NSEJS Part Test -2
DURATION: 2 Hours [Link]: 216
Topic Covered
Physics : Gravitation & Work, Energy and Power
Chemistry : Mole
Biology : _____________
GENERAL INSTRUCTION
1. Immediately fill in the required particulars on the cover page of the Test Booklet and the OMR Answer Sheet.
2. The duration of the examination is 2 hours (120 minutes).
3. The Test Booklet consists of 60 multiple-choice questions (MCQs).
4. The question paper is divided into two sections:
○ Section A (Questions 1 to 48):
■ Questions from Physics, Chemistry, and Biology
■ Only one correct option for each question
○ Section B (Questions 49 to 60):
■ Questions from all three subjects
■ More than one option may be correct
5. Marking Scheme:
○ Section A (Q1–Q48):
■ +3 marks for each correct answer
■ –1 mark for each incorrect answer
■ 0 marks for unanswered questions
○ Section B (Q49–Q60):
■ +6 marks only if all correct options are selected and no incorrect options are marked
■ 0 marks if any correct option is missed or any incorrect option is selected (no partial or negative marking)
6. Use only a black or blue ballpoint pen to darken your selected options on the OMR sheet.
○ Do not use pencil or gel pens.
○ Completely fill the bubble corresponding to your chosen option(s).
○ Avoid overwriting or stray marks on the OMR.
7. In Section A, selecting more than one option for a question will be treated as incorrect and will result in negative marking.
8. In Section B, you must mark all the correct options and no incorrect options to receive full marks.
○ Partial answers will receive zero.
9. Do not carry any prohibited items such as:
○ Textbooks, notes, or written/printed material
○ Mobile phones, smartwatches, calculators, or any electronic devices
10. Do not do rough work on the OMR sheet. Use the blank space in the Test Booklet for rough calculations.
11. Maintain silence and discipline throughout the examination.
● Any form of malpractice or unfair means will lead to disqualification.
12. At the end of the examination:
● Hand over the OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator.
● You are allowed to take the Test Booklet with you.
13. No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall before the full 2-hour duration is over.
SECTION-A
[Single Correct Answer Type Questions, each 7. A body of mass 2 kg is raised to a height of 10 m.
question has four choices, only ONE is correct) The work done is:
1. A body is taken from the surface of the Earth to a (A) 20 J (B) 100 J
height equal to twice the radius of the Earth. The (C) 200 J (D) 500 J
change in its gravitational potential energy is: 8. A boy pulls a cart with a force of 20 N making an
2 1 angle of 60° with the horizontal, causing a
(A) mgR (B) mgR
3 2 displacement of 5 m. The work done is:
2 (A) 20 J (B) 25 J
(C) mgR (D) mgR
3
(C) 40 J (D) 50 J
2. If the radius of Earth decreases by 1% while its
9. A car of mass 1000 kg is moving with a speed of 20
mass remains constant, the acceleration due to
m/s. The work required to stop the car is:
gravity on the surface will:
(A) 2 × 104 J (B) 4 × 105 J
(A) Decrease by 1% (B) Increase by 1%
(C) 2 × 105 J (D) 1 × 105 J
(C) Increase by 2% (D) Increase by 3%
10. If the kinetic energy of a body becomes four times
3. The escape velocity on the surface of a planet
its initial value, its momentum will become:
depends on:
(A) Twice (B) Four times
(A) Only on the planet’s mass
(C) Half (D) Thrice
(B) Only on the planet’s radius
11. A stone of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of 20
(C) Both mass and radius of the planet
m. What will be its kinetic energy just before
(D) Neither on mass nor radius
touching the ground? (Take g=10 m/s^2)
4. A satellite is revolving around the Earth at height h
(A) 100 J (B) 200 J
from the surface. Its orbital velocity is proportional
(C) 400 J (D) 20 J
to:
12. The work done by centripetal force on a body in
1 1
(A) (B) circular motion is:
Rh Rh
(A) Always positive (B) Always negative
(C) Rh (D) (R h)2
(C) Zero (D) Depends on speed
5. The time period of a planet around the Sun is T 13. A spring of constant k is compressed by distance x.
when its orbit radius is r. If its orbit radius becomes Its potential energy is:
9r, its new time period will be:
1 2
(A) kx (B) kx
(A) 9T (B) 27T 2
(C) 3 3T (D) 271/ 2 T 1
(C) kx2 (D) kx
2
6. The minimum energy required to launch a satellite
14. A machine delivers 500 J of useful work per second
of mass m into a circular orbit just above Earth’s
while consuming 1000 J of energy per second. Its
surface is:
efficiency is:
1
(A) mgR (B) mgR
(A) 25% (B) 50%
2
1 (C) 75% (D) 100%
(C) mgR (D) 2 mgR
4 15. A pump of power 2 kW lifts water at the rate of 100
kg per minute. The maximum height to which it can
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lift the water is: (Take g=10 m/s2) 23. To prepare 1 L 0.1 M solution of H2SO4 weight of
(A) 10 m (B) 20 m H2SO4 needed will be.
