02-02-2025

2021CMD3030124001 MD

PHYSICS

1) The correct statement from the following is :-

(1) A body having zero velocity will not necessarily have zero acceleration.
(2) A body having zero velocity will necessarily have zero acceleration.
(3) A body having uniform speed can have uniform acceleration.
(4) A body having non-uniform velocity will have zero acceleration.

2) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 speed, then
average speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A point transversed 3/4th of the circle of radius R in time t. The magnitude of the average velocity
of the particle in this time internal is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The position vector of a particle in SI units is given by , the acceleration of the

particle is :

(1) 14 ms–2
(2) 10 ms–2
(3) 3 ms–2
(4) 2 ms–2

5) Two forces each of the magnitude 25 N are applied on a point as shown. Their resultant force is :-
(1)
(2) 25N
(3) 50N
(4) 12.5N

6) Find out the reading of spring balance in the system shown in figure.

(1) Zero
(2) 30 kg
(3) 15 kg
(4) 7.5 kg

7) In the adjoining figure, the tension in the string connecting A and B is :-

(1) g

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) If momentum of a particle is given by

P = (4t2 – 2t) N-sec then find the force acting on it, at t = 1 sec :-

(1) 8 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 6 N
(4) – 2 N

9) What is the tension T2 in the system in equilibrium shown in fig.-

(1) 5 N
(2) 5 kg wt.
(3) 1 N
(4) 19.6 N

10) A body of mass 5kg is suspended by string making angle 60° & 30° with horizontal then :-

(a) T1 = 25N (b) T2 = 25 N

(c) T1 = 25 (d) T2 = 25

(1) a, b
(2) a, d
(3) c, d
(4) b, c

11) A mass M of 100 kg is suspended with the use of strings A, B and C as shown in the Fig., where
W is the vertical wall and R is a rigid horizontal rod. The tension in the string B is :-

(1) 100g N
(2) Zero
(3)

(4)

12) A heavy rope of mass m and length ℓ is placed on a smooth table. It is pulled at both ends by
applying force F of equal magnitude as shown. Tension in the rope at point
(1) A is 3F/4
(2) B is F/2
(3) A is F
(4) B is 2F

13) With what acceleration 'a' should the lift in figure moving up so that the block of mass M exerts

a force 7 Mg/4 on the floor of the box?

(1) g/4
(2) g/2
(3) 3g/4
(4) 4g

14) The tension in string connecting between blocks is :-

(1)
N

(2)
N

(3)
N
(4) 26 N

15) A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in
10s. Then the coefficient of friction is-

(1) 0.02
(2) 0.03
(3) 0.06
(4) 0.01
16) If a car at rest accelerates uniformly and attains a speed of 72 km/h in 10s, then it covers a
distance of

(1) 50m
(2) 100m
(3) 200m
(4) 400m

17) A stone is dropped into a well in which the level of water is h below the top of the well. If v is
velocity of sound, the time T after which the splash is heard is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) A body is released from the top of a tower of hight H metres. It takes t time to reach the ground.

Where is the body time after the release :

(1)
At metres from the ground

(2)
At metres from the ground

(3)
At metres from the ground

(4)
At metres from the ground

19) Velocity-time curve for a body projected vertically upwards is a/an :-

(1) Parabola
(2) Ellipse
(3) Hyperbola
(4) Straight line

20) The speed of a projectile at its maximum height is times of its inital speed 'u' of projection.
Its range on the horizontal plane is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The equation of a projectile is . The angle of projection is :

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) none

22) If R is the maximum horizontal range of a particle, then the greatest height attained by it is :

(1) R
(2) 2R

(3)

(4)

23) The maximum horizontal range of a gun is 16km. If g = 10m/s2. The muzzle velocity of the shell
must be :-

(1) 1600 m/s

(2) 400 m/s
(3)
(4)

24) A projectivle can have the same range R for two angles of projection. If t1 and t2 be the time of
flight in the two cases, then :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The coefficient of static friction between two surfaces depend on

(1) the nature of surface

(2) the shape of the surface in contact
(3) the areas of contact
(4) all of the above

26) A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. Force of 2.8 N
is applied on the block. The force of friction between the block and the floor is

(1) 2.8 N
(2) 8.0 N
(3) 2.0 N
(4) zero

27) The frictional force of the air on a body of mass 0.25 kg, falling with an acceleration of 9.2 m/s2,
will be :

(1) 1.0 N
(2) 0.55 N
(3) 0.25 N
(4) 0.15 N

28) A block of mass 15 kg is placed on a long trolley. the coefficient of friction between the block and
trolley is 0.18. The trolley accelerates from rest with 0.5 m/s2 for 20s. then what is the friction force
?

(1) 3.5 N
(2) 133.3 N
(3) 7.5 N
(4) N.O.T.

