13-10-2024

1701CMD303038240005 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) In which of the following cases normal reaction between two blocks is zero :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) A gun fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20 g and the velocity of the bullet
when it leaves the gun is 300 ms–1. The force required to hold the gun while firing is :-

(1) 6 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 240 N

3) A ball of mass m kept at the corner as shown in the figure, is acted by a horizontal force F. The

correct free body diagram of ball is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

4) Passengers standing in a bus are thrown outwards when the bus takes a sudden turn. This
happens because of :-

(1) Outward pull on them

(2) Inertia
(3) Change in momentum
(4) Change in acceleration

5) A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from another body of mass 12 kg. The combination is being pulled

by a string with an acceleration of 2.2 ms–2. The tension T1 will be (g = 9.8 m/s2) :-

(1) 200 N
(2) 220 N
(3) 240 N
(4) 260 N

6) The acceleration of system of two bodies over the wedge as shown in the figure is :-

(1) 1 ms–2
(2) 2 ms–2
(3) 0.5 ms–2
(4) 10 ms–2
7) Three blocks of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 5 kg are connected to each other with light string and are
then placed on a frictionless surface as shown in the figure. The system is pulled by a force F = 10

N, then tension T1 is :-

(1) 1 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 8 N
(4) 10 N

8) A body of mass 3 kg hits a wall at an angle of 60° and returns at the same angle. The impact time

was 0.2 s. Calculate the force exerted on the wall :

(1)
(2)
(3) 100 N
(4)

9) A force-time graph for the motion of a body is shown in the figure. The change in the momentum

of the body between zero and 10 sec is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 4 kg m/s
(3) 5 kg m/s
(4) 3 kg m/s

10) A rocket is ejecting 1 kg of gases per sec at a relative velocity of 60 km/s. The accelerating force
on the rocket is (assume g = 0) :-

(1) 60 N
(2) 600 N
(3) 6000 N
(4) 60000 N

11) The distance of an object from the focus of a convex lens of radius of curvature 'a' is 'b'. Then the
distance of the image from the focus is:(μ=1.5)

(1) b2/4a
(2) a/b2

(3)

(4) 4b/a2

12)

The refractive index of a piece of transparent quartz is the greatest for :

(1) Red light

(2) Violet light
(3) Green light
(4) Yellow light

13)

If refractive index of red, violet and yellow lights are 1.42, 1.62 and 1.50 respectively for a medium,
its dispersive power will be -

(1) 0.4
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.1

14)

All the listed things below are made of flint glass. Which one of these have greatest dispersive power
(ω).

(1) prism
(2) glass slab
(3) biconvex lens
(4) All have same ω

15)

An object is placed at a distance of 5 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm, then the image is-

(1) Real, diminished and at a distance of 10 cm from the lens.

(2) Real, enlarged and at a distance of 10 cm from the lens.
(3) Virtual, enlarged and at a distance of 10 cm from the lens.
(4) Virtual, diminished and at a distance of 10/3 cm from the lens.

16) What should be the value of distance d so that final image is formed on the object itself. (focal
lengths of the lenses are written on the lenses).

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) none of these

17)

Focal length of a convex lens will be maximum for

(1) Blue light

(2) Yellow light
(3) Green light
(4) Red light

18)

If the central portion of a convex lens is wrapped in black paper as shown in the figure :

(1) No image will be formed by the remaining portion of the lens

(2) The full image will be formed but it will be less bright
(3) The central portion of the image will be missing
(4) There will be two images each produced by one of the exposed portions of the lens

19) The distance between two coherent sources is 0.1 mm. The fringe-width on a screen 1.2 m away
from the source is 6.0 mm. The wavelength of light used is :

(1) 4000 Å
(2) 5000 Å
(3) 6000 Å
(4) 7200 Å

20) Soap bubbles look coloured due to :

(1) Dispersion
(2) Reflection
(3) Interference
(4) Any one of these

21) InYoung's double slit experiment, a mica sheet of thickness t and refractive index μ is introduced
in the path of ray from the first source S1. By how much distance the fringe pattern will be displaced:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) If a transparent medium of refractive index μ = 1.5 and thickness t = 2.5 × 10–5 m is inserted in
front of the slits of Young's Double slit experiment, how much will be the shift in the interference
pattern? The distance between the slits is 0.5 mm and that between slits and screen is 100 cm :

(1) 5 cm
(2) 2.5 cm
(3) 0.25 cm
(4) 0.1 cm

23) Bending of light waves at the sharp edges of an opaque obstacle is known as :

(1) refraction
(2) reflection
(3) diffraction
(4) interference

24) Light of wavelength 2 × 10–3 m falls on a slit of width 4 × 10–3 m. The angular dispersion of the
central maximum will be :

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

25) An astronomical telescope of length 50 cm produces a magnification of 9 in normal adjustment.

Calculate focal length of its objective and eye piece :

(1) 4cm, 2cm

(2) 30cm, 5cm
(3) 55cm, 10cm
(4) 45cm, 5 cm
26) Magnifying power of a simplex microscope is when final image is formed at D = 25cm from eye :-

(1)

(2)
1+

(3)
1+

(4)
1–

27) A lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 10 cm in air and 50 cm when
completely immersed in a liquid. Then the refractive index of the liquid is :

(1) 1.36
(2) 1.33
(3) 1.30
(4) 1.38

28) A thin symmetrical double convex lens of power P is cut into three parts, as shown in the figure.

