10-11-2024

1701CMD303038240007 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) If than find cosθ ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Maximum value of (3 sinθ – 4cosθ) is :

(1) 5
(2) –5
(3) 7
(4) –1

3) If y = x nx than is

(1) 1 + nx
(2) x + nx

(3)

(4)

4) Find minimum value of y = x2 – 2x + 3 :

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) If y = sinx than is :
(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) –1

(4)

6) is:

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) –1
(4) None of these

7) y = –3x2 –5, then graph can be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) upto ∞ term is :

(1)

(2) 4
(3) 8
(4) 2

9) (1.01)2 is nearly equal to :

(1) 1.03
(2) 1.02
(3) 1.01
(4) 1.04

10) A particle is being acted by four forces as shown is figure. The resultant force will be :-

(1) 5N, 53° from 7N

(2) 5N, 37° from 7N
(3) 3N, 60° from 5N
(4) 4N, 30° from 7N

11) If the sum of two unit vectors is an unit vector, the magnitude of difference is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 2
(4)

12) Three forces 9, 12 and 15 N acting at a point are in equilibrium. The angle between 9N and 15N
is:-

cos–1
(1)

cos–1
(2)

(3)
π – cos–1

(4)
π – cos–1

13) If a unit vector is represent by , then the value of x is :-

(1) 1
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) Minimum number of vectors in a plane to produce zero resultant is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

15) A vector may change if :-

(1) Frame of reference is translated

(2) Vector is rotated
(3) Reference frame is rotated
(4) Vector is shifted parallel to itself

16) The angle that the vector makes with y-axis is :-

tan–1
(1)

tan–1
(2)

(3)
sin–1
cos–1
(4)

17) In the regular hexagon shown in fig. has side 'a' then :-

(1) 0
(2) 6a
(3) 2a
(4) a

18) If , than the value of :-

(1)

(2) AB
(3) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2
(4) (A2 + B2 + AB)1/2

19) The angle between vectors and is :-

(1) π rad

(2)
rad

(3)
rad
(4) zero

20) A force acts on a body and displaces it by then work done by the
force is :-

(1) 10 J
(2) 12 J
(3) 16 J
(4) 25 J

21) A particle is moving in a circular path of radius 'r' as shown in figure with constant speed(V)

What will be the value of magnitude of change in velocity.

(1)
2V cos
(2) 0
2V sin
(3)

(4) V

22) If radius of a spherical bubble starts to increase with time t as r = 0.5t. What is the rate of
change of volume of the bubble with time t = 4 sec ?

(1) 8π units/sec
(2) 4π units/sec
(3) 2π units/sec
(4) π units/sec
23) Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at an angle 60°. If a ray of light incident on the first
mirror is parallel to the second mirro1r, it is reflected from the second mirror

(1) Perpendicular to the first mirror

(2) Parallel to the first mirror
(3) Parallel to the second mirror
(4) Perpendicular to the second mirror

24) When a ray of light is reflected from a denser medium interface, then the following changes :

(1) Wavelength
(2) Phase
(3) Frequency
(4) Speed

25) A particle is moving towards a fixed spherical mirror. The image:

(1) must move away from the mirror

(2) must move towards the mirror
(3) may move towards the mirror
(4) will move towards the mirror, only if the mirror is convex

26) On heating a glass block of 10000 cm3, from 20°C to 40°C, its volume increases by 6 cm3.
Determine the coefficient of linear expansion of glass.

(1) 10–5 °c–1

(2) 10–4 °c–1
(3) 3 × 10–5 °c–1
(4) 2 × 10–5 °c–1

27) An object is placed at a distance u from a concave mirror and its real image is received on a
screen placed at a distance of v from the mirror. If f is the focal length of the mirror, then the graph
between 1/v versus 1/u is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

28) Two rods with the same dimensions have thermal conductivities in the ratio 1 : 2. They are
arranged between heat reservoirs with the same temperature difference, in two different
configurations, A and B. The rates of heat flow in A and B are IA and IB respectively. The ratio IA/IB is

equal to:-

(1) 1:2
(2) 1:3
(3) 2:5
(4) 2:9

29) Two spheres of the same material have radii 1m and 4m, temperatures 4000K and 2000K
respectively. Then the ratio of energy radiated per second by the first sphere as compared to that by
the second is.

(1) 4:1
(2) 2:1
(3) 1:1
(4) 1:4

30) An arbitrary scale has the ice point at –20° and the steam point at 180°. When the thermometer
reads 5°, then find the read of centigrade thermometer.

(1) 25°C
(2) 12.5°C
(3) 10°C
(4) 50°C

31) When 400 J of heat are added to a 0.1 kg sample of metal, its temperature increases by 20°C.
What is the specific heat of the metal.

(1) 200 J kg–1°C–1

(2) 400 J kg–1°C–1
(3) 100 J kg–1°C–1
(4) 50 J kg–1°C–1

32) The distance between an object and its doubly magnified image by a concave mirror is:
[ Assume f = focal length ]

(1) 3 f/2
(2) 2 f/3
(3) 3 f
(4) depends on whether the image is real or virtual.

33) 1g of ice is mixed with 1g of steam. At thermal equilibrium, the temperature of the mixture is.

(1) 50°C
(2) 0°C
(3) 55°C
(4) 100°C

34) A ray of light passes from vacuum into a medium of refractive index n. If the angle of incidence
is twice the angle of refraction, then the angle of incidence is:

(1) cos–1 (n/2)

(2) sin–1 (n/2)
(3) 2 cos–1(n/2)
(4) 2 sin–1 (n/2)

35) Three identical rods have been joined at a junction of make it a Y shape structure. If two free
ends are maintained at 45°C and the end is at 0°C, then what is the junction temperature T.

