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Production and Cost Concepts Quiz

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4 views9 pages

Production and Cost Concepts Quiz

Uploaded by

talha.smtk
Copyright
© All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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Module 3.

1 — Production, Productivity,
and Diminishing Returns (13 Qs)
1. A farm has 10 acres (fixed) and hires identical workers. When 1 worker is hired output =
20; 2 → 36; 3 → 48; 4 → 56. Which statement is true?​
A. MPL is increasing for all hires.​
B. MPL is decreasing for all hires.​
C. MPL increases initially then decreases.​
D. Average product is constant.​
E. Total product is decreasing after 3 workers.

2. Suppose total product (TP) with 0–4 workers is {0, 18, 34, 48, 60}. Which is MPL for the
3rd worker?​
A. 12​
B. 14​
C. 16​
D. 18​
E. 34

3. Holding capital fixed, which change would shift the MPL curve upward?​
A. A sudden, permanent increase in the wage rate.​
B. A technological improvement that raises labor productivity.​
C. A per-unit tax on output.​
D. An increase in unemployment in the region.​
E. A decrease in farm size (land).

4. If each additional worker has a smaller share of fixed capital, which core concept explains
falling MPL?​
A. Returns to scale​
B. Diminishing returns to an input​
C. Law of comparative advantage​
D. Increasing returns to specialization​
E. Constant marginal product

5. Which graphically equals the slope of the total product curve?​


A. Average product of labor​
B. Marginal product of labor​
C. Marginal cost​
D. Average fixed cost​
E. Total revenue

6. A production function exhibits increasing MPL at low labor, then decreasing MPL later.
Which is possible?​
A. MPL always negative at some point.​
B. TP is first convex then concave.​
C. TP is linear.​
D. Average product must be falling throughout.​
E. MPL cannot rise then fall.

7. Mia and Liam double all inputs and get output exactly double. This describes:​
A. Diminishing returns to an input.​
B. Increasing returns to scale.​
C. Constant returns to scale.​
D. Decreasing returns to scale.​
E. Diminishing marginal returns.

8. A production function gives Q = 5L^(1/2)K^(1/2). If K is fixed, doubling L will:​


A. More than double Q.​
B. Exactly double Q.​
C. Less than double Q.​
D. Leave Q unchanged.​
E. Make Q four times larger.

9. A firm’s marginal product of labor becomes negative. Which must be true?​


A. Total product is still rising.​
B. Marginal cost must be falling.​
C. Total product is falling.​
D. Average product is necessarily negative.​
E. The firm faces economies of scale.

10. For a given fixed capital, which change could reverse diminishing MPL?​
A. reduce wage rate​
B. increase training/skill of workers​
C. lower fixed capital further​
D. reduce price of output​
E. impose a unit tax on labor

11. Which statement is correct about diminishing returns and returns to scale?​
A. Diminishing returns is a long-run concept; returns to scale is short-run.​
B. Diminishing returns means MPL rises as more labor is hired.​
C. Returns to scale concerns changing all inputs; diminishing returns holds some fixed.​
D. They are the same concept under different names.​
E. Returns to scale cannot produce economies of scale.

12. The MPL curve is negative and the TP curve is decreasing. Which is true about slope
signs?​
A. TP slope positive; MPL negative​
B. TP slope negative; MPL negative​
C. TP slope zero; MPL negative​
D. MPL equals slope of TP, so both negative​
E. Impossible — MPL cannot be negative
13. Data: With 0–3 workers: Q = {0, 25, 47, 66}. Which of the following is true?​
A. MPL3 = 19​
B. MPL2 = 22, MPL3 = 19 — diminishing returns present​
C. Average product with 3 workers = 22​
D. MPL2 > MPL1​
E. Total product shows constant returns

Module 3.2 — Short-Run Costs, MC, and


ATC (13 Qs)
14. If FC = $400, wage per worker = $200, and output per worker from 0→4 workers is {0,
19, 36, 52, 64}, what is total cost (TC) when 3 workers are hired?​
A. $600​
B. $1,000​
C. $1,200​
D. $1,400​
E. $1,600

15. Using the same data as Q14, marginal cost of the 3rd worker (over output from 2→3
workers) equals:​
A. $25 per unit​
B. $50 per unit​
C. $100 per unit​
D. $200 per unit​
E. $400 per unit

16. If AVC is rising, then:​


A. MC must be below AVC.​
B. MC must be above AVC.​
C. ATC must be falling.​
D. AFC must be rising.​
E. MC equals ATC.

17. Which is true about AFC, AVC, and ATC as Q increases?​


A. AFC increases; AVC falls; ATC rises.​
B. AFC falls; AVC may fall then rise; ATC is U-shaped.​
C. AFC is constant; AVC is U-shaped; ATC equals AFC.​
D. AFC and AVC both increase always.​
E. ATC falls forever.