Power of A is :

(1) 2P

(2)

(3)

(4) P

29) The focal lengths of the objective & the eyepiece of a compound microscope are 1 cm & 5 cm
respectively. An object placed at a distance of 1.1 cm from the objective has its final image formed at
25 cm from the eye piece. The length of the microscope tube is :

(1) 6.1 cm
(2) 49/8 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 91/6 cm

30) An astronomical telescope has two lenses of focal powers 0.5 D and 20D . Then its magnifying
power will be :
(1) 8
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

31) A biconvex lens with equal radii of curvature has refractive index 1.6 and focal length 10 cm. Its
radius of curvature will be:

(1) 20 cm
(2) 16 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 12 cm

32) In the figure given below, there are two convex lens L1 and L2 having focal length of f1 and f2

respectively. The distance between L1 and L2 will be

(1) f1
(2) f2
(3) f1 + f2
(4) f1 - f2

33)

A convex lens of power 4D and a concave lens of power 3D are placed in contact, the equivalent
power of combination:

(1) 1D
(2) 2D
(3) 7D
(4) 6D

34)

An achromatic combination of lenses is formed by joining -

(1) 2 convex lenses

(2) 2 concave lenses
(3) 1 convex lens and 1 concave lens
(4) Convex lens and plane mirror

35)
A spectrum is formed by a prism of dispersive power ω If the angle of deviation is δ, then the
angular dispersion is

(1) ω/δ
(2) δ/ω
(3) 1/ωδ
(4) ωδ

SECTION-B

1) A person is standing in an elevator. In which situation he finds his weightless ?

(1) When the elevator moves upward with constant acceleration

(2) When the elevator moves upward with uniform velocity
(3) When the elevator falls downward with constant acceleration g
(4) When the elevator moves downward with uniform velocity

2) A ball of mass 5kg is dropped from height 20m, after striking the ground it rises up to the same
height then find change in momentum of ball :

(1) 200 kg.m/sec

(2) 100 kg.m/sec
(3) 40 kg.m/sec
(4) 20 kg.m/sec

3) Find acceleration of the block :

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 16 m/s2
(4) 8 m/s2

4) Find ratio of force on A and B :

(1) 3 : 1
(2)
(3) 1 : 3
(4)

5) A player caught a cricket ball of mass 150 gm moving at the rate of 20 m/sec. if the catching
process be completed in 0.1 sec the force of the blow exerted by the ball on the hands of player is

(1) 0.3 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 300 N
(4) 3000 N

6) Ratio of intensities of two light waves is given by 4 : 1. The ratio of the amplitudes of the waves is
:

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

7) The meaning of wave front is:-

(1) All the particles on its surface vibrate in same phase

(2) All the particles on its surface vibrate in opposite phase
(3) Some particles vibrate in same phase and some in opposite phase
(4) None of the above

8) Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed; the maximum
and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are :

(1) 5I and I
(2) 5I and 3I
(3) 9I and I
(4) 9I and 3I

9) Yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young's double slit experiment is replaced by
monochromatic blue light of the same intensity :

(1) fringe width will decrease.

(2) fringe width will increase.
(3) fringe width will remain unchanged.
(4) fringes will become less intense.

10) In Young's double slit experiment, the phase difference between the light waves reaching third
bright fringe from the central fringe will be [λ= 6000 A ] :-
0

(1) Zero
(2) 2π
(3) 4π
(4) 6π

11) In double slits experiment, for light of which colour the fringe width will be minimum:-

(1) Violet
(2) Red
(3) Green
(4) Yellow

12) The fringe width in the Young's double slit experiment is 2 × 10–4 m. If the distance between the
slits is halved and the slit screen distance is double, then the new fringe width will be:-

(1) 2 × 10–4 m
(2) 1 × 10–4 m
(3) 0.5 × 10–4 m
(4) 8 × 10–4 m

13) Monochromatic green light of wavelength 5 × 10–7 m illuminates a pair of slits 1 mm apart. The
separation of bright lines on the interference pattern formed on a screen 2 m away is :

(1) 0.25mm
(2) 0.1mm
(3) 1.0mm
(4) 0.01mm

14) If two line slits are illuminated by a wavelength 5 × 10–7 m and the distance between two bright
fringes is 0.005 m on a screen 1 m away, then the distance between the slits is :

(1) 10 cm
(2) 1 cm
(3) 10–1 cm
(4) 10–2 cm

15) Fringe width observed in the Young's double slit experiment is β. If the frequency of the source
is doubled, the fringe width will :

(1) become 2 β

(2)
become
(3) remain as β

(4)
become

CHEMISTRY
 SECTION-A

1) Elements in and beyond the third period can expand their octet in the molecules like PF5, SF6 etc,
because

(1) they contain more than eight-electron in the outermost shell.

(2) their atomic size is large.
(3) they have vacant (n – 1)d orbitals.
(4) They have vacant nd orbitals.

2) Which of the following have one lone pair on the central atom ?
(I) NH3 (II) SF4
(III) XeF4 (IV) XeF6

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, III
(3) I, IV
(4) I, II, IV

3) The octet rule is not valid for the molecule :-

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) O2
(4) H2

4) In which of the following molecules, the central atom does not follow the octet rule ?

(1) H2O
(2) H2S
(3) BF3
(4) CO2

5) Molecule showing both ionic and covalent bond is:-

(1) NaCN
(2) CO2
(3) NaCl
(4) N2

6) No. of electrons shared in the formation of nitrogen molecule is :-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 2
(4) 8

7) Which of following is an example of super octet molecule ?

