1. What is the purpose of setting out in construction?

A. To establish marks for construction control C. To analyses soil composition

B. To clear the site of vegetation D. To design the building layout
2. What does excavation involve?
A. Building construction C. Tree planting
B. Soil removal D. Sitesurveying
3. Which type of excavation involves the removal oftopsoil?
A. Bulk excavation
B. Trench excavation D. Triathlon
C. Topsoil excavation
4. What is a method to check the depth of trenchexcavation?
A. Using a boning rod C. Using wheelbarrow
B. Using as hovel D. Using atheodolite
5. When are shallow foundations typically used?
a. When stable soil is near the ground surface. c. When heavy loads need to be supported
b. When unstable soil requires deep excavation. d. When building on soft soil
6. What is the purpose of deep foundations?
a. To spread building loads horizontally c. To transfer loads to a more suitable bearing stratum
b. To support lightweight structures d. To anchor the building above ground level
7. When are strap footings typically used?
a. When supporting a line of loads c. When the soil incompressible
b. When supporting more than two columns d. When differential settlement is easy to control
8. What is the purpose of a mat (raft) foundation?
a. To support individual columns c. To cover the entire area beneath the structure
b. To connect two independent footings d. To transfer loads to a suitable bearing stratum
9. What is the primary purpose of reinforcement in concrete structures?
a. To increase the weight of the structure c. To provide tensile strength to concrete
b. To enhance the aesthetic appeal of the structure d. To reduce the overall cost of construction
10. What is the purpose of reinforcement cover in concrete elements?
a. To enhance the visual appearance of the concrete c. To reduce the overall weight of the structure
b. To provide protection against corrosion for d. To increase the compressive strength of concrete
reinforcement bars
11. What is the primary function of stirrups in reinforced concrete beams?
a. To increase the compressive strength d. To reduce the overall weight of the
b. To enhance the visual appeal beam
c. To provide lateral support to main bars
12. What is the lap length of reinforcement bars typically required for adequate bonding?
a. 10 times the diameter of the bars c. 50 times the diameter of the bars
b. 25 times the diameter of the bars d. 100 times the diameter of the bars
13. Which type of reinforcement bar has deformations on its surface to enhance bond with concrete?
a. Plain bars c. Mild steel bars
b. High yield bars d. Deformed bars
14. What is the recommended minimum cover for reinforcement in columns?
A.10-15mm C. 30-35mm
B. 20-25mm D. 40-45mm
15. How long should formwork be kept in position for slab soffits?
a. 24 to 48 hours c. 7days
b. 3days d. 14days
16. Which type of steel reinforcement minimizes slippage in concrete and increases the bond between materials?
A) Plain bars C) Deformed bars
B) Wire D) Steel mesh
17. type of bond pattern in brick masonry is commonly used for half brick thick partition walls and as outer facing in steel or
reinforced concrete framed structures?
E) Flemish bond G) English bond
F) Header bond H) Stretcher bond
18. Concrete blocks classified as having one or more holes that are open at both sides are known as:
a. Dense concrete blocks b. Solid concrete blocks
 c. Hollow concrete blocks d. Lightweight concrete blocks
19. What type of stone masonry requires stones that are accurately dressed with uniformed fine joints?
a. Ashlars masonry c. Random rubble masonry
b. Rubble masonry d. Polygonal rubble masonry
20. Which type of stone masonry construction is the cheapest and roughest form, using stones of varied shape
and size?
a. Coursed rubble masonry c. Dry rubble masonry
b. Random uncausedrubble masonry d. Flint rubble masonry
21. What type of bond pattern in brick masonry is created by laying alternate headers and stretchers in a single
course?
a. Stretcher bond c. English bond
b. Flemish bond d. Header bond
22. What is the primary purpose of using single Flemish bond in brick masonry?
a. To reduce construction costs c. To provide better resistance against
b. To achieve greater strength in the seismic damage
brickwork d. To improve thermal insulation
23. What is the primary function of a window in building?
a. Providing structural support c. Admitting light and air
b. Allowing access to the outside d. Enhancing privacy
24. Corner windows are designed to:
a. Maximize ventilation c. Enhance structural stability
b. Provide privacy d. Allow light entry from two different directions
25. What is the purpose of dormer windows?
a. Provide additional structural support c. Allow for ventilation and lighting in rooms
b. Enhance the appearance of sloped roofs d. Act as decorative elements on the facade
26. Collapsible doors are primarily used when:
a. Noise reduction is required c. Enhanced security is needed
b. There is limited space for hinged shutters d. Aesthetic appeal is important
27. What is the purpose of low emissivity glass?
A. To absorb long-wave infrared radiation C. To allow maximum visible light transmittance
B. To reflect long-wave infrared radiation D. To provide fire resistance
28. What is the installation method called when glass is installed into an opening?
a. Glazing c. Enclosure
b. Framing d. Sealing
29. What are mullions in a curtain wall system?
a. Horizontal beams c. Glass panels
b. Vertical beams d. Anchor points
30. Which type of curtain wall system involves the assembly of components onsite, including
individual mullions and rails?
a. Unitized system c. Semi-modular system
b. Stick system d. Modular system
31. Which type of curtain wall system is preferred for large towering buildings due to its faster mode of construction?
A. Sticksyste C. Unitized system
B. Semi-modular system D. Modular system
32. What are gaskets primarily used for in unitized curtain wall systems?
a. Providing structural support c. Anchoring mullions
b. Sealing glass perimeter d. Enhancing aesthetics
33. What is the purpose of a DPC (damp proof course) in preventing dampness?
a. To provide a decorative surface c. To prevent rising of groundwater
b. To promote condensation d. To enhance air circulation
34. What do protective coatings on metals in buildings aim to reduce?
a. Rate of expansion c. Rate of contraction
b. Rate of corrosion d. Rate of settling
35. Which of the following is not the promise of the two parts in construction contract with time management?
A. If projects are not finished in a timely manner, or at least as quickly as promised, the construction company to lose
payment for breach of contract,
 B. In order not to be penalized at the completion of the job should it take longer than the original estimate, the builder has to
claim an extension of time.
C. Extra time and money for owner-caused delays and money for contractor-caused delays.
D. None
36. Expenses which change proportionally with the level of output?
A. Overhead cost C. Variable costs
B. Investment cost D. Fixed costs
37. Which one of the following several effective methods were managers have required for crashing specific projects activities
when resources are not constrained?
A. Adding resources D. Scheduling overtime
B. Outsourcing project Work E. All
C. Crashing Project
38. Which statement is merit of utilizing the construction equipment’s:
a. Minimize the overall construction costs especially for large contracts.