(1) 30°C
(2) 40°C
(3) 20°C
(4) 10°C

SECTION-B
1) The critical angle of light going from medium A to medium B is θ. The speed of light in medium A
is v. The speed of light in medium B is:

(1)

(2) v sin θ
(3) v cot θ
(4) v tan θ

2) A concave spherical surface of radius of curvature 10 cm separates two mediums X and Y of

refractive indices 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. Centre of curvature of the surface lies in the medium X.
An object is placed in medium X.

(1) Image is always real

(2) Image is real if the object distance is greater than 90 cm.
(3) Image is always virtualq
(4) Image is virtual only if the object distance is less than 90 cm.

3) The correct conclusion that can be drawn from these figures is

(1) μ1 < μ but μ < μ2

(2) μ1 > μ but μ < μ2
(3) μ1 = μ but μ < μ2
(4) μ1 = μ but μ2 < μ

4) A magnifying glass is to be used at the fixed object distance of 1 inch. if it is to produce an erect
image magnified 5 times, its focal length should be

(1) 0.2 inch

(2) 0.8 inch
(3) 1.25 inch
(4) 5 inch

5) A convex lens of focal length f produces a virtual image n times the size of the object. Then the
distance of the object from the lens is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

6) An achromatic convergent doublet of two lenses in contact has a power of + 2D. The convex lens
has power + 5 D. What is the ratio of the dispersive powers of the convergent and divergent lenses ?

(1) 2 : 5
(2) 3 : 5
(3) 5 : 2
(4) 5 : 3

7) A plano-convex lens of focal length 10 cm is silvered at its plane face. The distance d at which an

object must be placed in order to get its image on itself is :

(1) 5 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 2.5 cm

8) A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices μ1, μ2, μ3 & μ4 as
shown in the figure. The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to the

incident ray AB, we must have:

(1) μ1 = μ2
(2) μ2 = μ3
(3) μ3 = μ4
(4) μ4 = μ1

9) An equilaterial prism is kept on a horizontal surface. A typical ray of light PQRS is shown in the

figure. For minimum deviation

(1) the ray PQ must be horizontal

(2) the ray RS must be horizontal
(3) the ray QR must be horizontal
(4) any one of them can be horizontal

10) If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30°, then the speed
of light in the medium is

(1) 6 × 108 m/s

(2) 3 × 108 m/s
(3) 2 × 108 m/s
(4) 1.5 × 108 m/s

11) A prism has a refracting angle of 60°. If it produces a minimum deviation of 30° in an incident
ray, the angle of incidence is

(1) 15°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

12) A thin prism P of angle 4° made of glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined to a thin prism Q
made of glass of refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle of prism Q
is :

(1) 4°
(2) 3°
(3) 2.6°
(4) 5.3°

13) A prism has a refracting angle 60º. A ray of given monochromatic light suffers minimum
deviation of 38° in passing through prism refractive index of the material of the prism is :

(1) 1.5094
(2) 1.3056
(3) 0.7849
(4) 2.425

14) An astronomical telescope has two lenses of focal powers 0.5 D and 20D . Then its magnifying
power will be :

(1) 8
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

15) The magnifying power of objective of a compound microscope is 7. If the magnifying power of
microscope is 35, the magnifying power of eye lens will be :

(1) 5
(2) 30
(3) 35
(4) 28

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT according to the property indicated
against it ?

(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (Increasing Ionic size)
(2) B < C < N < O (Increasing First Ionisation energy)
(3) I < Br < F < Cl (Increasing Electron gain Enthalpy)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (Increasing metallic character)

2) Which can dissolve in excess NaOH :-

(1) Mg(OH)2
(2) ZnO
(3) CrO
(4) Na2O

3) Which statement is incorrect :-

(1) Ionisation potential order : F– < Cl–

(2) Electron Affinity order : F < Cl
(3) Ionisation potential order : O– < S–
(4) Electronegatively order : sp3 > sp

4) The elements with atomic number 117 and 120 are yet to be discovered. In which group would
you place these elements when discovered ?

(1) 17, 2
(2) 16, 4
(3) 15, 3
(4) 18, 2

5) Which of the set of species have same hybridisation state but different shapes ?

+ –
(1) NO2 ,NO2, NO2
–
(2) ClO4 , SF4, XeF2
 + +
(3) NH4 , H3O , OF2
–2 –3 –
(4) SO4 , PO4 , ClO4

6) The bond angle of CCl4, BCl3 and BeCl2 are in the order :

(1) BeCl2 > BCl3 > CCl4

(2) BCl3 > BeCl2 > CCl4
(3) CCl4 > BeCl2 > BCl3
(4) CCl4 > BCl3 > BeCl2

7) Which of the following has maximum number of lone pairs associated with Xe ?

(1) XeO3
(2) XeF4
(3) XeF6
(4) XeF2

8) Which of the following molecule has highest bond energy ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which one of the following molecules will have unequal bond lengths ?

(1) NF3
(2) PF3
(3) PCl5
(4) SF6

10) sp3d hybridisation is found in :

(A) SO3 (B) PCl5 (C) I3– (D) CH4

(1) A & C
(2) A & D
(3) B & C
(4) B & D
11) The bond angle of NO2+, NO2– and NO2 are in the order :

– +
(1) NO2 > NO2 > NO2
– +
(2) NO2 > NO2 > NO2
+ –
(3) NO2 > NO2 > NO2
+ –
(4) NO2 = NO2 = NO2

12) The correct order of C–O bond length among CO, CO3–2, CO2 is :

–2
(1) CO < CO3 < CO2
–2
(2) CO3 < CO2 < CO
–2
(3) CO < CO2 < CO3
–2
(4) CO2 < CO < CO3

13) Which compound of xenon is not possible ?

