Q1. Which item will not come under the purview of definition of goods?
(a) Intangible products like software, patents
(b) Vehicle, aircraft, ships
(c) Books, Publication, Periodicals
(d) Vehicles, aircraft, ships
Q2. GFR ---------contain definition of goods.*
(a) Rule 165
(b) Rule 150
(c) 155
(d) Rule 143
*Q3. Common use goods and services available on GeM are required to be procured mandatorily
through GeM as per GFR Rule ------.*
(a) 147
(b) 150
(c) 149
(d) 155
*Q4. The Govt. Procuring entity purchase goods up to ---------from any registered supplier on GeM.*
(a) Rs 50,000
(b) Rs 25,000
(c) Rs 30,000
(d) Rs 40,000
*Q5. Above Rs 25,000 and Up to Rs 5,00,000 through the GeM seller having lowest price amongst the
available sellers of -------- different Manufacturers.*
(a) Atleast 2
(b) Atleast 3
(c) Atleast 4
(d) Atleast 5
*Q6---------Rule of GFR contain Fundamental principles of public buying (for all procurements including
procurement of works).*
(a) Rule 143
(b) Rule 144
(c) Rule 151
(d) Rule 166
*Q7. ---------ensure the publicity of items through GeM for perspective suppliers.*
(a) GeM SPV
(b) Central Purchase Organisation
(c) Director of Stores and Stationeries
(d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
*Q8---------procuring goods in public interest shall have the responsibility and accountability to bring
efficiency, economy, and transparency in matters relating to public procurement.*
(a) Authority delegated with the financial powers
(b) Accounts Officer
(c) Audit Officer
(d) None of the Above
*Q9. While making a public procurement, the description of the subject matter should not contain
which of the following?*
(a) Quantity of goods to be procured
(b) A complete schedule of procurement cycle
(c) Technical specifications
(d) A particular trade mark, trade name or brand
*Q10. In case of Public Procurement, Care should also be taken to avoid purchasing quantities in excess
of requirement to avoid ---------*
(a) Transportation cost
(b) Inventory Carrying Cost
(c) Opportunity Cost
(d) Surplus cost
*Q11.
(I) Common use goods and services available on GeM are required to be procured mandatorily by the
Govt. entities through GeM.
(II) In case a certain item is not available on the GeM portal, then Govt. entity procuring this item
through the Local Purchase Committee.
(a) Statement-I is only correct one
(b) Both the statements are wrong one
(c) Both the statements are correct one
(d) Only Statement-II is correct one.
*Q12. Registered Suppliers are the suppliers who have been approved by the Central Purchase
Organisation as reliable sources for procurement of goods commonly required for Government use.*
(a) Correct one
(b) No provision is there in GFR-2017
(c) Incorrect one
(d) Partially correct one
Q13. ---------shall prepare Annual Procurement Plan before the commencement of the year and the
same should also be placed on their website.*
(a) Procuring Authority
(b) Liaison Officer
(c) Ministries/Departments
(d) Competent Authority
*Q14. Which Fundamental Principle is essential for an authority delegated with financial powers for
procuring goods in Public interest?*
(a) responsibility and accountability
(b) fair and equitable treatment of suppliers
(c) promotion of competition in public procurement.
(d) All the Above
*Q15. . The General Financial Rules, 2017 came into force w.e.f.---------.*
(a) 1.1.2017
(b) 8.3.2017
(c) 8.4.2017
(d) 1.7.2017
*Q16. ---------will ensure adequate publicity including periodic advertisement of the items to be
procured through GeM for the prospective suppliers and also check the credential of the suppliers on
GeM.*
(a) Directorate General of Supplies and Disposal
(b) GeM(SPV)
(c) Directorate of Procurement
(d) None of the Above
*Q17. Registered suppliers are approved for ---------*
(a) A fixed period of 1 year.
(b) A fixed period of 3 years
(c) A fixed period between 1 to 3 years
(d) All times to come
*Q18. The suppliers will be registered for a fixed period between 1 to 3 years depending on the ---------*
(a) Nature of the goods
(b) Head Of the Department
(c) Head of the Ministry
(d) None of the Above
*Q19. Credentials, manufacturing capability, quality control systems, past performance, after-sales
service, financial background etc. of the suppliers should be carefully verified before registration.*
(a) Partially correct one
(b) Incorrect one
(c) Correct one
(d) Nothing is mentioned Under GFR 150 in regarding to the Regis-tration of suppliers.
