1.

The function of β subunit of polymerase is

a. Template binding
b. Catalytic binding
c. Promoter binding
d. Cation binding

2. Which of the σ factors is heat stable?

a. σ 54
b. σ 70
c. σ 28
d. σ 32

3. The mRNA codon of valine is

a. GUC
b. UGG
c. CCA
d. TTG

4. True replication of DNA is due to

a. Phosphate backbone
b. Hydrogen bonding
c. Complementary base pairing rule
d. None

5. Which of the following statements is not applicable to viruses?

a. The virus replicates in a bacterial host

b. The protein coat of a virus does not enter the host cell
c. The genetic material is DNA or RNA
d. Virus replicate autonomously in the absence of host

6. Mode of DNA replication is

a. Conservative and bidirectional

b. Semiconservative and unidirectional
c. Semiconservative and bidirectional
d. Conservative and unidirectional.

7. Which enzyme is used to join nicks in the DNA strand?

a. Primase
b. DNA polymerase
c. DNA ligase
d. Endonuclease

8. Which enzyme is used in the unwinding of DNA?

a. Ligase
b. Topoisomerase
 c. Helicase
d. Exonuclease

9. Which of the following processes does not occur in prokaryotes?

a. Transcription
b. Splicing
c. Translation
d. Replication

10. cDNA is synthesised from RNA by the enzyme

a. DNA polymerase
b. DNA synthetase
c. DNA convertase
d. Reverse transcriptase

11. Which of the following base-pairing rule is correct?

a. Adenine with guanine and thymine with cytosine

b. DNA base pairing is non-specific
c. Adenine with cytosine and guanine with thymine
d. Adenine with thymine and guanine with cytosine

12. DNA synthesis can be measured by estimating the incorporation of radiolabelled

a. Thymine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. Adenine

13. How many RNA polymerases are present in a bacterial system?

a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
d. 3

14. During DNA replication the synthesis of the leading strand of DNA results in fragments
known as

a. Okazaki fragments
b. Satellite segments
c. Kornberg segment
d. Double-helix segment

15. Short strands of ——- primer are used in DNA replication.

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Histone
d. Protein
16. The tendency of an offspring to resemble its parent is known as
a. Variation
b. Heredity
c. Resemblance
d. Inheritance
17. Who is known as the “Father of Genetics”?

a. Morgan
b. Mendel
c. Watson
d. Bateson

18. The alternate form of a gene is

a. Alternate type
b. Recessive character
c. Dominant character
d. Allele

19. The genotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross is

a. 1:2:1
b. 3:1
c. 2:1:1
d. 9:3:3:1

20. The crossing of F1 to either of the parents is known as

a. Test cross
b. Back cross
c. F1 cross
d. All of the above

21. Which of the following statements is true regarding the “law of segregation”?

a. Law of segregation is the law of purity of genes

b. Alleles separate from each other during gametogenesis
c. Segregation of factors is due to the segregation of chromosomes during meiosis
d. All of the above

22. Homozygosity and heterozygosity of an individual can be determined by

a. Back cross
b. Self-fertilization
c. Test cross
d. All of the above

23. An exception to Mendel’s law is

a. Independent assortment
b. Linkage
c. Dominance
 d. Purity of gametes

24. Pea plants were used in Mendel’s experiments because

a. They were cheap

b. They had contrasting characters
c. They were available easily
d. All of the above

25. The smallest unit of genetic material which produces a phenotypic effect on mutation is

a. Muton
b. Gene
c. Recon
d. Nucleic acid

26. Mendel’s findings were rediscovered by

a. Correns
b. De Vries
c. Tschermark
d. All

27. Alleles are

a. Alternate forms of genes

b. Linked genes
c. Chromosomes that have crossed over
d. Homologous chromosomes

28. When the activity of one gene is suppressed by the activity of a non-allelic gene, it is known
as

a. Pseudo-dominance
b. Hypostasis
c. Epistasis
d. Incomplete dominance

29. Cystic fibrosis is

a. Sex-linked recessive disorder

b. Autosomal dominant disorder
c. Autosomal recessive disorder
d. Sex-linked dominant disorder