29) A rope lies on a table such that a part of it hangs down the table. When the length of hanging
part is 1/3 of entire length the rope just begins to slide. The coefficient of friction between the rope
and the table is :-

(1) 2/3
(2) 1/2
(3) 1/3
(4) 1/6

30) A block of mass 0.1 kg. is pressed against a wall with a horizontal force of 5N as shown in the
figure. If the coefficient of friction between the wall and the block is 0.5 then the frictional force

acting on the block will be (g = 9.8 m/s2) :-

(1) 9.8N
(2) 2.5N
(3) 0.98N
(4) 0.49N

31) A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the help of a rope which moves with a velocity v as

shown in figure. The horizontal velocity of the block is :

(1) v

(2)

(3) vsinθ

(4)

32) A horizontal force of 10N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The
coefficient of friction between the block and wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is :-

(1) 20N
(2) 50N
(3) 100N
(4) 2N

33) A boat travels 50 km east, then 120 km north and finally it comes back to the starting point
through the shortest distance. The total time of journey is 3 hours. What is the average velocity
in km h–1, over the entire trip :-

(1) 0
(2) 100
(3) 17
(4) 33.33

34) A proton in a cyclotron changes its velocity from 30 km/sec north to 40 km/sec east in 20 sec.
What is the magnitude of average acceleration during this time ?

(1) 2.5 km/sec2

(2) 12.5 km/sec2
(3) 22.5 km/sec2
(4) 32.5 km/sec2

35) A particle is projected with speed 50 m/s at an angle 53° with the horizontal. Angle made by

velocity vector after one second with the horizontal is (cos 53° = , sin 53° = )

(1) 45°
(2) 37°
(3) 30°
(4) None of these

36) A particle starts its motion from point A(1, 2, 3) and finally reaches at point B (8, 6, 7), then find
out magnitude of displacement.

(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 7
(4) 6

37) Position of a particle moving along x-axis is given by x = 2 + 8t – 4t2. The distance travelled by
the particle from t = 0 to t = 2 is :

(1) 0
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 16

38) A particle moves along X-axis in such a way that its coordinate X varies with time t according to
the equation x = (2 – 5t + 6t2)m. The initial velocity of the particle is :-

(1) –5m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) –3 m/s
(4) 3 m/s

39) A gun fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20 g and the velocity of the bullet
when it leaves the gun is 300 ms–1. The force required to hold the gun while firing is :-

(1) 6 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 240 N

40) If a force acting on a body is 2000 N for 0.05 sec then find the impulse of force.
(1) 100 N.S
(2) 1000 N.S
(3) 10 N.S
(4) 500 N.S

41) For the F-t graph find the impulse in first 3 sec.

(1) 50 N-s
(2) 150 N-s
(3) 100 N-s
(4) 25 N-s

42) If system is in equilibrium T1 and T2 will be :-

(1) 100N, 100N

(2) 200N, 200N
(3) 50N, 50N
(4) 100N, 100

43) The velocity-time graph of an object is shown. The displacement during the interval 0 to t4 is :-

(1) Area A + Area B + Area C + Area D + Area E

(2) Area A + Area C - Area B - Area D
(3) Area A + Area B + Area C + Area D
(4) Area A + Area C + Area E - Area B + Area D

44) The range of a projectile when fired at 75° to the horizontal is 0.5km. What will be its range
when fired at 45° with the same speed?

(1) 0.5km
(2) 1.0km
(3) 1.5km
(4) 2.0km

45) A ball is thrown at an angle θ to the horizontal and the range is maximum. The value of tanθ is

(1) 1
(2)

(3)

(4) 2

CHEMISTRY

1) How many angular nodes are present in 3s orbital ?

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

2) Which of the following set of quantum number is not valid ?

(1) n = 1, ℓ = 2
(2) n = 2, m = 1
(3) n = 3, ℓ = 0
(4) n = 4, ℓ = 2

3) Maximum number of electrons in a subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 16

4)

Electronic configuration

has violated :-

(1) Hund’s rule

(2) Pauli’s principle
(3) Aufbau principle
(4) rule
5)

Which is not a correct order of energy for 1st, 2nd & 3rd orbit of hydrogen atom?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) ‘1’ & ‘3’ both

6)

The ratio between kinetic energy and the total energy of the electrons of hydrogen atom according
to Bohr’s model is :-

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : –1
(4) 1 : 2

7) Maximum deBroglie wave length is of which molecule. If velocity is same for all molecules.