*Q20. Govt. procuring entity purchase above Rs 5 Lakh worth of goods through the --------- From the
GeM registered supplier.*
(a) Reverse Auction tool
(b) Limited Tender Enquiry
(c) Advertised Tender Enquiry
(d) None of the Above
*Q21. In which rule of GFR mention the Authorities competent to purchase goods?*
(a) 143
(b) 144
(c) 145
(d) 147
*Q22. Under Rule 147 of GFR, The Ministries or Departments have been delegated full powers to make
their own arrangements for procurements of goods and services, that are not available on GeM Portal.*
(a) Correct one
(b) Incorrect one
(c) Ministries having power to procure goods on own arrangement if these goods available on GeM
Portal but not Departments.
(d) None of these Above.
*Q23. The number of suppliers In Limited Tender Enquiry should be more than ---------*
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 6
*Q24. In a Limited Tender Enquiry, bidding documents may be sent to the registered suppliers for the
goods to be purchased, by ---------*
(a) Speed post/Registered post
(b) Courier
(c) E-Mail
(d) All of the Above
Q25. Bid Security is obtained from the bidders except-*
(a) Micro and Small Enterprises(MSEs)
(b) Registered Suppliers with the Central Purchase Organisation or the concerned Ministry or
Department.
(c) Startups as recognised by Department of Industrial policy & Promotion (DIPP).
(d) All of the Above
*Q26. Under GFR ---------in case a certain item is not available on the GeM portal, purchase of goods on
each occasion may be made on the Recommendations of a duly constituted Local Purchase Committee
consisting of 3 members of an appropriate Level as decided by the Head Of the Department.*
(a) 154
(b) 150
(c) 155
(d) 160
*Q27. Registered suppliers are eligible for consideration for procurement of goods through ---------*
(a) Advertised Tender Enquiry
(b) Limited Tender Enquiry
(c) Single Tender Enquiry
(d) Electronic Reverse Auction
*Q28. Limited Tender Enquiry(LTE) should be used for procurement of goods of estimated value ---------*
(a) Above Rs 2,50,000 and up to Rs 30,00,000
(b) Above Rs 2,50,000 and up to Rs 25,00,000
(c) Above Rs 2,50,000 and up to Rs 1,00,000
(d) Above Rs 2,50,000 and up to Rs 20,00,000
*Q29. Registered Suppliers can be removed from the list, if they*
(a) Fail to abide by the terms and conditions of the registration or supply the goods on time.
(b) Supply of substandard goods
(c) Make any false declaration to any Government Agency
(d) For any ground which, in the opinion of the Government, is not in public interest.
(e) All of the Above
*Q30. Purchase of goods may be made without inviting quotations or bids up to a value of ---------*
(a) Rs 50,000
(b) Rs 30,000
(c) Rs 25,000
(d) Rs 50,000
*Q31. Purchase of goods may be made on the recommendations of a duly constituted Local Purchase
Committee(LPC), if the value of goods is ---------*
(a) Above Rs 15,000 and up to Rs 50,000
(b) Above Rs 15,000 and up to Rs 1,00,000
(c) Above Rs 25,000 and up to Rs 1,00,000
(d) Above Rs 25,000 and up to Rs 2,50,000
*Q32. In special case, the estimated value of the procurement is more than Rs 25,00,000 through
Limited Tender Enquiry on the following conditions.*
(I) In urgent condition, the Department does not want to make additional expenditure to procure the
goods.
(II) It will not be in public interest to procure the goods through Advertised Tender Enquiry.