(1) XeF2
(2) XeF4
(3) XeF5
(4) XeF6

14) Which molecule does not exist ?

(1) B2
+
(2) O2
(3) He2
+
(4) H2

15) In which molecule s–p mixing occur ?

(1) O2
(2) F2
(3) B2
+
(4) F2

16) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l) when 1mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to
react to completion -

(1) 1 mole of H2O is produced

(2) 1 mole of NO will be produced
(3) All the oxygen will be consumed
(4) All the ammonia will be consumed

17) Equal masses of O2 , H2 and CH4 are taken in a container. The respective mole ratio of these
gases in container is -

(1) 1 : 16 : 2
(2) 16 : 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 2 : 16
(4) 16 : 2 : 1

18) A mixture containing 100 gm H2 and 100 gm O2 is ignited so that water is formed according to
the reaction, 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O; How much water will be formed -

(1) 113 gm
(2) 50 gm
(3) 25 gm
(4) 200 gm

19)

For reaction HI H2 + I2 value of KC is then value of KC for H2 + I2 2HI :

(1)

(2) 64

(3)

(4) 8

20)

Which of the following contains the greatest number of atoms ?

(1) 1.0 g of butane (C4H10)

(2) 1.0 g of nitrogen (N2)
(3) 1.0 g of silver (Ag)
(4) 1.0 g of water (H2O)

21)

The mass of 1 mole of neutrons (mn = 1.675 × 10–27 kg) is:-

(1) 1.800 × 10–3 kg

(2) 1.008 × 10–4 kg
(3) 1.080 × 10–3 kg
(4) 1.008 × 10–3 kg

22)

Total number of neutrons present in 4g of heavy water (D2O) is : (Where NA represents Avogadro's
number)

(1) 2.4 NA
(2) 4 NA
(3) 1.2 NA
(4) 2 NA

23)

Air contains 20% O2 by volume. How much volume of air will be required for complete
combustion 200 cc of acetylene (C2H2) :-

(1) 500 cc
(2) 1064 cc
(3) 212.8 cc
(4) 2500 cc

–10
24) The equilibrium constants for the reaction, at 500 K and 700 K are 1×10 and 1
× 10–5 respectively. The reaction is :

(1) endothermic
(2) exothermic
(3) fast
(4) slow

25)

Consider the reaction, in a closed container at equilibrium. What

would be the effect of addition of CaCO3 on the equilibrium concentration of CO2?

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains unaffected
(4) Data is not sufficient to predict it

26)

XY2 dissociates as : Initial pressure of XY2 is 600 mm Hg. The total

pressure at equilibrium is 800 mm Hg. Assuming volume of system to remain constant, the value of
Kp is :

(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 200
(4) 400
27)

In which of the following reactions, the concentration of the product is higher than the concentration
of reactant at equilibrium?(K = equilibrium constant)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28)

For the reaction, CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(l), ΔH = –170.8 kJ mol–1

Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) Addition of CH4(g) or O2(g) at equilibrium will cause a shift to the right
(2) The reaction is exothermic
(3) At equilibrium the concentrations of CO2(g) and H2O(l) are not equal
The equilibrium constant for the reaction is given by Kp =
(4)

29)

aA(g) bB(g) on increasing temperature and decreasing pressure reaction shift backwards. Identify
correct option :-

(1) a > b, ΔH = +ve

(2) a < b, ΔH = +ve
(3) a > b, ΔH = –ve
(4) a < b, ΔH = –ve

30) Assertion : One mole of a substance always contain the same number of enetities, no matter
what is substance may be.
Reason : One mole is the amount of a substance that contains as many particles or entities as there
is atoms is exactly 12 g of the 12C isotope.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

31) Assertion : Elements and compounds are the examples of pure substances.
Reason : The properties of a compound are different from those of its constituent elements.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

32) Assertion : The reactant which is present in larger amount limits the amount of product formed
is called limiting reagent.
Reason : Amount of product formed does not depend upon the amount of reactants taken.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

33) Which of the following is the best example of law of conservation of mass :

(1) 12g of carbon combines with 32g of oxygen to form 44g of CO2
(2) When 12 g of carbon is heated in a vacuum there is no change in mass
A sample of air increases in volume when heated at constant pressure but its mass remains
(3)
unaltered.
(4) The weight of a piece of platinum is the same before and after heating in air

34) Consider the following statements :

1. If all the reactants are not taken in their stoichiometric ratio, then at least one reactant will be left
behind.
2. 2 moles of H2(g) and 3 moles of O2(g) produce 2 moles of water.
3. equal wt. of carbon and oxygen are taken to produce CO2 then O2 is limiting reagent.
The above statements 1, 2, 3 respectively are (T = True, F = False)

(1) T T T
(2) F T F
(3) F F F
(4) T F T

35) For the equilibrium 2H2O(g) 2H2(g) + O2(g), equilibrium constant is K1.
For the equilibrium 2CO2(g) 2CO(g) + O2(g), equilibrium constant is K2.
Then, the equilibrium constant for CO2(g) + H2(g) CO(g) + H2O(g) is :

(1) K1K2

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) Choose incorrect statement :-

(1) 1st ionisation potential Mg < S < P < F
(2) Atomic radii Cl < Mg < P < Ca
(3) Basic nature Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(4) Acidic nature NH3 < PH3 < AsH3

2) In which of the following arrangements, the order is not according to the property indicated
aganist it ?