30. 9:7 ratio in the F2 generation represents

a. Incomplete dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Epistasis
d. Complementary interaction

31. A small amount of lethal mutation is always present in the population due to
a. Positive selection
b. Negative selection
c. Frequency-dependent selection
d. Mutation-selection balance

32. If a plant with genotype AaBb is self-fertilized, the probability of getting AABB genotype will
be (A and B are not linked)

a. ½
b. ¼
c. ⅛
d. 1/16

33. How many phenotypes can occur in the human blood group ABO with alleles IA IB i?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1

34. The geometrical device that helps to find out all the possible combinations of male and
female gametes is known as

a. Bateson Square
b. Mendel Square
c. Punnett Square
d. Mendel’s Cube

35. Which term represents a pair of contrasting characters?

a. Heterozygous
b. Homozygous
c. Codominant genes
d. Allelomorphs

36. Restriction enzymes were discovered by

a. Smith and Nathans

b. Alexander Fleming
c. Berg
d. None

37. Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA with

a. Ligase
b. Endonuclease
c. Exonuclease
d. Gyrase

38. Klenow fragment is derived from

a. DNA Ligase
b. DNA Pol-I
 c. DNA Pol-II
d. Reverse Transcriptase

39. Southern blotting is

a. Attachment of probes to DNA fragments

b. Transfer of DNA fragments from electrophoretic gel to a nitrocellulose sheet
c. Comparison of DNA fragments to two sources
d. Transfer of DNA fragments to electrophoretic gel from cellulose membrane

40. ELISA is

a. Using radiolabelled second antibody

b. Usage of RBCs
c. Using complement-mediated cell lysis
d. Addition of substrate that is converted into a coloured end product

41. The Golden Rice variety is rich in

a. Vitamin C
b. Β-carotene and ferritin
c. Biotin
d. Lysine

42. The DNA fragments have sticky ends due to

a. Endonuclease
b. Unpaired bases
c. Calcium ions
d. Free methylation

43. Plasmids are used as cloning vectors for which of the following reasons?

a. Can be multiplied in culture

b. Self-replication in bacterial cells
c. Can be multiplied in laboratories with the help of enzymes
d. Replicate freely outside bacterial cells

44. The human genome project was launched in the year

a. 1980
b. 1973
c. 1990
d. 1989

45. The vaccines prepared through recombinant DNA technology are

a. Third generation vaccines

b. First-generation vaccines
c. Second-generation vaccines
d. None

46. Which is a genetically modified crop?

 a. Bt-cotton
b. Bt-brinjal
c. Golden rice
d. All

47. PCR technique was invented by

a. Karry Mullis
b. Boyer
c. Sanger
d. Cohn

48. The first transgenic plant to be produced is

a. Brinjal
b. Tobacco
c. Rice
d. Cotton

49. RNA interference helps in

a. Cell proliferation
b. Micropropagation
c. Cell defence
d. Cell differentiation

50. Which of the following is the quality of improved transgenic basmati rice?

a. Gives high yield but no characteristic aroma

b. Gives high yield and is rich in vitamin A
c. Does not require chemical fertilizers and growth hormones
d. Resistant to insects and diseases

51. The first clinical application of gene therapy over a 4 year old girl was for

a. Adenosine deaminase deficiency

b. Adenosine deficiency
c. Growth deficiency
d. Adenine deficiency

52. Excision and insertion of a gene is called

a. Biotechnology
b. Genetic engineering
c. Cytogenetics
d. Gene therapy

53. The expression of a transgene in the target tissue is identified by a

a. Transgene
b. Promoter
c. Enhancer
d. Reporter
54. ———– is used as a vector for cloning into higher organisms

a. Retrovirus
b. Baculovirus
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Rhizopus nigricans