(1) CℓF3
(2) PCl5
(3) IF7
(4) All of three

8) Which of the following species is neither hypervalent her hypovalent ?

(1) ClO4¯
(2) BF3
2–
(3) SO4
2–
(4) CO3

9) Lewis representation of O2 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

10) When lewis Acid and lewis base are present then bond between them will be :-

(1) Ionic
(2) Covalent
(3) Coordinate
(4) Metallic

11) Which is odd electron specie :-

(1) CO2
(2) NO2
(3) SO2
(4) SiO2

12) Which of the followin compound does not exist

(1) PCl5
(2) BrF5
(3) OF2
(4) OF6
13) Which of the following species can't exist :-

(1) NF3
–2
(2) [SiF6]
(3) IH5
(4) BrF3

14) Which among the following molecules have sp3d hybridisation with one lone pair of electrons on
the central atom ?
(i) SF4 (ii) [PCl4]+ (iii) XeO2F2 (iv) ClOF3

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i) and (iii) only
(4) (iii) and (iv) only.

15) Choose the molecules in which hybridisation occurs in the ground state ?
(i) BCl3 (ii) NH3 (iii) PCl3 (iv) BeF2
The correct answer is -

(1) i, ii, iv
(2) i, ii, iii
(3) ii, iii
(4) iii, iv

16) Which overlap results in the formation of strongest bond:

(1) s–s
(2) p–p (axial)
(3) s–p
(4) p–p(sidewise)

17) Strongest bond is formed by head on overlapping of :-

(1) 2s and 2p orbitals

(2) 2p and 2p orbitals
(3) 2s and 2s orbitals
(4) all of these

18) Which of following has tetrahedral geometry :-

(1) BF3
(2) SF4
(3) XeF4
(4) SiCl4
19) What is covalency of 'N' in N2O5 :-

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 4

20) BrF5 & XeOF4 are square pyramidal, then hybridisation is ?

(1) dsp3
(2) dsp2
(3) sp3d
(4) sp3d2

21) Which of the following combination of orbitals does not from covalent bond (x-axis is
internuclear axis) :-

(1) s + py
(2) py + py
(3) dyz + dyz
(4) dxy + dxy

22) Which of the following pairs of species have identical shapes.

+ –
(1) NO2 , NO2
(2) PCl5, BrF5
–
(3) XeF4, ICl4
(4) TeCl4, XeO4

23) Hybridization of carbon in CO2 molecule is :-

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) dsp3

24) Orbital forming strongest bond would be by the overlapping of :-

(1) 1s – 1s orbital
(2) 2p – 2p orbital
(3) 3s – 3p orbital
(4) 2pπ – 2pπ

25) The value of dipole moment of CO2 is similar to that of CCl4 this is because the CO2 has the
geometry:-
(1) Trigonal
(2) Linear
(3) Tetrahedral
(4) Angular

26) V-shape molecule is :-

(1) BeF2
(2) H2O
(3) ClF3
(4) CHCl3

27) Which has triagonal planar geometry :-

(1) IF3
(2) PCl3
(3) NH3
(4) BF3

28) Molecular shape of XeF3+ ion and XeF5+ ion are respectively :-

(1) Square pyramidal, T-shaped

(2) T-shape, square pyramidal
(3) See-saw, square pyramidal
(4) Square pyramidal, see-saw

29) A metal oxide has 40% oxygen. The equivalent weight of the metal is :

(1) 12
(2) 16
(3) 24
(4) 48

30) Match the column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

(a) N2 (p) 40% carbon by mass

(b) CO (q) Empirical formula CH2O

(c) C6H12O6 (r) Vapour density = 14

14NA (NA = 6.023 × 1023)

(d) CH3COOH (s)
electrons in a mole

a b c d

(1) r s p q
 (2) p q r s

(3) r, s r, s p, q p, q

(4) r, p q, p p, s q, r
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) A gaseous mixture contains CO2 (g) and N2O (g) in a 2 : 5 ratio by mass. The ratio of the number
of molecules of CO2 (g) and N2O (g) is

(1) 5 : 2
(2) 2 : 5
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 5 : 4

32) An iodized salt contains 0.5 % of NaI. A person consumes 3 gm of salt everyday. The number of
iodide ions going into his body everyday is.(I = 127)

(1) 10–4
(2) 6.02 ×10–4
(3) 6.02 × 1019
(4) 6.02 × 1023

33) The number of carbon atoms present in a signature, if a signature written by carbon pencil,
weighing 1.2 × 10–3 g is

(1) 12.04 × 1020

(2) 6.02 × 1019
(3) 3.01 × 1019
(4) 6.02 × 1020

34) Volume (at STP) of CO2 obtained by the complete decomposition of 9.85 g BaCO3 is
(At. wt of Ba = 137)

(1) 2.24 lit

(2) 1.12 lit
(3) 2.135 lit
(4) 2.27 lit

35) Maximum mass of sucrose C12H22O11 produced by mixing 84 gm of carbon, 12 gm of hydrogen

and 56 lit. O2 at 1 atm & 273 K according to given reaction, is
C(s) + H2(g) + O2 (g) —→ C12H22O11(s)

(1) 138.5
(2) 155.5
(3) 172.5
(4) 199.5

SECTION-B

1) The pair of molecules with different hybridisation but same shape :-

(1) SO2, CO2

–
(2) CO2, Br3
–
(3) PCl5, I3
(4) CH4, COCl2

2) See-saw shape present in :-

(1) SF4
(2) SF6
(3) XeF4
(4) H2O

3) If pure unhybridised orbitals are used in forming CH4 then which statement is incorrect :-

(1) Three bond angle will be at 90°.

