PHYSICS QUESTION

1. The velocity ~ time graph of a stone thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity (taken +ve
upward) of 30m/s is shown in the figure below. What is the maximum height to which the stone
rises?

a) 30m
b) 60m
c) 45m
d) 90m
2. A child accompanying a passenger in a train threw a ball vertically upward in his playful mood
inside the train. The ball instead of returning to his hand held at the same place fell down in front
of him. What would you think about the state of motion of the train at that time.
a) The train was moving uniformly.
b) The train was accelerating uniformly.
c) The train was standing at rest.
d) The train was retarding its motion by applying break.

3. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given
below:
Assertion (A): Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically upward with same speed.
They will pass through their point of projection in the downward direction with the same speed.
Reason (R) : The maximum height and downward velocity attained at the point of projection are
independent of the mass of the ball.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion and reason both are false
4. In which of the following cases forces may not be required to keep the
(a) particle going in a uniform circular motion
(b) particle going along a straight line
(c) momentum of the particle constant
 (d) acceleration of the particle constant
5. A system of two blocks (1 and 2) is placed on a rough
horizontal ground as shown in the figure. A force F is applied
horizontally on block 2 such that both the blocks start moving
together. If f1, is the frictional force on body 1 due to the body
2 and f2 is the fiction of the ground on body 2, then which of
the following statements is correct
a) f1 and f2 are in forward direction
b) f1 and f2 are in backward direction
c) f1 is in forward and f2 is in backward direction
d) f1 is in backward and f2 is in forward direction
6. A gun of mass 10kg fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20g and the velocity of
the bullet when it leaves the gun is 300m/s. The force required to hold the gun while firing is
a) 6N
b) 8N
c) 24N
d) 240N

7. Under the action of a force F directly proportional to the displacement (x) as shown in the figure
with slope k, the position of a body changes from x = 0 to x = a. The work done by the force in
the process is

1
a) 𝑘𝑥 2
2

b) ka2

c) kxa
1
d) ka2
2

8. A fissile object of certain mass is thrown vertically upward such that at the highest point of its
projection it splitted up into two parts with mass ratio 2:3 moving horizontally opposite to each
other at the time of splitting. The ratio of their kinetic energy at that instant is
a) 2:3
b) 3:2
c) 4:9
d) 9:4
9. A car of mass 1250 kg is moving at 30m/s. Its engine delivers 30 kW while resistive force due to
surface is 750N. The maximum acceleration the engine can produce is

1 1
m / s2 m / s2
(a) 3 (b)
4

1 1
m / s2 m / s2
(c)
5 (d) 6
10. Two spheres of same material, each of radius R are placed in contact with each other on a
horizontal surface .The force of attraction between these two spheres will be proportional to
(a) R-2
2
(b) R
(c) R 4
(d) None of these

11. The height from earth surface at which the weight of a body becomes 1 th its weight on the
16
surface of earth (radius R) is

a) 4R b) 5R c) 15R d) 3R

12. Which one of the following statements is not true for the appearance of blue colour of sky.
a) Human eyes are more sensitive to the scattered blue light.
b) Violet and blue lights get scattered more than the lights of other colours by the atmosphere.
c) Blue light moves faster in air than light of any other colour.
d) Light of all other colours except violet and blue scatter least by the atmosphere.
13. Green light of frequency 5494 × 102 GHZ is incident on air-glass interface.
If the refractive index of glass is 1.5, the frequency of this light in glass would be

a) 3662 × 102 𝐺𝐻𝑧

b) 8241 × 102 𝐺𝐻𝑧

c) 5494 × 102 𝐺𝐻𝑧

d) None of the above

14. Two plane mirrors are perpendicular to each other. A ray after suffering reflection form the
two mirrors will be
a) Perpendicular to first mirror
b) Parallel to first mirror
c) Perpendicular to original ray
d) Parallel to original ray
15. An object is placed in front of a concave mirror between its pole and the focus. What would
be correct stating the nature, size and position of the image?
a) A real, inverted image diminished in size between f and 2f.
b) A real, inverted image equal in size at 2f.
c) A real, inverted image highly magnified beyond 2f.
d) A virtual, erect image and magnified behind the mirror.
16. Two electric bulbs rated P1 and P2 watt at V volt are connected in series across V volt mains.
Then their total power consumption P is

