/L
(2) A = 400 mg/L, B = 80 mg/L, C = 200 mg/L
(3) A = 8 mg/L, B = 400 mg/L, C = 200 mg/L
(4) A = 8 mg/L, B = 200 mg/L, C = 400 mg/L

57) What would happen if oxygen availability to activated sludge(flocs) is reduced?

(1) It will slow down the rate of degradation of organic matter

The flocs will become anoxic, which would cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of
(2)
flocs
(3) Flocs would increase in size as anaerobic bacteria would grow around flocs
(4) Protozoa would grow in large numbers

58) Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment ?

(1) Floating debris

(2) Effluents of primary treatment
(3) Activated sludge
(4) Primary sludge

59) Statement-I : Most Bt-toxic genes are insect group specific.

Statement-II : The choice of Bt toxic genes depends upon the crop and targeted pest.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

60) Agrobacterium tumefaciens used as ______ in genetic engineering.

(1) DNA-mapping
(2) DNA-modification
(3) vector
(4) DNA finger printing

61) How many of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis and incorporated into the
several crop.
(B) A nemetode a Meloidegyne incognitia infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great
reduction in yield. A novel strategy was adapted to prevent this infestation which was based on the
process of RNA interference.
(C) The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine
deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
(D) Biopiracy is the term used to refer to use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other
organisations without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without
compensatory payment.
(1) Only one statement is correct
(2) Only two statement are correct
(3) Only three statements are correct
(4) All statements are correct

62) RNAi technology involves the silencing of

(1) Replication
(2) Transcription
(3) Translation
(4) Post translation

63) Find the correct match:

Column-I Column-II

(a) Army worm (i) Dipteran

(b) Flies (ii) Lepidopterans

(c) Beetles (iii) Coelopterans

(d) Mosquitoes

(e) Tobacco budworm

(1) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - i, e - iii
(2) a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - i, e - i
(3) a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iii, e - ii
(4) a - ii, b - i, c - iii, d - i, e - ii

64) Genes cryIAb and cryIAc respectively control

(1) Cotton bollworms and corn borer

(2) Corn borer and cotton bollworms
(3) Corn borer and corn borer
(4) Cotton bollworms and cotton bollworms

65) The Indian Parliament has recently cleared the ................ amendment of the Indian Patents Bill.

(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Tenth
(4) Twenty second

66) Transgenic models exist for which of the following human diseases :
(a) Cancer
(b) Cystic fibrosis
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis
(d) Alzheimer's disease
(e) Emphysema

(1) Only a, d and e

(2) Only a, b and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) a, b, c, d and e

67) The biological product produced from the first transgenic cow was

(1) Alpha-I Anti pepsin

(2) Beta-1 trypsin
(3) Alpha-Lactalbumin
(4) Beta -1 Anti trypsin

68)

Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic species of :

(1) Nematodes
(2) Virus
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria

69) Which step proved to be the main challenging obstacle in the production of human insulin by
genetic enginering ?

(1) Spliting A & B polypeptide chains

(2) Addition of C-peptides to pro-insulin
(3) Getting insulin assembled into mature form
(4) Removal of C-peptide from active insulin

70) Which of the following biomolecules can be considered as a probe when tagged with radioactive
molecule?

(1) Single stranded RNA only

(2) Either single stranded DNA or RNA
(3) Single stranded DNA only
(4) Double stranded DNA

71) PCR is a three steps thermal cycle, in which there is change in temperature in every step. The
correct sequence of temperature change is :-

(1) 54ºC → 72ºC → 94ºC

(2) 94ºC → 72ºC → 54ºC
(3) 94ºC → 54ºC → 72ºC
(4) 72ºC → 54ºC → 94ºC
72) Vector used for introducing a DNA fragment corresponding to adenosine deaminase in human
lymphocytes is

(1) Retrovirus
(2) Ti plasmid
(3) Reovirus
(4) pUC8

73) Match the following columns and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-II

(a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy

Adenosine deaminase
(b) (ii) Cellular defence
deficiency

(c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV infection

(d) PCR (iv) Bacillus thuringiensis

(1) a–(iii), b–(ii), c–(i), d–(iv)
(2) a–(ii), b–(iii), c–(iv), d–(i)
(3) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(iii), d–(iv)
(4) a–(iv), b–(i), c–(ii), d–(iii)

74) How many recombinant therapeutics worldwide have been approved for human use ?

(1) 13
(2) 25
(3) 30
(4) 40

75) Statements related to human Insulin are given below.

Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin?
(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide.
(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in [Link], extracted and
combined by creating disulphide bond between them.
(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.
(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b) only
(3) (c) and (d) only
(4) (c), (d) and (e) only

76) Assertion (A) : In rDNA technology transformant with recombinant grow on medium containing
ampicillin but not on tetracycline.
Reason (R) : Recombinant plasmid contain the gene of interest in tetracycline resistant gene.

