Note: Participants are encouraged to read and familiarize themselves with the

FIMM-FCE Study Guide before taking the mock examination questions.

Set 2
Chapter 1: Understanding Collective Investments Scheme in Malaysia

1. Which of the following statement is true?

A. Real Estate Investment Trust is a type of unlisted fund

B. An investment linked fund is similar to UTS
C. CIS enables investors to pool their money and hand it to a professional fund management
company to invest the money in various assets that meet the investors investment objectives.
D. A Management Company must not outsource any of its functions

2. A 'collective investment scheme' (CIS) is ________________.

I. a generic term for a range of pooled investment vehicles available to investors

II. where a number of investors with similar investment objectives pool their savings and entrust it
to a professional fund manager who manages and invests the pool of money in a range of assets
or investment instruments to produce a return that is shared by those investors
III. also known as a mutual fund in other countries
IV. a method to acquire units from an existing unit holder

A. II and III
B. I only
C. I, II and III
D. All of the above

3. _______ includes the following:

I. An individual whose total net personal assets, or total net joint assets with his or her spouse,
exceeding three million ringgit or its equivalent in foreign currencies, excluding the value of the
individual's primary residence
II. A corporation with total net assets exceeding ten million ringgit or its equivalent in foreign
currencies based on the last audited accounts.

A. Sophisticated Investors
B. Premium investors
C. Angel Investors
D. Wealthy Investors

4. UTMC Bestari appointed RST Berhad to undertake fund accounting and administration functions
for funds managed by UTMC Bestari.

Which of the followings are most likely to be RST Berhad functions?

I. Performing valuation of the funds' investments

II. Preparing the funds' financial statements
III. Maintaining unit holders' records and details
IV. Dealing with the auditor on the fund's financial statements

A. All of the above

B. I and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II and IV
5. The role involves maintaining unit holders' records and recording subscriptions and redemptions
of the fund's units.

A. Fund Accounting
B. Transfer Agency
C. Fund Administration
D. Investment Management

6. An investment-linked fund is ___________.

I. Managed and promoted by a unit trust management company

II. Offered with a life insurance policy
III. Purchased with a single premium (lump sum investment) or with regular premium payments
IV. Required to comply with BNM's rules and regulations

A. II, III and IV

B. I and IV
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II and III

Chapter 2: Introduction to UTS and PRS

1. Consultants must ensure that an investor in a Scheme is given

A. a guarantee on future earnings of the fund

B. an explanation of risks involved
C. gifts upon signing up
D. the right to cancel their investment at any time

2. Which of the following statements on exchange traded funds (ETFs) is FALSE?

A. The underlying index tracked by an ETFs must be transparent and conveniently accessible by
investors
B. ETFs must be an unlisted fund
C. ETFs offer diversification and reduces risk involved in owning a single stock
D. ETFs track or replicate the performance of an index, a commodity or a basket of assets

3. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

I. UTS/PRS investors do not purchase the securities in the portfolio directly.

II. Ownership of the portfolio in a UTS is divided into units of entitlement and each investor is
known as a "unit holder".
III. Investments within the UTS/PRS portfolio can increase or decrease in value, as such the value
or "unit price' of each unit increases or decreases accordingly.
IV. UTS/PRS investors are beneficiaries under a trust set up by the UTMC/PRS Providers.

A. l and IV
B. All of the above
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II and Ill

4. Fund XYZ reported the following information as at 31 Dec 202x:

Gross assets: RM500,000
Net assets: RM490,000
Number of units in circulation: 100,000
What is the unit price for Fund XYZ?

A. RM1.00
B. RM0.10
C. RM4.90
D. RM5.00

5. En Zaki is 56 years old and has RM10,000 in his Account Emas. He is interested to invest XYZ
Fund which is an EPF-MIS approved fund. What is his withdrawal eligibility amount to invest in the
XYZ Fund?