(2) Three bond lengths are identical and fourth is smaller than other three.
(3) Geometry will be tetrahedral.
(4) All of these

4) Which contains both polar and non-polar covalent bonds :-

(1) NH4Cl
(2) HCN
(3) H2O2
(4) CH4

5) In PCl5, axial bonds are longer than equatorial bonds because–

(1) Equatorial bonds lie in same plane

(2) Axial bonds are repelled more by equatorial bonds
(3) Irregular electron distribution in 'P'
(4) There is bond angle of 120° between equatorial bonds.

6) The bond angle of NH3 and NH4+ and NH2– are in the order

+
(1) NH2¯ > NH3 > NH4
 +
(2) NH4 > NH3 > NH2¯
+
(3) NH3 > NH2¯ > NH4
+
(4) NH3 > NH4 > NH2¯

7) Which of the following molecule has the largest bond angle.

(1) BF3
(2) NH3
(3) CO2
(4) SF6

8) Which of following molecules contains shortest bond distance :-

(1) NH3
(2) Cl2
(3) N2
(4) CO2

9) Which of the following possess lowest bond energy :-

(1) C – C
(2) N – N
(3) H – H
(4) O – O

10) Correct bond angle order is present in :-

(1) OF2 < H2O < OCl2

(2) OCl2 < H2O < OF2
(3) H2O < OF2 < OCl2
(4) OF2 < OCl2 < H2O

11)
(1) A-T, B-S, C-R, D-Q, E-P
(2) A-T, B-R, C-S, D-Q, E-P
(3) A-T, B-R, C-S, D-P, E-Q
(4) A-S, B-R, C-T, D-Q, E-P

12) CO2 is a non-polar molecular (µ = 0) where as SO2 is polar (µ = 1.62 D). This difference is due to
the fact that :-

C and O have approximately the same electronegativity while S and O have different
(1)
electronegativities
(2) CO2 has an even number of double bonds where as SO2 has an odd number of double bonds
(3) C and O are in different groups where as S and O are in the same group
(4) CO2 is linear where as SO2 is not linear.

13) Which of the following series of compounds have same mass percentage of carbon ?

(1) CO2, CO
(2) CH4, C2H6,C2H2
(3) C2H2, C6H6,C10H8
(4) HCHO, CH3COOH,C6H12O6

14) Statement–1 : 2A + 3B —→ C
4/3 moles of 'C' are always produced when 3 moles of 'A' & 4 moles of 'B' are added.
Statement–2 : 'B' is the limiting reactant for the given data.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
(4) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.

15) Select the incorrect statement for (NH4)3PO4.

(1) Ratio of number of oxygen atoms to number of hydrogen atoms is 1 : 3

(2) Ratio of number of cations to number of anions is 3 : 1
(3) Ratio of number of gm-atoms of nitrogen to gm-atoms of oxygen is 3 : 4
(4) Total number of atoms in one mole of (NH4)3PO4 is 20.

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) During photophosphorylation pH of thylakoid lumen is.......

(1) 9.2
(2) Decreases
(3) Alkaline
(4) No change

2) For yielding one molecule of glucose, the Calvin cycle turns-

(1) two times

(2) four times
(3) six times
(4) eight times

3) During non-cyclic photophosphorylation, electrons are continuously lost from the reaction centre
of PS-II. Which source is used to replace these electrons -

(1) NADP
(2) ATP
(3) PS II
(4) Water

4) First reaction in photosynthesis, when chloroplast is expose in light-

(1) Photolysis of water

(2) Excitation of chlorophyll molecule
(3) Formation of ATP
(4) CO2 reduction

5) Who proposed that O2 comes from water instead from CO2 during photosynthesis -

(1) Von Niel

(2) Engelmann
(3) Blackman
(4) Pristely

6) Which is not correct for cyclic photophosporylation

(1) No O2 given off

(2) No water consumed
(3) No NADPH2 synthesized
(4) PS I and PS II are invovled

7) Action spectra of photosynthesis was given by Engelmann )by using -

(1) Chlorella and anaerobic bacteria

(2) Cladophora and aerobic bacteria
(3) Chlorella and aerobic bacteria
(4) Stellaria media and oxygen seeking bacteria
8) For synthesis of ATP in photophosphorylation, the proton gradient develops in -.

(1) Stroma of chloroplast

(2) Membrane of thylakoid
(3) Lumen of thylakoid
(4) Periplastidal space

9) During chemiosmosis the proton gradient breaks when

(1) Proton moves across membrane through plastoquinone

(2) Movement of proton occurs from stroma to lumen
(3) pH of lumen increases
(4) Movement of proton occurs from lumen to stroma

10) Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Light reaction occurs in stroma
II. Light reaction occurs in grana
III. Dark reaction occurs in stroma
IV. Dark reaction occurs in grana
Choose the correct option

(1) I and II
(2) II and IV
(3) III and IV
(4) II and III

11) During light reaction of photosynthesis–

(1) ADP is phosphorylated and NADPH oxidised

(2) ADP is phosphorylated and NADP reduced
(3) ADP is phosphorylated and NADPH reduced
(4) ATP is phosphorylated and NADPH reduced