(1) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

(2) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is correct.

77)

Identify the labelled items A, B, C, D, E, F and G in the diagram below from the list I to VII :-

(I) DNA polymerase

(II) Plasmid
(III) Plasmid with 'sticky ends'
(IV) DNA ligase
(V) Restriction endonuclease
(VI) Recombinant DNA
(VII) Reverse transcriptase The correct components are
A B C D E F G

(1) VII I II V III IV VI

(2) VII VI V IV III II I

(3) VII V III I II IV VI

(4) I II IV VI III V VII

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for tetracycline resistance is transferred into [Link] and then
host cells are spread on agar plates containing tetracycline, then :-

(1) Both transformed and untransformed recipient cell will grow

(2) Both transformed and untransformed recipient cells will die
(3) Transformed recipient cells will die and untransformed recipient cells will grow
(4) Transformed recipient cells will grow and untransformed recipient cells will die

79) Match the column -

Column-I Column-II

Gel Bright orange

(a) (i)
electrophoresis coloured

(b) PCR (ii) Chilled ethanol

DNA
(c) (iii) Sieving effect
precipitation

Ethidium bromide
(d) (iv) DNA primer
stained DNA
(1) a - i; b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(2) a - ii; b - iii, c - iv, d - i
(3) a - iii; b - iv, c - i, d - ii
(4) a - iii; b - iv, c - ii, d - i

80) Restriction enzyme EcoRI cuts the DNA bases between G and A when the sequence of DNA is:

(1) GTTAAC
(2) GAATTC
(3) GATTCC
(4) GAACTT

81) Given below are some steps involved in rDNA technology. Arrange them in specific sequence
from initial to last -
(A) Isolation of a desired DNA fragment
(B) Gel electrophoresis
(C) Transformation
(D) Formation of rDNA
(E) Extraction of the desired product

(1) A–B–E–C–D
(2) B–D–A–C–E
(3) B–A–D–C–E
(4) E–A–B–D–C

82) Choose the incorrect statement(s):

(a) The European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB) has given a definition of biotechnology that
encompasses both traditional view and modern molecular biotechnology.
(b) Traditional hybridization procedures used in plant and animal breeding, very often lead to
inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes.
(c) Buchner had developed a method of removing plasmids from one bacterial cell and then
reinserting them in other bacterial cells.
(d) Cohen observed that restriction enzymes of E. coli bacterium, have the capability of cutting DNA
strands in a particular fashion.
(1) (b) only
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) (d) only

83) If we ligate foreign DNA at Bam HI site of pBR322, then the resultant recombinants will show
(a) Resistance to ampicillin
(b) Sensitivity to tetracycline
(c) Resistance to tetracycline
(d) Sensitivity to ampicillin

(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and d
(4) c and d

84) If a foreign DNA is ligated at Sal I site of pBR322 then the transformants can be differentiated
from non-transformants by plating on

(1) Ampicillin
(2) Kanamycin
(3) Chloramphenicol
(4) Tetracycline

85) Select the correct sequence of making bacterial cells competent.

(a) Incubation of bacterial cells with recombinant DNA on ice
(b) Treatment with Ca+2 ions
(c) Heat shock at 42°C
(d) Putting them back on ice

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

86) A transgenic food crop which may help in solving the problem of night blindness in developing
countries is -

(1) Golden rice

(2) Bt soyabean
(3) Flavr-savr tomato
(4) Starlink maize

87) If in a linear DNA of 12 kb size, two recognition sites of BamHI are present 4 kb distance apart
and one of them is at 4 kb distance from one end. Then, how many bands will be obtained on
separation of DNA fragments using agarose gel electrophoresis, assuming complete digestion by
BamHI?
(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Four

88) First restriction endonuclease to be discovered was-

(1) Hind II
(2) ECOR II
(3) BamH I
(4) Sal I

89) In rDNA technology or genetic engineering elution means :-

(1) Remove the DNA from centrifuge tube after cenlrifugalion

(2) Separation of the recombinant protein from recombinant cell.
(3) Insertion of recombinant DNA into host cell.
(4) The separated band of DNA are cut out from the gel and extracted from the gel piece.

90) Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for -

(1) Addition of preservatives to the product.

