03-08-2025

1016CMD303054250004 MD

PHYSICS

1) Calculate sum of :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

The incorrect relation is:

(1)
sinθ = 2 sin cos

(2)
cosθ = 2 cos2 – 1

(3)
sin2θ=
(4) cos4θ = cos22θ – sin22θ

3)

780° = ....?... radian

(1)

(2) 4π

(3)

(4)

4)

Find the value of cos(165°):-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

5) then is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) log(5x + 6)

6) If derivative of is what is numerical value of constant K ?

(1) 8
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 1

7) A man is running on a road with velocity 10 km/h. Suddenly rain starts falling. The velocity of rain
is 3 km/h in vertically downward direction. The speed of rain with respect to man is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 13 km/hr
(4)

8) Delhi is at a distance of 200 km from Ambala. Car A sets out from Ambala at a speed of 30
km/hr and car B set out at the same time from Delhi at a speed of 20 km/hr. When will they cross
each other?

(1) 4 hrs
(2) 8 hrs
(3) 16 hrs
(4) 20 hrs

9) Two parallel rail tracks run north-south. Train A moves north with uniform speed 15 m/s and train
B moves south with uniform speed 25 m/s. Then match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II
 Magnitude of velocity of train B
(A) (p) Zero
w.r.t. train A

Magnitude of velocity of ground

(B) (q) 40 m/s
w.r.t. train B

Magnitude of velocity of ground

(C) (r) 15 m/s
w.r.t. train A

Magnitude of acceleration of train

(D) (s) 25 m/s
A w.r.t. train B
(1) A(p), B(q), C(r), D(s)
(2) A(q), B(s), C(r), D(p)
(3) A(q), B(p), C(s), D(r)
(4) A(r), B(s), C(p), D(q)

10) A coin is dropped from the roof of an elevator. When elevator is at rest, time taken by coin to
reach the surface is t1 and when elevator is moving with uniform speed and coin is released, then the
time taken by it to reach the surface is t2. Then

(1) t1 = t2
(2) t1 > t2
(3) t1 < t2
(4) Depends on lift is moving upward or downward

11) A person hired a boat for 3 hrs. The river flows at a speed of 2.5 km/hr and speed of boat is 7.5
km/hr w.r.t. water. They start from a point rowing along the river and comes back to the same point
in 3 hrs. Then distance travelled by him is :

(1) 20 km
(2) 8 km
(3) 6 km
(4) 5 km

12) A boat takes t1 hour to cover certain distance between two spots in a river in down stream and t2
hours in upstream. The ratio of speed of boat in still water to that of river is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Four particles A, B, C & D are moving with same speed v as shown in figure. Find out directions
of velocity of A with respect to B, C & D respectively at this instant :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Two projectiles are projected at same time as shown in fig. What should be the velocity 'u' of

projectile A (in m/s) so that they can collide in the air:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 35 m/sec. Winds start blowing after sometime with a
speed of 12 m/sec in east to west direction. At what angle with the vertical should a boy waiting at a
bus stop hold his umbrella to protect him self from rain ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A body of mass 4 kg is acted on by a force which varies as shown in the graph below. The
momentum acquired is

(1) 280 Ns
(2) 140 Ns
(3) 70 Ns
(4) 210 Ns

17) A 70 kg. man jumps to a height of 0.8 m. Calculate impulse provided by ground to man.

(1) 384.6 kg m/sec

(2) 277.2 kg m/sec
(3) 237.4 kgm/sec
(4) 309.6 kg m/sec

18) A rocket is launched such that at a time mass of rocket is 1000 kg, velocity of exhaust gases
relative to rocket is 2 km/s and rate of fuel consumption is 10 kg/s, then find acceleration of rocket :

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 0 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 10 m/s2

19) A ball of mass m, moving with velocity m/s receives an impulse N-s due to an
impact. What is the velocity of the ball just after the impact ?