[Link] out activities which can be done manually
c. interrupt the planned rate of production
[Link] the high quality standards often required by present-day design
39. ______ are mainly used to clean up construction areas.
a. Front shovel c. Excavator
b. Back hoe
d. All
40. ______are used for bulk excavation below its track level in loose soils, marshy land and areas containing water.
i. Clamshell iii. . Front shovel
ii. Dragline iv. Fork lift
41. Pick applications of dragline
i. used for excavation of canals and depositing on the embankment
ii. Useful for excavating trenches when the sides are permitted to establish their angle of repose without
shoring.
iii. It has long reaches. D. All
42. Which statement is true about clamshell
i. . Mainly used for removing material from coffer dam, sewer main holes and Foundations.
ii. It is mainly used for deep confined cutting in pits and trenches.
iii. Used to excavate hard rocks D. All
43. An equipment used for opening up pilot roads through mountainous and rocky terrains
A. Excavator d. Grader
B. Tractor d. .Bulldozer

44. The scrapers are designed

A. to dig, D. To dump and spread and sometimes called as
B. to load, carry all.
C. to haul,
45. Which one from the following is true about equipment planning
A. Success of a project depends greatly on proper and scientific equipment planning.
B. The efficiency of the whole project largely depends upon planning.
C. While planning a project we must very carefully decide about the extent of use of construction equipment’s.
 D. All
46. When planning the selection of construction equipment for a project, which factor is not typically considered?
A. Cost C. . Availability of spare parts
B. . Color of the equipment D. Size of the equipment
47. What is a key consideration when selecting construction equipment to maximize efficiency and productivity on a
construction site?
A. Brand popularity C. Equipment capacity and capabilities
B. Equipment rental costs D. Operator experience
48. Which maintenance practice is essential to ensure the longevity and reliability of construction equipment?
A. Only performing maintenance when equipment breaks down
B. Regularly inspecting and lubricating moving parts
C. Storing equipment outdoors in harsh weather conditions
D. Overloading equipment beyond its capacity
49. What is a crucial aspect of ensuring the safe operation of construction equipment?
A. Regularly exceeding the equipment's weight capacity
B. Proper training and certification of operators
C. Ignoring warning lights and alarms
D. Using equipment without proper safety guards
50. What is the purpose of quantity surveying in the construction industry?
A. To create artistic designs for buildings
B. To calculate and estimate materials, labor, and other elements necessary for a project
C. To manage marketing campaigns for construction companies
D. To oversee legal matters related to construction projects
51. Which document outlines measurement standards specific to Ethiopian construction practices?
A. BaTCoDA Standard Technical Specification
B. AASHTO Standard Specification
C. AIA Standard Documents
D. ASTM International Standards
52. What is the purpose of the "time sing column" in a dimension sheet?
A. To record the quantities and descriptions of materials
B. To calculate the total cost of materials
C. To enter multipliers when there is more than one of a particular quantity and item to be measured
D. To specify the thickness of materials
53. What is the function of the "squaring column" in a dimension sheet?
A. To record dimensions in length, width, and depth
B. To calculate the total area of materials
C. To list the description of items to be priced
D. To prepare reinforcement quantities
54. When measuring long and thin work such as pipelines, what units are typically used?
A. square meters C. Linear units (running meters)
B. Cubic meters D. Kilograms
55. How waste calculations are typically represented in a dimension sheet?
a) In the time sing column c) In the squaring column
b) In the description column d) In the dimension column
56. Besides preparing bills of quantities or work packages, in what other stages of a construction project are taking-off skills utilized?
 A. Only in the preparation of estimates and cost plans
B. Only in the measurement of variations or change orders
C. Throughout the entire life cycle of the project
D. Only during the evaluation of design alternatives
57. What is the primary purpose of the bar schedule in quantity surveying?
A. To calculate labor costs
B. To estimate tender costs
C. To prepare reinforcement quantities
D. To evaluate design alternatives
58. How does quantity surveying contribute to effective project management?
A. By creating artistic designs for buildings
B. By minimizing disputes and enhancing collaboration
C. By overseeing legal matters related to construction projects
D. By managing marketing campaigns for construction companies
59. What is the primary purpose of cost estimation in building construction projects?
A. To design architectural plans
B. To calculate the total area of materials
C. To provide accurate predictions of project expenses
D. To manage marketing campaigns for construction companies
60. Which of the following is NOT a factor considered during cost estimation for building construction projects?
i. Materials cost iii. Project timeline
ii. Labor cost iv. Architectural design principles
61. What does the term "unit cost" refer to in cost estimation for building construction projects?
i. The total cost of the project
ii. The cost per unit area of a building
iii. The cost of each individual item or component
iv. The cost of labor per hour
62. Which principle of cost estimation emphasizes the importance of accurately quantifying materials and labor required for a
project?
i. Precision principle
ii. Transparency principle
iii. Accuracy principle
iv. Efficiency principle
63. How does the accuracy of cost estimation impact the success of building construction projects?
i. It has no impact on project success
ii. It minimizes disputes and enhances collaboration
iii. It increases the likelihood of project delays
iv. It leads to excessive spending and budget overruns
64. What is the purpose of contingency allowances in cost estimation for building construction projects?
i. To cover unexpected costs and uncertainties
ii. To pay for marketing expenses
iii. To fund project managers' bonuses
iv. To purchase additional materials for future projects
65. What role does historical data play in cost estimation for building construction projects?
i. It is irrelevant to the estimation process
 ii. It serves as a basis for estimating future project costs
iii. It only applies to small-scale projects
iv. It is used to calculate project timelines
66. How does the complexity of a building design impact cost estimation?
i. It has no impact on cost estimation
ii. It increases the accuracy of cost estimation
iii. It decreases the transparency of cost estimation
iv. It makes cost estimation more challenging and may lead to higher costs
67. Which principle of cost estimation emphasizes the importance of providing clear and understandable estimates to
stakeholders?
i. Precision principle iii. Accuracy principle
ii. Transparency principle iv. Efficiency principle
Answer the questions 19- 25 based on the following drawings:

68. Calculate the Volume of Pit excavation assuming a 20cm working space to each side of the excavation
a) 19.30m3 c) 1.21m3
b) 15.39m3 d) 29.43m3
69. Number of bars to the footing pads are ________
a) 12 c) 20
b) 14 d) 7
70. The quantity of dia 8 stirrup bars to the foundation columns and its equivalent quantity in 12m long (‘Berga’) , respectively
are__________________. (given 1m long dia 8 bar weighs 0.395kg)
