Year 9 Physics Checkpoint – Objective Questions
1. The SI unit of density is
A) g/cm³
B) kg/m³
C) N/m³
D) Pa
Answer: B
2. A measuring cylinder initially shows 50 cm³. When a stone is dropped in, the reading
becomes 65 cm³. What is the volume of the stone?
A) 15 cm³
B) 50 cm³
C) 65 cm³
D) 115 cm³
Answer: A
3. A car moves at a constant speed of 20 m/s for 30 s. What distance does it travel?
A) 50 m
B) 150 m
C) 600 m
D) 900 m
Answer: C
4. The area under a velocity-time graph represents
A) acceleration
B) distance travelled
C) force
D) momentum
Answer: B
5. The weight of a 2 kg object on Earth is approximately
A) 2 N
B) 9.8 N
C) 19.6 N
D) 20 kg
Answer: C
6. A cube of side 0.1 m has a mass of 0.2 kg. What is its density?
A) 2 kg/m³
B) 20 kg/m³
C) 200 kg/m³
D) 2000 kg/m³
Answer: D
7. A box is pulled with a force of 50 N and moves at constant velocity. The frictional force on
the box is
A) 0 N
B) 25 N
C) 50 N
D) 100 N
Answer: C
8. Which force provides the centripetal force for a car turning around a flat circular track?
A) Weight
B) Friction
C) Normal reaction
D) Air resistance
Answer: B
9. The unit of momentum is
A) N
B) N·m
C) kg·m/s
D) J
Answer: C
10. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moves at 4 m/s. Its momentum is
A) 0.125 kg·m/s
B) 2 kg·m/s
C) 4 kg·m/s
D) 8 kg·m/s
Answer: B
11. A 2 kg trolley moving at 3 m/s collides with a stationary 1 kg trolley. They stick together.
What is their final velocity?
A) 1 m/s
B) 2 m/s
C) 3 m/s
D) 6 m/s
Answer: B
12. Which statement about momentum is correct?
A) Momentum is conserved only if friction is present.
B) Momentum is conserved in all collisions.
C) Momentum is conserved if no external force acts.
D) Momentum is never conserved.
Answer: C
13. The energy stored in a stretched spring is a type of
A) chemical energy
B) kinetic energy
C) elastic potential energy
D) nuclear energy
Answer: C
14. A 5 N force moves a box 3 m in the direction of the force. The work done is
A) 1.5 J
B) 8 J
C) 15 J
D) 30 J
Answer: C
15. The power of a motor that does 1200 J of work in 3 s is
A) 300 W
B) 400 W
C) 600 W
D) 3600 W
Answer: B
16. Energy cannot be created or destroyed; it can only be transformed. This statement
refers to the
A) first law of motion
B) conservation of energy
C) conservation of momentum
D) work–energy principle
Answer: B
17. The unit of pressure is
A) Pa
B) N·m
C) N·m²
D) J
Answer: A
18. A box of weight 100 N has a base area of 0.5 m². What is the pressure it exerts on the
floor?
A) 50 Pa
B) 100 Pa
C) 150 Pa
D) 200 Pa
Answer: A
19. The pressure in a liquid increases with
A) increasing depth
B) decreasing depth
C) decreasing density
D) increasing volume
Answer: A
20. In which state are the particles closest together?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Plasma
Answer: A
21. The random motion of pollen grains in water provides evidence for
A) diffusion
B) Brownian motion
C) condensation
D) sublimation
Answer: B
22. According to the kinetic particle model, gas pressure is caused by
A) gravity acting on gas particles
B) collisions of particles with the container walls
C) expansion of particles
D) increase in temperature only
Answer: B
23. The temperature at which ice melts is
A) 0 K
B) 0 °C
C) 100 °C
D) 273 °C
Answer: B
24. Which property increases when a substance is heated but remains in the same state?
A) Specific latent heat
B) Specific heat capacity
C) Density
D) Melting point
Answer: B
25. Metals feel colder than wood at the same temperature because
A) metals have higher density
B) metals are good conductors of heat
C) metals have lower thermal capacity
D) wood contains air
Answer: B
26. Heat transfer through direct contact of particles occurs by
A) conduction
B) convection
C) radiation
D) evaporation
Answer: A
27. Land heats up faster than water because it
A) has higher density
B) has lower specific heat capacity
C) reflects more sunlight
D) evaporates more water
Answer: B
28. A shiny silver surface is a
A) good absorber and good emitter of radiation
B) poor absorber and poor emitter of radiation
C) good absorber and poor emitter of radiation
D) poor absorber and good emitter of radiation
Answer: B
29. The distance between two successive crests of a wave is called
A) amplitude
B) frequency
C) wavelength
D) period
Answer: C
30. The unit of frequency is
A) Hz
B) m/s
C) J
D) N
Answer: A
31. In a transverse wave, the particles of the medium vibrate
A) along the direction of wave travel
B) at an angle of 45° to the wave
C) perpendicular to the direction of wave travel
D) randomly in all directions
Answer: C
32. The speed of light in vacuum is approximately
A) 3 × 10⁵ m/s
B) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
C) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
D) 3 × 10¹² m/s
Answer: C
33. When light passes from air into glass, it
A) speeds up and bends away from the normal
B) slows down and bends towards the normal
C) slows down and bends away from the normal
D) speeds up and bends towards the normal
Answer: B
34. A plane mirror forms an image that is
A) real and inverted
B) real and upright
C) virtual and upright
D) virtual and inverted
Answer: C
35. Which of the following has the longest wavelength?
A) Radio waves
B) Visible light
C) X-rays
D) Gamma rays
Answer: A
36. The electromagnetic wave used for sterilising medical equipment is
A) infrared
B) ultraviolet
C) microwave
D) radio wave
Answer: B
37. Which statement about all electromagnetic waves is correct?
A) They need a medium to travel.
B) They travel at the same speed in vacuum.
C) They are all transverse except radio waves.
D) They carry only sound energy.
Answer: B
38. The unit of sound frequency is
A) Hz
B) dB
C) J
D) N
Answer: A
39. The range of frequencies heard by a normal human ear is approximately
A) 0–200 Hz
B) 20–20 000 Hz
C) 200–200 000 Hz
D) above 20 000 Hz
Answer: B
40. Sound travels fastest in
A) air
B) water
C) steel
D) vacuum
Answer: C