(a) Statement I is incorrect one and II is correct one
(b) Both the statements Correct one
(c) Statement II is incorrect one and I is correct one
(d) Only statement I is correct one
*Q34. In case of Advertised Tender Enquiry, ordinarily the time allowed for submission of bids from the
date of publication of the notice inviting tender or availability of bidding document for sale, whichever is
later should be ---------*
(a) Minimum 3 weeks
(b) Minimum 4 weeks
(c) Maximum 3 weeks
(d) Maximum 4 weeks
Q35. When the Department contemplates obtaining bids from Abroad, the minimum period should be
kept as --------- for both Domestic and Foreign bidders.*
(a) Minimum 3 weeks
(b) Minimum 4 weeks
(c) Maximum 3 weeks
(d) Maximum 4 weeks
*Q36. Of all items of textiles required by Central Govt. Departments, it Shall be mandatory to make
procurement Of --------- from amongst items of handloom origin, for Exclusive purchase from KVIC and/
or handloom clusters.*
(a) Atleast 30%
(b) Maximum 30%
(c) Atlest 20%
(d) Maximum 20%
*Q37. Above 5 Lakhs, Government buyer purchase through GeM using online e-bidding or Reverse
Auction Tool but except the sector ---------*
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Automobiles
(c) Construction
(d) None of the Above
*Q38. Advertised Tender Enquiry should be used for procurement of goods of estimated value ---------*
(a) Rs 25,00,000 and Above
(b) Rs 20,00,000 and Above
(c) Rs 35,00,000 and Above
(d) Rs 30,00,000 and Above
*Q39. The Consolidated Fund of India is defined under which article of the Constitution?*
(a) Article 266(1)
(b) Article 267(1)
(c) Article 268(1)
(d) Article 269(1)
*Q40. The Contingency Fund of India established under the Contingency Fund of India Act, 1950, in
terms of Article --------- of the Constitution.*
(a) Article 266(1)
(b) Article 267(1)
(c) Article 268(1)
(d) Article 269(1)
*Q41. The Public Account of India referred to in --------- of the Constitution.*
(a) Article 266(2)
(b) Article 267(1)
(c) Article 268(1)
(d) Articl
*Q42. The amount of bid security should ordinarily range between ---------*
(a) 1% to 3% of the estimated value of the goods to be procured.
(b) 2% to 5% of the estimated value of the goods to be procured
(c) 3% to 7% of the estimated value of the goods to be procured
(d) 5% to 10% of the estimated value of the goods to be procured
*Q43. Bid security may be accepted in the form of ---------*
(a) Account payee Demand Draft
(b) Fixed Deposit Receipt
(c) Banker's Cheque
(d) Bank Guarantee from any of the Commercial Banks or payment online in an acceptable form.
(e) Any of the Above
*Q44. Bid security normally remains valid for a period of --------- beyond the final bid validity period.*
(a) 15 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 60 days
Q45. Which General Financial Rule (GFR) related to "No Official of a procuring entity or a bidder shall act
in contravention of the Code Of Integrity"?
(a) GFR 169
(b) GFR 170
(c) GFR 168
(d) GFR 175
Q46. It is mandatory for Ministries/Departments to receive all bids through e-Procurement portals in
respect of all procurements except –
(I) Where National security and strategic considerations demands confidentiality
(II) Tenders floated by Indian Missions Abroad
(a) Statement-I is only correct one
(b) Statement-II is only correct one
(c) Both the statements correct one
(d) None of the above statements are correct one
Q47. No Global Tender Enquiry(GTE), however shall be invited for tenders up to ------ or such limit as
may be prescribed by the Department Of Expenditure from time to time.
(a) Rs 250 crores
(b) Rs 300 crores
(c) Rs 200 crores
(d) Rs 150 crores
Q48. Under what circumstances is a single tender enquiry system adopted?
(a) When required goods are manufactured by a particular firm.
(b) In case of emergency when the required goods are necessarily to be purchased from a particular
source
(c) For standardization of machinery or spare parts to be compatible to the existing sets of equipment
resulting in purchase only from a selected firm.
(d) All of the Above
Q49. What is the online real-time purchasing technique utilized by the procuring entity to select a
successful bid?
(a) Two-stage bidding
(b) Limited Tender Enquiry
(c) Electronic Reverse Auction
(d) Single Tender Enquiry
Q50. The other name of Bid Security is ---------
(a) Dearness Money
(b) Earnest Money
(c) Micro Money
(d) Contract Money
Q51. Should a bidder request/enquire about the reasons for rejection or non-issuance of a tender to a
prospective bidder. Is it mandatory to disclose the reasons?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Optional
(d) Discretion of the procuring authority
Q52. Which system is being followed for purchase of high value plant, machinery etc. of a complex and
technical nature?
