9 - Worksheet

India Size and Location

1. The latitudinal extent of India is:

a) 8°4'N to 37°6'N
b) 6°4'N to 38°6'N
c) 8°4'N to 35°6'N
d) 9°4'N to 39°6'N

2. The longitudinal extent of India is:

a) 68°7'E to 97°25'E
b) 60°7'E to 100°25'E
c) 70°7'E to 95°25'E
d) 65°7'E to 92°25'E

3. The total land area of India is about:

a) 3.28 million sq km
b) 2.28 million sq km
c) 4.28 million sq km
d) 3.82 million sq km

4. India is the ____ largest country in the world in terms of area.

a) 5th
b) 7th
c) 6th
d) 8th

5. The Indian Standard Time is based on the longitude:

a) 80°30'E
b) 82°30'E
c) 85°30'E
d) 90°30'E

6. The difference between the westernmost and easternmost point of India causes a time
difference of:
a) 1 hour
b) 1 hour 30 minutes
c) 2 hours
d) 2 hours 30 minutes

7. The southernmost point of India (Indira Point) is located in:

a) Lakshadweep
b) Great Nicobar Island
c) Andaman Island
d) Kerala

8. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many states of India?

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

9. The neighbouring countries of India include:

a) Nepal, Bhutan, China, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka
b) Nepal, Bhutan, China, Pakistan, Afghanistan, Thailand
c) Sri Lanka, Maldives, Thailand, Myanmar
d) China, Russia, Afghanistan, Maldives

10. India shares the longest international border with:

a) China
b) Pakistan
c) Nepal
d) Bangladesh

11. The capital of Arunachal Pradesh is:

a) Aizawl
b) Itanagar
c) Imphal
d) Kohima

12. How many Union Territories does India have (after 2019)?
a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

13. Which Union Territory has its headquarters at Kavaratti?

a) Daman & Diu
b) Lakshadweep
c) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
d) Puducherry

14. Goa’s latitudinal extent is approximately:

a) 14°53'N to 15°40'N
b) 15°40'N to 16°20'N
c) 13°40'N to 15°40'N
d) 14°10'N to 16°10'N
15. Goa shares its boundary with which state?
a) Karnataka only
b) Maharashtra only
c) Maharashtra and Karnataka
d) Kerala and Maharashtra

16. Goa has how many talukas?

a) 10
b) 11
c) 12
d) 13

17. The capital city of Goa is:

a) Margao
b) Panaji
c) Vasco-da-Gama
d) Mapusa

18. The main rivers of Goa are:

a) Mandovi and Zuari
b) Ganga and Yamuna
c) Godavari and Krishna
d) Mahi and Sabarmati

19. Which neighbouring country of India is an island nation?

a) Maldives
b) Sri Lanka
c) Myanmar
d) Indonesia

20. India is separated from Sri Lanka by:

a) Gulf of Mannar and Palk Strait
b) Bay of Bengal and Gulf of Kutch
c) Arabian Sea and Gulf of Cambay
d) Andaman Sea and Ten Degree Channel

Assertion & Reason Questions

Q1.
Assertion (A): India lies entirely in the Northern and Eastern Hemispheres.
Reason (R): The Tropic of Cancer passes almost through the middle of the country dividing it
into two equal halves.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q2.
Assertion (A): Indian Standard Time (IST) is taken from 82°30' E longitude.
Reason (R): This longitude passes through the center of India and helps maintain a uniform
time across the country.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q3.
Assertion (A): The difference between the durations of day and night is maximum in the
northernmost and southernmost parts of India.
Reason (R): These regions are located closer to the equator.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q4.
Assertion (A): India shares its longest international boundary with Bangladesh.
Reason (R): The boundary between India and Bangladesh is more than 4000 km long.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q5.
Assertion (A): Goa is the smallest state of India in terms of area.
Reason (R): Goa has only two districts and is located on the western coast of India.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Physiolographic Division of India