12) Stroma lamellae membrane lacks:

I. PS-II
II. NADP reductase
III. non-cyclic photophosphorylation
Select the correct option–

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and I
(4) I, II and III

13) Chemiosmosis requires:

I. a membrane
II. a proton pump
III. a proton gradient
Select the correct option–

(1) II and III

(2) I and III
(3) I and II
(4) I, II and III

14) During the light reaction, the water splits into–

+
(1) H ,O2 electrons
2
(2) H ,O2 electrons

(3)
2 electrons

(4)
electrons

15) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase enzyme catalyses the reaction between:

(1) CO2 and RUBP

(2) Oxaloacetic acid and acetyle CoA
(3) PGA and dihydroxy acetone phosphate
(4) RUBP and phosphologlyceraldehyde

16) Which statements are correct about RuBisco enzyme-

(i) Its active site can bind to both CO2 and O2.
(ii) More binding affinity to O2 than CO2.
(iii) The relative concentration of O2 and CO2 determined that which bind to enzyme.
(iv) It is found in chloroplast.

(1) i, iii and iv

(2) i and iv
(3) i, ii and iv
(4) All are correct

17) In plants Calvin cycle consumes.........ATP molecules and...........NADPH2 molecules for three
carbon dioxide fixed.

(1) 15,6
(2) 9,6
(3) 6,9
(4) 12,18

18) The two enzymes responsible for primary carboxylation in C3 and C4 plants respectively are:

(1) PEP carboxylase and Rubisco

(2) Rubisco and PEP carboxylase
(3) PEP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
(4) Rubisco and pyruvate carboxylase

19) Which of the following incorrect for glycolysis.

(1) It produces ATP

(2) It uses ATP
(3) End productes are CO2 and H2O
(4) None of the above

20) Correct sequence in electron acceptors in ETS is.

(1) Cyt a, a3, b, c

(2) Cyt b, c, a, a3
(3) Cyt c, b, a, a3
(4) Cyt b, c ay, a

21) R.Q. of 1 and 0.7 occur in case of.

(1) Protein acid and tripalmitin

(2) Carbohydrate and tripalmitin
(3) Tripalmitin, carbohydrate
(4) Carbohydrate, protein

22) FAD acts as an electron acceptor in between.

(1) Fumaric and malic acid

(2) Succinic and fumaric acid
(3) Malic and oxaloacetic acid
(4) Citric and isocitric acid

23) Glycolysis occurs in the_____and produces_____. which in the presence of O2 enters the____

(1) cytoplasm, pyruvate, mitochondrion

(2) cytoplasm, glucose, mitochondrion
(3) Mitochondrion, pyruvate, chloroplast
(4) Chloroplast, glucose, cytosol

24) Choose the correct combination, between respiratory substrates and their respective RQs.

Carbohydrate Fat Protein

(1) 2 1 1

(2) 0 1 1
 (3) 1 0.7 0.9

(4) 0.5 0.5 0.5

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Correct sequence of events in Kreb's cycle is.

(1) Acetyl CoA → Citrate → Pyruvate → α-ketoglutrate → Succinate → Malate → Fumarate → OAA
(2) Acetyl CoA → Citrate → α-ketoglutrate acid → Succinic acid → OAA
(3) Acetyl CoA → Citrate → Malic acid → α-ketoglutrate → Succinic acid → OAA
(4) All are correct

26) The first reaction of Kreb's cycle i.e., condensation of acetyl group with OAA and water is
catalysed by.

(1) Citrate synthase

(2) Succinate dehydrogenase
(3) RUBICO
(4) PEPCase

27) Fill in the blanks

(a) Slow oxidation of NADH in __(i)__
(b) Fast oxidation of NADH in __(ii)__

(1) Fermentation, Aerobic respiration

(2) Fermentation, Anaerobic respiration
(3) Aerobic respiration, Fermentation
(4) Fermentation, Glycolysis

28) In which step substrate level phosphorylation will take place.

(1) Glucose → glucose-6-phosphate

(2) 3-phosphoglycerate → 2 phosphoglycerate
(3) Phosphoenol pyruvate → pyruvac acid
(4) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate → 1-3 bis phosphoglycerate

29) How many ATP are produced on complete oxidation of glucose.

(1) 24
(2) 30
(3) 34
(4) 38
30) Which product of glycolysis is consumed in alcoholic fermentation?

(1) NADH2
(2) ATP
(3) ATP AND NADH2
(4) CO2

31) In respiratory ETS which energy rich compounds are oxidised.

(1) NADH2, FADH2

(2) NADPH2, FADH2
(3) NADP, FAD
(4) NAD, FAD

32) In aerobic respiration role of oxygen during ETS is as.

(1) Final hydrogen acceptor

(2) Final proton acceptor
(3) Both of above
(4) None of above

33) Which is mobile carrier for electron transfer in mitochondria ETS and what is its location.

(1) cytochrome C1, outer surface of inner membrane

(2) Cytochrome C, inner surface of inner membrane
(3) Cytochrome C, outer surface of inner membrane
(4) Cytochrome C, in inner membrane

34) The characteristic of plant growth includes which of the following ?

(1) It is localized and generally determinate

(2) It is localized and generally indeterminate
(3) It is non-measurable
(4) It is diffused, determinate and non measurable

35) The ability of plants to follow different pathways and produce different structures in response to
environment and phase of life is termed as :-

(1) Elasticity
(2) Growth efficiency
(3) Plasticity
(4) Maturation

SECTION-B

1) Following diagram represents z scheme of light reaction. Identify A,B,C and D in following
diagram.