(a) Two bid system
(b) Single bid system
(c) Advertised tender system
(d) Limited tender system
Q53. What is the cost charged to download tender documents?
(a) 10% of cost estimate
(b) 1% of cost estimate
(c) No cost
(d) Value of Bank guarantee
Q54. In a two bid system, what are the two bids?
(I) Dynamic bid
(II) Online bid
(III) Financial bid
(IV) Technical bid
ANS: (a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (iii) & (iv)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (iv)
Q55. When is rejection of all bids justified?
(a) When all bids meet the criteria for evaluation of bids
(b) When the technical bids meets the minimum qualifying score
(c) When effective competition is lacking
(d) When bids/Proposals are responsive to the requirements of the procurement division.
Q56. Which of the following sentences is correct in terms of bidding procedures?
(a) Contract should ordinarily be awarded to the lowest evaluated bidder who is qualified to perform
satisfactorily.
(b) Negotiation with bidders can be done to achieve the lowest bid even after opening the bid.
(c) Any new condition can be brought in for evaluation of bids
(d) Bidders can modify/alter their bids after expiry of the deadline for receipt of bids
Q57. e-Procurement, according to GFR means-
in the procurement process. (b) Use of information and communication technology
(c) Payment of procurement being made online
(d) Procurement only through foreign sources
Q58. Identify a reason for which a bidder shall not be debarred –
(a) When he is convicted of an offence under prevention of Corruption Act
(b) When the bidder makes the highest quote
(c) When he is convicted of an offence under Indian Penal Code
(d) When the bidder has breached the code of integrity
Q59. When a limited tender results in only one effective offer, it shall be treated as –
(a) Advertised Tender
(b) Electronic Reverse Auction
(c) Single tender contract
(d) Two Stage bidding
Q60. Which one is incorrect one?
(a) GFR 161: Advertised Tender Enquiry
(b) GFR 162: Limited Tender Enquiry
(c) GFR 163: Late bids
(d) GFR 164: Two-stage bidding
Q61. Which one is incorrect one?
(a) GFR 163: Two-bid System
(b) GFR 164: Two-Stage bidding
(c) GFR 165: Late bids
(d) GFR 166: Electronic Reverse Auction
Q62. Which GFR contain contents of bidding document?
(a) GFR 169
(b) GFR 170
(c) GFR 168
(d) GFR 171
Q63.(I) Bid validity period means the period of time subsequent to the closing date for submission of
bids for which the bid price and the conditions of bid are not subject to any change by the bidder.
(II) Bid validity period means the period of time between the Bid opening date and contract awarded to
the successful bidder.
(III) Bid validity period means the period fixed by a contracting authority to permit evaluation and
comparision of tenders, obtaining all necessary clearances and approvals, and notification award of
contracts and finalize a contract.
(a) Statement-III is incorrect one
(b) Both the Statements-I & II are correct one and Statement-III is incorrect one.
(c) Only statement-III is correct one
(d) All the Above Statements are correct one
Q64. "CPPP" is ----------
(a) Central Public Private Partnership
(b) Central Public Purchasing Power
(c) Central Public Procurement Portal
(d) Central Private Procurement Portal
Q65. Bid Security of successful bidder should be returned----
(a) On award of contract.
(b) On receipt of performance security
(c) On submission of final bill
(d) None of the Above
Q66. The amount of Performance security should ordinarily range between –
(a) 2 to 5% of the value of contract
(b) 5 to 10% of the contract
(c) 10 to 15% of the contract
(d) 12 to 20% of the contract
Q67. Performance Security should remain valid for a period of ----- beyond the date of completion of all
contractual obligations Of the supplier including warranty obligations.
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 90 days
Q68. Performance Security reduced from 5-10% to -------- Of the value of the contract till date 31-12-
2021 due to pandemic situation in the country.
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 4%
(d) 1%
Q69. Statements: In case of Limited Tender or in Advertised Tender Enquiry
(I) Late bids should be considered after approaching to the Ministry/Departments.
(II) Late bids should not be considered.
(III) Late bids considered after paying penalty
(a) Statement-I is correct one
(b) Statements-II and III both are correct one
(c) Statement-II is incorrect one
(d) Statement-II is correct one
Q70. -------- is to be provided by the Ministry/Department before procuring the goods from a single
source.