1. The theory of continental drift was proposed by:

a) Alfred Wegener
b) Harry Hess
c) Arthur Holmes
d) Tuzo Wilson

2. According to the Continental Drift Theory, all continents were once part of a single landmass
called:
a) Gondwana
b) Laurasia
c) Pangaea
d) Angaraland

3. The movement of plates is explained by which theory?

a) Continental Drift Theory
b) Plate Tectonic Theory
c) Evolution Theory
d) Seafloor Spreading Theory

4. Which type of plate boundary is formed when two plates move towards each other?
a) Divergent boundary
b) Transform boundary
c) Convergent boundary
d) Passive boundary

5. Which type of plate boundary causes mid-ocean ridges?

a) Divergent
b) Convergent
c) Transform
d) Collision

6. Transform boundaries are characterized by:

a) Volcanic mountains
b) Earthquakes
c) Folding
d) Rift valleys

7. The collision of the Indian plate with the Eurasian plate led to the formation of:
a) Deccan Plateau
b) Himalayas
c) Thar Desert
d) Indo-Gangetic Plains

8. The northernmost mountain range of India is:

a) Himadri
b) Shiwalik
c) Himachal
d) Trans Himalaya

9. The Great Himalayas (Himadri) are mainly composed of:

a) Igneous rocks
b) Sedimentary rocks
c) Metamorphic rocks
d) Basalt rocks

10. The outermost range of the Himalayas is called:

a) Himachal
b) Himadri
c) Shiwalik
d) Karakoram

11. The Purvanchal hills are located in:

a) Jammu & Kashmir
b) Rajasthan
c) North-East India
d) Ladakh

12. The Purvanchal Hills consist of:

a) Garo, Khasi, Jaintia Hills
b) Naga, Mizo, Patkai Hills
c) Nilgiri, Cardamom Hills
d) Aravalli, Vindhya Hills

13. The Himalayas prevent:

a) Monsoon winds from entering India
b) Cold winds from Central Asia
c) Formation of rivers in north India
d) Cyclones from Bay of Bengal

14. The Bhabar region is:

a) Marshy land with excess water
b) Narrow belt of pebbles along the foothills of Himalayas
c) Fertile plain region
d) Coastal plain

15. The Terai region is:

a) Sandy desert area
b) Zone of springs and marshes just south of Bhabar
c) Rocky plateau
d) Salt marsh

16. The Ganga Plain is mainly composed of:

a) Black soil
b) Alluvial soil
c) Laterite soil
d) Arid soil

17. The Indus Plain lies mostly in:

a) India
b) Nepal
c) Pakistan
d) Bangladesh

18. The Brahmaputra Plain is characterized by:

a) Desert climate
b) Frequent floods and shifting river courses
c) Dense forests only
d) Volcanic soil

19. The Peninsular Plateau is made up of:

a) Sedimentary rocks
b) Igneous and metamorphic rocks
c) Alluvial deposits
d) Limestone

20. The oldest mountain range in India is:

a) Himalayas
b) Western Ghats
c) Aravalli Range
d) Satpura Range

21. The Western Ghats are also known as:

a) Sahyadris
b) Nilgiris
c) Satpura
d) Vindhyas
22. The Eastern and Western Ghats meet at:
a) Cardamom Hills
b) Aravalli Hills
c) Nilgiri Hills
d) Satpura Hills

23. The western coastal plain between Maharashtra and Karnataka is called:
a) Konkan Coast
b) Malabar Coast
c) Coromandel Coast
d) Northern Circars

24. The eastern coastal plain between Krishna and Kaveri rivers is known as:
a) Coromandel Coast
b) Malabar Coast
c) Konkan Coast
d) Kathiawar Coast