(2) Purification of the product.
(3) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel.
(4) Availability of oxygen throughout the process.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 1 4 1 4 1 1 3 3 2 1 1 4 2 2 2 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 4 4 4 3 1 2 2 1 4 1 1 3 2 4 2 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 3 3 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 4 4 2 4 2 3 1 4 1 4 3 2 4 2 1 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 1 4 2 1 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 3 3 3 4 1 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 1 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 1 3 4 4 4 3 4 1 3 4 2 3 4 1 2 2 3 3 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 3 4 4 2 3 2 1 3 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 3 1 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 3 3 2 4 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 4 3 3 2 3 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 4 2 2 3 3 4 3 2 3 1 4 3 2 2 1 4 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 1 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) P =
⇒ no. of photon per sec incident

=
= 2.5 × 1015

i=
total number of electron per lec produce

2)

3)

4) Fission per sec =

5)

102 πn = λ

6)

7)

3.3 m/s

8)

9)
1/2

10)

11)

8.46 MeV

12)

BEPN for 1µ2 ⇒

For 2He4 ⇒

For

For 92U235 ⇒ = 7.6

56
So 26Fe is most stable

13) 1H1 + 1H3 → 1H2 + 1H2 + Q

Q = Δm × 931.5 µeV
Δm = [m(1H1) + m(1H3) – 2m(1H2)]
Δm = [4.023874 – 2 × 2.014102] u
Q = Δm × 931.5 MeV
Q = –4.03 MeV

14) λmin = = = 0.31 Å

15)

(i) is true but (ii) is false

16)

17)
 (for )
ϕ = 2eV
At point A

= 2 + 2 = 4 eV

18)

19)

According to momentum conservation

m1v1 = m2v2
m12v = m2v

(m = V )

20)

Minimum energy of each gamma (γ)

photon = 0.51 MeV

So,
λmax = 0.024 Å

21)

From COLM, momentum is same so

22)

P Q R S

(3) 2 1 4 3

23)
 = 8.1 × 1011 sec = 2.5 × 104 year

24)

16 : 1

25)
(P) 2B → C
Q = BEC – 2BEB
= 60 × 8.7 – 2(30 × 8.1) = 36 MeV
(Q) 2B + C → D
Q = 120 (8.4) – 2(30 × 8.1) – 8.7 × 60 = 0
(R) E → C + D
Q = (60 × 8.7) + (120 × 8.4) – (180 × 8) = 90 MeV
(S) 3A → C
Q = (60 × 8.7) – 3(7 × 20) = 102 MeV

26) On increasing frequency, VS increases and on decreasing intensity, ip decreases.

27) Use reverse approach

If we take AND gate ; then Boolean expression

28)

29) By Checking through Truth Table.

30) A = 0 0 1 1
B= 0 1 0 1
Y= 1 0 0 0
This is possible only for NOR gate

31)

32)
(i) and (iv)

33) Positive cycle : D1 - forward, D2 - reverse

Negative cycle D1 - reverse, D2 - forward

34) σ = en [µe + µh]

35)

36) Here resistance, R = 30 Ω

Inductive reactance, XL = 20 Ω at 50 Hz
∵ XL = 2πvL

= 40 Ω

Impedance, Z =

Current in the coil, I =

37)

V4

38)

39)

0
40) Steady-state current in L = I =
Energy stored in L

=
= heat produced in R2 during discharge.
 41)

Eeq = req =

from P2 to P1

42) sin θ =

sin θ =

sinθ = ⇒ θ = 30°

43)

In equilibrium

44)

45)

2M

CHEMISTRY
46) NCERT XII / Part II / Page-393

47)

Question Asking About:

Correctly matched reaction:

Key Concept:
Name reactions

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
* Schmid + Reaction:

* Schotten Bauman Reaction

* Reimer Tieman Reaction

* Halfmann Bromamide Degradation

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

48)

Explanation Question:
The question asks to identify which of the given amines cannot be prepared using the Gabriel
phthalimide synthesis method.
Concept:
This question is based on Gabriel Phthalimide Synthesis, SN2 Reaction
Solution:
The Gabriel phthalimide synthesis is used to prepare primary amines. The key step is an SN2
reaction where the phthalimide anion acts as a nucleophile and attacks an alkyl halide. This
reaction fails with aryl halides because the C-X bond is too strong for nucleophilic substitution
due to resonance, and backside attack is sterically hindered.

Aniline cannot be prepared by this method because the required starting material, an aryl
halide, does not undergo the necessary SN2 reaction with the phthalimide anion.
Final Answer: option (4)

49)

CH3–CH2–N≡C CH3–CH2–NH–CH3

50)

51)

3° amine form salt on reaction with HNO2.

52) NCERT XII/ Part II/ Page-385

53)

A → Ph–CONH2
B → Ph – NH2

54)

SO2 decolourise KMnO4 from purple colourless in colour.

2KMnO4+2H2O+5SO2 → K2SO4+2MnSO4+2H2SO4
(purple) (colourless)
55) Explain Question : In which ion d-d transition and unpaired electron are present
Concept : This Question is based on CFT
Solution :
CrO4–2 Cr+6 diamagnetic
Cr2O7–2 Cr+6 diamagnetic
MnO4– Mn+7 diamagnetic

MnO4–2 Mn+6 paramagnetic unpaired electron is present so d–d

transition is possible.