55. Which bacterium is used in the production of insulin by genetic engineering?

a. Saccharomyces
b. Rhizobium
c. Escherichia
d. Mycobacterium

56. What is true about Machine Learning?

a. Machine Learning (ML) is that field of computer science
b. ML is a type of artificial intelligence that extract patterns out of raw data by using an
algorithm or method.
c. The main focus of ML is to allow computer systems learn from experience without
being explicitly programmed or human intervention.
d. All of the above

57. ML is a field of AI consisting of learning algorithms that?

a. Improve their performance
b. At executing some task
c. Over time with experience
d. All of the above

58. When the size of data is large enough such that it cannot be processed on a single
machine, it is called as
a. Big data
b. Single data
c. Machine data
d. None of the above

59. A popular method to reduce dimensionality of data is

a. Decision trees
b. Random forests
c. Principal component analysis
d. All of the above

60. The synonym(s) for the word attribute is

a. Instance
b. Dimension
c. Variable
d. Both B and C

61. Which of the following is deterministic algorithm

a. Genetic programming
 b. Particle swarm optimization
c. Decision trees
d. All of the above

62. Hadoop is a framework for

a. Distributed computing
b. Parallel processing
c. Machine learning algorithms
d. Both A and B
63. We can transform any data to normality by using
a. MS Excel
b. Decision tree
c. Log
d. None of the above
64. In a distributed file system, data is divided into small pieces of equal size know as
a. Replication
b. Block size
c. Translation
d. All of the above
65. The ability of a model to successfully predict the unseen data is known as
a. Robustness
b. Agility
c. Coverage
d. None of the above
66. Which of the following is a stochastic algorithm
a. Genetic programming
b. Decision trees
c. Naïve bayes
d. Support vector machines
67. If we already have a historical data that contains the set of outputs for a set of inputs,
then the learning based on this data is called as
a. Unsupervised learning
b. Supervised learning
c. Deep learning
A. All of the above
68. Clustering is an example of
a. Deep learning
b. Supervised learning
c. Unsupervised learning
d. Reinforcement learning
69. The machine learning technique involving feedback from the environment is called as
a. Deep learning
b. Decision trees
c. Supervised learning
d. Reinforcement learning
70. A machine learning method where a model developed for a task is reused as the starting
point for a model on a second task
 a. Deep learning
b. Reinforcement learning
c. Transfer learning
d. None of the above
71. What is the main role of Statistical functions, principles, and algorithms?
a. to analyze raw data
b. build a Statistical Model
c. predict the result
d. All of the above
72. The Statistics makes inferences and predictions about a population based on a sample of
data taken from the population in question.
a. Descriptive
b. Quantitative
c. Inferential
d. Qualitative
73. The value most recurrent in the sample set is known as
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Standard Deviation
74. Result disproves the assumption is known as?
a. Null Hypothesis
b. Alternate Hypothesis
c. Immediate Hypothesis
d. All of the above
75. It is the measure of variability, based on dividing a data set into quartiles.
a. Deviation
b. Standard Deviation
c. Range
d. Inter Quartile Range
76. Data Analysis is a process of?
a. Inspecting data
b. Cleaning data
c. Transforming data
d. All of the above
77. Which of the following is true about regression analysis?
a. answering yes/no questions about the data
b. estimating numerical characteristics of the data
c. modeling relationships within the data
d. describing associations within the data
78. Text Analytics, also referred to as Text Mining?
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Can be true or false
d. Can not say
79. The goal of business intelligence is to allow easy interpretation of large volumes of data
to identify new opportunities.
 a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Can be true or false
d. Can not say
80. Which of the following is true about hypothesis testing?
a. Answering yes/no questions about the data
b. Estimating numerical characteristics of the data