25. The Indian Desert is also known as:

a) Ladakh Desert
b) Thar Desert
c) Rann of Kutch
d) Great Sandy Desert

26. The Lakshadweep Islands are of ______ origin:

a) Volcanic
b) Coral
c) Riverine
d) Continental

27. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are of ______ origin:

a) Coral
b) Continental
c) Volcanic
d) Fluvial

28. Which is the northernmost physiographic division of India?

a) Coastal Plains
b) Himalayas
c) Peninsular Plateau
d) Islands

29. Which physical division of India covers the largest area?

a) Coastal Plains
b) Peninsular Plateau
c) Northern Plains
d) Himalayas

30. The lowlands of India are mainly represented by:

a) Desert and Plateaus
b) River Plains
c) Mountain ranges
d) Coastal Ghats

Assertion & Reason Questions

Q1.
Assertion (A): The Himalayas were formed due to the collision of the Indo-Australian plate with
the Eurasian plate.
Reason (R): This collision led to the folding and upliftment of sediments of the Tethys Sea.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q2.
Assertion (A): The Northern Plains are one of the most fertile regions of India.
Reason (R): They are formed by alluvial deposits brought by the Indus, Ganga, and
Brahmaputra river systems.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q3.
Assertion (A): Bhabar region is marshy and has thick forests.
Reason (R): It is the region where rivers reappear on the surface after seeping underground in
Bhabar.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true
Q4.
Assertion (A): The Peninsular Plateau is the oldest landmass of India.
Reason (R): It is a part of the Gondwana landmass and is highly eroded.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q5.
Assertion (A): The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are of coral origin.
Reason (R): They are submerged fold mountains formed by tectonic activity in the Bay of
Bengal.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Drainage: Rivers Of India

1. The term “drainage” refers to:

a) Flow of water from rivers only
b) Natural or artificial channels carrying water
c) River system of an area
d) Water stored in lakes

2. Rivers are important because they:

a) Provide drinking water and irrigation
b) Help in transport
c) Generate hydroelectricity
d) All of the above

3. Himalayan rivers are:

a) Seasonal
b) Snow-fed and perennial
c) Rain-fed only
d) Found only in the desert

4. Peninsular rivers are mostly:

a) Perennial
b) Snow-fed
c) Rain-fed and seasonal
d) Only underground streams

5. A river delta is formed where:

a) River meets the mountains
b) River meets the sea and deposits silt
c) River flows through a desert
d) River cuts a deep gorge

6. The Indus River originates from:

a) Amarkantak
b) Mansarovar Lake, Tibet
c) Gangotri Glacier
d) Siachen Glacier

7. The Ganga originates from:

a) Yamunotri Glacier
b) Gangotri Glacier
c) Amarkantak Plateau
d) Trimbakeshwar Hills

8. The Brahmaputra is called by which name in Tibet?

a) Dihang
b) Tsangpo
c) Jamuna
d) Lohit

9. The Brahmaputra enters India through:

a) Sikkim
b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Assam
d) Nagaland

10. The Narmada River flows into:

a) Bay of Bengal
b) Arabian Sea
c) Indian Ocean
d) Rann of Kutch

11. The Tapi (Tapti) River is also a west-flowing river. Its origin is in:
a) Satpura Hills
b) Amarkantak Hills
c) Western Ghats
d) Himalayas

12. The Godavari is also called:

a) Vriddha Ganga
b) Dakshin Ganga
c) Krishna of the East
d) Mahanadi of South

13. The Godavari is the _____ river in India in length.

a) Second longest
b) Longest
c) Third longest
d) Shortest

14. The Mahanadi River forms a delta in:

a) West Bengal
b) Odisha
c) Andhra Pradesh
d) Tamil Nadu

15. The Krishna River originates from:

a) Brahmagiri Hills, Maharashtra
b) Trimbakeshwar Hills, Maharashtra
c) Western Ghats, Karnataka
d) Satpura Hills

16. The Kaveri River forms its delta in:

a) Kerala
b) Karnataka
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Andhra Pradesh