a) 130.45kg, 20pcs c) 125.63kg, 11pcs
b) 119.45kg, 26pcs d) 130.45kg, 22pcs
71. The quantity of lean concrete under the footing pads using its standard unit of measurement is ____________
a) 1.21m2 c) 0.06m3
b) 0.36mm3 d) 7.26m2
72. The quantity of concrete for footing pads and foundation columns is ____________
 a) 2.47m3 c) 3.33m3
b) 2.03m3 d) 0.44m3
73. The quantity of formwork for the footing pads and foundation columns all together is ___
a) 8.88m2 c) 17.59m2
b) 15m2 d) 10m2
74. Based on the data provided below, what will be the unit rate for a 20cm thick HCB wall?
Material cost = 2,300 birr, Labor cost = 1,350.00birr
Equipment cost = 160.00birr output of crew per day = 10m2
Overhead cost = 15% Profit = 12%
a) 3,508birr/m2 c) 877.00birr/m2
b) 4,385birr/m2 d) 3,380.00birr/m2
75. What does the acronym “PPE” stand for?
i. Personal Protection Equipment
ii. Proper Precautionary Equipment
iii. Potential Protective Equipment
iv. Primary Prevention Equipment
76. What color is typically used for indicating caution or warning?
i. Red iii. Yellow
ii. Blue iv. Green
77. What should you do if you witness someone experiencing an electrical shock?
i. Pour water on them
ii. Touch them to provide first aid
iii. Call for medical help immediately
iv. Ignore the situation
78. What is the correct way to lift heavy objects?
i. Bend your back while lifting
ii. ) Use your leg muscles and keep your back straight
iii. Twist your body while lifting
iv. Lift with one hand only
79. Which of the following is an example of a personal protective equipment (PPE)?
i. Hard hat iii. Cell phone
ii. Coffee mug iv. Stapler
80. An ammeter is used to measure
i. Voltage iii. resistance
ii. Current iv. All of the above
81. Current is:
i. the presence of a positive charge
ii. the abundance of electrons
iii. the movement of electrons
iv. the repulsion of electrons
82. What do you call a diagram that shows the electrical connections of a circuit’scomponents?
i. A schematic diagram iii. A block diagram
ii. A pictorial diagram iv. An electrical diagram
83. A short circuit will have:
i. a small current flow iii. no current flow
ii. a large current flow iv. some current flow
84. Electric shock occurs when a person becomes part of the.
i. Circuits ii. Team
 iii. path iv. hazard
85. All exposed metal in the electrical circuit should be?
i. Earthed iii. Connected
ii. kept away iv. Painted
86. Before working on a circuit, you must ….. The power supply.
i. Switch on iii. Switch off
ii. hold iv. throw
87. Over load currents occur when.
i. Equipment’s is overloaded
ii. Installation has been badly designed
iii. Installation abused
iv. . all of the above
88. The difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker (CB)
i. Fuse can be used many times but CB only
ii. Fuse can be used only once, but CB can be used many times.
iii. Fuse and CB can use any number of times
iv. . AII of the above
89. One of the devices is not used for protection?
i. RCD iii. MCB
ii. Fuse iv. Socket
90. The SI unit of current is?
i. Ampere iii. Volts
ii. ohm iv. Farad
91. The circuit in which the current through each of the resistor or components is thesame
i. parallel circuit iii. Series circuit
ii. open circuit iv. closed circuit
92. Technical skill of electrician domestic solution includes.
i. critical thinking iii. Decision making
ii. . active listing iv. . installing
93. The resistance of a for valves inversely as
i. length iii. area of cross-section
ii. . temperature iv. resistivity
94. This symbol represents?
i. Flush mounted sub-distribution board
ii. Surface mounted sub-distribution board
iii. Surface mounted main-distribution boar
iv. Flush mounted main-distribution board
95. . A circuit which has a complete path/way for the flow of electric current
i. Insulator
ii. closed circuit
iii. open circuit
iv. B and C are correct answer
96. It is an electrical device that can break an electrical circuit, interrupting the current ordiverting it from one conductor to
another?
i. Circuit breaker iii. Overload
ii. Fuse iv. Switch
97. It is defined as the intensity of light per unit area
i. lumen iii. contrast
ii. luminous flux iv. . illumination
98. According to Ethiopia electric power corporation (EEPCO), the voltage drop shouldnot of exceed?
i. 2.5% for single phase and three phase
ii. 3% for single phase and three phase
iii. 4% for single phase and three phase
iv. . 5% for single phase and three phase
v. None of the above
99. In simple lighting circuit, the neutral conductors is always connected to..................?
i. both terminal of switch
ii. . earth /ground terminal
 iii. One terminal of lamp
iv. Phase terminal
100. It is a type of very low resistance conductor that provides over currentprotection through a metal strip that melts when too
much currentflows on it.
i. Switch iii. Overload relay
ii. Circuit breaker iv. Fuse
101. . ---------- Always connected in series with the component in which the electricalquantities to measured.
i. Voltmeter iii. Ammeter
ii. Ohmmeter iv. all of the above
102. What is the color of protective conductor for flexible cables and fixed wiring?
i. Blue and Yellow
ii. Brown and yellow
iii. Green and yellow
iv. red and yellow
103. ’Flexible wires/cords are not allowed to be used for:-
i. Pendants
ii. Run through doorways and windows
iii. Portable lamps
iv. Supplying current for electrical appliance
104. Which level of curriculum involves public stakeholders like politicians and administrators?
A. Instructional level
B. Experiential level
C. Societal level
D. Institutional level
105. What are the major philosophies influencing curriculum goals and organization?
A. Sociological Foundations
B. Psychological Foundations
C. Philosophical Foundations
D. Historical Foundations
106. What is the main focus of Curriculum Design?
A. Classroom management
B. Structuring educational content and experiences
C. Student assessment
D. Teacher training
107. Which of the following is NOT a type of Subject-Centered Curriculum Design?
A. Separate Subject Design
B. Correlated Design
C. Experience-Centered Design
D. Process Design
108. Which dimension of curriculum design refers to the breadth and depth of its content?
A. Scope C. Continuity
B. Sequence D. Integration
109. What does vertical articulation in curriculum design primarily refer to?
i. Sequencing content from one grade level to another
ii. Association among simultaneous elements
iii. Horizontal relationship of curriculum experiences
iv. Linking all types of knowledge and experiences
110. Which of the following a characteristic of curriculum models is as described in the text?
i. They account for the complexities of planned and enacted curricula
 ii. They focus solely on the finished product of learning
iii. They are not widely used in curriculum research processes
iv. They provide explicit guidelines for content selection
111. Which category of curriculum theorists is primarily focused on research for theory development?
a) Traditionalists
b) Conceptual empiricists
c) Re-conceptualists/Critical theorists
d) Postmodernists
112. . Which step is NOT part of the curriculum development cycle?
a) Needs assessment b) Curriculum implementation
c) Assessment development d) Student enrolment
113. What is the primary goal of curriculum evaluation?
a) Identifying strengths and weaknesses
b) Selecting learning experiences
c) Conducting staff development
d) Writing curriculum objectives
114. Which training method is characterized by passive listening with minimal audience involvement?
a. Presentation (or lecture)
b. Role plays
c. Case study
d. Brainstorming
115. What is the main advantage of using the reading method for training?
a. It encourages creativity.
b. It saves time.
c. It promotes communication.
d. It provides memorable experiences.
116. What are the characteristics of effective teaching?
a) Creativity and innovation
b) Clear communication and engagement
c) Adaptability and flexibility
d) All of the above
117. Which perspective on instructional decision making focuses on observable behaviors and reinforcement?
a) Developmental perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) Cognitive perspective
d) Affective perspective
118. How can a trainer establish a classroom environment that rewards appropriate behavior?
a) By implementing strict disciplinary actions
b) By ignoring both positive and negative behaviors
c) By providing positive reinforcement for desired behaviors
d) By excluding disruptive students from the class
119. What is the importance of classroom arrangement in managing the learning environment?
a) It has no impact on student behavior
b) It can enhance or hinder student engagement and participation
c) It is solely the responsibility of the students to arrange the classroom
 d) It does not affect the trainer's ability to observe student learning
120. Which of the following training methods would be most suitable for teaching practical skills in vocational education?
a) Hands-on training
b) Lecture-based instruction
c) Online modules
d) Role-playing activities
121. How does assessment contribute to the teaching and learning process?
a) Assessment hinders students' progress and motivation.
b) Assessment provides feedback for improvement and informs instruction.
c) Assessment is only beneficial for high-achieving students.
d) Assessment has no impact on student learning outcomes.