–1 –2
(1) O2 > O2 > O2 (Bond order)
+ –1
(2) NH4 > NH3 > NH2 (% S character)
(3) H–H > Cl–Cl > Br–Br > F – F (Bond energy)
(4) H–I > H–Br > H–Cl > H – F (Bond length)

3) Highest lattice energy is :

(1) LiF
(2) NaF
(3) KF
(4) CsF

4) Which of the following is solid with highest m.p.?

(1) CO2(s)
(2) H2O(s)
(3) SiO2
(4) He(s)

5) Which of the following order is not correct :-

–2 –3 –
(1) SO4 = PO4 = ClO4 Bond angle
(2) OCl2 < OBr2 Bond angle
(3) ZnCl2 < CdCl2 < HgCl2 ionic character
(4) CH3–Cl > CH3F > CH3–Br > CH3–I Dipole moment

6) Assertion (A): - For a reaction concentration quoteint Q is equal to K when the reaction is in
equilbrium.
Reason (R):- If a catalyst is added to the reaction at equilbrium, the value of Q remains no longer
equal to K.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is correct explanation of the Assertion.
If both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) If Assertion & Reason are false.
7) x, Y and Z react in the 1 : 1 : 1 stoichiometric ratio. The concentration of X, Y and Z where found

to vary with time as shown in the figure below. Which of the following
equilibrium reaction represents the correct variation of concentration with time:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) Which of the following reaction(s) is /are follow the relationship,

(1) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g)
(3) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)
(4) 1 and 3 both

9) For the equilibrium PCI5(g) PCI3(g) + CI2(g) in a closed vessel, Kp is found to be double of Kc.
This is attained when :

(1) T = 2 K
(2) T = 17.22 K
(3) T = 24.36 K
(4) T = 6.09 K

10) In a reversible chemical reaction having two reactants in equilibrium with one product, if the
initial concentration of both the reactants is doubled, then the equilibrium constant will :

(1) also be doubled

(2) be halved
(3) become one fourth
(4) remain the same.

11) Given the following reaction at equilibrium

N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
Some inert gas at constant pressure is added to the system. Predict which of the following facts will
be produced.
(1) More NH3(g) is produced
(2) Less NH3(g) is produced
(3) No affect on the equilibrium
(4) Kp of the reaction is decreased

12) Which among the following reactions will be favoured at low pressure?

(1) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

(2) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
(3) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

13) For the reaction CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g), the equilibrium pressure of CO2 depends on

(1) the mass of CaCO3(s)

(2) the mass of CaO(s)
(3) external pressure
(4) temperature of the system

14) For a reversible reaction aA + bB cC + dD; the variation of K with temperature is given by

then,

(1) K2 > K1 if T2 > T1 for an endothermic change

(2) K2 < K1 if T2 > T1 for an endothermic change
(3) K2 > K1 if T2 > T1 for an exothermic change
(4) All are correct

15) An endothermic reaction is represented by the graph :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following statement is incorrect:

(1) Middle lamella is chiefly made up of calcium and magnesium pectate

(2) Secondary cell wall is found in harder woody parts of a plant
(3) Plasmodesmata are cytoplasmic bridges that connect the neighbouring plant cells
(4) Primary cell wall is formed inside the cell membrane

2) The model given by singer and nicolson in __was __ for plasma membrane:

(1) 1982, fluid mosaic model

(2) 1992, bilayer model
(3) 1972, fluid mosaic model
(4) 1952, bilayer model

3) Unicellular organisms are :-

Not capable of independent existence because they cannot perform all The essential functions
(1)
of life
(2) Not capable of independent existence but they can perform all the essential vital functions
(3) Are capable of independent existence and perform all the essential vital functions
(4) Are capable of lead independent existence but they perform some vital functions

4) Identify structure A,B,C and D in given below:-

 A B C D

Red blood White blood Columnar

(1) Mesophyll cells
cells cells epithelial cells

White blood Red blood Columnar

(2) Mesophyll cells
cells cells epithelial cells

Red blood White blood Columnar

(3) Mesophyll cells
cells cells epithelial cells

White blood Red blood Columnar

(4) Mesophyll cells
cells cells epithelial cells

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Identify structure A, B, C and D in given below diagram?

A B C D

(1) Granum Thylakoid Stroma lamella Stroma

(2) Thylakoid Granum Stroma lamella Stroma

(3) Thylakoid Granum Stroma lamella Matrix

(4) Stroma Granum Thylakoid Matrix

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Crossing over that results in genetic recombination in higher animals occurs between:

(1) Sister chromtids of tetrard

(2) Non-sister chromatids of a tetrard
(3) Two daughter nuclei
(4) Two different bivalents

7) During meiosis-I division,the:

(1) Homologous chromosomes are separated

(2) Nuclear membrane does not disappear in dikinesis
(3) The homologous chromosomes do not segregate
(4) All of the above

8) In meiosis division of centromere occurs during

(1) Interphase
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Metaphase-I

9) Diakinesis represents :

(1) Transition to prophase

(2) Transition to metaphase
(3) Transition to anaphase
(4) Transition to telophase

10) Which event is not common between interphase and interkinesis ?