17. Which of the following rivers flows from east to west?

a) Ganga
b) Godavari
c) Krishna
d) Narmada

18. Chilika Lake is a:

a) Freshwater lake
b) Lagoon (saltwater lake)
c) Crater lake
d) Artificial lake
19. Wular Lake is located in:
a) Uttarakhand
b) Rajasthan
c) Jammu & Kashmir
d) Kerala

20. The largest freshwater lake in India is:

a) Vembanad Lake
b) Wular Lake
c) Chilika Lake
d) Loktak Lake

21. Loktak Lake is famous for:

a) Floating islands (Phumdis)
b) Coral reefs
c) Salt production
d) Tiger reserve

22. The river Zuari flows through which part of Goa?

a) North Goa
b) South Goa
c) Entire state
d) Only Panaji

23. The river Mandovi is also known as:

a) Gomati
b) Mhadei
c) Kali
d) Zuari

24. Dudhsagar Waterfall is located on which river?

a) Zuari
b) Mandovi
c) Sal
d) Talpona

25. The smallest river in Goa is:

a) Zuari
b) Mandovi
c) Sal
d) Chapora

26. The Talpona River flows into:

a) Zuari River
b) Arabian Sea
c) Mandovi River
d) Dudhsagar Fall

27. Mayem Lake is located in:

a) Panaji
b) Bicholim Taluka
c) Mormugao
d) Sattari

28. Carambolim Lake is known for:

a) Hot springs
b) Bird watching (wetland birds)
c) Waterfalls
d) Mineral deposits

29. Curtorim Lake is primarily used for:

a) Hydroelectricity
b) Irrigation and fishing
c) Salt production
d) Transport

30. Rivers are used for all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Drinking water
b) Irrigation
c) Transportation
d) Mining coal directly from river

Assertion & Reason Questions

Q1.
Assertion (A): Himalayan rivers are perennial in nature.
Reason (R): They are fed by glaciers and receive water throughout the year.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q2.
Assertion (A): The Narmada and Tapi rivers form deltas before meeting the Arabian Sea.
Reason (R): They carry large amounts of sediments and deposit them near their mouth.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q3.
Assertion (A): The Ganga river forms the largest delta in the world.
Reason (R): The Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers together deposit sediments in the Bay of
Bengal forming the Sunderban Delta.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q4.
Assertion (A): Saltwater lakes have economic importance.
Reason (R): They are sources of salt production and sometimes used for inland fishing.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q5.
Assertion (A): River Zuari is the main river of Goa.
Reason (R): It is the longest river in Goa and supports irrigation, transport, and industries.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Introduction to Economics

1. Which of the following is an example of a "want" and not a "need"?

a) Food
b) Shelter
c) Designer clothes
d) Water
2. Consumer goods are goods that:
a) Are used to produce other goods
b) Are directly consumed by consumers
c) Are used only in industries
d) Are sold only to government

3. Capital or producer goods are used for:

a) Personal satisfaction
b) Consumption by households
c) Production of other goods and services
d) Entertainment

4. Private goods are characterized by:

a) Free availability for all
b) Non-excludability
c) Ownership by individuals or firms
d) Production by government only

5. Which of the following is a public good?

a) Clothes
b) Roads and streetlights
c) Furniture
d) Food grains

6. Services are:
a) Tangible products
b) Physical goods stored for future use
c) Intangible activities like teaching or banking
d) Only government-provided facilities

7. Human activities are broadly classified into:

a) Economic and non-economic
b) Productive and destructive
c) Primary and secondary
d) Paid and unpaid

8. According to Adam Smith, economics is defined as the study of:

a) Human welfare
b) Wealth of nations
c) Scarcity of resources
d) Growth and development

9. The "welfare definition" of economics was given by:

a) Adam Smith
b) Lionel Robbins
c) Alfred Marshall
d) Paul Samuelson

10. Scarcity definition of economics was given by:

a) Lionel Robbins
b) Adam Smith
c) J. M. Keynes
d) Alfred Marshall

11. The problem of "scarcity" leads to:

a) Unlimited production
b) No need for choice
c) Choice of best possible use of resources
d) No consumption