(1)
m/s

(2)
m/s

(3)
m/s

(4)
m/s

20) Figure I, II, III and IV depict variation of force with time :

(I) (II)
(III) (IV)
The impulse is highest in the case of situations depicted in figure :

(1) I and II
(2) III and I
(3) III and IV
(4) IV only

21) A ball of mass 200 gm, moving with a speed of 40 m/s, is deflected exactly with the same speed
but at 90° with its incident direction after striking with the bat. If the striking time is 2 sec, then the
average force acting on the ball is -

(1) 4 N
(2) N
(3) N
(4) Zero

22) A particle of mass m, initially at rest, is acted upon by a variable force F for a brief interval of
time T. It begins to move with a velocity u after the force stops acting. F is shown in the graph as a

function of time. The curve is a semi-ellipse. Then the value of u is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) List I gives certain situations in which electric field is represented by electric lines of forces in x-
y plane. List II gives corresponding representation of equipotential lines in x-y plane. Match the
figures in List I with the figures in List II and indicate your answer.
(1) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(2) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(3) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(4) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

24) Electric charges q, q, –2q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side ℓ. The
magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is :-

(1) qℓ
(2) 2qℓ
(3)
(4) 4qℓ

25)

Two short dipoles are placed according to given figures, than torque on P2 will be :

(1) zero

(2)

(3)
(4)

26) Potential in certain region of space is given by V = xy2 + yz3, where V is in volt and x, y, z are in
meter. The electric force (in N) experienced by a charge 2 C situated at point (0, 1, 2) is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) An infinite no. of equal charges q are placed at distances x = 1, 2, 4, 8......∞. If the alternate
charges are of opposite nature, then the total potential at origin will be :-

(1) Zero
(2) 2 Kq

(3)

(4)

28) An electric field exist in the space. The potential at origin is taken to be 150 V.
Then the potential at (2m, 2m) is :-

(1) 100 V
(2) Zero
(3) 50 V
(4) 200 V

29)

An electric dipole is placed along the x-axis at the origin O. A point P is at a distance of 20cm from

this origin such that OP makes an angle with the x-axis. If the electric field at P makes an angle θ
with the x-axis, the value of θ would be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by V = –x2y – xz3 + 4. The electric field at that
point is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) The charges of same magnitude q are placed at four corners of a square of side a. The value of
potential at the centre of square will be –

(1) 4kq/a
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) The variation of electric potential with distance from a fixed point is shown in figure. What is the

value of electric field at x = 2m ?

(1) Zero
(2) 6/2
(3) 6/1
(4) 6/3

33) Two charges 5 × 10–8 C and –3 × 10–8C are located 16 cm apart. At what point on the line joining
the two charges is the electric potential zero ? (Take the potential at infinity to be zero)

(1) 10 cm & 40 cm from negative charge

(2) 20 cm & 50 cm from negative charge
(3) 20 cm & 50 cm from +ve charge
(4) 10 cm & 40 cm from +ve charge

34) The variation of potential with distance r from a fixed point is shown in Figure. The electric field

at r = 5 cm, is :
(1) (2.5) V/cm
(2) (–2.5) V/cm
(3) (–2/5) cm
(4) (25) V/cm

35) The ratio of electric fields due to an electric dipole on the axis and on the equatorial line at equal
distance will be -

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

36) If electric potential energy of given system is positive, then :

(1) 2Q > 3q
(2) 2Q < 3q
(3) Q > 2q
(4) Q > 3q

37) Two negative charge, each of magnitude q are situated at 2r distance apart. A positive charge q
is lying at the centre between them. The potential energy of the system is U1. If the two nearest

charges are mutually interchanged and the potential energy becomes U2, then will be :

(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 2
(4) 1

38) Figure shows a family of equipotential lines between which an electron is moved as shown in

figure. Then correct order of work done in the process is :

(1) W1 > W2 > W3 > W4
(2) W1 < W2 < W3 < W4
(3) W1 > W2 = W3 > W4
(4) W1 > W2 = W4 > W3

39)

A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then its radius-

(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) Nothing can be predicted as information is insufficient

40) If a vector is making an angle α, β & γ with x, y & z axes respectively, then which of the following
can be possible values of α, β, & γ ?