c. Describing associations within the data
d. Modeling relationships within the data
81. Which of the following is a widely used and effective machine learning algorithm based
on the idea of bagging?
a. Decision Tree
b. Naïve Bayes
c. Classification
d. Random Forest
82. The disadvantage of decision trees is
a. Overfitting
b. Feature selection
c. Dimensionality reduction
d. Information gain
83. We can handle missing or corrupted data in a dataset?
a. Drop missing rows or columns
b. Replace missing values with mean/median/mode
c. Assign a unique category to missing values
d. All of the above
84. When performing regression or classification, which of the following is the correct way
to preprocess the data?
a. Normalize the data -> PCA -> training
b. PCA -> normalize PCA output -> training
c. Normalize the data -> PCA -> normalize PCA output -> training
d. None of the above
85. Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation ,deleting
relations and relating schemas ?
a. DML(Data Manipulation Langauge)
b. DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
c. Query
d. Relational Schema
86. DBMS is an interface between
a. Database and User
b. Database application and database
c. Database and SQL
d. Data and Database
87. Which of the following is an advantage of database management approach?
a. Data is dependent on programs
b. Data redundancy increases
c. Data can be accessed by multiple programs
d. Multiple users cannot access data concurrently
88. A relationship among a set of values in a table is represented by a
a. Relation
b. Column
c. Row
d. Attributes
89. Entity is a _________
a. Object of relation
b. Present working model
c. Thing in real world
d. Model of relation
90. Every weak entity set can be converted into a strong entity set by:
a. using generalization
b. adding appropriate attributes
c. using aggregation
d. none of the above
91. E-R modeling technique is a :
a. Top-down approach
b. Bottom-up approach
c. Left-right approach
d. None of the above
92. In ER model the details of the entities are hidden from the user. This process is called :
a. generalization
b. specialization
c. abstraction
d. none of these above
93. The attribute AGE is calculated from DATE_OF_BIRTH. The attribute AGE is
a. Single valued
b. Multi valued
c. Composite
d. Derived
94. Which of the following can be a multivalued attribute?
a. Phone_number
b. Name
c. Date_of_birth
d. All of the mentioned
95. Which of the following is a single valued attribute?
a. Register_number
b. Address
c. SUBJECT_TAKEN
d. Reference
96. A weak entity set in an E-R diagram is an entity set that :
a. has a primary key
b. must be part of a one to many relationship set
c. is not existence dependent on a dominant entity
d. must not participate as owner in an identifying relationship with another entity
set
97. The number of entities to which another entity can be associated via a relationship set is
expressed as :
a. Entity
b. Cardinality
c. Schema
d. Attributes
98. The attributes made up of more than one single attributes are called
a. Composite attribute
b. Derived attribute
c. Single value attribute
d. Multi value attribute
99. An association of several entities in an Entity-Relation model is called :
a. Tuple
b. Record
c. Relationship
d. Field
100. A functional dependency is a relationship between or among
a. Entities
b. Rows
c. Attributes
d. Tables
101. The database design prevents some data from being stored due to _______.
a. Deletion anomalies
b. Insertion anomalies
c. Update anomalies
d. Selection anomalies
102. Cybersecurity is primarily about ?
a. people
b. processes
c. technologies
d. All of the above
103. Cybersecurity also be referred to as?
a. incident security
b. information technology security
c. internet security
d. threat security
104. Which of the following is one of the Cyber Security Goals?
a. Protect the confidentiality of data.
b. Preserve the integrity of data
c. Promote the availability of data for authorized users
d. All of the above
105. Which of the following are data security consideration?
a. Backups
b. Archival Storage
c. Disposal of Data
d. All of the above
106. the process of retaining or keeping of data at a secure place for long-term storage.
 a. Data archiving
b. Archival Storage
c. Disposal of Data
d. Backup
107. Which of the following are objectives of Malware?