(1) H2
(2) O2
(3) CO
(4) N2

8) Number of spectral line in Balmer series when an electron return from 7th orbit to 1st orbit of
hydrogen atom are

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 21
(4) 8

9) A 'd' orbital can accomodate upto

(1) 5 electrons
(2) 10 electrons
(3) 2 electrons
(4) 6 electrons

10) Naturally occurring boron has two isotopes whose atomic weights are 10.00 (I) and 11.00 (II).
Atomic weight of natural boron is 10.80. The percentage of isotopes (I) and (II) respectively is :-

(1) 20 and 80
(2) 10 and 20
(3) 15 and 75
(4) 30 and 70

11) α-particles are represented by :

(1) Lithium atoms

(2) Helium nuclei
(3) Hydrogen nuclei
(4) None of these

12) Among O, O+, O+2 and O–2, the species having largest and smallest value of ΔHeg are respectively:

(1) O+ and O
(2) O+2 and O–2
(3) O and O–2
(4) O and O+2

13) Which of the following configuration belongs to s-block elements

(1) 1s22s22p6 3s23p63d10 4s1

(2) 1s22s22p63s23p64s1
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

14) Consider the isoelectronic species, Na+, Mg2+, F– and O2–. The correct order of increasing order of
their radii is.

(1) F– < O2– < Mg2+ < Na+

(2) Mg2+ < Na+ < F– < O2–
(3) O2– < F– < Na+ < Mg2+
(4) O2– < F– < Mg2+ < Na+

15) Arrange N, O and S in order of decreasing electron affinity :-

(1) S > O > N

(2) O > S > N
(3) N > O > S
(4) S > N > O

16) The second ionisation potential in electron volts of oxygen and fluorine atom are respectively
given

(1) 35.1, 38.3

(2) 38.3, 38.3
(3) 38.3, 35.1
(4) 35.1, 35.1
17) Which of the following oxides is neutral in nature ?

(1) CO2
(2) Na2O
(3) BeO
(4) CO

18) In which process requiring absorption of energy is

(1) F → F–
(2) H → H–
(3) Cl → Cl–
(4) O → O2–

19) Which of the following non-metal exist in liquid state :-

(1) Chlorine
(2) Bromine
(3) Nitrogen
(4) All of the above

20) Which of the following is transition element :-

(1) Zn
(2) Hg
(3) Cr
(4) All of them

21)

Which of the following does not have shielding effect

(1) He+
(2) Li+2
(3) H
(4) All

22) In periodic table, the basic character of oxides

(1) Increases from left to right and decreases from top to bottom
(2) Decreases from right to left and increases from top to bottom
(3) Decreases from left to right and increases from top to bottom
(4) Increases from right to left and decreases from top to bottom

23) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The acidic strength of monosubstituted nitrophenol is higher than phenol because of
electron withdrawing nitro group.
Statement II : o-nitrophenol, m-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol will have same acidic strength as
they have one nitro group attached to the phenolic ring.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

24) Which of the following substituted phenols is the strongest acid ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The compound that is most difficult to protonate is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) The most stable carbocation, among the following is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)

Which of the following is correct with respect to –I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl)

(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F

(2) – OR < – NR2 – F
(3) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(4) – NR2 > – OR > – F

28) What is the correct order of acidity of the protons marked A–D in the given compounds ?

(1) HC > HD > HB > HA

(2) HC > HD > HA > HB
(3) HD > HC > HB > HA
(4) HC > HA > HD > HB

29) Match List I with List II.

List I List II
Isomeric pairs Type of isomers

A. Propanamine and N-Methylethanamine I. Metamers

B. Hexan-2-one and Hexan-3-one II. Positional isomers

 C. Ethanamide and Hydroxyethanimine III. Functional isomers

D. o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol IV. Tautomers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

30) Which compound amongst the following is not an aromatic compound ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Which of the following is the most stable carbocation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The correct order of acid strength of the following molecules is

 C2H5OH < H2O < CH3COOH <

(1)

(2)
C2H5OH < H2O < < CH3COOH

(3)
H2O < C2H5OH < < CH3COOH

(4)
H2O < < C2H5OH < CH3COOH

33) The correct order of the basic strength of methyl substituted amines in aqueous solution is :-

(1) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N

(2) (CH3)3N>CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
(3) (CH3)3N>(CH3)2NH>CH3NH2
(4) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N

34) Which one is not a D-sugar ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is :

(1) 120°
(2) 180°
(3) 60°
(4) 0°

36) Which of the following compound can show geometrical isomerism ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH2 = N–OH

37) Which of the following represent pair of enantiomers ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

38) What is configuration of following compound ?