(a) The Proprietary Article Certificate
(b) The Emergency Certificate
(c) The urgent requirement Certificate
(d) The Utilization Certificate
Q71. Where the Ministry/Department considers it necessary to seek Competitive offers from Abroad for
any goods, it may send copies of the notice inviting tender to-------
(a) The Indian Embassies Abroad
(b) The Foreign Embassies in India
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the Above
Q72. In Two bid system(simultaneous receipt of separate technical and financial bids)-
(I) Both technical and financial bids opened simultaneously
(II) The technical bids are to be opened at the first instance
(III) At the second stage, financial bids of only these technically Acceptable offers should be opened.
(IV) Financial bids of all bidders should be opened.
(a) Statements I and IV correct one
(b) All statements are incorrect one
(c) Statements II and III correct one
(d) Statement II is only correct one
Q73. In Two-Stage Bidding, obtain bid in two stages with receipt of financial bids after receipt and
evaluation of technical bids.
(a) True one
(b) False one
(c) No provision in GFR rules
(d) Partially true
Q74. The advertisement for invitation of tenders should be given in-------
(a) Central Public Procurement Portal(CPPP)
(b) Government e-Marketplace
(c) Website of the organisation
(d) All of the Above
Q75. Due to convicted of an offence, a bidder or any of its successor shall not be eligible to participate in
a procurement process of any procuring entity for a period not exceeding -------- years commencing from
the date of debarment.
(a) 4 years
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years
Q76. A procuring entity may debar a bidder or any of its successors, from participating in any
procurement process undertaken by it, for a period not exceeding --------, if it determines that the bidder
has breached the code of integrity.
(a) 4 years
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 5 years
Q77. The bidder shall not be debarred unless such bidder has been given a reasonable opportunity to
represent against such debarment.
(a) Statement is correct one
(b) Statement is incorrect one
(c) Ignore in GFR
(d) Depend on the concern Department
Q78. In GFR -------- there is debarment of bidders from bidding if he has been convicted of an offence.
(a) 150
(b) 151
(c) 152
(d) 153
Q79. Advance payment to a supplier should not be made in case of ----------
(a) Maintenance contracts
(b) Fabrication contracts
(c) Turn-key contracts
(d) Contracts for supply of any ordinary goods
Q80. Advance payment to a private firm should not exceed ----------,
(a) 10% of the contract value
(b) 20% of the contract value
(c) 30% of the contract value
(d) 40% of the contract value
Q81. Advance payment to Govt. Agency should not exceed ----------,
(a) 10% of the contract value
(b) 20% of the contract value
(c) 30% of the contract value
(d) 40% of the contract value
Q82. In case of maintenance contract, the amount should not exceed the amount payable for --------.
(a) 3 months under the contract
(b) 4 months under the contract
(c) 5 months under the contract
(d) 6 months under the contract
Q83. Part Payment to a supplier may be released --------.
(a) Depending on the terms of delivery incorporated in a contract.
(b) Part payment to the supplier may be released after it dispatches the goods from its premises in
terms of the contract.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the Above
Q84. When it is decided with the approval of the competent authority to replace an existing old items
with a new and better version items called----------
(a) Buy-Back Offer
(b) New offer
(c) Exchange offer
(d) Dispose offer
Q85. In --------, All government purchases should be made in a transparent, competitive and fair manner,
to secure best value for money.
(a) GFR 170
(b) GFR 171
(c) GFR 172
(d) GFR 173
Q86. Criteria for determining responsiveness are to be taken into account for evaluating the bids-
(a) time of delivery.
(b) Performance/ efficiency/ environmental characteristics.
(c) the terms of payment and of guarantees in respect of the subject matter of procurement
(d) price and cost of operating, maintaining and repairing etc.
(e) All the Above.
Q87. Rejection of all Bids is justified when
(a) effective competition is lacking.
(b) all Bids and Proposals are not substantially responsive to the requirements of the Procurement
Documents.
(c) the Bids/'Proposals' prices are substantially higher that the updated cost estimate or available
budget.
(d) none of the technical Proposals meets the minimum technical qualifying score.
(e) All of the Above
Q88. Lack of competition in GFR-173 shall not be determined solely on the basis of the number of
Bidders.