(C) 30 m (D) 120 m (A) 0.98 g (B) 0.49 g
16. A body of mass 10 kg moves with velocity 6 m/s. (C) 4.9 g (D) 9.8 g
Its kinetic energy is: 24. 25 mL of 3M HCl is added to 75 mL of 0.05M HCl.
(A) 30 J (B) 60 J The molarity of HCl in the resulting mixture is:
(C) 120 J (D) 180 J (A) 0.055 M (B) 0.35 M
17. When 22.4 L H (g) is mixed with 11.2L Cl (g) (C) 0.788 M (D) 3.05 M
2 2
25. The molarity of 98% w/w solution of H SO
at STP, the moles of 2 4
(A) 1 mole of HCl (g) [density = 1.8g/mL]
sol.
(B) 2 mole of HCl (g)
(A) 5M (B) 18 M
(C) 0.5 mole of HCl (g)
(C) 12 M (D) 15 M
(D) 1.5 mole of HCl (g)
26. 3.42 g of a substance of molar weight 342 g is
18. 42 g of N2 is treated with 9gH2, find the
present in 250 g of water. Molality of this
maximum mass of NH3 solution is
(A) 51 g (B) 31 g (A) 0.4m (B) 0.04m
(C) 61 g (D) 22 g (C) 0.8m (D) 4m
19. 10g of hydrogen and 64g of oxygen were filled in a 27. 0.126 g of an acid is titrated with 0.1N 20mL of
steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water a base. The equivalent weight of the acid is.
produced in this reaction will be (A) 63 (B) 50
(A) 3 mol (B) 4 mol (C) 53 (D) 23
(C) 1 mol (D) 2 mol 28. How many milli litres of 1M H SO will be
2 4
20. 8 g H2 and 32 g O2 is allowed to react to form water
neutralised by 10mL of 1M NaOH solution?
then which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) O2 is limiting reagent
(A) 10 (B) 20
(B) O2 is reagent in excess
(C) 2.5 (D) 5
(C) H2 is limiting reagent
29. Summation of mole fraction of all components
(D) 40 g water is formed
in a solution will
21. 0.5 mole of H SO is mixed with 0.2 mole of
2 4 (A) Greater than 1 (B) Less than 1
Ca(OH) . The maximum number of moles of (C) Equal to 1 (D) None of these
2
CaSO formed is 30. If potassium chlorate is 80% pure then 48 g of
4
oxygen would be produced from
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.5
(A) 153.12 g of KClO
(C) 0.4 (D) 1.5 3
22. If 36g of glucose is present in 400mL of (B) 120 g of KClO
3
solution, molarity of the solution is (C) 20 g of KClO
3
(A) 0.05M (B) 11.0M
(D) 90 g of KClO
(C) 0.5M (D) 2.0M 3
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(A) I- (i), II- (iii), III- (ii) & IV- (iv) 44. A plant shows chlorosis in young leaves but older
(B) I- (i), II- (ii), III- (iv) & IV- (iii) leaves remain green. This is most likely due to
(C) I- (iv), II- (ii), III- (iii) & IV- (i) deficiency of:
(D) I- (iii), II- (i), III- (iv) & IV- (ii) (A) Nitrogen (B) Iron
42. Given below are two statements: (C) Magnesium (D) Potassium
Statement I: Amino acids have a property of 45. Why do CAM plants open their stomata at night?