(1) A - Photosystem -I, B - Photosystem- II, C- NADPH, D- 2e–

(2) A - Photosystem -II, B - Photosystem- I, C- NADPH, D- 2e–
(3) A - Photosystem -I, B - Photosystem- II, C- NADPH, D- 4e–
(4) A - Photosystem -I, B - Photosystem- II, C- NADH, D- 2e–

2) Pick up the correct comparision in reference with C4 plants

Bundle sheath cells Mesophyll cells

(1) PEPcase present absent

(2) RuBisCo absent present

(3) Chloroplast absent present

(4) Decarboxylation takes place not takes place

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
3) In the given figure identify A,B,C and D:-

A B C D

(1) PEP Decarboxylation C4 Cycle Pyruvate

(2) Pyruvate Decarboxylation Calvin cycle C3 acid

(3) Pyruvate Carboxylation C4 Cycle C3 acid

(4) PEP Decarboxylation Calvin cycle C3 acid

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) In respiratory ETS which is/are formed with direct role of oxygen.

(1) H2O
(2) CO2
(3) ATP
(4) 1 and 2

5) Select the plant which shows heterophyllous development due to environment.

(1) cotton
(2) Coriander
(3) Larkspure
(4) Buttercup

6) Arithmetic growth is expressed as.

(1) Lt = L0 + rt
(2) L0 = L0 × rt
rt
(3) W1 = W0et
rt
(4) W0 = W1e

7) A sigmoid curve is obtained in geometric growth because.

One daughter cell remains meristematic while the other daughter cell differentiates and
(1)
matures
(2) It has lag, log and then stationary phase
(3) Effect of environment on meiosis
(4) None of these

8) Environmental heterophylly is seen in :-

(1) Buttercup
(2) Cotton
(3) Coriander
(4) Larkspur

9) Match column-I with column-II. The correct match is

:-

(1) I - B, II - D, III - A, IV - A
(2) I - B, II - A, III - D, IV - C
(3) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B
(4) I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C

10) Which process is not directly affected by auxin ?

(1) Apical dominance and root initiation

(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Synthesis of α-amylase by barley seeds
(4) Leaf abscission

11) The fruits can be left on the tree longer so as to extend the market period. This is due to which
function of GA ?

(1) Bolting
(2) Delay senescence
(3) Internodal elongation
(4) Parthenocarpy
12) Two cytokinins are kinetin and zeatin. What is the difference between the two ?

(1) Kinetin is the active form of zeatin

(2) Zeatin is the active form of kinetin
(3) Zeatin is a synthetic cytokinin and kinetin is naturally occurring
(4) Zeatin is a naturally occurring cytokinin, kinetin is not

13) Which of the followin\g statements are incorrect

a. Cytokinin counteracts the effect of apical dominance
b. Phototropic curvature is the result of uneven distribution of cytokinin
c. Ethylene cause bolting
d. 2, 4-D is synthetic auxin used to destroy dicot weeds

(1) a & d
(2) c & d
(3) b & c
(4) a & b

14) Which one of the following is chemically identical to ABA ?

(1) Indole-3-acetic acid

(2) Kinetin
(3) Dormin
(4) 2, 4-D

15) A gaseous PGR that is both growth promoter and growth inhibitor and it stimulates the
formation of root hair is :-

(1) ABA
(2) Auxin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Cytokinin

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) What would be the cardiac output of a person having 72 heart beats per minute and a stroke
volume of 50 ml?

(1) 5000 mL
(2) 3600 mL
(3) 7200 mL
(4) 360 mL

2) A complex protein ....... is distributed at regular interval on .........

(1) Troponin & Tropomyosin
(2) Tropomyosin & Troponin
(3) Troponin & Myosin
(4) Tropomyosin & Myosin

3) Mark the incorrect statement in context to O2 binding to Hb:

(1) Higher pH
(2) Lower temperature
(3) Lower pCO2
(4) Lower PO2

4) At which stage sliding of actin occurs on myosin:-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

5) The below figure is the diagrammatic representation of standard ECG.

Column I Column II

Ventricular depolarization followed by

A. P-wave I.
ventricular contraction

Atrial depolarization followed by contraction of

B. QRS complex II.
both atria

Ventricular repolarization followed by

C. T-wave III.
ventricular relaxation
(1) A – I, B – II, C – III
(2) A – III, B – II, C – I
(3) A – II, B – I, C – III
(4) A – II, B – III, C – I
6) Where the new ATP binds throughout cross bridge cycle :-

(1) A & B
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) C & D

7) The thin filament are firmly attached to the ............... & the thick filament in the A band also held
together in the middle of this band by a thin fibrous membrane called ............

(1) H zone & M line

(2) M line & H zone
(3) M line & Z line
(4) Z Line & M line

8) Which movements occur in human :-

(A) Ciliary
(B) Amoeboidal
(C) Flagellar
(D) Muscular

(1) A, B & D
(2) A, B, C & D
(3) A, B
(4) A, B & C

9) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones.
(a) Skeletal muscle fibres is syncytium as the sarcoplasm contains many nuclei.
(b) In the centre of each I band is an elastic fibre called H line which bisects it.
(c) In the resting state a subunit of troponin masks the active binding sites for myosin on the actin
filaments.
(d) The contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thick filaments over the thin
filaments.