(1) 45°, 45°, 90°

(2) 60°, 60°, 45°
(3) 53°, 90°, 37°
(4) All of these

41) The angle between the vectors and will be -

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 180°
(4) 45°

42) Find the projection of along :-

(1)

(2) –
(3)
(4) None of these

43) If two vectors and are parallel to each other, then λ =

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

44) The value of is :

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 0

45) If and ; the magnitude of and are and respectively,

then the value of is :-

(1) 5N
(2)
(3) 10N
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following has been arranged in increasing order of size of the hybrid orbitals ?

(1) sp < sp2 < sp3

(2) sp3 < sp2 < sp
(3) sp2 < sp3 < sp
(4) sp2 < sp < sp3

2) In IF5 molecule, which sets of d orbitals is used by Iodine atom for hybridisation -

(1)
(2) dxy, dyz
(3) dxy, dz 2

(4)

3) Which are isostructural species ?

– +
(1) CH3 and CH3
+
(2) NH4 and NH3
2– –
(3) SO4 and BF4
–
(4) NH2 and BeF2

4) Identify the set of species having regular Geometry ?

(1) PCl5, NH3, NF3

(2) XeO4, CO2, PCl3
(3) CO2, SF6, SO3
(4) SO2, SOF2, CH3Br
5) Number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are :-

(1) one sigma (σ) and one pi(π) bonds.

(2) one σ and two π bonds.
(3) one σ and one and a half π bonds.
(4) one σ bond.

6) Which of the following species is non linear ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) Maximum bond angle is present in case of :-

(1) BBr3
(2) BCl3
(3) BF3
(4) Same in all

8) Which of the following compound has sp & sp2 both type of hybridisation ?

(1) I2(s)
(2) PCl5(s)
(3) N2O5(s)
(4) XeF6(s)

9) Which of the following combination of orbitals is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Which molecule/ion out of the following does not contain unpaired electrons ?

(1)
(2) O2
(3)
(4) B2
11) Which of the following molecule has both pπ-pπ and pπ-dπ bonds ?

(1) CO2
(2) XeO3
(3) SO2Cl2
(4) SO3

12) Identify the correct option?

2
(1) Hybridisation of 'S' in SO3(s) is sp
(2) O3, SnCl2, SO2 are isostructural species
+ +
(3) Formation of PH4 is easier than formation of NH4
(4) XeO3F2 contains all pπ–pπ π-bonds

13) Which of the following is an exception of octet rule but does not accept e– pair :-

(1) BF3
(2) PCl5
(3) NO2
(4) SiF4

14) In which of following pairs, the hybridisation of central atom is same but shape is different

(1) SO3 ,

(2) , NH3
(3) PCl5, POCl3
(4) XeF2, ICl3

15) Among NO3–, AsO3–3, CO3–2, ClO3–, SO3–2 and BO3–3 the nonplanar species are :-

–2 –2 –3
(1) CO3 , SO3 and BO3
–3 – –2
(2) AsO3 , ClO3 and SO3
– –2 –3
(3) NO3 , CO3 and BO3
–2 – –3
(4) SO3 , NO3 and BO3

16) Identify the correct order of bond angle

–2 + +
(1) CO3 > PH4 = NH4 > SO3
⊝
(2) BeF2 > CO2 > I3
(3) XeO4 > NH3 > H2O
(4) BCl3 > AlCl3 > GaCl3
17) Number of heteroatoms in compound A and B are respectively :

(1) 0, 1
(2) 2, 0
(3) 3, 1
(4) 0, 2

18) Which of the following pair of compounds are homologue :-

(1) CH3–O–CH2–CH3 & CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The incorrect decreasing order of priority for the functional group in the IUPAC system of
nomenclature :