18. Selena’s data: TC at Q=3 is $216; TC at Q=4 is $300. MC from 3→4 = ?​


A. $21​
B. $36​
C. $84​
D. $108​
E. $300

19. Which best explains why MC eventually rises?​


A. Fixed costs fall with output.​
B. Diminishing marginal product of variable input.​
C. Wages fall as output increases.​
D. Average fixed cost rises.​
E. Technology deteriorates by producing more.

20. The MC curve crosses ATC at:​


A. ATC maximum.​
B. ATC minimum.​
C. AVC maximum.​
D. AFC minimum.​
E. ATC inflection point.

21. A per-unit increase in input price (e.g., bottles cost +$40 per case) will:​
A. Shift AFC up by $40.​
B. Shift MC and AVC up by $40.​
C. Shift LRATC down by $40.​
D. Leave all cost curves unchanged.​
E. Only change FC.

22. Given VC rises more than proportionally with output due to diminishing returns, which
shape will MC most likely have starting from very low output?​
A. Strictly upward sloping from Q=0.​
B. Swoosh-shaped (down then up).​
C. Horizontal.​
D. Strictly downward sloping.​
E. Vertical.

23. Table: Q: 0 1 2 3 4; TC: 40, 60, 90, 130, 180. What is MC at Q=3?​
A. 20​
B. 30​
C. 40​
D. 50​
E. 90

24. The spreading effect explains:​


A. Why MC rises eventually.​
B. Why AVC falls forever.​
C. Why AFC falls as Q increases.​
D. Why MPL increases with more workers.​
E. Why fixed cost increases with output.

25. If MC < ATC at current Q, what happens to ATC when output increases by one unit?​
A. ATC increases.​
B. ATC decreases.​
C. ATC remains unchanged.​
D. ATC becomes negative.​
E. Cannot say without AFC.

Module 3.3 — Long-Run Costs, Returns


to Scale (12 Qs)
26. Long-run average total cost (LRATC) is defined as:​
A. ATC when fixed cost is zero.​
B. ATC when firm chooses fixed inputs to minimize ATC for each Q.​
C. ATC in the short run with fixed capital.​
D. Total cost per unit excluding variable cost.​
E. Marginal cost in the long run.

27. If doubling all inputs more than doubles output, the firm experiences:​
A. Diseconomies of scale.​
B. Constant returns to scale.​
C. Increasing returns to scale (increasing returns).​
D. Diminishing marginal returns.​
E. Negative marginal product.

28. The minimum efficient scale (MES) is:​


A. Q where LRATC is at maximum.​
B. Smallest Q at which LRATC is minimized.​
C. Output where MC = AFC.​
D. Output where ATC slope = MC slope.​
E. Unrelated to market structure.

29. Which would tend to cause diseconomies of scale?​


A. Better specialization of labor.​
B. Centralized decision-making efficiency improvements.​
C. Communication and coordination problems in very large firms.​
D. Bulk buying discounts.​
E. Automation that increases productivity.

30. A firm faces three short-run ATC curves (different fixed costs). The LRATC is:​
A. The highest of these curves at each Q.​
B. The envelope (lower bound) of these short-run ATC curves.​
C. The average of them.​
D. Identical to any one short-run curve.​
E. The sum of the curves.

31. A firm currently on a short-run ATC that touches LRATC at Q=6. If it expects to produce
6 permanently, it should:​
A. Do nothing; current fixed inputs minimize ATC at 6.​
B. Reduce fixed inputs immediately.​
C. Increase fixed inputs immediately.​
D. Shut down.​
E. Raise prices.

32. Which relationship is true?​


A. If LRATC is decreasing over some range, the firm necessarily has decreasing returns to
scale.​
B. If LRATC decreases as Q increases, firm experiences economies of scale.​
C. LRATC always equals the lowest possible AVC.​
D. LRATC is irrelevant to long-run decisions.​
E. LRATC increases only when variable costs rise.

33. What is the likely market structure if MES is large relative to market demand for the
product?​
A. Perfect competition with many small firms.​
B. Monopoly or oligopoly due to few firms able to achieve MES.​
C. Monopsony.​
D. Contestable market with zero entry costs.​
E. Pure public good provision.

34. Suppose three choices: (FC, AVC) = (8000, $1.00), (12000, $0.75), (24000, $0.25). For
Q = 30,000 which choice gives lowest ATC?​
A. Choice 1​
B. Choice 2​
C. Choice 3​
D. All equal​
E. Need more info

35. Short-run ATC intersects LRATC at:​


A. Every quantity.​
B. The minimum of LRATC only.​
C. Points where that short-run fixed choice minimizes ATC for that Q.​
D. Only when LRATC is flat.​
E. Never.