a) 𝑃1 + 𝑃2

b) √𝑃1 𝑃2

c) 𝑃1 𝑃2 /(𝑃1 + 𝑃2 )

d) (𝑃1 + 𝑃2 )/𝑃1 𝑃2

17. A wire has resistance of 24  is bent in the following shape. The effective resistance
between A and B is

60°

60°
A
B
5 cm

10 cm
(a) 24 
(b) 10 
16
(c) 3 

(d) None of these

18. A battery of 6V with internal resistance of 1𝛺 is connected to an external resistance of 35 𝛺 as
shown in the figure. The reading in the voltmeter is

6
a) 𝑉
35
35
b) 𝑉
6
c) 6 V
d) 216 V
19. Two statements are given in each case – one related to Asserting (A) and the other labeled as
Reasoning (R). Select the correct option from the four codes (a), (b), (c),(d)
Assertion (A) : A uniform magnetic field is acting in a direction from left to right on
planes parallel to the horizontal page of this paper. If an electron enters this field at right
angle in a top to bottom direction with a uniform velocity; it will experience a force
which would be directed out of the page.
Reason (R) : The direction of the force is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic
field as well as the current direction according to Fleming’s left Hand Rule.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
20. Two long straight parallel conductors carrying equal current are placed as shown in the figure.
B is the midpoint between the two conductors and positions A and C are as shown in the
figure. Which of the following statements is correct?

A B C

a) Magnetic field at A is equal to the magnetic field at C.

b) Direction of magnetic field at B is inward.
c) Direction of magnetic field at B is outward.
d) Magnetic field at B is zero.
 CHEMISTRY QUESTION
1. A hydrated salt of Na2SO3 loses 22.22% of its mass on strong heating. The hydrated salt is :
a) Na2SO3. 4H2O
b) Na2SO3.6H2O
c) Na2SO3.H2O
d) Na2SO3.2H2O
2. Which of the following represents 32 gram of substance ?
a) 1 mole of oxygen molecule
b) 1 gram atom of sulphur
c) 22.4L of oxygen gas at STP
d) All of these
3. The ion that is iso-electronic with carbon monoxide is :
a) 𝑂2−
b) 𝑁2+
c) 𝐶𝑁 −
d) 𝑂2+
4. Assertion (A) : In Rutherford’s gold foil experiment very few alpha particles are deflected back.
Reason (R) : Nucleus present inside the atom is positively charged.
Mark the correct choices as:
a) Both the assertion (A) and reason(R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
b) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true.
5. The density of water at room temperature is 1.0gmL-1. How many molecules are there in a drop
of water if its volume is 0.05ml ?
a) 2.4 × 1022
b) 1.68 × 1021
c) 6.02 × 1021
d) 3.9 × 1020
 ∆
6. Assertion (A): 4𝐻3 𝑃𝑂3 → 3𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 +𝑃𝐻3 is an example of disproportionation reaction.
Reason (R): In a disproportionation reaction an element in one oxidation state is simultaneously
oxidized and reduced.
Mark the correct choices as:

a) Both the assertion (A) and reason(R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
b) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true.