12. Which of the following is NOT a factor of production?

a) Land
b) Labour
c) Capital
d) Consumption

13. The income earned by labour is called:

a) Rent
b) Wages
c) Interest
d) Profit

14. Microeconomics deals with:

a) Whole economy
b) Individual units like consumer, firm, market
c) National income and growth
d) Global economy

15. Savings refer to:

a) Total spending by consumers
b) Part of income not spent on consumption
c) Money borrowed from bank
d) Government revenue

Assertion & Reason Questions

Q1.
Assertion (A): Economics is called a science of scarcity and choice.
Reason (R): Resources are limited, but human wants are unlimited, so we must choose how to
use resources.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q2.
Assertion (A): Consumer goods are used to produce other goods.
Reason (R): Machines and tools are examples of consumer goods.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q3.
Assertion (A): Microeconomics studies the behaviour of individual consumers and firms.
Reason (R): It deals with national income, unemployment, and inflation at the economy level.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Economic Systems and Problem of an Economy

1. An economic system refers to:

a) Only production activities
b) Only distribution of goods
c) The way a country organizes production, distribution & consumption
d) The political system of a country

2. In a capitalist economy, the main motive of production is:

a) Welfare of society
b) Profit maximization
c) Social equality
d) Full employment

3. Which of the following is NOT a feature of capitalism?

a) Private property
b) Profit motive
c) Government ownership of all resources
d) Competition

4. In a socialist economy, resources are owned by:

a) Private individuals
b) Government and society collectively
c) Foreign investors
d) None of the above

5. Which of the following is a feature of socialism?

a) Profit motive dominates
b) Public welfare is the main goal
c) Free market forces decide everything
d) No government planning

6. A mixed economy means:

a) Full government control
b) Only private ownership of resources
c) Co-existence of public and private sectors
d) An economy without planning

7. Which of the following is NOT a feature of a mixed economy?

a) Government and private sector both produce goods
b) Only government decides prices
c) Economic planning is present
d) There is freedom of private enterprise

8. The basic economic problem arises because:

a) Resources are scarce and wants are unlimited
b) Resources are unlimited
c) Prices are always high
d) Governments cannot plan properly

9. “What to produce?” refers to:

a) The choice of goods and services to be produced
b) The method of production
c) The distribution of goods among people
d) The export policy of a country

10. “How to produce?” is concerned with:

a) Choosing between production for rich or poor
b) Deciding the technique of production (labour or capital intensive)
c) Choosing consumer goods
d) Deciding distribution of income

11. “For whom to produce?” refers to:

a) Choosing goods for exports
b) Distribution of goods among different sections of society
c) Selection of production process
d) Deciding government subsidies

12. The problem of allocation of resources means:

a) Using resources for only one purpose
b) Dividing scarce resources among alternative uses
c) Wasting resources
d) Keeping resources idle

13. The problem of full utilization of resources is also called:

a) Problem of distribution
b) Problem of underemployment or unemployment
c) Problem of choice
d) Problem of scarcity

14. The problem of economic growth is related to:

a) Optimum use of resources to increase production over time
b) Producing only consumer goods
c) Decreasing investment
d) Reducing population only

15. In which type of economy do market forces and planning both play a role?
a) Capitalist economy
b) Socialist economy
c) Mixed economy
d) Traditional economy

Assertion & Reason Questions

Q1.
Assertion (A): In a capitalist economy, production is done mainly with a profit motive.
Reason (R): Resources in capitalism are privately owned, and producers aim to maximize their
gains.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q2.
Assertion (A): The basic economic problem of every economy is scarcity of resources.
Reason (R): Resources are unlimited, but human wants are limited.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true

Q3.
Assertion (A): In a mixed economy, both government and private sector participate in
production.
Reason (R): Mixed economy combines features of capitalism and socialism.

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true