(1) E
(2) Z
(3) R
(4) S

39) Incorrect statement about this compound is :-

(1) It shows geometrical isomerism

(2) It posses plane of symmetry
(3) It posses center of symmetry
(4) It shows optical isomerism

40)

Give R, S configuration to the given compound:-

(1) 2R, 3S
(2) 2S, 3S
(3) 2S, 3R
(4) 2R, 3R

41) Which of the following compound will show geometrical isomerism but not optical isomerism.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Which of the following is optically active molecule

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43)
A is more stable than B, if X is :-

(1) –CH3
(2) F
(3) Br
(4) –C2H5

44) Following isomeric pair constitutes an example of :

(1) Functional isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Geometrical isomers
(4) Metamers

45) and are :

(1) Conformational isomers

(2) Positional isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Identical

BOTANY

1) Choose the incorrect statement for Gymnosperms :-

(1) The male and female cones or strobili may be borne on the same tree
(2) One of the cell of nucellus differentiate into Megaspore mother cell
(3) Ovule is specialised megasporangium which is integumented
(4) They include Herbs, Shrubs as well as Trees

2)

Ploidy of Endosperm of Gymnosperm

(1) Triploid
(2) Haploid
(3) Tetraploid
(4) Diploid

3)

Which one is not a precursor requirement of seed habit?

The development of the zygotes into young embryos takes place within the female
(1)
gametophytes.
(2) Heterospory
The female gametophytes in these plants are retained on the parent sporophytes for variable
(3)
periods.
(4) Differentiated plant body.

4)

The megaspore mother cell in gymnosperms is differentiated from:

(1) Integument
(2) Embryosac
(3) Nucellus
(4) Endosperm

5)

In which plant group ovule and pollen grain development occur inside flower.

(1) Bryophyte
(2) Pteridophyte
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Angiosperm

6)

Normal embryo is developed by the activity of

(1) Two polar nuclei of embryo sac

(2) Secondary nucleus and male gamete
(3) Egg cell and male gamete
(4) Synergids

7)

Embryo sac is

(1) 7 celled 7 nucleated

(2) 8 celled 8 nucleated
(3) 7 celled 8 nucleated
(4) 8 celled 7 nucleated

8) Which one of the following is a correct statement.

(1) In Pteridophyte, gametophyte has a protonemal and leafy stage

(2) In gymnosperms, female gametophyte is free living
(3) Antheridia and archegonia absent in pteridophytes
(4) Pteridophytes are precursor to the seed habit.

9) Presence of polysulphate esters in cell wall is characteristic feature of

(1) Spirogyra
(2) Laminaria
(3) Macrocystis
(4) Porphyra

10) Gracilaria and Gelidium produce a commercial product :-

(1) Agar
(2) Pectate
(3) Lipid
(4) CaCO3

11) Match the following columns and choose the correct option :

Column I Column II
(Plants) (Categories)

A Chlamydomonas 1 Moss

B Cycas 2 Pteridophyte

C Selaginella 3 Algae

D Sphagnum 4 Gymnosperm
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(3) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

12) Match the column I with column II and choose the option which shows its correct combination.

Column I
Column II
(Pattern of life cycle
(Examples)
in plant)

Bryophytes, life cycle Pteridophytes,

A. Haplontic I.
Ectocarpus, Polysiphonia, Kelps

Seed bearing plants life cycle

B. Diplontic II.
(Gymnosperm and Angiosperm), Fucus

Many algae (Volvox, life cycle

C. Haplo-diplontic III. Spirogyra) and some species of
Chlamydomonas
(1) A – III; B – II; C – I
(2) A – I; B – II; C – III
(3) A – II; B – I; C – III
(4) A – III; B – I; C – II

13) Find out the mismatched pair

(1) Carrageen - Red algae

(2) Algin - Brown algae
(3) Agar - Chlorella
(4) Single celled protein - Spirullina

14) Identify the correct answer.

i. The most common spores in algae
ii. They are flagellated (motile) and on germination gives rise to new plants.

(1) Aplanspores
(2) Zoospores
(3) Hypnospores
(4) Phytospores

15) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c, d)

correctly identified.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

 Antherid Male
(1) Globule Roots
iophore thallus

Archego- Female Gemma-

(2) Rhizoids
niophore thallus cup

Archego- Female
(3) Bud Foot
niophore thallus

Sporo- Proto-
(4) Seta Rhizoids
phyte nema
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Identify the given figures :-

(1) Marchantia
(2) Funaria
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Riccia

17) Which one of the following is not found in fern gametophyte?