7. A white solid (A) on thermal decomposition produces a yellow solid (B), a brown gas (C) along
with oxygen. The correct chemical equation for the above reaction is :

∆
a) 2𝑃𝑏(𝑁𝑂3 )2 → 2𝑃𝑏𝑂 + 2𝑁2 + 5𝑂2
∆
b) 2𝑃𝑏(𝑁𝑂3 )2 → 2𝑃𝑏𝑂 + 4𝑁𝑂 + 3𝑂2
∆
c) 2𝑃𝑏(𝑁𝑂3 )2 → 2𝑃𝑏𝑂 + 4𝑁𝑂2 + 𝑂2
∆
d) 𝑃𝑏(𝑁𝑂3 )2 → 𝑃𝑏𝑂 + 𝑁2 𝑂 + 2𝑂2

8. The products formed by the following reaction are :

𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝑁𝐻3 →

a) 𝑁𝐻4 𝐻𝐶𝑂3, 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙

b) (𝑁𝐻4 )2 𝐶𝑂3 , 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
c) 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3
d) 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3
9. A gas ‘X’ is obtained by the action of dilute acid on washing soda. When the gas ‘X’ is passed
through lime water, it turns milky and on passing excess the gas, the milkiness disappears. The
correct reactions showing the formation of gas ‘X’ and formation of milky compound
respectively are:
a) 2𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐻2 𝑂
𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝐶𝑎 (𝐻𝐶𝑂3 )2
b) 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐻2 𝑂
𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻 )2 + 𝐶𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂
c) 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂3 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝑆𝑂2
𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻 )2 + 𝑆𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂
d) All of the above
10. Between H3PO4 and H3PO3 , which of the following statement is correct ?
a) H3PO3 is a reducing agent and dibasic in nature.
b) H3PO4 is a reducing agent and dibasic in nature.
c) H3PO4 is a reducing agent and tribasic in nature.
d) H3PO3 is neither a reducing agent nor dibasic in nature.
11. A metal ‘X’ when exposed to moist air containing CO2 produced a green coating ‘Y’ ‘X’ and ‘Y’
are :
a) Cu and [Link](OH)2
b) Zn and [Link](OH)2
c) Cu and [Link](OH)2
d) Zn and [Link](OH)2
12. Four metals A, B, C and D are in turn, added to the following solutions one by one and the
observations made are tabulated below

Metals FeSO4(aq) CuSO4(aq) Al2(SO4)3(aq) AgNO3(aq)

A No reaction Displacement No reaction Displacement

B Displacement Displacement No reaction Displacement

C Displacement Displacement Displacement Displacement

D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction

 The correct order of reactivity of the metals A, B, C and D is
a) C > A > B > D
b) D > A > B > C
c) D > B > A > C
d) C > B > A > D
O
||
13. The name of CH 3  C = CH  CH 2  C  CH  CH 3
| |
CH 3 Br

according to IUPAC nomenclature system is:

a) 6-Bromo-2-methylhept-2-en-5-one
b) 2-Bromo-6-methylhept-5-en-3-al
c) 2-Bromo-6-methylhept-5-en-3-one
d) 6-Methyl-2-bromohept-5-en-3-one
14. Propanol and methoxyethane both are:
a) Position isomers
b) Chain isomers
c) Metamers
d) Functional isomers
15. Assertion (A) : Carbon shows catenation to large extent than that of silicon though both the
elements belong to the same group of modern periodic table.
Reason (R) : C-C bond is stronger than Si-Si bond.
Mark the correct choices as:
a) Both the assertion (A) and reason(R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
b) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct explanation of
assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true.
 16. The number of covalent bonds present in first member of the homologous series of ketone is :
a) 4
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10
17. Which of the following has highest metallic character?
Element Ionisation energy (eV)