​Final Answer option (4)

56) Magnetic moment (μ) = B.M.

0
(a) Co3+ → 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d6

n=4
B. M
0
(b) Cr+3 → 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d3

n=3
B.M.
0
(c) Fe3+ → 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s 3d5

n=5
B. M.
+2 0
→ 1s 2s 2p 3s2 3p6 4s 3d8
2 2 6
(d) Ni

n=2
B. M.

57)

58) Asking About :

Effect of lanthanoid contraction.
 Concept:
Due to poor shielding of 4f-orbital, Zeff cncreases

Formula:
As a result ; size of 4d = 5d series element in a respectively group.

Sol./Explanation:
IV-B
3d – Ti
4d – Zr Due to lanthanoid contraction
5d – Hf

59)

60)

61)

62) Explanation - Question is asking about collect decreasing order of acidic strength.
Concept - Acidic strength, Electro negativity , oxy acids.
Solution - In general more the Electronegativity of central atom is oxy acids, more will be
acidic nature.
so, Accordingly,

compound ox state

HClO4 +7

HClO3 +5

HClO2 +3

HOCl +1

So, Acidic nature,

HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl

Final Answer - option 1

63)

Explanation:
This question asks you to identify which of the given acids cannot donate only one proton (H+),
i.e., which of them is not a monobasic acid.

Concept:
 The compound that is not a monobasic acid is (4). H3PO3.

A. Monobasic acids have only one ionizable hydrogen atom (proton).

B. H3PO2 (Hypophosphorous acid): Has only one acidic hydrogen atom directly bonded to the
phosphorus atom. The other two hydrogens are bonded to the phosphorus atom through
oxygen and are not easily ionized. It is monobasic.

A. H3BO3 (Boric acid): While it has three hydrogen atoms, it acts as a Lewis acid, not a Bronsted
acid. It accepts a hydroxide ion rather than donating a proton. Although it has three
hydrogens, it's considered monobasic.

A. HCl (Hydrochloric acid): Has one ionizable hydrogen atom. It is monobasic.

B. H3PO3 (Phosphorous acid): Has two ionizable hydrogen atoms.
C. It is dibasic, not monobasic. The hydrogen directly bonded to the phosphorus is not easily
ionized, but the two hydrogens attached to oxygen are acidic.

Hence, option (4) is correct.

64)

Explanation:
The question asks us to identify the product formed when phosphorus pentachloride (PCl5)
undergoes hydrolysis, meaning it reacts with water.

Concept: (Hydrolysis of PCl5)

PCl5 (s) + 4H2O (l) → H3PO4 (aq) + 5HCl (aq)

Answer: Option (3)

65)

NCERT-XII, part-1, Pg. # 199, Edition -2022-23

66) Asking About :- Use of helium by deep sea divers check for solubility of a gas in blood.
Sol. /Explanation :- Helium is less soluble in blood than nitrogen due to its smaller molecular
size and weaker intermolecular forces.
Moreover at very high pressure which the deep sea divers experience, nitrogen reacts with O2
to form poisonous nitric oxide.
This situation does n't arise with helium.
Hence helium is mixed with oxygen for deep sea divers.

67) Explaining : The activation energy for forward reaction is asked when the overall
enthalpy change and activation energy of reverse reaction is given.
Concept : This Question is based on Collision theory.
Solution : ΔH = 100 KJ/mol Ea(f) = ?
Ea(b) = 200 KJ/mol
Ea(f) – Ea(b) = ΔH
Ea(f) = 100 + 200
= 300 KJ/mol
Final Answer : (1)

68)

69) r = K[A]2 =

70) Question Explanation: Given, t1/2 of 14C = 5760 years, Initial amount = 200 mg.
Final amount = 25 mg. Time taken for this reduction.

Concept : Radioactive decay follows first order reaction.

Solution : Half life of First order reaction is constant.

t=0
Total time = 3t1/2 = 3 × 5760
= 17280 years.
 Final Answer : option (2)

71) (Because ℓn2 = 2.303 log2)

72)

Question Explanation: We have to find time at which 50% reaction is complete.

Concept : This question is based on First order.

Solution :

⇒
t50% = 27 minutes

Final Answer : option (3).