A. RM10,000
B. Any amount but must retain at least RM1,000 in his Account 55 or Account Emas
C. Up to 30% of the balance in Account 55 or Account Emas
D. Not eligible

6. Which of the following are the benefits of investing in UTS/PRS?

I. Diversification
II. Affordability and ease of purchase
III. Guaranteed returns
IV. Professional management

A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and IV
C. I and IV
D. I, II and III

7. UTS and PRS have the following characteristics where both of them

I. provide diversification of asset

II. require a Trustee to look after the interest of the investors
III. involve pooling of savings by investors where these savings are invested according to the deed
of the fund
IV. are schemes that encourage investors to make long-term savings and investment decisions

A. I and II
B. I, II, and III
C. All of the above
D. III and IV

8. Which of the followings are characteristics of a Shariah-Based Scheme?

I. A Shariah-based Scheme can meet its investment objectives as long as it is within the scope of
Shariah principles
II. The investment strategy would need to be aligned with the objective of a Shariah-based fund
III. The Scheme Provider must ensure that all daily operations of a Shariah-based Scheme comply
with all the requirements of the Securities Commission Malaysia as well as Shariah requirements
IV. Compliance and supervisory function relating to Shariah matters are under the purview of the
Schemes' Shariah Adviser/Committee

A. All of the above

B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I and II
9. This fund's portfolio comprises equities, fixed income securities, cash and property (REITS).
This statement refers to which type of unit trust fund?

A. Money Market Fund

B. Feeder Fund
C. Fund-of-Funds
D. Balanced Fund

10. Below is the particulars of Cindy's investment holding in a UTS/PRS as at 1 June 2020:

(a) 2,000 units

(b) NAV per unit: RM1.50
(c) A distribution of RM0.50 per unit was declared and paid on the same date in the form of fund
units.

How many number of units did Cindy own after the distribution?
A. 3,000 units
B. 2,000 units
C. 1,000 units
D. 2,500 units

11. ____ is a listed fund that tracks or replicates the performance of an index, a commodity or a
basket of assets like an open-end investment fund.

A. Private Retirement Scheme

B. Closed End Funds
C. Real Estate Investment Trust
D. Exchange Traded Fund

12. Mr. Wong wishes to invest in all major asset classes to reduce the risk of investing in a single
asset class.
Which type of fund is suitable for him?

A. Fixed Income Funds

B. Equity Funds
C. Money Market Funds
D. Mixed Asset Funds

Chapter 3: Regulatory Framework

1. Which of the following legislation, regulations and guidelines are relevant to UTS and PRS?

I. CMSA
II. Guidelines on Advertising Capital Markets Products and Related Services
III. Prospectus Guidelines
IV. Licensing Handbook

A. (i) and (iv)

B. (i), (iii) and (iv)
C. (i), (ii) and (iv)
D. All of the above

2. The Securities Commission Act, 1993 (SCA) empowers the SC to perform the following
regulatory functions:

I. developing the overall capital market and its market segments

II. ensuring proper conduct of all market participants
III. ensuring companies and businesses meet their revenue targets
IV. approving authority for corporate bond issues

A. All of the above

B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV

3. Which of the following statement BEST describes the FIMM's Consolidated Rules (FCR):

A. A consolidation of guidelines, By-Laws and guidance notes previously issued by FIMM in

relation to marketing and distribution of Schemes that are required to be observed by Distributors
and Consultants

B. A set of rules that could assist FIMM members in complying with the Prospectus Guidelines for
Collective Investment Schemes issued by the Securities Commission Malaysia (SC)

C. A series of standards that cover specific operational issues set by FIMM which must be
complied by all Distributors in their operations, unless exemption is given

D. A set of rules that provide for the ethical standards and professional conduct of
Distributors and Consultants.

4. The Consultants are required to comply with minimum standards as set out in the SC's
Guidelines on Advertising for Capital Market Products and Related Services, include:

I. Provide clear, fair and balance information

II. Treat investors fairly at all times
III. Ensure information in advertisements are consistent with information disclosed in prospectus,
disclosure document and product highlight sheet
IV. Take reasonable measures to inform investors that the advertisement is subject to any relevant
warning, disclaimer, qualification or terms and conditions

A. All of the above

B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II and III

Chapter 4: Marketing and Distribution

1. What are the factors that Consultants must consider when rendering investment advice to
investors?

I. Personal circumstances of the investor

II. Risk tolerance of the investor
III. Market outlook
IV. Investment recommendation of the Scheme Provider

A. I and II
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. III and IV

2. In order to determine whether the fund recommended to an investor is suitable or otherwise, the
Consultant must conduct:
A. Investment assessment
B. Credit score rating
C. Suitability assessment
D. Background check

3. Which of the following information are gathered as part of the "Know-Your-Investor" process?
I. Age
II. Profession
III. Marital status
IV. Annual income

A. III
B. All of the above
C. I, II and IV
D. I and II

4. The key contents of a Product Highlight Sheet (PHS) for a UTS and PRS are as follows:

I. Responsibility statement
II. Statement of disclaimer
III. Brief information on the product, Scheme and Scheme Provider
IV. Product suitability

A. I and III
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. All of the above

5. "I can reduce my overall risk by investing in different asset classes."

Which of the following concept supports the above statement?

A. None of the above

B. Dollar cost averaging
C. Liquidity management
D. Diversification

6. A Distributor and Consultant must provide a clear explanation on the UTS and PRS products
that are being marketed. Which of the following features MUST be communicated to the potential
investor?

I. Method to calculate unit prices

II. Risks of investing in the product(s)
III. Terms and conditions of receiving incentives such as gifts
IV. Cooling off period

A. II, III and IV

B. III
C. I, II and III
D. I, II and IV

7. A(n) ____________is a document to enable investors to make an informed decision on their

UTS/PRS investment.

This document provides relevant and accurate information that is material to understand the
management and operation of the respective funds within the Scheme.

A. account opening form

B. prospectus
C. Advertising Guidelines
D. trust deed

8. The following are procedures that need to be undertaken by a PRS Provider before registering
an investor, EXCEPT:

A. Verifying the identification given

B. Verifying member's medical history
C. Establishing member's true identity
D. Establishing client's investment objectives

9. Which of the following statements on the Product Highlight Sheet (PHS) are CORRECT?

I. Potential investors should be given reasonable time to read and understand the PHS
II. Potential investors must be informed to read the PHS and other disclosure materials including
prospectus
III. The PHS facilitates investors' understanding of the product and enables product comparisons
IV. For PRS, a PHS must be prepared for each fund under the Scheme except for the core funds of
the Scheme which must be covered under one PHS

A. I, III and IV
B. All of the above
C. I, II and IV
D. I, II and III

10. The following statements about investors' cooling-off rights are correct, EXCEPT:

I. The cooling-off right period must not be fewer than six (6) business days commencing from the
date of the receipt of the Scheme application by the Scheme Provider.
II. The cooling-off right is only accorded to a first-time investor including consultants.
III. All Scheme Providers adopt the same cooling-off procedures.
IV. Cooling-off rights apply to an existing unit holder who has just purchased units from a new fund.

A. III and IV
B. I and II
C. II, III and IV
D. None of the above

Chapter 5: Industry Code of Ethics and Rules of Professional Conduct

1. The omission of a material fact when dealing with a unit holder or a PRS member is covered
under the principle of __________.

A. observance of confidentiality
B. professionalism
C. honesty and integrity
D. disclosure of information

2. Which of the following statements in relation to Conflict of Interest are TRUE?

I. Consultants must avoid conflicts of interest by concealing the particulars of their conflicts from
their upline and distributor
II. Where conflict of interest cannot be avoided, consultants have a responsibility to disclose their
conflict to their investors in writing
III. Consultants must prioritize investors' interest in the event of conflict
V. Conflicts of interest must only be avoided if they are real

A. II and III
B. All of the above
C. III and IV
D. II, III and IV

3. Alia is a consultant who has taken a portion of her client's money to make a personal online
transaction. However, due to a network error, the online transaction was not successful.
Did Alia commit a misconduct? Please select the most appropriate reason for your
answer.