ionizable nature of −NH and -COOH groups, (A) To avoid pathogen entry
hence have different structures at different pH . (B) To conserve water in arid conditions
Statement II: Amino acids can exist as (C) To prevent photorespiration
Zwitterionic form at acidic and basic pH. (D) To absorb O2 for respiration
In the light of the above statements, choose the 46. A plant kept in a box with only a hole for entry of
most appropriate answer from the options given light shows bending, the process called
below: phototropism. It occurs due to
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (A) Synthesis and diffusion of cytokinin in the
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are leaves
Incorrect (B) Breakdown of auxin in the shoot
(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (C) Synthesis and diffusion of auxin in the shoot
incorrect (D) Synthesis and diffusion of abscisic acid
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 47. A plant may not exchange CO2 or O2 with air at
correct (A) Twilight
43. At constant light intensity, increasing CO2 (B) Mid-night
concentration increases photosynthesis up to a (C) Late hours in the morning
point. Beyond this, the rate plateaus. Which factor (D) Noon
is limiting now? 48. When the xylem of a transpiring plant is cut, air
(A) CO2 concentration rushes in and sap stops flowing. This indicates that:
(B) Light intensity (A) Xylem sap moves by root pressure only
(C) Rubisco enzyme activity (B) Xylem sap is under positive pressure
(D) Temperature of water (C) Xylem sap is under tension (negative
pressure)
(D) Xylem sap movement depends only on
diffusion
SECTION-B
[Multi-Correct Answer Type Questions, each (C) Is a conservative force
question more than ONE correct answers) (D) Can be repulsive
49. Which of the following are true about 50. At the highest point of a vertically thrown body:
gravitational force? (A) Its velocity is zero
(A) Always attractive (B) Its acceleration is zero
(B) Obeys inverse-square law (C) Its potential energy is maximum
(D) Its kinetic energy is zero
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51. During free fall of a body (neglecting air (B) Molality is defined as moles of solute per
kilogram of solvent.
resistance):
(A) Potential energy decreases (C) Molarity is temperature-dependent, while
molality is not.
(B) Kinetic energy increases
(D) Molality is a more accurate measure of
(C) Total mechanical energy is conserved concentration in some cases because it is not
(D) Work done by gravity is negative affected by temperature changes.
52. Two bodies A and B of masses m and 2m are 56. A solution is prepared by dissolving 5.85 g of NaCl
dropped from the same height under gravity (molar mass = 58.5 g/mol ) in 500 mL of water.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(neglecting air resistance). Which of the following
(A) The molarity of the solution is 0.2 M .
are correct?
(A) Both reach the ground at the same time (B) The molality of the solution is approximately
0.2 m.
(B) Heavier body reaches first
(C) The molarity of the solution is approximately
(C) Both have the same acceleration 0.1 M.
(D) Ratio of their kinetic energies on reaching the
(D) The molality of the solution is 0.2 m .0 .4 m
ground is 1:2
57. Which of the following statements is/are true?
53. Question 1: Which of the following statements are
(A) All chordates are vertebrates
true regarding the mole?
(A) A mole is a unit of mass. (B) All vertebrates are chordates
(B) A mole represents 6.022 × 10∧ 23 particles (C) All tunicates are not Vertebrate
of a substance. (D) Cephalochordates possess no from Head to
Tail, throughout
(C) The molar mass of a substance is numerically
equal to its atomic or molecular weight in 58. Which of the following are reducing sugars?
grams. (A) Glucose (B) Fructose
(D) A mole of any gas at STP occupies 22.4 (C) Sucrose (D) Maltose
liters. 59. Which of the following is incorrect matching?
54. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(A) Taenia, Fasciola, Dugesia, Schistosoma
regarding empirical and molecular formulas? Platyhelminthes
(A) The molecular formula represents the actual (B) Ascaris, Wuchereria, Hookworm
number of atoms of each element in a Platyhelminthes
molecule. (C) Pinworm, flatworm, liver fluke
Platyhelminthes
(B) The empirical formula represents the
simplest whole number ratio of atoms in a (D) Eye worm, Filaria worm, seatworm
Aschelminthes
compound.
60. When the xylem of a transpiring plant is cut, air
(C) The molecular formula is always the same as rushes in and sap stops flowing. This indicates
the empirical formula. that:
(D) The empirical formula can be derived from (A) Xylem sap moves by root pressure only
the molecular formula but not vice versa. (B) Xylem sap is under positive pressure
55. Which of the following statements is/are true
(C) Xylem sap is under tension (negative
regarding molarity and molality? pressure)
(A) Molarity is defined as moles of solute per (D) Xylem sap movement depends only on
liter of solution. diffusion
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NSEJS Part Test-2 ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C)
8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (B)
15 (D) 16 (D) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A) 21. (A)
22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (?) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D)
29. (C) 30. (A) 31. (A) 32. (C) 33. (A) 34. (D) 35. (D)
36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (C) 41. (A) 42. (C)
43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48 (C)
49 (A,B,C) 50 (A,C,D) 51 (A,B,C) 52 (A,C,D) 53. (B,C,D) 54. (A,B,D) 55.(A,B,C,D)
56. (A,B,C) 57. (B,C) 58. (A,B,D) 59. (A,D) 60. (A,B,C)
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