P 16.2
Q 1.5
R 12.2
S 10.5

a) S
b) Q
c) R
d) P
18. The element with atomic number 64 belongs to which group and period of the modern periodic
table?
a) group - 3, period - 6
b) group - 2, period - 6
c) group - 13, period - 6
d) group - 14, period – 6
19. Identify the correct increasing order of atomic radii of B, 𝐴𝐼 & Ga.
a) B < Al < Ga
b) B < Ga < Al
c) Al < B < Ga
d) Ga < Al < B
20. The process requiring the absorption of energy is :
a) 𝐹 → 𝐹−
b) 𝐶𝑙 → 𝐶𝑙 −
c) 𝑂 → 𝑂−
d) 𝑂 → 𝑂2−
 BIOLOGY QUESTION
[Link] fertilization is a unique process that takes place in angiosperms. The process is
initiated with compatible pollen-pistil interaction. It is of great significance with regard to
formation and development of embryo. It involves
(a) fertilization of egg cell by two male gametes.
(b) fertilization of egg cell and a central cell by two male gametes brought by same pollen
tube.
(c) fertilization of egg cell and a central cell by single male gamete brought by the pollen
tube.
(d) fertilization of egg cell and a central cell by two male gametes brought by different pollen
tubes.
2. Oogenesis is a hormone regulated process that takes place in the female reproductive
system. In mammals it may take several months and years for completion. The last stage of
the process is maturation of secondary oocyte which is completed
(a) shortly after ovulation but before the secondary oocyte makes entry into the fallopian
tube.
(b) just after the secondary oocyte has been penetrated by the sperm.
(c) after the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum.
(d) in the graafian follicle following the first maturation division.
3. Plant tissue culture is a collection of techniques used to maintain or grow plant cells,
tissues or organs under sterile conditions on a nutrient culture medium of known
composition. To obtain virus free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture
technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?
(a) Apical meristem only
(b)Palisade parenchyma
(c)Both apical and axillary meristems
(d)Epidermis only
[Link] a plant species, flower colour yellow is dominant over white and fruit shape round is
dominant over elongated. Crossing over was performed between two pure lines, i.e. one
having yellow flower and round fruit and another with white flower and elongated fruit.
About 20 plants survived in F1 progeny. Plants of F1 were allowed for self fertilization and
about 960 plants survived in F2. If the traits follow Mendelian inheritance, the number of
plants that would have yellow flower and round fruit in F1 and F2 respectively will be
(a)10, 180
(b)20, 540
(c)20, 60
(d) 20, 180
5.A homozygous tall plant was grown in nutrient deficient soil and remained dwarf. When
it is crossed a with dwarf plant and the seeds grown under normal conditions, then
(a) all hybrid plants are dwarf
(b) all hybrid plants are tall
(c)50% tall and 50% dwarf
(d)75% tall and 25% dwarf

[Link](A): In humans the type of male gamete that fuses with the egg determines
whether the child will be male or female.
Reason(R): Male produces heterogametes whereas female produces homo-gametes in all
animals.
A. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
B. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Assertion is false but reason is true

7. Consider the following statements concerning food chains and food web:
I. Removal of 90% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of
vegetation.
II. In a food web the same organism may be found at different trophic levels.
III. The length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy
loss.
IV. The organism at the last trophic level of the food chain receives the maximum
amount of energy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a)III only
(b)II and III
(c)I, II and IV

(d)I and II

[Link](A): UV radiation causes photo dissociation of ozone into O2 and O, thus causing
damage to the stratospheric ozone layer.
Reason(R): UV-B is responsible for causing mutations leading to various types of cancer.
A. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
B. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Assertion is false but reason is true
[Link] are the structural and functional unit of kidney involved in the process of
excretion and osmoregulation. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which
of the following to be expected?
(a)The urine will be more concentrated
(b)The urine will be more dilute
(c)There will be no urine formation
(d)There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.