(a) True one
(b) False one
(c) Ignored in GFR
(d) None of the Above
Q89. Even when only one Bid is submitted, the process may be considered valid provided following
conditions are satisfied:
(a) The procurement was satisfactorily advertised and sufficient time was given for submission of bids.
(b) The qualification criteria were not unduly restrictive.
(c) prices are reasonable in comparison to market values.
(d) All of the Above
Q90. In case a purchase Committee is constituted to purchase or recommend the procurement, no
member of the purchase Committee should be reporting directly to any other member of such
Committee in case estimated value of procurement exceeds --------.
(a) Rs 15 Lakhs
(b) Rs 20 Lakhs
(c) Rs 25 Lakhs
(d) Rs 30 Lakhs
Q91. (I) Bidders should not be permitted to alter or modify their bids after expiry of the deadline for
receipt of bids.
(II) Negotiation with bidders after bid opening must be severely discouraged.
(III) In exceptional circumstances where price negotiation against an ad-hoc procurement is necessary
due to some unavoidable circumstances, the same may be resorted to only with the lowest evaluated
responsive bidder
(a) Only Statement-I is correct one.
(b) Only Statement-II is correct one
(c) Statements-I & II both correct one
(d) All the above statements are correct one
Q92. The criteria for eligibility and qualifications to be met by the bidders:
(a) Minimum level of experience & past performance.
(b) Technical capability
(c) Manufacturing facilities and financial position
(d) All of the Above
Q93. Bidding Documents should include a clause that "if a firm quotes -------- the bid shall be treated as
unresponsive and will not be considered".
(a) NIL charges
(b) More charges
(c) Minimum charges
(d) None of the Above
Q94. (I) Suitable provision should be kept in the bidding document to enable a bidder to question the
bidding conditions, bidding process and/or rejection of its bid.
(II) The reasons for rejecting a tender or non-issuing a tender document to a prospective bidder must be
disclosed where enquiries are made by the bidder.
(III) Suitable provision for settlement of disputes, if any, emanating from the resultant contract, should
be kept in the bidding document.
(a) Statement-III is incorrect one
(b) Both the Statements-I & II are correct one and Statement-III is incorrect one.
(c) Only statement-III is correct one
(d) All the Above Statements are correct one
Q95. (I) The bidding document should indicate clearly that the resultant contract will be interpreted
under Indian Laws.
(II) The bidders should be given reasonable time to prepare and send their bids.
(III) The bids should be opened in public and authorised representatives of the bidders should be
permitted to attend the bid opening.
(a) Statement-III is incorrect one
(b) Both the Statements-I & II are correct one and Statement-III is incorrect one.
(c) Only statement-III is correct one
(d) All the Above Statements are correct one
Q96. When a limited or open tender results in only one effective offer, it shall be treated as a single
tender contract.
(a) Incorrect one
(b) Partially correct one
(c) Correct one
(d) None of the Above
Q97. In -------- public procurement procedure should ensure efficiency, economy and accountability in
the system.
(a) GFR 170
(b) GFR 172
(c) GFR 173
(d) GFR 174
Q98. (I) To reduce delay, appropriate time frame for each stage of procurement should be prescribed by
the Ministry or Department.
(II) To minimise the time needed for decision making and placement of contract, every
Ministry/Department, with the approval of the competent authority, may delegate, wherever necessary,
appropriate purchasing powers to the lower functionaries.
(III) The Ministries or Departments should ensure placement of contract within the original validity of
the bids. Extension of bid validity must be discouraged and resorted to only in exceptional
circumstances.
(a) Statement I is correct one
(b) Statement II is correct one
(c) Statement III is correct one
(d) All the Above statements are correct one
Q99. Bid security of unsuccessful bidders should be returned to them --------.
(a) At the earliest after expiry of the final bid validity
(b) Latest on or before the 30th day after the award of the contract.
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) None of the Above
Q100. In place of a bid security, the Ministries/Departments may require Bidders to sign a Bid securing
declaration accepting the suspension in the following conditions:
(a) if they withdraw Bids during bid validity period
(b) modify their Bids during bid validity period
(c) if they are awarded the contract and they fail to sign the contract
(d) to submit a performance security before the deadline defined in the request for bids document
(e) Any of the Above condition