73)

Question Explanation:
The question describes a reaction with a given rate law and asks how the rate changes when
the concentrations of the reactants are altered.
Given Data:

A. Rate law: r = k[X][Y]–1

B. [Y] is doubled: [Y]' = 2[Y]
C. [X] is halved: [X]' = 0.5[X]

Concept:

A. The rate law directly shows the relationship between reactant concentrations and the
rate of reaction.

Mathematical Calculation:

A. Original rate: r = k[X][Y]–1 = k[X]/[Y]

B. New rate (r'): r' = k[X]'[Y']–1 = k(0.5[X])/(2[Y])

C. Find the ratio r'/r:

 A. r'/r = (k(0.5[X])/(2[Y])) / (k[X]/[Y])

B. r'/r = (0.5[X]/2[Y]) × ([Y]/[X])

C. r'/r = 0.5/2

D. r'/r = 0.25

Final Answer:
The rate will change by a factor of 0.25.
So the correct option is (1).

74)

Question Explanation: We have to find order of reaction.

Concept : This question is based on order of reaction.

Solution :
∵ concentration of both the reactants is doubled, the rate becomes eight times.
So, rate law either r = k[No]2 [Cl2]1
or r = k[NO]1 [Cl2]2
so, order = 1 + 2 = 3

Final Answer : option (3)

75)

Concept :- r∝ [A]n1 [B]n2

Solution :-

(4)1 = (4)n2 ⇒ n2 = 1
r = K[A]1[B]1
Answer :- 3

76) Question Explanation : For a nth order reaction, relation between half-life period and
initial concentration of reactant is to be found.
Given Data :
Order of reaction : nth order
Initial concentration of reactant = a
Concept :
For nth order of reaction :

Final Answer : an – 1

77) There are two N atoms in NH4NO3, but one N atom has negative oxidation states (attached
to H) and the other has positive oxidation states (attached to O). Therefore evaluation should
be made separately as –
Oxidation states of N is NH4+
a + 4 × (+1) = +1
∴ a = –3
Oxidation states of N in NO3–
a + 3 (–2) = –1
∴ a=+5
Here the two oxidation states are –3 and +5 respectively.

78) , Because in KIO3 effective oxidation number is 6.

79) k = A e–Ea/RT

So
ea = 2000 × RT
= 200 × 2 × 300
= 12 × 104 cal
= 120 k Cal

80)

A. Question Explanation
We need to calculate the reduction potential of a hydrogen electrode immersed in a solution
with pH = 5, using the Nernst equation shortcut specifically applicable to hydrogen
electrodes.

B. Given Data
• Electrode: Hydrogen electrode (H⁺/H₂)
• pH = 5
• Temperature = 25°C
• Standard electrode potential: E° = 0 V
• Partial pressure of H₂ gas: 1 atm (standard)
• Number of electrons, n = 2

C. Concept
The half-cell reaction:

The Nernst equation for this at 25°C:

Assuming :
E = –0.059 ⋅ pH
Shortcut:
E = –0.059 × pH
This is specific to the hydrogen electrode under standard conditions.

D. Mathematical Calculation:
E = –0.059 × 5 = –0.295 V

E. Final Answer
Option 3: –0.295 volt

81)

Reducing power ∝ SOP

82)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the charge number (valency) of a metal ion
in an electrolyte by using the mass of the metal deposited during electrolysis, its molar mass,
and the total electric charge passed through the electrolyte.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves the principle of electrolysis, where ions in a
metallic chloride solution gain electrons and get deposited as metal atoms on the cathode. The
charge number of the ion indicates how many electrons combine with one metal ion during
deposition. Faraday's laws of electrolysis relate the quantity of electric charge to the amount
of substance deposited.

Relevant Formulas: 1) Moles of metal deposited: where = mass of metal, =

molar mass 2) Moles of electrons passed (Faradays): where = total charge passed,

= Faraday constant (96500 C mol⁻¹) 3) Charge number:

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Calculate moles of metal deposited

Step 2: Calculate moles of electrons passed

Step 3: Calculate charge number (electrons per metal ion)
Therefore, the charge number of the metal ion is +3.

Tips and Tricks: Keep the units consistent and use the Faraday constant correctly. Molar
mass and mass always help to find the moles of metal deposited, which is key to finding the
charge number.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the charge passed (Q) with moles of electrons, or not using
the Faraday constant correctly. Another error might be mixing up which quantity to divide by
which when calculating the charge number.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options '0.5', '1', and '2' are incorrect because they
result from incorrect division or misunderstanding the relationship between charge passed
and moles of metal. The correct calculation shows that three electrons are passed per metal
ion.

83)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks for the ratio of moles of three different metal ions
(Ag⁺, Mg²⁺, and Al³⁺) that would get deposited when a total charge corresponding to
3 Faradays (3F) is passed through their respective solutions. The goal is to find out how many
moles of each metal ion are deposited relative to each other.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involved here is Faraday's law of electrolysis, which
states that the amount of substance deposited at an electrode during electrolysis is directly
proportional to the quantity of electricity passed and inversely proportional to the number of
electrons involved per ion. Different ions have different valencies (n), so the moles deposited
vary depending on the charge on the ions.