[Link] to some injury the chordae tendineae of mitral valve in human heart became partially
non-functional. What would be its effect on blood circulation?
(a)The flow of blood into pulmonary artery will be reduced.
(b) The blood will tend to backflow into left atrium.
(c) The blood will tend to backflow into right atrium.
(d)There will be more flow of blood into the aorta.
[Link](A): The inner membrane of mitochondrion is highly folded forming finger
like projections called cristae.
Reason(R): The inner membrane is less permeable in comparison to the outer mitochondrial
membrane.
A. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
B. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Assertion is false but reason is true
12. The RER in the cell synthesises proteins which would be later used in building the
plasma membrane. But it is observed that the protein in the membrane is slightly different
from the protein made in the RER. Identify the organelle in which the protein was probably
modified.
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi bodies
d. Lysosome
13. Chloroplast contains pigments such as chlorophylls, xanthophylls, carotenoids for
absorption of sunlight. Both grana and stroma are equally important for the process of
photosynthesis. Choose the location of Chlorophyll pigments in chloroplast.
a. In outer membrane
b. In Stroma
c. In grana and stroma
d. In thylakoid
14. Epithelial cells are found covering the body and visceral organs with necessary
modifications. Somewhere these are cuboidal, somewhere columnar and these may or may
not be provided with cilia. The type of epithelial cells forming the linings of kidney tubules
and ducts of salivary glands are
a. ciliated columnar epithelium
b. cuboidal epithelium
c. squamous epithelium
d. stratified epithelium
15. A plant cell having a cellulosic wall, a thin lining of cytoplasm, enucleated but still
living. It is a part of complex permanent tissue. The cell is
a. tracheid
b. companion cell
c. sieve tube cell
d. vessels
16. Pathogens have a target site for multiplication in host body. The bacteria causing peptic
ulcer having the symptoms of acidity related pain and bleeding in stomach and intestine is
under control by antibiotics and the disease is no longer a chronic disease. The
microorganism that causes peptic ulcer is
a. Treponema palladium
[Link] gambiensie
[Link] pylori
[Link]
17. Pathogens have a specific target site for multiplication in the host body. The life cycle
of malarial parasite is complex and it has more than one host. Which of the following sites
you will look for sporozoites, the infective stage of malarial parasite?
a. Pancreas of human being
b. Salivary glands of freshly moulted female Anopheles mosquito
c. Salivary glands of infected female Anopheles mosquito
d. Red blood corpuscles of humans suffering from sickle cell anaemia
18. Innate immunity is maintained by physical, cellular, physiological and inflammatory
barriers. Saliva acts as a physiological barriers of immune system and prevents the entry of
pathogens in our body as it contains
a. Lysozyme
b. Amylase
c. Peptidase
d. zymase

19. Digestion of food stuffs is mediated by both mechanical and chemical processes.
Enzymes are the biocatalysts, accelerating the chemical reactions of our body. If for some
reason the parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is
likely to happen?
a. pH of the stomach will fall abruptly.
b. Pepsin will be more effective
c. Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones.
d. The pancreatic enzymes and specially trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently.
20. During which stage in the complete oxidation of glucose highest number of ATP
molecules are formed from ADP?
a. Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A.
b. Glycolysis
c. Electron transport chain
d. Krebs cycle
 MATHEMATICS
1. Find the number of integral solutions of 𝑥𝑦 = 22 34 57 (𝑥 + 𝑦)
a) 775
b) 675
c) 125
d) 575
2. For a real number x < -1 which of the following is true?
a) x < x2 < x3
b) x < x3 < x2
c) x2 < x3 < x
d) x3 < x < x2
1 1
3. If 𝑥 = 2 + √3 and 𝑦 = 2 − √3, then the value of (𝑥 3 + 𝑦 3 ) is
a) 42
b) 48
c) 50
d) 52
4. A certain number when divided by 222 leaves a remainder 35, another number when divided by 407
leaves a remainder 47. What will be the remainder when some of these two numbers is divided by 37
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
1
5. Let p(x) be a polynomial of degree 3 and 𝑝(𝑛) = 𝑛 for n=1,2,3,4. Then the value of p(5) is

(a) 0
1
(b) 5
−2
(c) 5
3
(d)
5
6. Number of real roots satisfying the equation √2𝑥 + 7 + √𝑥 + 4 = 0
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) More than 2
1
7. Let p and q are distinct prime numbers, then number of positive integral solutions of the equation 𝑥 +
1 1
= 𝑝𝑞 is
𝑦