A. No, she did not because the computing error prevented her from misappropriating her client's
money
B. Yes, she did because she committed forgery
C. No, she did not because her conduct did not cause the client to be worse off
D. Yes, she did because she misappropriated her client's money regardless of the unsuccessful
online transaction

4. Alvin is a former PRS Consultant who has left the PRS industry for five (5) years.
What must Alvin do if he wants to re-register as a PRS Consultant?
A. Obtain 16 CPD points
B. Sit for the FIMM examination
C. Submit to FIMM his registration as a former consultant
D. Obtain 8 CPD points

5. Based on FIMM's Code of Ethics, a consultant should:

I. be honest and act with integrity

II. act in the best interest of investors
III. deal with investors in good faith and treat investors fairly.
IV. create advertisements and promotional materials based on the stipulated regulatory
requirements

A. II and III
B. All of the above
C. I, II, and III
D. I and II

6. Joe recently became a registered unit trust consultant, which is his first and only qualification.
In his social media page, he marketed himself as an investment advisor to attract potential
investors.
Did Joe violate FIMM's Code of Ethics?

A. No. As a registered unit trust consultant, he is qualified to be an investment guru.

B. Yes. As a unit trust consultant, he is not allowed to post anything related to unit trust in social
media.
C. No. Everyone has the right to post whatever they want in social media.
D. Yes. As a unit trust consultant, he is required to comply with FIMM's Code of Ethics.
Therefore, he is not allowed to use any unauthorised designations, titles or qualifications.

7. Which of the following roles must a Consultant do to help their clients in their investment
decisions?

I. Educate clients that investment decisions are made based on investment strategies aimed at
meeting financial goals
II. Explain to clients the risk, liquidity and tax implication of the investments
III. Advise clients on the credit risk exposure and the costs involved
IV. Discuss and recommend appropriate UTS and PRS products

A. I, II and III
B. All of the above
C. I, II and IV
D. I and II

8. FIMM will carry out an investigation upon receiving a complaint from an investor. The following
are the steps that FIMM may take during its investigation, EXCEPT:

I. require the Consultant, Distributor and the employees and agents of Distributor to provide a
written response to the allegation and matters raised by FIMM
II. require the Consultant, Distributor and the employees and agents of Distributor to freeze the
investment account of the investor
III. record statements from the Consultant, Distributor and the employees and agents of Distributor
in relation to the investigation, or from such other person who may assist in the investigation
IV. require the Consultant, Distributor and the employees and agents of Distributor to give or
procure for FIMM, such information, documents, books and records and make copies or extracts of
the same for FIMM

A. II
B. III and IV
C. II and III
D.I

9. A Consultant shall ___________

A. assign or allocate sales of any Schemes to another Consultant
B. accept cash or cash deposits from investors
C. use advertisement and promotional materials that comply with the requirements of the SC
Guidelines
D. engage in aggressive and offensive sales practices

10. Sarah is a UTS and PRS Consultant. On her social media page, she posted the following:
"Contact me NOW if you need help from a professional financial planner to start investing in UTS
and PRS"

Is this posting allowed? Please select the most appropriate reason for your answer.