(1) b, d, d
(2) b, d
(3) a, c
(4) a, c, d

10) Consider the following four statement (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Each organised skeletal muscle is made of a number of muscles bundles.
(b) Each muscle fibre has many parallely arranged myofibrils
(c) Each myofibril contains many serially arranged units called sarcomere
(d) Each sarcomeres has a central 'A-band and two half I' bonds.

(1) Statements b, c and d

(2) Statements a and b
(3) Statements c and d
(4) Statements a, b, c and d

11) Identify the parts labelled as A to E in the given figure of a vertebral column and select the

correct option.

A B C D E

Thoracic Cervical Lumbar

(1) Sacrum Coccyx
vertebra vertebra vertebra

Thoracic Cervical Lumbar

(2) Coccyx Sacrum
vertebra vertebra vertebra

Lumbar Thoracic Cervical

(3) Coccyx Sacrum
vertebra vertebra vertebra

Cervical Thoracic Lumbar

(4) Sacrum Coccyx
vertebra vertebra vertebra
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) The figure showing part of right pelvic girdle and lower limb bones is given here. Identify the
parts labelled as A to E and select the correct option.

A B C D E

(1) Sacrum Pubis Patella Metatarsal Fibula

(2) Ilium Ischium Femur Tibia Fibula

(3) Ilium Ischium Femur Fibula Tibia

(4) Ischium Ilium Patella Tibia Tarsal

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) At the time of inspiration, the diaphragm :

(1) expands
(2) no change
(3) contracts and flattens
(4) relaxes to become dome shape

14) Assertion : Bone has very hard matrix whereas cartilage has pliable matrix.
Reason : Bone has calcium salts in its matrix whereas cartilage has chondroitin salts in its matrix.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason in the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

15) Assertion : First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs.
Reason : Dorsally, they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the
sternum with the help of hyaline cartilage.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason in the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

16) Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit.

(1) Ciliary movement

(2) Flagellar movement
(3) Amoeboid movement
(4) Gliding movement

17) The human cranium is made of_____bones.

(1) 14
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 12

18) Which of the following type of joint allows maximum considerable movements and there fore,
play a significant role in locomotion.

(1) Synovial joints

(2) Synarthrosis
(3) Fibrous joints
(4) All of the above

19) Ribs are attached to.

(1) Scapula
(2) Sternum
(3) Clavicle
(4) Ilium

20) Which one of the following shows the correct sequential order of vertebrae in the vertebral
column of human beings?

(1) Cervical–lumber–thoracic–sacral–coccygeal
(2) Cervical–thoracic–sacral–lumbar–coccygeal
(3) Cervical–sacral–thoracic–lumbar–coccygeal
(4) Cervical–thoracic–lumbar–sacral–coccygeal

21) Elbow joint is an example of

(1) Ball and socket joint

(2) Pivot joint
(3) Hinge joint
(4) Gliding joint
22) Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human
skeleton.

(1) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles
(2) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs
(3) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates
(4) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by the fibrous joint.

23) Select the correct statement regarding the specific disorder of muscular of skeletal system.

(1) Myasthenia gravis – Autoimmune disorder which inhibits sliding of myosin filaments
(2) Gout – inflammation of joints due the extra deposition of calcium
(3) Muscular dystrophy – Age related activation of muscles
(4) Osteoporosis – Decrease in bone mass and higher chances of fractures with advancing age.

24) Match the column I with column II :-

Column-I Column-II

Smooth
(a) (i) Myoglobin
muscle

(b) Tropomyosin (ii) Thin filament

(c) Red muscle (iii) Sutures

(d) Skull (iv) Involuntary

(1) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

25) Cardiac muscle differ from skeletal muscles. On the basis of :-

(1) Sarcolemma
(2) Intercalated disc
(3) Sarcosome
(4) Sarcoplasm

26) Thin filament of myofibrill contains 2 'F' actin and two other protein namely____and____?

(1) Troponin and Myosin

(2) Troponin and Actin
(3) Troponin and Tropomyosin
(4) Actin and Myosin

27) Name the type of joint between following :-

(A) Between atlas and axis____?
(B) Between carpals____?
(C) Between cranial bone____?
(D) Between femur and Acetabulum cavity____?
Choose the correct option :

(1) Pivot, Hinge, Suture, Ball and Socket

(2) Pivot, Ellipsoid, Fibrous, Gliding
(3) Pivot, Gliding, Suture, Ball and Socket
(4) Gliding, Pivot, Suture, Ball and Socket

28) Match the following

Column-I Column-II

Binding site for

(a) Troponin T (i)
calcium

Binding site
(b) Troponin I (ii)
for Tropomyosin

Inhibits
(c) Troponin C (iii)
actinmyosin interaction
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

29) ..............pairs of ribs are called floating ribs ?

(1) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs

(2) 1st to 7th pairs of ribs
(3) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs
(4) 10th to 12th pairs of ribs

30) Find out the correct statement :

(1) All locomotions are not movements & all movements are not locomotions
(2) All locomotions are movements but all movement are not locomotions.
(3) All locomotions are not movements but all movements are locomotion
(4) All locomotions are movement and all movements are locomotion.

31) Which of the following is the functional unit of muscle contraction ?