107. When designing an assessment task, what is a key consideration to ensure its effectiveness?
a) Making the task overly complex to challenge students
b) Aligning the task with learning objectives and outcomes
c) Including irrelevant questions to test students' knowledge
d) Using a standardized template for all assessment tasks
122. When evaluating the impact of a classroom management technique, what is an important factor to consider?
a) Trainer's personal preferences
b) Trainees' feedback and reactions
c) Length of the training session
d) Popularity of the technique among other trainer
Self-checking Exercises
Try and attempt the following self-checking exercises and evaluate your extent of understanding and level of performance of the
concepts and questions properly. This is because it can help you to know your current status of understanding the concepts in
educational psychology.
123. Which scope of educational psychology is considered as the center of any educational practice?
A. Teacher C. Learner
B. Evaluation of performance D. Learning situation
124. Which one of the following comprises all in human development?
A. Learning C. Maturation
B. Development D. Growth
125. Which aspect of human development focuses on developing the interaction of people with each other in the process of
teaching and learning?
A. Cognitive aspect C. Physical aspect
B. Social aspect D. Emotional aspect
126. Which of the following is the importance of educational psychology in TVET?
A. It aims at changing the knowledge, skills and attitude (behavior) of trainees.
B. It is useful to understand the factors affecting the training process.
C. It helps the TVET trainer to know the learner, interest and attitudes.
D. All of the above
127. Which theory of learning states that people construct their own understanding and knowledge of the world, through
experiencing things and by reflecting on those experiences?
A. Cognitive learning theory C. Behavioral learning theory
B. Observational learning theory D. Constructive learning theory
128. Which type of intelligence reflects an ability to recognize and understand other people’s moods, desires, motivations, and
intentions?
A. Interpersonal intelligence C. Spatial intelligence
B. Intrapersonal intelligence D. Linguistic intelligence
129. Which one of the following is an internal state or energy of a person to accomplish certain goals?
A. Development C. Motivation
B. Learning D. Individual difference
130. Which one of the following is not an example of growth?
A. The height of Girum is 1.80cm. C. Etabez organ is matured for sex.
B. Selam Weighs 67 kg. D. None of the above
131. Which one of the following is incorrect about characteristics of learning?
A. It is a continuous process C. It is a passive process
B. It is growth D. It is adjustment
132. Which theory of motivation states that human needs are represented using hierarchies or levels?
A. Goal-setting theory C. Attribution theory
B. Humanistic theory D. Incentive theory
133. Practicing an instrument because you take pleasure in it is known as:
A. Relatedness C. Competence
B. Autonomy D. All of the above
134. Which of the following is false about educational psychology?
A. It assesses the learners' aptitudes and progress.
B. It focuses on understanding the processes of teaching and learning.
C. It helps in developing instructional methods and materials.
D. It is a theoretical branch of fundamental Psychology.
135. Which one of the following is used to determine the extent it which students are achieving instructional objectives?
A. Assessment C. Test
B. Evaluation D. Measurement
136. Which type of evaluation is used to fix students in a group?
A. Summative evaluation C. Placement evaluation
B. Formative evaluation D. Diagnostic evaluation
137. Which one of the following is the purpose of assessment and evaluation of student learning?
A. Guidance and counseling C. Administrative
B. Instructional D. All of the above E. None
138. Which of the following is NOT the importance of stating instructional objectives?
A. Help in selecting or constructing assessment techniques.
B. Help a teacher guide and monitor students learning.
C. Help in selecting inappropriate instructional methods, materials, etc.
D. Provide criteria for evaluating students’ outcomes.
139. Which one of the following is known as knowledge based domain of instructional objective?
A. Psychomotor domain C. Cognitive domain
B. Affective domain D. All of the above
140. Which one of the following is different from the others?
A. Completion item C. Matching item
B. Multiple choice item D. True/False item
141. Which one of the following is NOT included under the category of observation and observation devices?
 A. Running records C. Rubric
B. Rating scales D. Checklist
142. Which one of the following is NOT the pit-fall of teacher-made tests?
A. Unrepresentative of the topics C. Lack of clarity and wordiness
B. Measure what it is supposed to measure D. Fail to do item analysis
143. Which objective scoring method is used for a large number of testers?
A. Stencil Scoring C. Manual Scoring B. Machine Scoring D. All of the above
144. Which one of the following is a construction material
i. Lime B. Sand C. stone D. All
145. . Classification of construction material based on their physical nature
i. Semi-solids B. Clay C. Steel D. Concrete
146. . The chemical properties of material
i. Corrosion B. Thickness C. Texture D. Strength
147. One of the following is a parameter of plastic range?
a. Proportional limit c. . Yield point
b. Ductility d. Modulus of Elasticity
148. When deformation in the elastic range is relatively small A material has a higher -------value?
i. Poisson's Ratio B. Resilience C. Ultimate Strength D. Stiffness
149. True about Di-calcium Silicate
i. It hardens rapidly
ii. Hardens slowly
iii. It also contributes to early strength development
iv. Contributes very little to strength
150. Which type of cement is used when high sulfate resistance is desired?
i. Ordinary Portland cement
ii. Resisting Portland cement
iii. Moderate Portland cement
iv. Air-entraining cements
151. Which one of the following is the chemical property of Portland cement?
i. Fineness of cement B. Lime saturated factor C. Specific gravity D. Soundness of
152. is lump-shaped product which is completely burnt or calcined raw materialsof cement
i. Gypsum B. Clinker C. Portland cement D. Quarrying
153. Which one of the following mortar is CORRECT classification based on the Nature ofApplication?
i. Lime mortar B. Mud mortar C. Finishing mortar D. Heavy Mortar
154. Which one of the following factor is not affect the strength of mortar?
i. Poor proportion of ingredients B. quality ingredients C. uncontrolled curing D. All
155. Type of mortar has better strength.
i. Lime mortar B. Cement mortar C. Gypsum mortar D. Mud mortar
156. type of mortar test is used to know the adhesiveness of masonry unites
i. Workability test B. crushing strength test C. adhesiveness test D. All
157. Physical durability will against the following actions
i. Alkali Aggregate Reaction iii. Freezing and thawing action
ii. Sulphate Attack iv. Chloride Ingress
158. Which one of the following factor will affect the durability of concrete?
i. Cement content B. Permeability C. Curing D. All
159. Select the in correct consideration during concrete mix design
i. Strength and durability iii. Maximize w/c ratio
ii. Appearance iv. Economy
160. Shrinkage manifests itself soon after the concrete is placed in theforms while the concrete is still in the plastic state.
i. Dry shrinkage B. Plastic shrinkage C. Autogenesis Shrinkage D. All
161. True about retarder admixture
i. During any emergency repair work
 ii. In case of large concrete pours
iii. In case of early removal of formwork
iv. Where very rapid placing is desired.
162. Which factors affect the bulk density of aggregate?
i. Porous surface B. Compaction C. Organic matter D. All
163. . Which kind of the following particle is reduce the concrete strength and increase theworkability
i. Irregular and rough surface C. High Specific gravity
ii. Smooth and round shape D. Flaky and rough surface
164. Aggregate in which the pores connected to the surface are filled with waterbut with no free water on the surface.
i. Damp or wet B. Saturated surface-dry C. Air-dry D. Oven-dry
165. Which one of the following is true about fresh concrete?
i. Be uniform throughout a given batch and between batches.
ii. Be of a consistency so that it can fill completely the forms for which it was designed.
iii. Have the ability to be compacted with excessive loss of energy
iv. Not segregate during placing and consolidation.