(1) Growth in cell

(2) RNA synthesis
(3) DNA synthesis
(4) Protein synthesis

11) Recognise the figure and find out the correct labelling:-

(1) a and c - arithmetic, b and d - geometric

(2) a and c - geometric, b and d - arithmetric
(3) a and d - geometric, b and c - arithmetric
(4) a and d - arithmetic, b and c - geometric

12) The following figure shows :-

(1) Heterophylly in larkspur
(2) Heterophylly in buttercup
(3) Heterophylly in cotton and coriander
(4) Heterophylly in cotton, coriander and larkspur

13) Van Niel suggested that O2 produces during photosynthesis :

(1) Comes from H2S

(2) Comes from H2O
(3) Comes from CO2
(4) Comes form chlorophyll

14) Which one of the following is not plant factor affecting photosynthesis ?

(1) Size of leaves

(2) Light quality
(3) Age of Leaves
(4) Internal CO2 concentration

15) Carbon-refixation in C4 plant occurs in chloroplast of :

(1) Palisade tissue

(2) Spongy mesophylls
(3) Bundle Sheath cell
(4) Guard cells

16) Which pair is wrong :

(1) C3 Plant – Maize

(2) Calvin cycle–PGA
(3) Hatch and Slack cycle – Maize
(4) C4 Plant – Kranz anatomy

17) The most crucial step in C3 cycle is :

(1) Carboxylation
(2) Reduction
(3) Regeneration
(4) Glycolytic reversal

18) Law of limiting factor was proposed by :

(1) Blackman
(2) Julian Von Sach
(3) Stephan hales
(4) None of these

19) If conentration of CO2 in atm is .048% then CO2 fixation Rate increases in :

(1) C3 Plant
(2) C4 Plant
(3) Both C3 & C4
(4) None of these

20) Number of ATP produced from 4 pyruvic acid during conversion of Acetyl Co-A:

(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 24
(4) 15

21) Solarization is :

(1) Formation of chlorophyll

(2) Destruction of chlorophyll
(3) Utilization of sunlight
(4) Splitting of water

22) Which enzyme break down the fructose –1, 6-bisphosphate :

(1) Hexokinase
(2) Phosphatase
(3) Aldolase
(4) None

23) Which of the following is 4-carbon compound of Kreb's cycle :

(1) Fumaric acid

(2) Citric acid
(3) α-keto glutaric acid
(4) Isocitric acid

24) Which is not a feature of KRAN'Z Anatomy :-

(1) Bundle sheath cell have large no. of chloroplast

(2) Bundle sheath cell have thick wall
(3) Bundle Sheath cell are arranged in ring manner.
(4) Bundle sheath cells have granal chloroplast

25) For 2 CO2 molecule entering the calvin cycle, required energy is :
(1) 6 ATP, 4 NADPH
(2) 2 ATP, 3 NADPH
(3) 3 ATP, 3 NADPH
(4) 2 ATP, 2 NADPH

26) Vascularisation in plants occurs through :-

(1) Differentiation of procambium is followed by primary phloem and then primary xylem
Differentiation of procambium followed by development of primary xylem and phloem
(2)
simultaneously
(3) Simultaneous differentiation of procambium, xylem and phloem
Differentiation of procambium is immediately followed by development of secondary xylem and
(4)
secondary phloem

27) Mature and differentiated cells of one of the following contain cytoplasm, but no nucleus?

(1) Xylem parenchyma

(2) Companion cells
(3) Xylem vessels
(4) Sieve tubes

28) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only
(a) Radial vascular bundle are found in roots
(b) In closed type of vascular bundle, cambium is absent
(c) In open type of vascular bundle, cambium is absent
(d) In leaves conjoint type of vascular bundle is found
Option:-

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) c, d

29) In monocot roots, the cells of the dermatogen form a mass of small tissue called calyptrogen. It
is also meristematic and gives rise to the :-

(1) Epidermis
(2) Cortex
(3) Xylem and phloem
(4) Root cap

30) In which of the following,each vascular bundle is surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle

sheath ?

(1) Sunflower root

(2) Maize root
(3) Sunflower stem
(4) Maize stem

31) Choose the incorrect statement :

(1) Axillary buds are present in the axils of leaves and are capable of forming a branch or a flower.
(2) Lateral meristem occur in grasses and regenerate parts removed by the grazing herbivores
(3) Shoot apical meristem occupies the distant most region of the stem axis.
(4) Both apical meristems and intercalary meristems are primary meristem.

32) Which character is not related to parenchyma :

(1) Isodiametric cells

(2) Cell wall made up of Ligno cellulose
(3) Functions like photosynthesis, storage, secretion
(4) Thin wall

33) Read the following statement A and B and choose the correct option :
Statement A : The number of common characteristics goes on increasing from species to kingdom
Statement B : Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other
taxa of same level.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

34) Choose incorrect w.r.t mycoplasm:

(1) Pathogenic in animalas and plants

(2) Can not survive without oxygen
(3) They lack cell wall in vegetative and reproductive stages
(4) Not sensitive to antibiotic like penicillin

35) Read the following statement (A-D)

(A) Cell wall of Fungi consists of chitin
(B) Fungi are heterotrophic
(C) Fungi can also live as symbionts in association with algae as lichens and with roots of higher
plants as mycorrhiza
(D) Fusion of two nuclei called plasmogamy
How many of the above statement are correct ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1
 SECTION-B

1) How many statements are correct ?