(1) Chlorophyll
(2) Rhizoids
(3) Sex organs
(4) Vascular tissue

18) Reduced gametophyte in gymnosperm is called

(1) Prothallus
(2) Pollen grain
(3) Protonema
(4) Strobili

19) Rhizoid and roots both are commonly seen in

(1) Algae
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Pteridophytes

20)

The below given diagram is of -

(1) Sphagnum - Independent gametophyte

(2) Funaria - Gametophyte dependent on sporophyte
(3) Funaria - Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte
(4) Marchantia - Independent sporophyte

21) Read the following statements about pteridophytes :-

(i) The main plant body is sporophyte.
(ii) The sporophyte is differentiated into true roots, stem and leaves.
(iii) Their gametophyte lack vascular bundle.
(iv) Microphylls are found in Selaginella and macrophylls in the ferns like Dryopteris.
(v) Strobili or cones are found in Selaginella and Equisetum.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Two
(4) Three

22) Phloem in gymnosperm lacks

(1) Albuminous cells and sieve cells

(2) Sieve tube only
(3) Companion cells only
(4) Both sieve tubes and companion cells

23) First terrestrial plant possess vascular tissue and grown as ornamentals is :-

(1) Bryophytes
(2) Mosses
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Pteridophytes

24) In the given figure of Equisetum, identify the parts labelled as A,B,C and D :-

A B C D

(1) Internode Rhizome Node Strobilus

(2) Strobilus Node Rhizome Internode

(3) Rhizome Node Strobilus Internode

(4) Strobilus Node Internode Rhizome

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25)

Consider the following four statements whether they are correct or wrong :
(a) All algae posses Haplontic life cycle
(b) Salvinia is heterosporous
(c) The life-cycle in all seed-bearing plants is diplontic.
(d) In Pinus male and female cones are borne on different trees.
The two wrong statements together are :

(1) Statements (a) and (b)

(2) Statements (a) and (c)
(3) Statements (a) and (d)
(4) Statements (b) and (c)
26) Protonema filament are present in

(1) Mosses
(2) Pteridophytes
(3) Some Gymnosperms
(4) Some Liverworts

27) In which of the plant group embryo is not formed ____

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Algae
(4) Mustard

28) Siphonogama includes :-

(1) Bryophyta and thallophyta

(2) Pteridophyta and bryophyta
(3) Gymnosperm and angiosperm
(4) Thallophyta and gymnosperm

29) If chromosome number in nucellus is 20 then number of chromosome in Pinus endosperm is :-

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 30
(4) 40

30) The main plant body of the pteridophyte is :-

(1) Unicellular, haploid

(2) Unicellular, diploid
(3) Multicellular, diploid
(4) Multicellular, haploid

31) Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) Algin and carrageenan are products of algae

(2) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Chlorella and Spirulina are used as space food
(4) Mannitol is stored food in Rhodophyceae

32) Which option is not related with phaeophyceae?

(1) Gelatinous coating of algin

(2) Gametes are pear shaped and bear two laterally attached flagella
(3) The food is stored as floridean starch
(4) They possess chlorophyll a,c, carotenoids and xanthophylls

33) Ectocarpus is

(1) Unicellular green algae

(2) Filamentous brown algae
(3) Branched red algae
(4) Colonial green algae

34) In mosses the sex organs are present in the :-

(1) Protonema stage

(2) Sporophytic stage
(3) Leafy stage
(4) Both (1) and (2)

35) Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of :-

(1) thick cuticle

(2) presence of vessels
(3) broad hardy leaves
(4) superficial stomata

36) Most advanced group of Algae is :-

(1) Myxophyta
(2) Chlorophyta
(3) Rhodophyta
(4) Phaeophyta

37) Motile stages are not found in life cycle of :-

(1) Red Algae & green Algae

(2) Red Algae & brown Algae
(3) Red Algae & blue green Algae
(4) Green Algae & brown Algae

38) Choose the incorrect statement:

The leaves in gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity

(1)
and wind.
In Pinus male and female cones borne on the same tree but in Cycas male cones and
(2)
megasporophylls are borne on different trees.
(3) Pollination in gymnosperms is carried by air.
(4) In gymnosperms male and female gametophytes have independent free-living existence.
39) Prothallus of the pteridophyta produces

(1) Gametes
(2) Spores
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Gametophyte

40) Which one is wrong in respect to bryophytes?

(1) They are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

(2) The presence of antheridium
(3) The presence of uniflagellated sperms
(4) They play an important role in plant succession on bare rocks

41)

Algae are

(1) Saprotrophic
(2) Heterotrophic but cholorphyll bearing
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Chlorophyll bearing autotrophs

42) In gymnosperms, the male strobili consists of

(1) Megasporophylls and microsporangia

(2) Microsporophylls and megasporangia
(3) Microsporophylls and microsporangia
(4) Both (2) & (3)

43) Which of the following is not incorrect ?

(1) Species of Funaria provide peat

Mossess along with lichens are the first organisms to colonise rocks and hence, are of great
(2)
ecological importance
(3) Bryophytes are more evolved than pteridophytes
(4) Bryophytes in general are of great economic importance

44) Which living organism is in symbiont association with coralloid root of Cycas plant?