A. No, Sarah's posting is not allowed because she is misrepresenting herself as a financial planner
B. Yes, Sarah's posting is allowed because as a consultant she is very knowledgable about
investment products
C. No, Sarah is not allowed to use her social media account to market UTS and PRS
D. Yes, Sarah is allowed to use her status as a UTS and PRS consultant to market other products

11. Which of the following statement is TRUE?

A. A Consultant is only allowed to disclose documents or information in an open and co- operative
manner as and when required by FIMM or other regulatory authorities after getting permission from
his/her Distributor

B. A Consultant and Distributor shall disclose the documents or information in an open and co-
operative manner as and when required by FIMM or other regulatory authorities

C. Only Distributors are allowed to disclose documents or information in an open and co-operative
manner as and when required by FIMM or other regulatory authorities upon obtaining approval
from the Securities Commission Malaysia (SC)
D. A Consultant is not allowed to disclose any documents or information to anyone at all

Chapter 6: Personal Financial Planning

1. The following are some of the steps in financial planning:

I. Establish client-planner relationship

II. Understand client and gather data
III. Analyse and evaluate client’s financial status
IV. Manage cash

A. I and III only

B. II, III and IV only
C. I, II and III only
D. All of the above

2. Which of the following statements are TRUE?

I. Personal financial planning covers a comprehensive approach where advice is given on an

ongoing basis
II. Personal financial planning involves an understanding of a client's financial affairs, goals and
personal objectives
III. A financial planner must be an expert in all technical aspects to produce an appropriate
personal financial plan
IV. Personal financial planning generally involves dealing with other professionals appointed by a
client

A. All of the above

B. I, II and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I and II

3. Areas of financial planning include _________.

I. Risk management and insurance planning

II. Investment planning
III. Retirement and estate planning
IV. Time management

A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, III and IV
D. I and II

4. In a comprehensive investment planning engagement, a Consultant should:

I. determine the client's financial objectives and his order of importance

II. analyse the client's financial position and cash flow
III. calculate the remaining assets that will be available to meet investment goals
IV. determine the adequacy of the client's resources to achieve investment goals

A. IV only
B. I only
C. III and IV
D. All of the above
5. Compliance is important to ensure proper management and conduct of Distributors and
Consultants.
Which of the following is the benefit from having a good compliance function in place?

I. Reduce risk of ligitation

II. Attract and retain clients
III. Enhance consultants' professional standards
IV. Reduce clients' complaints and restitution costs

A. All of the above

B. I, II, and IV
C. I, III and IV
D. I, II, and III

6. An effective personal financial plan will help client to

I. Set a roadmap for medium and long-term objectives

II. Improve or maintain present and future lifestyle
III. Get wealthy in a short period of time
IV. Protect and minimise the impact on assets from uncertainties such as the effects of market
volatility and inflation
V. Ensure having adequate income during retirement

A. II, III, IV and V

B. I, II, III and V
C. I, III, IV and V
D. I, II, IV and V

7. Which of the following is the FIRST STEP in financial planning?

A. Analyse and evaluate client's financial status

B. Understand client and gather data
C. Develop and present financial planning recommendations
D. Establish client-planner relationship

8. Alice is a licensed financial planner who had advised her client, Siti to invest in a balanced UTS.
While Siti agreed to the advice, Alice noticed that Siti seemed hesitant and not convinced by this
suggestion.
What should Alice do?
A. To calmly and gently ask Siti if she has any concerns regarding investing in a
balanced UTS
B. To persuade Siti that her advice is good and will help Siti to meet her financial goals
C. To refuse to follow up or proceed with anything until Siti explains her behaviour
D. To proceed with the account opening for Siti to subscribe to the balanced UTS

Chapter 7A: Features and Operations of Unit Trust Scheme

1. What is the main role of a Trustee?

A. Administers the operations of an UTS

B. Invests monies in authorised investments
C. Safeguards the assets of the UTS and the investors’ interests
D. Regulates the operations of an UTMC

2. The deed sets out the salient operational aspects of Unit Trust Scheme (UTS) including
I. Fees and charges
II. Unit Pricing
III. Calculation of Net Asset Value (NAV)
IV. Dividend percentage

A. II, III and IV

B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. All of the above

3. ABX PRS Growth Fund is valued at RM45,561,112.78 with 30,560,200 units as of 31 March
2021.

On the same day, a distribution of RM0.15 per unit was announced and paid in the form of units.
Akmal had 5,000 units in ABX PRS Growth Fund prior to the distribution.