(a) Priestley hypothesised as follows ; "plants restore to the air whatever breathing animals and
burning candles remove."
(b) The single chlorophyll 'a' molecule form the reaction centre
(c) The water splitting complex is associated with the PS-II, which itself is physically located on the
outer side of the membrane of the thylakoid

(1) a only
(2) a and b both
(3) b and c both
(4) All the above

2) (a) Formation of ATP and NADPH

(b) Use of ATP
(c) Reduction of carbon dioxide
(d) Water splitting
(e) Oxygen release
Which of the above processes are include in the dark reaction of photosynthesis ?

(1) a, b and c
(2) c and e
(3) b and c
(4) b, c and e

3) When does concentration gradient exist ?

(1) When solute concentration will low

(2) When membrane will rupture
(3) When solute concentration will high
(4) When solute concentration differ on either side of a membrane

4) When a molecule of pyruvic acid's form lactic acid by anerobic respiration then ?

(1) Loss of 3 ATP

(2) Loss of 6 ATP
(3) Gain of 2 ATP
(4) Gain of 4 ATP

5) Direct gain of ATP molecules in 5 Kreb's cycles is:

(1) 12 ATP
(2) 24 ATP
(3) 5 ATP
(4) 2 ATP
6) R.Q. of tripalmitin is :

(1) 0.6
(2) 0.8
(3) 0.7
(4) 0.9

7) Removal of shoot tip (decapitation) is useful in :

(1) Apical dominance

(2) Bolting
(3) Tea plantation
(4) Senescence

8) The ability of plant to follow different pathways and produce different structures in response to
environment or phases of life is termed as :

(1) Elasticity
(2) Growth efficiency
(3) Plasticity
(4) Heterophylly

9) Arithmetic growth is expressed as :

(1) Lt = L0 + rt
(2) L0 = L0 + rt
rt
(3) W1 = W0e
rt
(4) W0 = W1e

10) Which of the following is correct about growth ?

(1) Growth is regarded as one of most fundamental and conspicuous characteristics of living being.
Growth can be defined as an irreversible permanent increase in size of an organ or its parts or
(2)
even of an individual cell.
Generally growth is accompanied by metabolic processes (both anabolic and catabolic), that
(3)
occur at the expense of energy.
(4) All of the above

11) The gametophyte in bryophtes produce bifagellate gametes in.... and produce female gamete
in... respectively:

(1) Antheredium, Oogonium

(2) Antheridium, Arechegonium
(3) Arechegonium, Antheridium
(4) Anther, Ovary
12) Which statement is nor correct for bryophyta ?

(1) In general Little economic importance

(2) Great Ecological importance
(3) Main plant body is gametophyte
(4) Sporophyte is differentiated into root, stem and leaves

13) Correct for prothallus in pteridophyte is :

(1) Nonvascular & Diploid

(2) Diploid & Freeliving gametophyte
(3) Mostly photosynthetic
(4) Unicellular & Freeliving

14) Which of the following set include the algae belonging to same class to which Laminaria belong ?

(1) Sargassum, Dictyota

(2) Gracilaria, Ectocarpus
(3) Volvox, Ulothrix
(4) Gracilaria, Gelidium

15) Examine the figure given below and select the correct option giving all the four parts (a, b,c and

d) rightly identified.

a b c d

(1) Rhizoids Capsule Seta Main axis

(2) Main axis Seta Roots Capsule

(3) Rhizoids Capsule Main axis Seta

(4) Main axis Seta Rhizoids Capsule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

1) Statement-I :- The role of O2 is quite insignificant in the regulation of respiratory rhythm.

Statement-II :- Chemosensitive area present in pons is highly sensitive for CO2 and H+

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are true.

(2) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are false.

2) ECG depicts the depolarization and repolarization processes during the cardiac cycle. In the ECG
of a normal healthy individual, one of the following waves is not represented?

(1) Depolarization of atria

(2) Repolarization of atria
(3) Depolarization of ventricles
(4) Repolarization of ventricles

3) Assertion (A) :- Persons with AB blood group are universal recipients.

Reason (R) :- Persons with AB blood group have no antibodies for these antigens in their blood
plasma.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) Choose the correct option for X, Y, Z and P :-

May May
Blood
Receive Donate
Group
Blood Blood

O O Z

A X A, AB

B B, O B, AB

AB Y P
(1) X=A, O, Y-O, A, B, AB, Z-O, A, B, AB, P=AB
(2) X=A, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B AB, P=AB
(3) X=O, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=A
(4) X=O, Y=O, A, B, AB, Z=O, A, B, AB, P=B

5) In the given figure, site A and site B represents

(1) Site A-polarised state, site B-depolarised state
(2) Site A-depolarised state, site B-polarised state
(3) Site A-polarised state, site B-repolarised state
(4) Site A-repolarised state, site B-depolarised state

6) Read the following four statements (A-D) -

(A) Vasopressin reduces loss of water through urine (diuresis) hence it is also called as antidiuretic
hormone(A.D.H.)
(B) A.C.T.H stimulates the secretion & synthesis of steroid hormone called glucocorticoids
(C) F.S.H & LH called gonadotrophins because they stimulates gonadal activity
(D) Hormones which interact with membrane bound receptors normally do not enter the target cell
but generate second messengers.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

7) (A) Sleep-wake cycle

(B) Intelligence quotient
(C) Metabolism
(D) Pigmentation
(E) Menstrual cycle
which of the above are functions of pineal gland.

(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, C, D, E
(3) A, B, D, E
(4) B, C, D, E

8) Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is :-

(1) same as that in the aorta.

(2) more than that in the carotid.
(3) more than that in the pulmonary vein.
(4) less than that in the vena cava.
9) Glucagon is?