166. Which one of the following factors can affect the workability of concrete?
i. Water to cement ratio B. Weather conditions C. Chemical Admixtures D. All
167. is the capability of being handled and flows into formwork oraround any reinforcement
i. setting time B. Workability C. Shrinkage D. Air entrainment
168. Reason for bleeding of concrete
i. Due to highly wet mix B. Badly proportioned C. insufficiently mixed concrete [Link]
169. . Which one of the following ingredient of brick is used for plasticity characteristic ofearth and which is important in
molding operation.
i. Iron oxide iii. Silica
ii. Alumina iv. Lime
170. Which one of the following brick type can offer excellent load bearing capacity, damp-proof characteristics and chemical
resisting properties.
i. Engineering Brick B. concrete Brick C. Fly ash Brick D. fourth classbrick
171. Which order is correct in the manufacturing process of Brick
i. Preparation of clay Drying Molding Burning
ii. Molding Drying Burning Preparation of clay
iii. Preparation of clay Molding Drying Burning
iv. None
172. Good brick should has
i. They should possess fine, dense and uniform texture
ii. When the brick struck with hammer or with another brick, it should not producemetallic sound.
iii. Crushing strength of brick should not be less than 3.5 N/mm2
iv. B and C
173. Which one of the following is ferrous material
i. Steel B. Aluminum C. Copper D. Lead
174. Which combination is ring effective stainless steel
i. 18 percent carbons, 8 percent nickel and 0.07 to 0.16 percent chromium
ii. 18 percent chromium, 8 percent nickel and 0.07 to 0.16 percent carbons
iii. 18 percent nickel, 8 percent chromium
iv. None
175. Application of Aluminum
i. Packaging B. Building and Architecture C. Foils D. All
176. Which one is correct about steel
i. Plain carbon steels are relatively stiff having generally high modulus of elasticity.
ii. Carbon content and ultimate tensile strength have a linear relationship.
iii. Dead mild steel subject to tension test will elongate shortly before rupture
iv. ultimate strength, yield point, modulus of elasticity and hardness of steel decreasewith increase in
temperature
177. The beam which has one___ __end and other____ end is known as propped cantileverbeam
a. fixed, fixed c. hinged, free
b. fixed, hinged d. .none of these
178. at hinge in beam
a. Bending moment is maximum b. Bending moment is Zero
 c. .Shear is Zero d. None of these
179. Which of the following is true about shear and bending moment?
a. slope of Shear Diagram = Moment
b. slope of Moment Diagram = Intensity of Distributed Load
c. Change in Moment = Area under Shear Diagram
d. change in Moment = Area under Distributed Loading Diagram
180. What are the reactions at point A and B for the given beam shown below?
i. .60, 50 iii. 65, 55
ii. 45, 40 iv. 65, 35
181. 5. Degree of static indeterminacy for truss having 15 members, 4 reaction componentsand 9 joints is
i. .3 iii. 2
ii. 4 iv. 1
182. Which of the following structure is stable structure?
i. b. ii. d.
183. Which of the following methods used for analysis of indeterminate structure?
i. Consistent deformation method iii. Conjugate-Beam Method
ii. Moment-Area Method iv. Method of Virtual Work
184. What are the deflection and a rotation at the free end of cantilever beam length L to aconcentrated load P at the free end
respectively?
i. PL2/2EI, PL3/3EI iii. . PL2/3EI, PL3/2EI
ii. PL/2EI, PL2/3EI iv. PL2/4EI, PL3/2EI
185. Shear at any section in conjugate beam gives _____ in the actual beams
a. Deflection c. .bending moment
b. Slope d. curvature
186. . [Link] unknown internal forces in each member of rigid jointed plane frame is
a. 6 c. 2
b. 3 d. 1
187. A body said to be in equilibrium if
i. it moves horizontally iii. it rotates its center of gravity
ii. it moves vertically iv. none
188. . For drawing Influence line diagram, what value of test load is assumed?
i. 1 unit iii. Depends upon structure
ii. Arbitrary iv. 0
189. . What will be the shape of ILD curve for vertical reaction at point A (RAY) for simplysupported beam?
i. Triangular iii. Rectangular
ii. Circular iv. Trapezoidal
190. AC= 1m, CB =3 mC is just an arbitrary point. A is pin support and B is a roller type support.
What will be the equation of ILD of shear force at point C for CB part?
1. 0.75 – 0.375X 3. 0.85 – 0.375X
2. 0.75 – 0.475X 4. 0.75 – 0.1375X
191. .A single rolling load of 40kn loads left and along as imply supportedGirder of span 20m. The absolute maximum positive
and negative shear forcerespectively are
a. 26,-14 c. 20.-20
b. 40,-40 d. 14,-26
192. .Force method of analysis also called as
a. Slope deflection method
b. Moment distribution method
c. Kane’s method
d. . Consistent deformation method
193. How many compatibility equations should be written if we have n no. of redundantreactions?
i. n – 1 iii. n + 1
ii. n iv. n + 2
194. In the figure below, A is fixed and joint B is pinned. C lies in between A and B and aload P are applied there which of the
following force cant’ be chosen to be redundant.
A. vertical support at point A
B. P
C. vertical support at B
D. moment at A
195. . What is the compatibility equation for the above beam mentioned in question 18?
i. Δ/ bb – Δb = 0 iii. Δ/ bb – Δb> 0
ii. Δ/ bb + Δb = 0 iv. Δ/ bb – Δb< 0
196. According to maxwell’s theorem:-
1. fab = faa 3. fba = fab
2. fbb = faa 4. fba = fbb
197. One of the following is a limitation of using plain concrete as a structural material?
i. Ease of casting
ii. High tensile strength
iii. Low compressive strength
iv. Resistance to water
198. What is the main advantage of reinforced concrete over plain concrete?
i. Lower compressive strength
ii. Higher tensile strength
iii. Easier casting process
iv. Better durability
199. What is the concept of reinforcing concrete with steel bars embedded in it known as?
i. Steel Concrete
ii. Reinforced Concrete
iii. Steel-Reinforced Cement
iv. Composite Concrete
200. What is the new composite material created by embedding steel bars in concrete capable ofresisting?
i. Tensile stresses
ii. Flexural stresses
iii. Compressive stresses
iv. Shear stresses
201. Which material has a tensile strength approximately one-tenth of its compressive strength?
i. Wood iii. Steel
ii. Aluminum iv. Concrete
202. What is the main strength of concrete lies in?
i. Tensile-bearing ability
ii. Flexural strength
iii. Shear strength
iv. Compressive strength
203. Which of the following is a potential warning sign of impending collapse in a reinforcedconcrete structure?
i. Increase in compressive strength
ii. Decrease in tensile strength
iii. Large deflections caused by yielding of steel
iv. Uniform cracking throughout the structure
204. What may lead to the selection of a material other than reinforced concrete for a structure?
i. Low fire resistance
ii. High tensile strength
iii. Relatively low strength per unit of weight
iv. Availability of materials
205. . What is the primary reason for providing reinforcing steel in concrete beams?