a. Provide remote control for an attacker to use an infected machine.
b. Investigate the infected user’s local network.
c. Steal sensitive data.
d. All of the above
108. Malware is short form of ?
a. malicious hardware
b. malicious software
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
109. Which of the following is a programs that copy themselves throughout a computer
or network?
a. Worms
b. Trojans
c. Viruses
d. Rootkits
110. Which of the following malware do not replicate or reproduce through infection?
a. Worms
b. Trojans
c. Viruses
d. Rootkits
111. Which malware has Short for "robot network"?
a. ronets
b. botnets
c. botwork
d. rowork
112. Which malware enable administrative control, allowing an attacker to do almost
anything on an infected computer?
a. Rootkits
b. RATs
c. Botnets
d. Worms
113. Which malware are often the armies behind today's distributed denial-of-service
(DDoS) attacks?
a. Botnets
b. botnetsSpyware
c. Trojans
d. Viruses
114. A digital signature is a mathematical technique which validates?
a. authenticity
b. integrity
c. Non-repudiation
d. All of the above
115. The process which verifies the identity of a user who wants to access the system.
a. Authentication
b. Non-repudiation
c. Integrity
d. None of the above
116. Which of the following is an example of Homology and similarity tool?
(a) BLAST
(b) RasMol
(c) EMBOSS
(d) PROSPECT
117. In which year did the SWISSPROT protein sequence database begin?
(a) 1988
(b) 1985
(c) 1986
(d) 1987
118. Which of the following scientists created the first Bioinformatics database?
(a) Dayhoff
(b) Pearson
(c) Richard Durbin
(d) [Link]
119. The human genome contains approximately__________.
(a) 6 billion base pairs
(b) 5 billion base pairs
(c) 3 billion base pairs
(d) 4 billion base pairs
120. Which of the following tools is used for the identification of motifs?
(a) BLAST
(b) COPIA
(c) PROSPECT
(d) Pattern hunter
121. The first molecular biology server expasy was in the year __________.
(a) 1992
(b) 1993
(c) 1994
(d) 1995
122. What is the deposition of cDNA into the inert structure called?
 (a) DNA probes
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) DNA microarrays
(d) DNA fingerprinting
123. The identification of drugs through the genomic study is called__________.
(a) Genomics
(b) Pharmacogenomics
(c) Pharmacogenetics
(d) Cheminformatics
124. Which of the following compounds has desirable properties to become a drug?
(a) Fit drug
(b) Lead
(c) Fit compound
(d) All of the above
125. Proteomics refers to the study of __________.
(a) Set of proteins in a specific region of the cell
(b) Biomolecules
(c) Set of proteins
(d) The entire set of expressed proteins in the cell
126. The process of finding the relative location of genes on a chromosome is called
__________.
(a) Gene tracking
(b) Genome walking
(c) Genome mapping
(d) Chromosome walking
127. The computational methodology that tries to find the best matching between two
molecules, a receptor and ligand are called __________.
(a) Molecular fitting
(b) Molecular matching
(c) Molecular docking
(d) Molecule affinity checking
128. Which of the following are not the application of bioinformatics?
(a) Drug designing
(b) Data storage and management
(c) Understand the relationships between organisms
 (d) None of the above
129. The term “invitro” is the Latin word which refers to__________.
(a) Within the lab
(b) Within the glass
(c) Outside the lab
(d) Outside the glass
130. The stepwise method for solving problems in computer science is called__________.
(a) Flowchart
(b) Algorithm
(c) Procedure
(d) Sequential design
131. The term Bioinformatics was coined by __________.
(a) J.D Watson
(b) Pauline Hogeweg
(c) Margaret Dayhoff
(d) Frederic Sanger
132. The laboratory work using computers and associated with web-based analysis generally
online is referred to as __________.
(a) In silico
(b) Dry lab
(c) Wet lab
(d) All of the above
133. Which of the following is the first completed and published gene sequence?
(a) ΦX174
(b) T4 phage
(c) M13 phage
(d) Lambda phage
134. The laboratory work using computers and computer-generated models generally offline
is referred to as __________.
(a) Insilico
(b) Wet lab
(c) Dry lab
(d) All of the above
135. The computer simulation refers to __________.
(a) Dry lab
(b) Invitro
(c) In silico
(d) Wet lab