36. If Selena doubles all inputs and output triples, what happens to LRATC?​
A. LRATC increases.​
B. LRATC decreases.​
C. LRATC stays constant.​
D. LRATC undefined.​
E. LRATC equals AFC.
Module 3.4 — Profit, Costs, and
Economic vs Accounting Profit (12 Qs)
37. Which is an implicit cost?​
A. Wages paid to an employee.​
B. Rent paid on a building.​
C. Forgone salary of owner who works in the business.​
D. Payment for raw materials.​
E. Sales tax on purchases.

38. Accounting profit differs from economic profit because accounting profit:​
A. Subtracts implicit costs only.​
B. Subtracts explicit costs only.​
C. Includes opportunity costs of capital and time.​
D. Is always negative if economic profit is zero.​
E. Equals total revenue.

39. If accounting profit = $25,000, implicit cost of capital = $2,000 and opportunity cost of
owner’s time = $23,000, economic profit = ?​
A. $0​
B. $2,000​
C. $25,000​
D. -$2,000​
E. $0 only if accounting profit excludes depreciation

40. A firm with zero economic profit is:​


A. Failing because profit must be positive.​
B. Earning a normal profit and covering all opportunity costs.​
C. Earning negative accounting profit.​
D. Not covering explicit costs.​
E. Always making positive accounting profit of zero.

41. Which best describes “normal profit”?​


A. Accounting profit minus implicit cost.​
B. Economic profit > 0.​
C. Zero economic profit — the minimum needed to keep resources in current use.​
D. Accounting profit = 0.​
E. Profit after taxes only.

42. Karma and Don run a home business. Which is explicit vs implicit? (Basement space
rent forgone; supplies; job forgone wages) — which combination is correct?​
A. Basement forgone rent — explicit; supplies — implicit; forgone job wages — explicit.​
B. Basement forgone rent — implicit; supplies — explicit; forgone job wages — implicit.​
C. All three are explicit.​
D. All three are implicit.​
E. Basement forgone rent — explicit; others implicit.
43. You sell T-shirts: cost per shirt $5, price $10, sell 100 shirts in 2 hours. Opportunity wage
foregone = $12/hr. Accounting profit and economic profit per game? (Choose the correct
pair)​
A. Accounting $500; Economic $500​
B. Accounting $1,000; Economic $500​
C. Accounting $500; Economic $1,000​
D. Accounting $1,000; Economic $1,000​
E. Accounting $476; Economic $476

44. Opportunity costs include:​


A. Only explicit costs.​
B. Only implicit costs.​
C. Both explicit and implicit costs.​
D. Only depreciation.​
E. Only accounting profit.

45. Which of the following would reduce accounting profit but not economic profit?​
A. Increase in wage paid to owner.​
B. Increase in implicit rent (opportunity cost).​
C. Increase in depreciation expense accounted under GAAP.​
D. A decrease in explicit material costs.​
E. A per-unit subsidy.

46. A firm earns positive economic profit. Which is likely in the long run?​
A. Entry of new firms, profit erodes in perfect competition.​
B. Exit of existing firms.​
C. No change in market.​
D. Government must intervene.​
E. Accounting profit becomes negative.

47. A firm faces explicit costs = $50,000, implicit costs = $30,000, total revenue = $100,000.
Accounting profit = ?, Economic profit = ?​
A. $20,000; -$10,000​
B. $50,000; $20,000​
C. $20,000; $20,000​
D. $50,000; -$30,000​
E. $100,000; $20,000

48. Which is true: If economic profit < 0 (negative), firm:​


A. Is covering both explicit and implicit costs fully.​
B. Earning more than owners' next best alternative.​
C. Could be better off reallocating resources elsewhere in long run.​
D. Must immediately shut down in short run.​
E. Is necessarily making an accounting loss.
49. A business owner has accounting profit = $40,000. If implicit costs = $40,000, what can
be said?​
A. Economic profit = $0; owner is earning normal profit.​
B. Economic profit = $40,000.​
C. Accounting profit must be negative.​
D. Owner should close immediately.​
E. Implicit costs are irrelevant.

50. Which of these decisions uses economic profit concept most directly?​
A. Choosing between two bank accounts for a safe deposit.​
B. Deciding whether to keep own capital invested in current business vs rent it out.​
C. Hiring a part-time cashier based solely on break-even accounting.​
D. Filing monthly tax returns.​
E. Choosing accounting software.

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