i. To reduce the weight of the beam
ii. To enhance aesthetic appeal
iii. To increase flexibility
iv. To prevent cracking and failure in tension
206. . What is the concept of 'ductile mode of failure' in reinforced concrete structures?
i. Failure with ample warning of impending collapse
ii. Failure without any warning signs
iii. Failure caused by compressive stresses
iv. Failure due to excessive deflections
207. Which of the following is an advantage of using reinforced concrete for a structure?
i. Low maintenance
ii. Limited availability of materials
iii. High tensile strength
 iv. High strength per unit of weight
208. What is the purpose of national building codes?
i. To ensure structural safety
ii. To increase construction costs
iii. To complicate the design process
iv. To limit creativity in design
209. What is the main function of national building codes?
A. To ensure structural safety
B. To complicate the design process
C. To increase construction costs
D. . To limit creativity in design
210. Which design philosophy is considered modern and has replaced the working stressmethod?
i. Ultimate load method
ii. Probabilistic concepts
iii. Limit states method
iv. Reliability-based method
211. At what strain level is the maximum stress typically reached in a concrete stress-straincurve?
A. 0.004 C. 0.002
B. 0.003 D. .001
212. What is the relationship between concrete grade and the stress-strain curve?
i. The curve shifts to the left with higher concrete grades
ii. The curve becomes flatter with higher concrete grades
iii. The curve shifts to the right with higher concrete grades
iv. The curve becomes steeper with higher concrete grades
213. When does the triangular stress distribution apply in reinforced concrete bending?
i. At the plastic limit state.
ii. At the ultimate limit state.
iii. At the serviceability limit state.
iv. At the elastic limit state.
214. What is the equivalent rectangular stress block in reinforced concrete bending?
i. A type of stress block used in steel beams.
ii. A simplified alternative to the rectangular parabolic distribution.
iii. A complex distribution of stresses.
iv. A theoretical concept with no practical application.
215. What is the internal resisting moment in a beam necessary for?
i. To increase the applied loads.
ii. To reduce the beam's length.
iii. To equilibrate the bending moment.
iv. To decrease the shear forces.
216. What is the relationship between the internal compressive force and the internal tensile forcein a beam?
i. They are equal. iii. They are opposite.
ii. They are proportional. iv. They are unrelated
217. What is the assumption made about the distribution of strains across a section in bending forreinforced concrete?
i. The strains are negligible in reinforced concrete.
ii. There must be a linear distribution of strains.
iii. The strains are concentrated at the Centre of the section.
iv. The strains are evenly distributed throughout the section.
218. What is the primary difference between analysis and design in the study of reinforcedconcrete?
i. Analysis involves computing resistance or strength, while design involves selecting suitable cross
sections.
ii. Analysis focuses on selecting cross sections, while design involves computing internal forces.
iii. Analysis and design are essentially the same in reinforced concrete studies.
iv. Analysis involves selecting cross sections, while design involves computing resistance or strength.
219. What is the internal resisting shear in a beam required for?
i. To balance the external shear forces.
ii. To eliminate the tensile force.
iii. To increase the bending moment.
iv. To decrease the internal compressive force.
220. What does the rectangular-parabolic stress block represent in reinforced concrete bending?
i. The distribution at failure when compressive strains are within the plastic range.
ii. The distribution at the elastic limit state.
iii. The distribution at the serviceability limits state.
iv. The distribution at the ultimate limit state.
221. What is the primary focus of analysis in reinforced concrete studies?
i. Computing resistance or strength.
ii. Selecting suitable cross sections.
iii. Determining the beam's length.
iv. Calculating the applied loads.
222. .Which type of failure occurs when the steel content in a section is small?
i. Tension Failure iii. Compression Failure
ii. Balanced Failure iv. Shear Failure
223. What are the two requirements that must be satisfied throughout the flexural analysis anddesign of reinforced concrete
beams and columns?
i. Equilibrium, Material properties
ii. Load distribution, Material strength
iii. Stress and strain compatibility, Material strength
iv. Stress and strain compatibility, Equilibrium
224. What are the three types of flexural failures in reinforced concrete sections?
i. Tension, Shear, Compression, Balanced
ii. Torsion, Shear, Compression
iii. Tension, Compression, Balanced
iv. Bending, Twisting, Buckling
225. What is the most preferable type of failure for design in reinforced concrete beams underflexure?
i. Balanced Failure iii. Shear Failure
ii. Compression Failure iv. Tension Failure
226. Which diagram is used to define the stress block in the analysis of singly reinforced beamsections?
i. Parabola-rectangle diagram iii. Circle diagram
ii. Square diagram iv. Triangle diagram
227. . Which type of reinforced beam section is the most economical in terms of material usage?
A. Under-reinforced section C. Over-reinforced section
B. Balanced section D. None of the above
228. At balanced failure, what happens to the steel and concrete simultaneously?
A. Steel reaches fyd, concrete reaches εcu
B. Steel reaches εcu, concrete reaches fyd
C. Steel reaches maximum strain, concrete reaches fyd
D. Steel reaches fyd, concrete reaches maximum strain
229. What is the first step in the general procedure of analysis of singly reinforced concrete beams for flexural resistance?
A. Draw the strain profile
B. Assume the type of failure
C. Apply the condition of equilibrium
D. Calculate the moment capacity
230. What happens when the steel content in a section is large, leading to a sudden brittle failure?
A. Compression Failure C. Balanced Failure
B. Tension Failure D. Shear Failure
231. . What type of stress-strain curve characterizes mild steel reinforcing bars?
A. Decreasing stress with increasing strain
B. Exponential increase in stress with strain
C. Linear elastic portion followed by an yield plateau
D. Constant stress throughout the strain
232. What is the primary purpose of the cylinder splitting test for tensile strength of concrete?
A. To measure the flexural strength of concrete
B. To determine the tensile strength of concrete
C. To assess the shear strength of concrete
D. To evaluate the compressive strength of concrete
233. What is the approximate range of failure strain in uniaxial tension for concrete?
A. 0.0005 to 0.001 B. 0.002 to 0.003
 C. 0.0001 to 0.0002 D. 0.001 to 0.002
234. . What is the modulus of elasticity considered for reinforcing steel in design?
A. 5 × 10^4 MPa C. 2 × 10^5 MPa
B. 3 × 10^3 MPa D. 1 × 10^6 MPa
235. What is the primary reason for providing compression reinforcement in beams?
A. Increased ductility
B. Change of mode of failure
C. Reduced deflections
D. Fabrication ease
236. If the assumption about the strain in the negative reinforcement is incorrect in the analysis of doubly reinforced concrete
beams, what step should be taken?
A. Ignore the error C. Calculate the moment capacity
B. Proceed to the next step D. Revise the assumption
237. . What is the purpose of applying the condition of equilibrium in the analysis of doubly reinforced concrete beams?
A. To check the strain in compression reinforcement
B. To estimate the neutral axis depth
C. To determine the type of failure
D. To calculate the moment capacity
238. When enough compression steel is added to a beam, what mode of failure is changed to tension?
A. Tension C. Shear
B. Bending D. Compression
239. In the general procedure for the analysis of doubly reinforced concrete beams, what is the first step?
A. Assume the type of failure
B. Check the strain in compression reinforcement
C. Estimate the neutral axis depth
D. Calculate the moment capacity
240. . What effect does compression reinforcement have on the depth of the compression stress block?