What is his new units balance in the fund after the distribution? (no decimal)

A. 5,309 units
B. 5,457 units
C. 5,559 units
D. 5,503 units

4. Please refer to the extracted financial statement for ABC Growth Fund, below:

Expenses as at 30 November 20XX

Management Fee: RM9,036,940
Trustee Fee: RM302,165
Auditors Fee: RM8,600
Bank charges and other fees: RM4,850,000

The Management Expense Ratio of the Fund for the year ended 30 November 20XX was 1.56%.
What is the average fund size of ABC Growth Fund during the year?

A. RM 599,211,858.98
B. RM 598,660,576.92
C. RM 910,109,294.87
D. RM 221,484198

5. Why do UTMCS declare unit split?

I. To reduce the NAV price per unit

II. To attract investors
III. To increase the number of units in the fund
IV. To increase the profit margins from sale of units

A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I and II
D. II, III and IV

6. Which of the following are the minimum contents of a trust deed?

I. Covenants of the Scheme Provider

II. Joint covenants of the Management Company and Trustee
III. The fund/scheme's target investors
IV. Policy on stockbroking rebates and soft commissions
A. III and IV
B. I and II
C. I and IV
D. III and III

7. What is the maximum amount an investor can borrow if he or she wishes to invest RM200,000
into UTS using loan financing?

A. RM100,000
B. RM132,000
C. RM136,000
D. RM134,000

8. Fees and charges that are directly applied to investors are:

I. Initial service charge

II. Annual management fee
III. Switching and transfer fees
IV. Exit fee

A. I, II and III
B. I, III and IV
C. I and II
D. I and IV

9. An investor raised a concern on his investment in Fund X where the fund's NAV per unit will be
lower after a distribution is declared.

As a unit trust consultant, what is the best way to respond to this investor?

A. Explain to the investor that the unit holder's position before and after a distribution is the same

B. Ignore the investor as it is not your responsibility to advise

C. Explain to the investor that after the fund declared and paid a distribution to the unit holders, the
investor will be in a better position to buy the funds at a higher NAV price per unit

D. Advise the investor that it is better to invest right before the distribution announcement as the
investor will be entitled for the distribution payment

10. Fund XYZ recently launched a fund on 3 January 20X2 at RM 0.50 NAV per unit with sales
charge of 3.5%. Bob invested RM1,000 in the fund on 30 January 20X2 at 10pm.

Details of the fund’s pricing are shown below:

Date NAV per unit
30 January 20X2 RM 0.76
31 January 20X2 RM 0.80

Assuming that fund XYZ adopts forward pricing and the dealing cut-off point is at 4pm every
business day, what would be the number of units Bob will get?

A. 760 units
B. 733 units
C. 773 units
D. 800 units
11. Which of the following statement about trustee fee and custody fee is typically CORRECT?

A. Only trustee fee is charged to the UTMC/PRS Provider whereas custody fee is charged to the
UTS/PRS.
B. Both trustee fee and custody fee are charged to the UTS/PRS.
C. UTMC/PRS Provider pay for both trustee fee and custody fee.
D. Unit holders pay for both trustee fee and custody fee.

Chapter 7B: Features and Operations of PRS Scheme

1. What are some of the cited benefits from the PRS?

I. Reduce the needs for Malaysians to invest in unit trusts

II. Additional source of long-term capital for economic growth
III. Improve the living standards of Malaysians at their retirement
IV. Increase the fiscal burden of the Government to provide a social safety net

A, I and IV only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. II, III & IV only

2. Which of the following are public sector pension schemes for government servants?
I. Employees Provident Fund (EPF)
II. Kumpulan Wang Persaraan (Diperbadankan) (KWAP)
III. Lembaga Tabung Angkatan Tentera (LTAT)
IV. Private Pension Administrator (PPA)