Relevant Formulas: Moles deposited = \frac{Q}{nF} Where: Q = charge passed (in

Coulombs or Faradays), n = number of electrons required for reduction (valency), F = Faraday
constant (charge per mole of electrons).

Step-by-Step Calculation: Given Q = 3F, - For Ag⁺ (n=1): moles = \frac{3F}{1F} = 3 -

For Mg²⁺ (n=2): moles = \frac{3F}{2F} = \frac{3}{2} = 1.5 - For Al³⁺ (n=3): moles =
\frac{3F}{3F} = 1
Ratio Ag : Mg : Al = 3 : 1.5 : 1 Dividing each term by 3 for simplification: 1 : \frac{1}{2} :
\frac{1}{3}

Tips and Tricks: Use the valency of the ion directly as n in the formula for quick calculations.
Simplify the ratio by dividing all sides by the largest mole number to get a cleaner ratio.

Common Mistakes: Not considering the valency of the ions leading to incorrect mole
calculations; confusing Faraday's constant with charge Q; not simplifying the ratio properly.
 Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that do not account for the inverse relationship
between valency and moles deposited will be incorrect. For example, a ratio showing Ag : Mg :
Al all equal ignores that higher charged ions deposit fewer moles for the same charge.

84)

A. Question Explanation
What happens to the pH of an aqueous solution of CuSO₄ when electrolyzed using copper (Cu)
electrodes? We need to determine the change in pH during the electrolysis process.

B. Given Data

A. Electrolyte: Aqueous CuSO₄ solution

B. Electrodes: Copper (Cu)

C. Electrolysis is carried out

D. Asked: Change in pH

C. Concept
During electrolysis of CuSO₄ using copper electrodes:

A. At anode (oxidation):
Cu(s) → Cu²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻
(Copper from the anode dissolves into the solution.)

B. At cathode (reduction):
Cu²⁺(aq) + 2e⁻ → Cu(s)
(Copper ions from the solution deposit on the cathode.)

There is no net change in concentration of Cu²⁺ ions. Also, no H⁺ or OH⁻ ions are involved in
the redox reactions, and water is not electrolyzed in this case.

Thus, the concentration of H⁺ and OH⁻ ions remains constant → pH remains unchanged.

D. Final Answer

Option 3: pH of solution remains unchanged

 85) Explanation: Which solution can be safely stored in a copper vessel:
Given Data:
• Options: ZnSO4, AgNO3, AuCl, All
• Vessel material: Copper (Cu)
Concept: (Vessel metal & Reactivity)

A. Electrochemical Reactivity: A metal can safely store a solution of another metal's salt if the
vessel metal is less reactive than the metal ioins in the solution.
B. If the vessel metal is more reactive, it will displace the ions, causing corrosion.
C. Reactivity Series (simplified): Zn > Cu > Ag > Au

ZnSO4: Zinc (Zn) is more reactive than copper (Cu). Therefore, Cu will not displace Zn. Safe.
Final Answer:
Only ZnSO4 can be safely stored in a copper vessel.
Hence, option (1) is correct.

86)

Explanation:

A. Electrolysis of acidified water produces hydrogen gas.

· The reaction is 2H+ + 2e- → H2

· This shows 2 moles of electrons are needed to produce 1 mole of H2.

· We need to find the charge required to liberate 112 cm³ of H2.

Given Data:

· Volume of H2 = 112 cm³

· 1 Faraday = 96500 Coulombs

Concept:

A. 1 mole of any gas at STP occupies 22.4 L (22400 cm³).

· 1 Faraday is the charge of 1 mole of electrons.

Calculation:

Moles of H2:

· 112 cm³ / 22400 cm³/mol = 0.005 moles of H2

Moles of electrons:

· Since 2 moles of electrons produce 1 mole of H2, we need 0.005 moles H2 x 2 = 0.01 moles of
electrons.

Charge (Coulombs):

· moles of electrons x 96500 C/mol = 965 Coulombs

 Charge (Faradays):

· moles of electrons = 0.01 Faraday

Answer: option 3, 965 coulomb

87) Explanation :- The question is asking how to increase the potential of the electrochemical
cell.
Given Data:- Cell representation Zn|Zn+2 || Cu+2|Cu
Concept- :- Nernst Equation

Calculation :-
By increasing concentration of Cu+2, cell potential will increase
Final Answer :- Increasing [Cu+2]
Correct Option :- (3)

88)

A. Question Explanation:

The question asks us to calculate the molar conductance of a 0.01 M solution given its
conductivity.