A. Reverses it C. Decreases it
B. Does not affect it D. Increases it
241. . What is a common reason for providing small bars in the corner of stirrups in the fabrication of beams?
A. To weaken the beam C. To reduce ductility
B. To hold stirrups in place D. To increase deflections
242. . In a T-beam, where is the compression zone located at midspan?
A. Web C. Flange
B. Top of the beam D. Bottom of the beam
243. What is the purpose of using an effective compression flange width in the analysis of a flanged beam?
A. To simplify calculations C. To reduce material usage
B. To ensure uniform stress distribution D. To increase beam strength
244. . When analyzing a flanged beam for negative moment, what part of the beam becomes the compression zone?
A. Middle section C. Top flange
B. Bottom flange D. Web
245. . What approach should be followed when the neutral axis remains in the flange of a flanged beam subjected to positive
moment?
A. Treat the section as a circular section
B. Treat the section as a triangular section
C. Treat the section as a rectangular section
D. Treat the section as a hexagonal section
246. What is the impact of steel yield strain on the analysis process of a flanged beam?
A. It increases the moment resistance of the beam
B. It affects the strain in the tension reinforcement
C. It decreases the moment resistance of the beam
D. It has no effect on the analysis process
247. What is the role of tension reinforcement in the analysis of a flanged beam?
A. To resist the tensile forces in the beam
B. To provide additional strength to the beam
C. To protect the reinforcement against corrosion
D. To increase the weight of the beam
248. Why is it necessary to have concrete cover in beam design?
 A. To increase the aesthetic appeal of the beam
B. To protect the reinforcement from strength loss due to overheating
C. To reduce the weight of the beam
D. To decrease the bond between concrete and reinforcement
249. What is the minimum cover for bond according to EN 1992-1-1 (EBCS-2015) and EN 1992-1-2 (EBCS-2015)?
A. Equal to the bar diameter
B. Dependent on the aggregate size
C. 10 mm unless fabrication is under a quality assurance system
D. 5 mm for all cases
250. What is the general procedure for the analysis of a flanged beam subjected to positive moment according to EN 1992-1-1
(EBCS-2015)-2004?
A. Assume the neutral axis to be in the web
B. Assume the strain in the compression reinforcement to be greater than the yield strain
C. Assume the neutral axis to be in the flange
D. Assume the strain in the tension reinforcement to be greater than the yield strain
251. What is the concept of the neutral axis in the context of beam analysis?
A. The axis where the beam is most likely to fail
B. The axis where the strain in the tension reinforcement is maximum
C. The axis where the strain in the compression reinforcement is zero
D. The axis where the bending stress is maximum
252. What is the purpose of providing concrete cover in beam design?
A. To protect the reinforcement against corrosion
B. To increase the weight of the beam
C. To reduce the strength of the beam
D. To decrease the bond between concrete and reinforcement
253. What is the nominal cover according to EN 1992-1-1 (EBCS-2015) and EN 1992-1-2 (EBCS-2015)?
A. The minimum cover plus an allowance for deviation
B. The minimum cover required for beams
C. The maximum cover allowed for beams
D. The average cover used in beam design
254. . When is compression reinforcement required in beam design?
A. When the section is designed as a double reinforced section
B. When the service life is extended to 100 years
C. When the concrete strength is lower than necessary
D. When the tension steel fails to yield
255. What is the minimum recommended clear distance between individual parallel bars or horizontal layers of parallel bars?
A. 2dg C. 3dg
B. 5dg D. 4dg
256. . What are the limits to the neutral axis depth at the ultimate limit state based on?
A. The concrete strength class
B. The amount of redistribution carried out in the analysis
C. The service life of the structure
D. The type of reinforcement used
257. . What is the recommended value for the cross-sectional area of tension or compression reinforcement in beams?
A. 0.08Ac C. 0.04Ac
B. 0.06Ac D. 0.02Ac
258. . What should the area of longitudinal tension reinforcement not be taken as less than?
A. 0.06Ac C. As,max
B. As,min D. 0.04Ac
259. . What is the first step in the general procedure for the design of singly reinforced beams according to EN 1992-1-1 (EBCS-
2015)?
A. Check the minimum and maximum area of reinforcement
B. Take a strain distribution that results in ductile failure
C. Calculate the depth of the neutral axis
D. Determine the service life of the structure
260. What is the main difference between one-way and two-way slabs in terms of design and analysis?
A. The number of supports
B. The shape of the slab
 C. The load transfer mechanism
D. The material used
261. How is the bar bending schedule calculated for one-way slabs?
A. By considering the total depth of the slab
B. By using a fixed formula
C. By calculating the weight of distribution bars only
D. By ignoring the development length
262. How is a two-way slab supported?
A. On two out of four opposite sides C. On all four sides
B. On three sides D. On only one side
263. What is the load transfer mechanism for one-way slabs?
A. Radial to their plain C. Diagonal to their plain
B. Transverse to their plain D. Longitudinal to their plain
264. What is the minimum dimension and cover requirement for fire resistance in one-way slabs?
A. 3h ≤ 400 mm C. 4h ≤ 500 mm
B. 2h ≤ 250 mm D. 3,5h ≤ 450 mm
265. What is the width of the slab considered in the analysis of one-way slab systems?
A. 2m C. 3m
B. 0.5m D. 1m
266. What is the recommended spacing of bars in areas near supports in one-way slabs?
A. 4h ≤ 500 mm C. 3h ≤ 400 mm
B. 3,5h ≤ 450 mm D. 2h ≤ 250
267. What is the minimum area of reinforcement required in one-way slabs?
A. 10% of the principal reinforcement C. 25% of the principal reinforcement
B. 15% of the principal reinforcement D. 20% of the principal reinforcement
268. What is the role of transverse reinforcement in one-way slabs?
A. To improve the aesthetics of the slab C. To reduce the weight of the slab
B. To provide additional support D. To increase the span of the sl
269. What are the cover requirements for one-way slabs?
A. Not required C. Only for bond
B. Only for durability D. For bond, durability, and fire resistance
270. How is the cutting length of each stirrup calculated?
A. By counting the number of bends C. Using the perimeter formula
B. By measuring the beam span D. Based on the concrete strength
271. . Which factor affects the development length in beam and slab structures?
A. Paint type C. Weather conditions
B. Reinforcement diameter D. Concrete color
272. What is the minimum development length for bars with a diameter less than or equal to 16 mm according to ACI 318-14?
A. 12d C. 15d
B. 20d D. 10d
273. What is the importance of providing adequate development lengths in composite structures?
A. To enhance structural robustness
B. To increase construction time
C. To improve aesthetics
D. To reduce material costs
274. What does the bar bending schedule provide a detailed breakdown of for beams?
A. Cutting lengths of bars and stirrups C. Concrete mix ratio
B. Beam dimensions D. Paint colors
275. Which factor directly affects the development length required in BS EN 1994?
A. Beam dimensions C. Concrete strength
B. Weather conditions D. Reinforcement color
276. What is the clear span of a beam if the spacing of stirrups is 150mm and 21 stirrups are required?
A. 3150mm C. 3300mm
B. 3600mm D. 3450mm
277. What is the process of making cuts in reinforcing bars to ensure proper fit and length?
A. Welding C. Casting
B. Bending D. Bar Cutting
278. . What is the weight of stirrups with a diameter of 8mm if the total length of stirrups is 37.632d?