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
8. Pick out the correct option with regard to the following statements.
I. The pair of linear equations 𝑎1 𝑥 + 𝑏1 𝑦 + 𝑐1 = 0 and 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑏2 𝑦 + 𝑐2 = 0 have no solution if
𝑎1 𝑏1
≠
𝑎2 𝑏2
II. The pair of linear equation 𝑎1 𝑥 + 𝑏1 𝑦 + 𝑐1 = 0 and 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑏2 𝑦 + 𝑐2 = 0 have infinite solutions
𝑎1 𝑏 𝑐
if = 𝑏1 = 𝑐1
𝑎2 2 2

a) I is true but II is false

b) I is false but II is true
c) Both I and II are true
d) Both I and II are false
9. A man row downstream at 12 km /hr and upstream at 8km/hr. Then the speed of the man in still water
is
a) 12 km/hr
b) 10 km/hr
c) 8 km/hr
d) 4 km/hr
10. The length of each side of a ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 are in integral units. If the length of side AB=10units, length of
side BC=15 units, then the number of distinct possible value of length of side AC is
a) 13
b) 19
c) 21
d) 25
11. In the given figure, PQ and PR are tangents to the circle. QS is the diameter of the circle. Then
which one of the following is correct?

1
a) ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅 = 2 ∠𝑅𝑄𝑆
b) ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅 = ∠𝑅𝑄𝑆
c) ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅 = 2 ∠𝑅𝑄𝑆
d) None of these
12. The diagonals 𝐴𝐶 and 𝐵𝐷 of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other at right angle in E.
Let R be the circumradius of the ABCD and EA2+EB2+EC2+ED2=nR2 then the value of n is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
13. Two circles with centres A and B have radii 8cm and 1cm respectively. The length of the line AB is
13cm. A third circle with centre ‘C’ and radius ‘r’ cm touches both circles externally. If ∠ACB=900,
then value of ‘r’ is
a) 11
b) 9
c) 7
d) 4
14. If three circles of radius 1 unit each are inscribed in an equilateral triangle, then the area of the triangle
is
a) (6 + 4√3) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
b) (8 + √3) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
c) (6 + √3) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
d) 4(1 + √3) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠

15. If 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 = 1, then which one the following is true ?

a) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 = 1
b) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 = 1
c) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥 = 1
d) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 𝑥 = 1
16. The shadow of a tower standing on the ground level is found to be 60 metres longer when the Sun’s
attitude is 300 than when it is 450. Then height of the tower is
a) 60 metres
b) 30 metres
c) 30(√3 + 1)metres
d) 60(√3 − 1) metres

𝑧 𝑥 𝑦
17. If x, y, z are natural numbers satisfy 𝑥 𝑦 . 𝑦 𝑧 . 𝑧 𝑥 = 5𝑥𝑦𝑧 then the value of x+y+z is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 8
18. Let XOY be a triangle with 𝑚∠𝑋𝑂𝑌 = 900 let M and N be the midpoints of Legs 𝑂𝑋 and 𝑂𝑌
respectively with XN=19cm, YM=22cm then Length of XY is
a) 23cm
b) 24cm
c) 25cm
d) 26cm
19. Let N₁=2⁵⁵+1 and N<sub>2<sub>=165 Then
a) N1 and N2 are co prime
b) The HCF (Highest common factor ) of N1 and N2 is 55
c) The HCF of N1 and N2 is 11
d) The HCF of N1 and N2 is 33
𝑠𝑖𝑛6 𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠6 𝜃
20. The value of is equal to
𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠2 𝜃
a) 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃
4

b) 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 𝜃
c) 1 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃
d) 1 − 3𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃
21. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the roots of the equation 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 3 = 0, then the quadratic equation whose roots
are 𝛼 2 𝛽 and 𝛼𝛽 2 is

a) 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 3 = 0
b) 3𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 5 = 0
c) 3𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 3 = 0
d) 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 3 = 0
1
22. The water level in a cylindrical container of radius 2 𝑚 is 3.2 m. When a spherical solid object is
completely submerged in the water, the water level rises by 0.6m. Then the volume (in m3) of the
sphere is
11
a) 35
11
b) 70
33
c) 70
d) None of these
23. Let x1,x2….x11 be 11 distinct positive integers. If we replace the largest of these integers by the median
of the other 10 integers, then
a) the median remains the same
b) the mean increases
c) the median decreases
d) the mean remains the same
𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛼+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛽+𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛾
24. If 0 < 𝛼 < 𝛽 < 𝛾 < 900 then lies between
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛽+𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛾
a) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛾
b) 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝛾
c) 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝛾
d) 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑐𝑜𝑡𝛾