(1) Fungi (Mycorrhiza)

(2) N2-fixing cyanobacteria
(3) Rhizobium
(4) Pinus

45) The aquatic fern which is an excellent biofertilizer is:-

(1) Azolla
(2) Salvinia
(3) Marsilia
(4) Pteridium

ZOOLOGY

1) The unique characteristic feature of sponges:

(1) Presence of water vascular system

(2) Presence of cnidoblast cells
(3) Presence of choanocyte cells
(4) Presence of diploblastic body

2) Identify the correct match for locomotory structure of animals :

(1) Insects – Paired jointed legs

(2) Annelids – Muscular foot
(3) Echinodermata – Parapodia
(4) Cnidarians – Comb plates

3) All are hermaphrodites animals in which of the following sets of animals ?

(1) Pheretima, Taenia, Sycon, Ascaris

(2) Euspongia, Ctenoplana, Ascaris, Nereis
(3) Sycon, Wuchereria, Pleurobrachia, Ancylostoma
(4) Spongilla, Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria

4) In birds, scales are present in :-

(1) Fore limbs

(2) Hind limb
(3) Head
(4) Neck

5) In which of the following organisms notochord is persistent throughout the life?

(1) Herdmania
(2) Branchiostoma
(3) Ascidia
(4) Balanoglossus

6) Animals having dorso-ventrally flattened body are :-

(1) Coelenterates
(2) Ctenophores
(3) Platyhelminthes
(4) Aschelminthes

7) Give the correct match in the following :-

Scientific Name Common Name

(A) Balenoptera (I) Tortoise

(B) Pteropus (II) Angel fish

(C) Testudo (III) Flying fox

(D) Pterophyllum (IV) Blue whale

A B C D

(1) II III I IV

(2) IV III I II

(3) IV I II III

(4) I II III IV
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) The structure given below is present in which animal ?

(1) Scypha
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Physalia
(4) Taenia

9) Identified the organisms A, B, C and D.

(1) Balaenoptera, Macropus, Pteropus & Ornithorhynchus
(2) Ornithorhynchus, Macropus, Pteropus & Balaenoptera
(3) Ornithorhynchus, Macropus, Balaenoptera & Pteropus
(4) Ornithorhynchus, Balaenoptera, Pteropus & Macropus

10) Muscular pharynx is a characteristic feature of :

(1) Taenia
(2) Hydra
(3) Ascaris
(4) Sycon

11) Following diagram represent which animal ?

(1) Pheretima
(2) Hirudinaria
(3) Nereis
(4) Ascaris

12) The animals of which phylum are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, segmented and coelomate
?

(1) Coelenterata
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Aschelminthes
(4) Arthropoda

13) Locomotion by 8 ciliary comb plates found in :

(1) Aurelia
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Taenia
(4) Nereis

14) Chitinuous exoskeleton is found in which phylum?

(1) Annelida
(2) Porifera
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Echinodermata

15) Body is divided into head, visceral hump and muscular foot in which animal ?

(1) Star fish

(2) Cockroach
(3) Earthworm
(4) Pila

16) Out of following which is an example of organ system level ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Which animal of coelenterata shows metagenesis ?

(1) Hydra
(2) Jelly fish
(3) Obelia
(4) Aurelia

18) Dengue is spread by which insect ?

(1) Anopheles
(2) Culex
(3) Tse-Tse fly
(4) Aedes

19) Which of the following animal is correctly matched with its phylum and characters ?

Animal Phylum Character

 (1) Planaria Aschelminthes Regeneration

(2) Pleurobrachia Ctenophora Comb plate

(3) Adamsia Annelida Cnidoblast

(4) Pheretima Aschelminthes Flame cell

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Which of the following statements about certain given animals correct ?

(1) Flatworms are true coelomates

(2) Round worms are Pseudocoelomates
(3) Molluscs are acoelomates
(4) Insects are Psuedocoelomates

21) Metameric segmentation is characteristic of :-

(1) Annelida and Platyhelminthes

(2) Annelida and Arthropoda
(3) Echinodermata and Annelida
(4) Hemichordata and chordata

22) Water transport system is characteristic feature of :-

(1) Echinodermata
(2) Porifera
(3) Cnidaria
(4) Ctenophora

23) The enzyme carbonic anhydrase is found in :-

(1) Tissue cells and plasma

(2) Tissue cells and erythrocytes
(3) Erythrocytes
(4) WBC

24) Emphysema developes mainly because of :-

(1) Allergy or hypersensitization

(2) Spasm of the smooth muscles of bronchioles
(3) Cigarette smoking
(4) Inflammation of the alveoli
25) Outer covering of lungs is known as :-

(1) Pericardium
(2) Peritoneum
(3) Pleural membrane
(4) Periosteum

26) Oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve will shift to right on decrease of :

(1) Acidity
(2) CO2 concentration
(3) Temperature
(4) pH

27) Centre which can moderate the function of respiratory rhythm centre located in :-