 A. 20.5d C. 25.75d
B. 14.86d D. 10.25d
279. What is the minimum lap length for bars with a diameter of 16 mm according to ACI 318-14?
A. 5d C. 3d
B. 2d D. 4d
280. . What is the role of transverse reinforcement in development length requirements?
A. Decreasing lap length
B. Affecting cover thickness
C. Reducing concrete strength
D. Increasing bond strength
281. . What factor influences the development length in concrete structures related to cover thickness?
A. Transverse reinforcement
B. Distance between reinforcement and concrete surface
C. Reinforcement size
D. Concrete strength
282. . How is the lap length for beams calculated in Eurocode 1994?
A. Ignoring loading conditions
B. Considering reinforcement type and size
C. Based on concrete strength only
D. Using empirical formulas
283. Which factor determines the maximum area of a beam in Eurocode 4?
A. Reinforcement congestion
B. Structural requirements
C. Material properties
D. Concrete strength
284. . What does lap length refer to in concrete structures?
A. The length of overlap between two adjacent lengths of reinforcement
B. The distance between two beams
C. The width of the beam
D. The thickness of the concrete cover
285. . What does the maximum area of a beam depend on in Eurocode 4?
A. Concrete strength
B. Structural requirements
C. Material availability
D. Reinforcement size
286. What does the minimum area of a beam in Eurocode 4 depend on?
A. Concrete placement methods
B. Reinforcement size
C. Material availability
D. Structural design requirement
287. What is reinforcement spacing and why is it important in preventing premature failure?
A. The spacing between concrete aggregates for proper compaction
B. The ratio of effective cross-sectional area of reinforcement to gross cross-sectional area
C. The thickness of the concrete beams and slabs
D. The distance between adjacent bars to ensure load transfer and prevent stress concentrations
288. . What does the term 'minimum area' refer to in the context of reinforcing bars and beams?
A. The smallest cross-sectional area that can be used for reinforcing bars
B. The largest cross-sectional area that can be used for reinforcing bars
C. The area that causes excessive congestion
D. The area with the highest concrete flow during placement
289. According to Building Code Requirements for Structural Concrete, what do guidelines provide regarding reinforcement
spacing?
A. Specific requirements for horizontal and vertical reinforcement in walls
B. Allowable spacing based on concrete strength, loading conditions, and bar size
C. Minimum reinforcement spacing determined by the maximum size of aggregates
D. Maximum reinforcement spacing based on the depths of beams and slabs
290. . How do engineers calculate the minimum area of a beam according to EN?
A. Based on the expected loads, material strengths, and deflection limits
 B. Considering the span length and type of loading
C. Using specific design constraints or limitations
D. By analyzing the concrete placement methods
291. What is the maximum area of a beam often limited by?
A. Concrete placement methods and handling during fabrication
B. Practical considerations such as construction constraints and economic factors
C. Structural design requirements and material properties
D. Safety considerations and deflection limits
292. What practical considerations limit the maximum area of a beam?
A. Concrete placement methods and handling during installation
B. Safety considerations and structural requirements
C. Material availability and fabrication considerations
D. Construction constraints, transportation limitations, and economic factors
293. . Why is it important to ensure that the dimensions of a beam do not exceed what is feasible or cost-effective for
construction?
A. To meet specific design constraints and limitations
B. To avoid issues related to constructability, transportation, and handling
C. To maximize the area of the beam for structural strength
D. To minimize the reinforcement spacing for better load transfer
294. What factors determine the minimum reinforcement spacing in concrete beams and slabs?
A. Maximum size of aggregates and proper concrete placement
B. Depth of beams and slabs for bending moment and shear force
C. Bar size and shape factor
D. Loading conditions and concrete strength
295. What is one of the key objectives of site investigation?
A. Assessing the environmental conditions
B. Assessing the geotechnical properties of the soil and rock
C. Conducting laboratory testing
D. Evaluating structural designs
296. Which of the following techniques is used to collect geotechnical data during site investigation?
A. Drilling boreholes
B. Conducting surveys
A. C .Analyzing satellite images
C. Interviewing local residents
297. . Which method is commonly used in site exploration to measure variations in the Earth's subsurface properties?
A. Archaeological excavation
B. Aerial photography
C. Botanical surveys
D. Geophysical surveying
298. What is the purpose of preliminary site investigation in construction projects?
A. To gather and analyze information about the site to assess its suitability
B. To design the architectural plans for the project
C. To select the construction materials for the project
D. To market the construction project to potential buyers
299. What is the main purpose of a reconnaissance survey in site investigation?
A. To determine the cost of potential construction projects
B. To assess the quality of construction materials on site
C. To conduct a detailed study of the site's infrastructure
D. To gather preliminary information about a specific location
300. The pressure intensity beneath the footing depends upon ___________
A) Rigidity of the footing
B) Soil type
C) Condition of soil
D) All of the mentioned
301. In cohesive soil, the pressure distribution beneath the footing may be considered to be___________
A) Linear
B) Non linear
C) Zero
 D) None of the mentioned
302. When do strap footings are used in foundation?
A) To transfer load of an isolated column
B) Distance between the columns are long
C) Two column loads are unequal
D) All of the mentioned
303. . When two column loads are unequal, which of the possible footing can be provided?
A) Strap footing
B) Raft footing
C) Trapezoidal combined footing
D) Mat foundation
304. The total settlement of a footing in clay is considered to be consisting of ___________components.
a. One c. Two
b. Three d. Four
305. The value of Es used in the immediate settlement equation, can be found out using_____________
A) Triaxial test C) Direct shear test
B) Compression test D) Rankine’s theory
306. The influence factor for rigid square footing is ____________
A) 0.88 C) 1.06
B) 0.82 D) 1.70
307. .The foundation that is used when the soil mass is sufficiently erratic?
A) Strap footing
B) Combined footing
C) Mat footing
D) Rectangular combined footing
308. Which of the following is a characteristic of general shear failure?
A) Failure is accompanied by compressibility of soil
B) Failure is sudden
C) Bulging of shearing mass of soil
D) All of the mentioned
309. Which of the following pose a limitation to plate load test?
A) Effect of size of foundation and Test on cohesive soil
B) Load increment
C) None of the mentioned
D) All of the mentioned
310. The observed value of N in static cone penetration test is corrected by _________
A) Overburden and Dilatancy /submergence
B) Effective pressure
C) None of the mentioned
D) All of the mentioned
311. The cone test is useful in determining the bearing capacity of ___________
A) Cohesion less soil and Fine sand
B) Clay soil
C) None of the mentioned
D) All of the mentioned
312. . When the water table is above the base of the footing, the submerged weight ‘γ’ can be used to compute __________
A) Effective pressure and Surcharge C) None of the mentioned
B) Pore pressure D) All of the mentioned
313. . The analytical methods used for finding bearing capacity of footing is based on ___________
A) Shear failure C) Overburden pressure
B) Effective pressure D) Size of the footing
314. Hand auger can be used for depths up to ________
A) 7 m C) 2 m
B) 6 m D) 10 m
315. Wash boring cannot be used for _________ type of soil strata.
A) Cohesive soil C) Boulder
B) Cohesion less soil D) All of the mentioned