25. The 10th term from the end of the AP 5, 12,19,….,173 is

a) 117
b) 103
c) 110
d) 96
26. Using 1,2,3,4,5 five digit numbers are formed. The probability that the number is divisible by 3 is
1
a) 2
1
b) 3
c) 1
2
d) 3

27. If the rank of 10 students A1, A2…., A10 is displayed with a condition that no two student will get
the same rank, then what is the probability that the student A1 will always secure better rank than A2

1
a) 4
1
b)
2
1
c) 3
2
d) 3

28. A shoe company, making shoes for adults only, wants to know the most popular size of shoes. Which
measure of central tendency will be most suitable for it?
a) Mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) Mean and Median
29. If the 9th term of an Arithmetic progression (AP) is 499 and 499th term is 9, then which term of the AP
is zero ?
a) 509th
b) 508th
c) 507th
d) 506th

30. Two right circular cones having the same base radius of 2cm , but heights 3cm and 5cm are melted
and recasted into a single sphere. Then the surface area of the sphere in cm2 is
a) 32𝜋
b) 20𝜋
c) 16𝜋
d) 10𝜋
31. The radius ‘r’ of a cylinder is made twice as large by keeping the volume same as before. If ‘h’ is
the height of the original cylinder and ‘H’ is the height of the new cylinder , then which of the
following condition is true ?
1
a) 𝐻 = 4 ℎ
b) 𝐻 ≥ ℎ
1
c) ℎ = 4 𝐻
d) 𝐻 = 2ℎ
32. There are two temples, one on each bank of a river, just opposite to each other. One temple is 54m
high. From the top of this temple, the angles of depression of the top and the foot of the other temple
are 300 and 600 respectively. Then the height of the other temple is
a) 54m
b) 46m
c) 36m
d) 18m
33. If A, B,C,D are the angles of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, then the value of cosA+cosB+cosC+cosD
is
−1
a)
√2
1
b) 2
√3
c) 2
d) 0
𝐴 5 𝐶 2
34. In a triangle ABC if 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 = 6 and 𝑡𝑎𝑛 2 = 5 then
a) a, c, b are in AP
b) a, b,c are in AP
c) b,a,c are in AP
d) None of these
35. In the following figure, if the area of the rectangle is 80 unit2, then the area of the kite is
a) 30 unit2
b) 40 unit2
c) 50 unit2
d) 60 unit2

36. Consider the following statements for any convex quadrilateral

I. The line segments joining the midpoints of the two pairs of opposite sides, bisect each other at
the point of intersection.
II. The area of the quadrilateral formed by joining the midpoints of the adjacent sides is half of the
total of the original quadrilateral.
Which of the following statement (s) is /are true?

a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I and II
37. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝜃 = 1 − 𝑎2 , then 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛3 𝜃 . 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 is equal to
a) √2 − 𝑎2
b) (2 − 𝑎2 )3/2
c) 2 − 𝑎2
d) None of these
38. If 00 < 𝜃 < 900 , and 2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 2√2 = 3𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 , then the value of 𝜃 is
a) 300
b) 600
c) 450
d) None of these
39. The percentage increase in the area of a triangle, if its each side is doubled is
a) 200%
b) 50%
c) 300%
d) 400%

40. If 𝑝(𝑥) = 𝑎𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 4 and 𝑞(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 − 4𝑥 + 𝑎 have the same remainder when divided
by (x-3), then the value of a is
a) -1
b) 0
c) 1
d) None of these