(1) Muscle fibre

(2) Sarcosome
(3) Sarcomere
(4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum
32) Recognise the figure & find out the correct match:

(1) a-F actin; b-Troponin; c-Tropomyosin

(2) b-Troponin; c-F actin; a-Tropomyosin
(3) c-F actin; a-Troponin; b-Tropomyosin
(4) b-F actin; a-Troponin; c-Tropomyosin

33) Recognise the figure & find out the correct matching :

(1) a-HMM, b-LMM, c-ATP binding sites, d-myosin binding site

(2) a-head, b-cross bridge, c-actin binding sites, d-ATP binding sites
(3) a-head, b-cross arm, c-actin binding sites, d-ATP binding sites
(4) a-head, b-tail, c-actin binding sites, d-ATP binding sites.

34) Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement :

Sliding filament theory states that contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the
(1)
thick filaments over the thin filaments
(2) Muscle contraction is initiated by signal sent by the CNS via a sensory neuron
(3) A sensory neuron along with the muscle fibre connected to it constitute a motor end plate
(4) All of the above

35) In human beings ciliary movement is found in

(1) Macrophages and leucocytes

(2) Fallopian tube and nose
(3) Fallopian tube and trachea
(4) Small intestine

SECTION-B

1) Amoeboid movement is found in

(1) Limbs, jaw

(2) Macrophages, leucocytes
(3) Trachea, fallopian tube
(4) Tongue, leucocytes

2) The charactistics of smooth muscles fibres

(1) Spindle shaped

(2) Unbranched and involuntary
(3) Uninucleated
(4) All of above

3) In resting state, the central part of thick filament which is not overlappled by thin filament is
called

(1) A-band
(2) M-linc
(3) H-zone
(4) I-band

4) Motor unit is constituted by :-

(1) Motor neuron & myofibrils

(2) Motor neuron & muscle fiber
(3) Sensory neuron & muscle fibre
(4) Motor neuron & sensory neuron

5) Acetabulum cavity is found in

(1) Pelvic girdle

(2) Humrues
(3) Pectoral girdle
(4) Sternum

6) Match the columns and pick out the correct answer.

Column-A Column-B

Saddle
(i) Atlas/axis (A)
joint

Carpal/metacarpal of Hinge
(ii) (B)
thumb joint

Fibrous
(iii) Between phalanges (C)
joint

Ball and
(iv) Femur/acetabulum (D) socket
joint

Between Pivot
(v) (E)
cranial bones joint
(1) (i)–E, (ii)–A, (iii)–B, (iv)–D, (v)–C
(2) (i)–A, (ii)–E, (iii)–B, (iv)–D, (v)–C
(3) (i)–A, (ii)–B, (iii)–D, (iv)–E, (v)–C
(4) (i)–D, (ii)–E, (iii)–C, (iv)–B, (v)–A
7) Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called

(1) Osteoporosis
(2) Gout
(3) Arthritis
(4) Rheumetoid arthrhitis

8) In the centre of I-Band is an elastic fiber present, which bisect it

(1) 'H'-zone
(2) 'M'-line
(3) 'Z'-line
(4) 'A'-band

9) Which of the following joints would not allow any movement?

(1) Ball and socket joint

(2) Fibrous joint
(3) Cartilaginous joint
(4) Synovial joint

10) Choose the correct match the following columns

Column-I Column-II

(A) Tidal volume (TV) (1) 1100 to 1200 ml

Inspiratory reserve volume

(B) (2) 1000 to 1100 ml
(IRV)

Expiratory reserve volume

(C) (3) 2500 to 3000 ml
(ERV)

(D) Residul volume(RV) (4) 500 ml

(1) A-1; B-2; C-3; D-4
(2) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
(3) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
(4) A-4; B-3; C-2; D-1

11) Select correct combination of the respiratory disorder given below.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Asthma (1) Inflammation of nasal tract

(B) Bronchitis (2) Wheezing

(C) Rhinitis (3) Fully blown out alveoli

(D) Emphysema (4) Inflammation of bronchi

 (5) Cough with blood stained sputum
(1) A - 4; B - 3; C - 2; D - 1
(2) A - 1; B - 2; C - 3; D - 4
(3) A - 2; B - 4; C - 1; D - 3
(4) A - 3; B - 1; C - 4; D - 2

12) Assertion : Pneumotaxic centre present in the pons region of the brain.
Reason : Neural signal from medulla centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and there by
alter the respiratory rate.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

13) Chordae tendinae are found in-

(1) joints
(2) Atria of heart
(3) Ventricles of heart
(4) Ventricles of brain

14) Assertion : Human heart is myogenic.

Reason : The nodal musculature has the ability to generate action potentials without any external
stimuli.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

15) The typical Lubb-Dup sounds heard in the heart beat of a healthy person are due to–

(1) Opening of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves

(2) Blood flow through the aorta
(3) Closing of the A-V valves and semilunar valves
(4) Opening of the semilunar valves
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 2 2 3 1 3 1 4 4 3 2 1 4 3 1 4 2 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 2 3 2 4 2 1 4 4 4 4 3 1 3 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 1 4 4 2 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 3 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 4 4 3 1 1 4 4 1 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 4 4 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 1 1 2 2 4 2 1 3 2 3 2 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 1 3 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 2 4 4 1 4

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 4 2 1 4 2 3 4 4 2 4 4 3 1 1 2 2 3 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 1 3 2 1 1 3 4 1 1 1 3 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 4 4 1 4 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 3 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 4 4 3 2 4 2 3 4 4 2 3 1 1 3 2 1 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 4 4 1 2 3 3 1 1 2 3 4 3 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 4 3 2 1 1 2 3 2 4 3 3 3 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

BOTANY

ZOOLOGY