(1) Hypoglycemic hormone

(2) Hyperglycemic hormone
(3) Steroidal hormone
(4) Digestive hormone

10) Choose the correct sequence representing the partial pressure of oxygen (in mm Hg) in
Atmospheric Air, Alveolar air, Deoxygenated Blood, Oxygenated Blood and Tissues.

(1) 159, 104, 95, 40 and 40

(2) 159, 104, 40, 95 and 40
(3) 159, 104, 45, 95 and 40
(4) 104, 159, 40, 95 and 45

11) Choose the correct option for (A), (B), (C)

Source Hormone Function

Growth
Hypothalamus (A)
inhibitor

Alveoli
Progestational development
(B)
hormone in mammary
gland

pineal gland Melatonin (C)

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Somatocrinin Placenta Vasodilator

Defense
(2) GnRH Ovary
capability

Body
(3) Somatostatin Ovary
temperature

Increase heart
(4) Oxytocin Placenta
beat
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Which of the following steps not involved in respiration?

(1) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane

(2) Transport of gases by the blood
(3) provide nutrients to all the living cells of body
(4) Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions and resultant release of CO2.

13) If a person drinks excess water, then ADH release will be :

(1) Stimulated
(2) Suppressed
(3) Not affected
(4) First stimulate then suppressed

14) Which one increases strength of heart contraction?

(1) Cortisol
(2) ACTH
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Melatonine

15) pineal gland regulates ...................

Thyroid gland regulates ................
Adrenal cortex regulates ...............
Read above incomplete sentences and find out correct option to complete them :-

(1) BMR, Ca+2 metabolism, release of MSH

(2) Metabolism, Ca+2 metabolism, release of few amount of sex steroids
(3) Pigmentation, growth, release of growth hormone
(4) Electrolytic balance, BMR, Ca+2 metabolism

16) During systole of heart :-

(1) Only auricles contract

(2) Only ventricles contract
(3) Atria and ventricles contract separately
(4) Atria and ventricles contract simultaneously

17) Which of the following structure/region is incorrect pair with its functions:-

(1) Medulla - controls respiration and cardiovasuclar reflex.

(2) Limbic system - control/regulate gastric secretion & thinking.
(3) Mid brain - Auditory reflex.
(4) Corpus callosum - connecting left and right cerebral hemisphere.

18) In which of the following, speed of conduction is the fastest?

Note : Diameter and length of all the three a, b, c, are same.

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) a, b

19) How many of the following substances are secreted by exocrine glands.
mucus, thyroxine, saliva, earwax, insulin, oil, milk, digestive enzymes, melatonin and adrenalin :-

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

20) The hormone glucagon :-

(1) Has the opposite effect as that of insulin

(2) Is produced in the beta cells of pancreas
(3) Converts glucose into glycogen
(4) Is used in the treatment of diabetes mellitus

21) Select the correct matching of a hormone, its source and function.

Hormone Source Function

Increases
heart beat,
Norepine Adrenal
1. rate of
phrine medulla
respiration
and alertness

Beta-cells
Stimulates
2. Glucagon of Islets of
glycogenolysis
Langerhans
 Regulates
growth of
mammary
Posterior
3. Prolactin glands and
pituitary
milk
formation in
females

Increases loss
Posterior
4. Vasopressin of water
pituitary
through urine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Chloride shift occurs in respond to :

(1) H+
(2) K+
(3)
(4) Na+

23) Part of nephron where conditional reabsorption of H2O & Na+ occurs :-

(1) PCT
(2) DCT
(3) Henle loop
(4) Bowmen's capsule

24) Which one of the following will be the cardiac output (in litres per minute) of a heart that has a
stroke volume of 0.07 litres and is beating at a rate of 90 per minute ?

(1) 63.30
(2) 63.00
(3) 00.63
(4) 06.30

25) Find out the correct match

(1) Prolactin - Milk synthesis & growth of mammary gland

(2) Oxytocin - act on voluntary muscles for milk ejection
(3) ADH - Mainly absorb Na+ ions from DCT of Nephron
(4) Cortisol - Increase glucose level in cell

26) Given below the graphical representation in which different Oxygen dissociation curve
shown by P, Q, & R. Select the correct option which includes all correct representation of curve
with their correct identification.

P Q R

Normal Foetal Myoglobin

1.
ODC ODC ODC

Foetal myoglobin Normal

2.
ODC ODC ODC

Foetal Normal Myoglobin

3.
ODC ODC ODC

Myoglobin Normal Foetal

4.
ODC ODC ODC
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) What would be the cardiac out put of a person if the stroke volume is 70 ml and heart beat rate
80 per minute?

(1) 5 litre/min.
(2) 4.8 litre/min.
(3) 4.2 litre/min.
(4) 5.6 litre/min.

28) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

High
(a) blood (i) Atherosclerosis
pressure

Coronary
Acute chest
(b) artery (ii)
pain
disease

Heart stops
(c) Angina (iii)
beating

Cardiac
(d) (iv) Hypertension
arrest
 (v) heart attack

Select the correct option.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)

(3) (ii) (i) (v) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Low secretion of ADH hormone can leads to, :

(1) Hyperglycemia
(2) Abnormal skin
(3) Dehydration
(4) Diarrhoea

30) Mostly aquatic organism are ammonotelic in nature because?

(1) Ammonia is most toxic form and requires large amount of water for it's elimination
(2) Ammonia is insoluble in water
(3) Ammonia can be removed with a minimum loss of water
(4) aquatic animals only produce ammonia during metabolic activity

31) Expiratory reserve volume is :-

(1) 2500 ml
(2) 1000 to 1100 ml
(3) 500 to 900 ml
(4) 1600 ml

32) Which of the following steps of respiration in human, is considered as cellular respiration?