(1) Medulla oblongata

(2) Pons
(3) Hypothalamus
(4) Pituitary

28) Function residual capacity is :-

(1) TV + ERV
(2) TLC – IC
(3) EC + RV
(4) TLC – RV

29) What percentage of CO2 flows in blood in form of bicarbonates :

(1) 7%
(2) 23%
(3) 50%
(4) 70%

30) Correct sequence of air passage in human :

(1) Trachea → Larynx → Bronchi

(2) Larynx → Trachea → Bronchi
(3) Bronchi → Trachea → Larynx
(4) Trachea → Bronchi → Larynx

31) Mark the true statement among the following with reference to normal breathing

(1) Inspiration is a passive process where expiration is active process

(2) Inspiration is an active process where expiration is passive process
(3) Inspiration and expiration are active processes
(4) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes

32) The figure given below shows a small part of human lung where exchange of gases takes place.
In which one of the options given below, the one part, A, B, C or D is correctly identified along with

its function

(1) C : arterial capillary-passes oxygen to tissues

(2) A : alveolar cavity-main site of exchange of respiratory gases
(3) D : Capillary wall-exchange of O2 and CO2 takes place here
(4) B : red blood cell-transport of CO2 mainly

33) Trachea divides at :-

(1) 5th thoracic vertebrate into right & left secondary bronchi
(2) 7th thoracic vertebrate into secondary bronchi
(3) 5th thoracic vertebrate into right & left primary bronchi
(4) 7th thoracic vertebrate into right & left primary bronchi

34) Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by :-

(1) CO2 content in venous blood

(2) CO2 content in arterial blood
(3) O2 content in venous blood
(4) O2 content in arterial blood

35) Incidence of emphysema is high in cigarette smokers. In such cases :-

(1) The bronchioles are found damaged

(2) The alveolar walls are found damaged
(3) The respiratory muscles are found damaged
(4) Alveoli filled with fluid

36) Negative Bohr's effect is represented by :-

(1) Increased PO2 and pH

(2) Increased PO2 and pH while decreased PCO2
(3) Increased PO2 and CO2
(4) PO2 increases by decreasing CO2

37) What is the value of PO2 and PCO2 in pulmonary artery:

(1) PCO2 = 45mm Hg PO2 = 95mm Hg
(2) PO2 = 95mm Hg PCO2 = 40mm Hg
(3) PCO2 = 45mm Hg PO2 = 40mm Hg
(4) PCO2 = 40mm Hg PO2 = 45mm Hg

38) Chloride shift is essential for transportation of

(1) CO2
(2) O2
(3) CO2 & O2
(4) N2

39) 100 ml deoxygenated blood transports how much amount of CO2 :-

(1) 20 ml
(2) 4 ml
(3) 10 ml
(4) 0.3 ml

40) Given figure is showing spirogram of pulmonary volume and capacities :-

In spirogram, shaded box represents to :-

(1) Functional residual capacity

(2) Inspiratory capacity
(3) Vital capacity
(4) Expiratory capacity

41) Lecithin is secreted by :-

(1) Pneumocyte I (Simple squamous epithelial cells)

(2) Pneumocyte II (Simple squamous epithelial cells)
(3) Pneumocyte I (Simple cuboidal epithelial cells)
(4) Pneumocyte II (Simple cuboidal epithelial cells)

42) The Lungs are situated in a thoracic chamber which is formed dorsally by the ....a...., ventrally by
the ....b....., Laterally by the ....c.... & on lower side by the .....d......
(1) A – Vertebral column B – Sternum
C – Diaphragm D – Ribs
(2) A – Vertebral column B – Sternum
C – Ribs D – Diaphragm
(3) A – Diaphragm B – Vertebral column
C – Sternum D – Ribs
(4) A – Vertebral column B – Sternum
C – Ribs D – Ribs

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) Number of alveoli in the human Lungs has been estimated to be approximately

(1) 100 million

(2) 300 million
(3) 125 million
(4) 300 billion

44) The lower the amount of Oxyhaemoglobin, the higher the CO2 carrying capacity of the blood.
This is known as

(1) Haldane effect

(2) Bohr effect
(3) Hering-Breuer reflex
(4) Both (1) & (3)

45) If the diaphragm of human is punctured, by an accident, then breathing is :-

(1) Decreased
(2) Increased
(3) Stopped
(4) Not affected
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 2 2 3 4 3 2 2 1 3 3 2 3 2 2 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 2 2 1 1 4 3 2 3 2 4 1 1 1 1 2 1 3 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 2 2 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 2 2 2 2 1 3 4 4 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 1 4 3 1 2 4 3 4 2 1 1 4 2 3 3 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 4 2 2 3

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 4 3 4 3 3 4 4 1 2 1 3 2 2 3 4 2 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 3 2 3 4 3 2 3 1 2 3 4 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 3 2 2 1

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 1 4 2 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 4 2 3 4 4 3 4 2 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 2 2 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 1 2 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

8)
at t = 1 sec, F = 8 – 2 = 6 N

11)
TC cos 45 = TB
TC sin 45° = 100 g
TB = 100 g

12)

Fnet = f – f = 0
So, Tension remains same at all points of the rope and equal to F.