B. Given Data:

A. Conductivity (κ) = 10⁻⁴ Ω⁻¹ cm⁻¹

B. Concentration (C) = 0.01 M

C. Concept:

Molar conductance (Λm) is related to conductivity (κ) and concentration (C) by the formula:

Λm = κ / C

D. Mathematical Calculation:

A. Convert Concentration to mol/cm³:

A. 1 L = 1000 cm³
B. 0.01 mol/L = 0.01 mol / 1000 cm³ = 10⁻⁵ mol/cm³
B. Calculate Molar Conductance:
A. Λm = κ / C
B. Λm = (10⁻⁴ Ω⁻¹ cm⁻¹) / (10⁻⁵ mol/cm³)
C. Λm = 10 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹

E. Final Answer:
The molar conductance of the solution is 10 Ω⁻¹ cm² mol⁻¹. Therefore, option 1 is the correct
answer.
Easy

89)
Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks how many Faradays of electric charge are needed to
convert 1 mole of dichromate ions (Cr₂O₇²⁻) into chromium ions (Cr³⁺). Essentially,
it involves finding the total number of electrons transferred in this reduction and relating that
to Faraday's constant.

Underlying Concept: This problem is based on the concept of redox reactions and
electrochemistry. Specifically, it involves the reduction of dichromate ions where chromium
changes its oxidation state from +6 to +3. The number of electrons gained per mole of
dichromate determines the charge needed, which is expressed in Faradays (1 Faraday = 1
mole of electrons).

Step-by-Step Calculation: The half-reaction is: Each

chromium ion gains 3 electrons as it reduces from +6 to +3. Since there are 2 chromium

atoms in one dichromate ion, the total electrons transferred are: Since 1
Faraday corresponds to the charge of 1 mole of electrons, the total charge required is 6
Faradays.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that the number of electrons transferred in a redox reaction
corresponds directly to the change in oxidation states multiplied by the number of atoms
undergoing change.

Common Mistakes: A common error is to consider only 1 chromium atom instead of both in
the dichromate ion, leading to underestimating the number of electrons (and Faradays)
required.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: '3F' corresponds to electrons needed for one chromium,
not for the entire dichromate ion. '2F' and '5F' do not match the correct total electron transfer
based on the oxidation states. Only '6F' correctly accounts for both chromium atoms and their
electron gain.

90)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to find the standard electrode potential for the half-
reaction converting Fe³⁺ to Fe²⁺ by gaining one electron, given the standard reduction
potentials for the reactions converting Fe³⁺ to Fe and Fe²⁺ to Fe.

Underlying Concept: This problem is based on electrochemistry, specifically on standard

electrode potentials and their relationship to Gibbs free energy. The key concept is that the
standard electrode potential for a reaction can be linked to the Gibbs free energy change, and
that combining or subtracting half-reactions affects their potentials according to
thermodynamic principles.

Relevant Formulas: The main formula used is the relation between Gibbs free energy change
 and electrode potential:

where: - is the standard Gibbs free energy change, - is the number of electrons
transferred, - is Faraday's constant, - is the standard electrode potential.

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Calculate Gibbs free energy changes for the known reactions:

2. The target half-reaction is obtained by subtracting reaction 1 from reaction 2:

3. Convert this Gibbs free energy change back to electrode potential:

Hence, the standard electrode potential for is +0.772 V.

Tips and Tricks: Use Gibbs free energy changes to combine half-reactions rather than trying
to combine potentials directly, as potentials depend on the number of electrons transferred.

Common Mistakes: Incorrectly adding or subtracting electrode potentials directly without

converting to Gibbs free energy, ignoring the number of electrons involved in each half-
reaction, and neglecting the sign conventions for free energy and potential.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Answers like -0.404 V or -0.772 V represent errors in
sign or calculation steps. The positive 0.772 V result comes from correct subtraction of Gibbs
free energies, reflecting the standard potential for the Fe³⁺ / Fe²⁺ couple.

BIOLOGY

91)

100 per hour

92) NCERT Pg. # 227

93)

Biomass method

94)

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

95)
A-Diplontic, B-Haplodiplontic, C-Haplontic

96)

Equisetum, Psilotum, Lycopodium, Pteris

97) Explain Question: Question asking about economic importance of algae

Concept: This question is based on Algae.

Solution:
Chlorella & spirulina (unicellular algae) are rich in protein and are used as food supplements
by space travellers.

Final Answer: (3)

98) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 34

99)

Laminaria

100)

a, b, c

101) Volvox and fucus

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 30, para-3.1

102)

A-Hydrocolloids, B-Algin, C-Carrageen

103) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D -iv

NCERT PAGE NO. 38

104)

Only D is correct

105)

If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
106) The assertion is true as Cycas plants have specialized coralloid roots that are associated
with nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria. However, the reason is not the correct explanation for the
assertion. While coralloid roots do help in nitrogen fixation, they are not specifically for
adapting to extreme environmental conditions but rather for supplementing the nitrogen
requirement of the plant in nutrient-poor soils. Therefore, both A and R are true, but R is not
the correct explanation of A.