A. I and III
B. All of the above
C. II and III
D. I, II and III

3. Which of the following events can cause conditionally vested units to become unconditional?
I. Cessation of the employee's employment
II. Merger or acquisition of the employer by another entity
III. Termination of the vesting schedule
IV. Death of the employee

A. I, II and IV
B. I and II
C. I, III and IV
D. All of the above

4. Which of the following statements are TRUE about Private Retirement Schemes (PRS) and its
Account Structure?

I. 30% of all contributions made to any fund within the Scheme is held in sub-account B and can be
withdrawn once a year upon payment of tax penalty
II. Retirement age defined under the PRS Guidelines is 55 years old
III. 50% of all contributions made to any fund is held in sub account A
IV. A member is not allowed to withdraw should he/she decide to permanently depart from
Malaysia

A. III and IV
B. I and IV
C. I and II
D. All of the above

5. Micheal has been investing in 2 PRS funds offered by XYZ Company for 4 years since 2016. In
December 2020, he has accumulated RM20,000 in Sub Account A and RM10,000 in Sub Account
B. If he decides to apply for a pre-retirement withdrawal, which of the following circumstances
would not incur the 8% tax penalty?

I. Finance his PhD studies in Russia

II. Downpayment for his new house
III. Leaving Malaysia permanently
IV. Wife's medical expenses (her illness is not listed in Schedule J, PRS Guidelines)

A. I and III
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I and IV

6. Ali is a 47-year-old was senior manager. His company makes a monthly contibution to the
employees' PRS accounts.

Ali chose a PRS Provider but did not select a specific PRS fund.

Which fund will Ali's monthly contribution be automatically allocated to?

A. Balanced Fund
B. Growth Fund
C. Conservative Fund
D. Moderate Fund
Answer:

Chapter 1: Understanding Collective Investments Scheme in Malaysia

1. C
2. C
3. A
4. C
5. B
6. A

Chapter 2: Introduction to UTS and PRS

1. B
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. D
10. A
11. D
12. D

Chapter 3: Regulatory Framework

1. D
2. D
3. A
4. A

Chapter 4: Marketing and Distribution

1. B
2. C
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. D
7. B
8. B
9. B
10. C

Chapter 5: Industry Code of Ethics and Rules of Professional Conduct

1. D
2. A
3. D
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. A
9. C
 10. A
11. B

Chapter 6: Personal Financial Planning

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. D
7. D
8. A

Chapter 7A: Features and Operations of Unit Trust Scheme

1. C
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. A
10. No answer. Correct answer is 1207units
11. B

Chapter 7B: Features and Operations of PRS Scheme

1. C
2. C
3. D
4. C
5. B
6. D

Calculation
Chapter 2: Introduction to UTS and PRS

4. Answer C
Unit price for Funds XYZ = RM490000 = RM4.90
100000 units

10. Answer A
number of units = 2000 units + (2000 units x RM0.50)
(RM1.50 – RM0.50)
= 2000 units + RM1000
RM1
= 2000 units + 1000 units
= 3000 units
Chapter 7A: Features and Operations of Unit Trust Scheme

3. Answer C

NAV per unit = RM45561112.78 = RM1.491

30560200 units

New units = 5000 units + (5000 units x RM0.15)

(RM1.491 – RM0.15)
= 5000 units + RM750
RM1.341
= 5000 units + 559.28 units
= 5559 units

[Link] C

Total expenses = RM9036940 + RM302165 + RM8600 + RM4850000 = RM14197705

MER = Total expenses x 100

Average Fund Size

1.56 = RM14197705 X 100

Average Fund Size

Average Fund Size = RM14197705 X 100

1.56

= RM910109294.87

7. Answer D

Max. amount = RM200000 x 67% = RM134000

10. No answer

Working money = RM1000 = RM966.184

1.035

Unit hold = RM966.184

RM0.80
= 1207 units