13) FBD of M : If M exerts force F = 7 Mg/4 on floor, then from third law floor also exerts
force F on box on upward direction.

F – Mg = Ma

⇒ ⇒

33)
 Average velocity =
Displacement = 0, as boat comes back at the starting point

∴ Average velocity = 0.

35) tan α =

α = 45°

37) x = 2 + 8t – 4t2 v → + for 0 → 1 sec

v = 8 – 8t v → – for 1 → 2 sec
at t = 0 x = 2m
at t = 1 x = 6 m
at t = 2 x = 2m

distance traveled = 8m

41)

I = Area I + (–Area II)

= 50 N–s

CHEMISTRY

48) n = 4 l = 3 represents 4f subshell having 7 orbitals

∴

56) α-particle are Helium nuclei (He+2)

57) O+2(g) + e¯ → O+1(g) ΔH is most negative

O–2(g) + e¯ → O–3(g) ΔH is most positive

59)

Among isoelectronic species,

ionic radii
60) due to half filled stable configuration N has least EA.

61)

O+ has higher Zeff with a stable half filled electronic configuration in 2p subshell than F+.

63) Addition of 2nd el– is always endothermic.

67)

Basic character of oxides decreases from left to right and increases from top to bottom

68)

Acidic strength of phenolic group increases due to electron withdrawing groups. Order of
acidic strength

69)
–NO2 group is electron withdrawing group.
Which increases the acidic strength of phenol.

70) In case of phenol lone pair of oxygen is delocalized in ring.

71) Due to +H effect of alkyl group (more αH)

72) (Based on EN)

∴ –NH2 < –OR < –F –I effect
Also –NR2 < –OR < –F –I effect

73) acidity of an acid depends upon the stability of its conjugate base

74) A. Propanamine N–Methylethanamine

B. Hexan–2–one Hexan–3–one

C. Ethanamide Hydroxyethanimine

D. o–Nitrophenol p–nitrophenol
75)

76)
3° Cation + resonance stabilized

77) (a) Alcohols are weaker acids than water because alkoxide are better proton acceptor than
hydroxide.
(b) Phenols are better acids than alcohols because phenoxide ion is more stable by resonance.
(c) CH3COOH is acid, with acid strength greater than all and have pKa = 4.76

78) The order of basic strength in case of methyl substituted amines and ethyl substituted
amines in aqueous solution is as follows :
(C2H5)2 NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 >NH3
(CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > NH3

79)

Because last carbon (asymmetrical) has –OH group on left hand side.

80) Dihedral angle (D.A.) of least stable conformer of ethane = 0°

 82) → Enantiomers

89)
Position of substituents are different so they are position isomers.

90)

2, 2-dimethyl propane and 2-methyl butane.

BOTANY

91)

NCERT Pg # 39

93)

NCERT Pg # 38

94)

NCERT - Pg. # 35

95)

Ncert Page 41.

Double fertilization involve True syngamy & triple fusion.
99)

Ncert Page 33.

101)

Pg. No. 26, 30 & 33 - XI NCERT

104)

NCERT Page No. 31

108) Seed habit is originated in some pteridophytes.

111) NCERT XI Pg. # 36

113) NCERT Pg. # 36, 3.3

114) NCERT XIth (E) Pg. # 37, (b)

115)

NCERT pg no. 32 - 41

116)

XIth NCERT OLD, Pg. 36

127)

NCERT XI, Pg # 27

128) NCERT XI (E) Pg # 38, 39

129)

NCERT Page No. 38

130)

NCERT Page No. 36

131)
 NCERT Page No. 31

132)

NCERT Page No. 37

133) NCERT Page No. 35

ZOOLOGY

136) NCERT (XI) Pg# 40

137)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

139)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 58

140)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 55

141)

NCERT XI Page # 42

142)

Ncert page 48 to 51.

143) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 41

145) NCERT Pg. # 43

146) NCERT Pg. # 43

147) NCERT Pg. # 42

148) [RATIONALISED NCERT BOOK 2024-2025]

NCERT Pg. # 42

149) NCERT Pg. # 53

150) NCERT Pg. # 53

151) NCERT Pg. # 52

152) NCERT Pg. # 50

153) NCERT Pg. # 53

154) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 51

155)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 43

157) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 49

161) NCERT (XI)(E) Pg. # 274

168) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 269

169) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 275

170) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 275

172) NCERT-XI, Pg#273

173) NCERT-XI, Pg#275

174) NCERT (XI) (E) Pg. # 275