(1) Pulmonary ventilation

(2) Transport of gases by blood
(3) Diffusion of gases across alveolar
(4) Utilisation of O2 by the cells

33) Which one of the following statements in not correct?

(1) The Sino atrial node (SAN) can generate the maximum number of action potentials
(2) Blood does not move from atrium to ventricle during ventricular systole
(3) Increased ventricular pressure causes opening of the semilunar valves
(4) The heart sound "Lub" is associated with the closure of the semilunar valves.

34) Select the correct statement regarding synapses :-

(1) Electrical synapses use neurotransmitters

Impulse transmission across a electrical synapse is always faster than that across a chemical
(2)
synapse
(3) Neurotransmitter receptors are situated on per synaptic membrane
(4) Chemical synapses are rare in our system

35) Ciliated epithelium in trachea of mammals helps in

(1) Sucking inspired air in.

(2) Perceiving sense of smell.
(3) Pushing expired air out.
(4) Pushing mucus out.

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following are not the effects of insulin hormone?

(1) Stimulates glycogenesis

(2) Increases glucose level in blood
(3) Increases the cellular glucose uptake
(4) Inhibit glycogenolysis

2) Assertion (A) : Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute renal
failures.
Reason (R) : A functioning kidney is used in transplantation from a donor, preferably a close
relative.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

3) Which one is a steroid hormone :

(1) Thyroxine
(2) PTH
(3) Cortisol
(4) ACTH

4) Assertion : Endocrine glands functions to maintain various functions of body.

Reason : Endocrine system co-ordinates through hormone while nervous system provides for point-
to-point connection.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) T4 (i) Hypothalamus

(b) PTH (ii) Thyroid

(c) GnRH (iii) Pituitary

(d) LH (iv) Parathyroid

Which of the following options are correct

(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii

6) Primary site of exchange of gases is :-

(1) Alveoli
(2) Alveolar sac
(3) Blood
(4) All

7) Match the following volumes ?

Residual
(a) (z) TV + I.R.V
Volume

Inspiratory
(b) (x) TV + ERV
capacity

Expiratory
(c) (e) 1100 - 1200 ml
capacity

(d) E. R. V (v) 1100 ml

a b c d

1 x z v e

2 e z v e
 3 z e x v

4 e z x v
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Which set contains only granulocytes?

(1) Neutrophils, basophils, lymphocyte

(2) Eosinophils, basophils, monocyte
(3) Basophils, monocyte, lymphocyte
(4) Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

9) The given diagram represents the location of human endocrine glands I, II, III, IV and V.

I Melatonin

II Thymosin

III Epinephrine

IV Renin

V Testosterone

Which of the following gland is correctly matched with their secretions?

Hormones Their secretions
(1) I, II and III only
(2) I, IV and V only
(3) II, IV and V only
(4) II, III and V only

10) Match regarding Loop of Henle the following columns-I and II.

Column-I Column-II

Ascending
limb of
(A) (1) Permeable to H2O
Loop of
Henle

Descending
limb of
(B) (2) Impermeable to H2O
Loop of
Henle

Permeable to
(3)
electrolyte

Impermeable to
(4)
electrolytes
(1) A→ 2, 4 ; B → 1, 3
(2) A→ 2, 3 ; B → 1, 4
(3) A→ 1, 4; B → 2, 3
(4) A→ 1, 3 ; B→ 2, 4

11) Which of the following causes an increase in sodium reabsorption in distal convoluted tubule?

(1) Increase in aldosterone levels

(2) Increase in STH hormone levels
(3) Decrease in aldosterone levels
(4) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone levels

12) Choose the correct match :-

Column-A Column-B

Olfactory
(a) Apolar neuron (i)
epithelium

Neuron
(b) Pseudounipolar (ii) present in
vertebrates

(c) Bipolar neuron (iii) Hydra

Dorsal root
Multipolar
(d) (iv) ganglia of
neuron
spinal cord
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

13) How many of the following statement are not incorrect?

(1) In human, pars intermedia is almost merged into pars nervosa.
(2) Anterior pituitary controls adrenal medulla gland through ACTH hormone.
(3) Posterior pituitary gland synthesizes & secretes 2 hormones.
(4) Pineal gland is not functional after puberty.
(5) Hypothalamic neurons secrete releasing & inihibitary hormones.

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

14) Tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume of a person is 500 ml and 2500 ml respectively.
What will be his vital capacity if the expiratory reserve volume is 1000 ml :-

(1) 2000 ml
(2) 1500 ml
(3) 3500 ml
(4) 4000 ml

15) The primary target of the hormones of hypothalamus is :

(1) Pineal body

(2) Thyroid
(3) Thymus
(4) Pituitary
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 1 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 1 2 2 3 1 2 4 3 2 1 1 4 3 1

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 3 3 3 1 2 3 4 3 4 3 2 1 4 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 2 4 1 3 1 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 1 2 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 4 1 3 2 2 4 3 1 2 4 1 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 1 3 3 3 2 4 3 4 2 3 4 1 2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 3 1 1 2 1 3 2 3 4 2 2 2 3 4 1 1 1 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 1 4 1 2 4 2 4 4 2 2 2 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 4 1 3 3 3 3 1 4 2 4 3 1 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 1 1 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 3 2 4 1 3 4 1 3 1 2 4 4 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 1 3 2 2 1 4 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

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ZOOLOGY