107)

Divided in euchromatin & Heterochromatin

108)

2.5 meters

109)

Three

110)

Obligate mutualism

111)

Explanation:

Sexual deceit is a form of mimicry where a plant, such as the Ophrys orchid, mimics the
appearance and scent of a female bee to attract male bees. The male bee attempts to mate
with the flower, inadvertently pollinating it.

112)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 199

113)

cactus feeding predators

114)

Competitive Exclusion

115)

Bacteriophage
 116)

Stable

117)

Single species can occupy more than one trophic level at same time

118)

Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

119)

I and III

120)

Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

121)

Gross production (GP)

122)

NCERT-XII, Page # 208, 209

123)

Deoxyribonucleotide

124) Explaining the Question:

Asking about structure which remain absent in prokaryotes from given structure.

Concept: RNA

Solution:

A. Presence of Sn-RNA is characteristic of eukaryotic cell not prokaryotic cell.

Final Answer:
Option (4) sn-RNA

125) Explaining the Question:

Asking about sequence of m-RNA that produced by given DNA.
Concept:
Transcription

Solution:
Transcription occurs from the promotor towards terminator. In the diagram, this direction is
from right to left. RNA polymerase transcribed 3 → 5 strand of DNA.
3 → 5 strand of DNA → 3' - TCGTA - 5'
m-RNA synthesized 5' → 3' 5'-AGCAU - 3'.

Final Answer:
Option (2) 5'-AGCAU-3'

126)

DNA polymerase III

127)

Inducer

128) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 120; Para-6.9.1

129)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

130)

Degenerate, Non-overlapping, Non ambiguous

131)

Aminoacylation of tRNA

132)

Rho factor

133)

Copying of genetic information from DNA to RNA in transcription.

134)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 213

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

136)

NCERT XII Pg. # 182

137)

NCERT Pg. No. # 187

138) NCERT XII Pg # 152

139)

(A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii)

140)

a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(iii)

141)

a-Aphids, b-Mosquitoes

142)

Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

143)

Free living N2 fixatives

144) Allen Module.

145)

a and d only

146)

A = 8 mg/L, B = 400 mg/L, C = 200 mg/L

147)

The flocs will become anoxic, which would cause death of bacteria and eventually breakage of
flocs

148)

Activated sludge

149) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 209

150)

vector

151) NCERT-XII, Pg # 210 to 219

152) Ncert Page 180.

153) Explanation :
The question asks about the correct matching pairs between common, mare of certain insects
and related insects orders.

Concept :
The classification of Ir sects with in animal Kingdom.

Solution :
Some, strains of Bt bacteria produce proteins that kiel certain insects order:
Lepidopteran: Tobaccobutworn Army co arm
Coleopteran: Beetles
Dipecratu: Fries, Masquiposes.

Final Answer :
Ans (4)

154)

Corn borer and cotton bollworms

155)

Second

156) The correct answer is option (3) a, b c and d.

 Solution/Explanation:
Transgenic models (genetically modified animals) are widely used to study:

A. Cancer
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Alzheimer's disease

Hence, option (3) is correct.

157)

Alpha-1 Anti trypsin

158)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 211

159) NCERT-XII Pg # 211

160)

Either single stranded DNA or RNA

161)

94ºC → 54ºC → 72ºC

162)

Retrovirus

163)

a–(iv), b–(i), c–(ii), d–(iii)

164)

30

165)

(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in [Link], extracted and
combined by creating disulphide bond between them.
 166)

NCERT Pg. No. 169

167)

NCERT Pg. No. 178

168) NCERT XIIth Pg.#199

169) NCERT, Pg. # 168 & 172

170)

GAATTC

171)

B–A–D–C–E

172)

(c) and (d)

173) NCERT Page no 199

174)

Ampicillin

175) NCERT page- 170, 171

176) NCERT pg- 47

177)

● The total size of the DNA is 12 kb.

● Two recognition sites for BamHI are present 4 kb apart from each other.

● One of the recognition sites is at 4 kb distance from one end.

When BamHI cuts the DNA, it will make two cuts at the recognition sites, which will result in three fragments:
 A. The first fragment will be from the 5' end of the DNA to the first BamHI recognition site (4 kb).
B. The second fragment will be from the first BamHI site to the second BamHI site (4 kb).
C. The third fragment will be from the second BamHI site to the 3' end of the DNA (4 kb).

Since the DNA is completely digested, there will be three fragments formed.

178)

Hind II

179)

The separated band of DNA are cut out from the gel and extracted from the gel piece.

180)

NCERT Page # 174