(1)

(2) –COOR, –CN, –CHO, –NH2

(3) –COOR, –CN, –CHO, –OH
(4) –COOR, –CONH2, –CHO, –CN

20) Number of carbon in parent carbon chain in given compound and correct IUPAC name :-

(1) 4 & 2-propyl but-2-ene-1-oic acid

(2) 4 & 2-propyl but-2-en-1-oic acid
(3) 5 & Hex-2-ene-3-carboxylic acid
(4) 5 Hex-3-ene-3 carboxylic acid

21) Which of the following homologus series have same general formula.
(I) Aldehyde
(II) Ketone
(III) Cyclic Ether
(IV) Olefinic alcohol
(V) Ester

(1) I, II, III

(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) I, II, III, IV, V
(4) I, II

22) Vinyl carbinol and Allyl amine is :-

(1) HO–CH2–CH=CH2 & NH2–CH2–CH=CH2

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) What is the hybridization of C1 ,C2 ,C3 carbon in the following compound?

(1) sp3, sp3, sp3

(2) sp3, sp2, sp2
(3) sp3, sp2, sp
(4) sp, sp2, sp2

24) Which is incorrect IUPAC name ?

(1) 3-Hydroxy-4-phenylbutanal
(2) 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane
(3) 4-Iodo-2-methylphenol
(4) 2-Hydroxycyclopent-4-enone

25) 0.3780 g of an organic chloro compound gave 0.5740 g of silver chloride in carius estimation.
Calculate the % of chlorine present in the compound.
(Molar mass:Ag-108 gm mol–1, Cl-35.5 gm mol–1)

(1) 37.57%
(2) 43.12%
(3) 57%
(4) 85%

26)

Incorrect IUPAC name is :

(1) Salicylic acid → 2-Hydroxybenzoic acid
(2) m-Toluidine → 3-methyl toluene
(3) m-Cresol → 3-methyl phenol
(4) o-Toluic acid → 2-methylbenzoic acid

27) What is the sum of 2°– Alcohols and 2° amines from following compound?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

28) Which one is not a unsaturated compound ?

(1) Ethynyl chloride

(2) Ethenyl chloride
(3) Ethylene chloride
(4) Propargyl chloride

29) Ratio of 3° and 2° carbon in the following compound ?

(1) 20 : 6
(2) 21 : 3
(3) 20 : 5
(4) 7 : 2

30) On complete combustion, 0.492 g of an organic compound gave 0.396 g of carbon dioxide and
0.2028 g of water. Determine the percentage composition of hydrogen and carbon respectively in
the compound.

(1) 21.95 and 4.58

(2) 20.85 and 4.58
(3) 4.58 and 21.95
(4) 4.58 and 20.85
31) Number of functional groups are present in given compounds respectively.

(1) 3, 5, 3
(2) 3, 5, 5
(3) 4, 6, 5
(4) 3, 5, 4

32) Which one have a quaternary carbon ?

(1) Unsymmetrical sec pentyl alcohol

(2) Sym. Sec. pentyl alcohol
(3) Iso butyl alcohol
(4) Neo pentyl alcohol

33) Incorrect IUPAC name is :

Compound IUPAC name

1-Ethyl-6, 6-dimethyl
(A)
cyclohexene

2-ethyl-3, 3-dimethyl
(B)
cyclohexene

1-ethyl-2, 4-dimethyl
(C)
cyclohexene

2-ethyl-1, 4-dimethyl
(D)
cyclohexene

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

34) A → product, follows second order kinetics. If the half life period of the reaction at [A] = 0.2 mole
litre–1 is 20 minute. The value of rate constant would be :

(1) 0.5 L mol–1 min–1

(2) 1 L mol–1 min–1
(3) 10 L mol–1 min–1
(4) 0.25 L mol–1 min–1

35) For gaseous reaction

A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g)
reaction started only with A(g) at 200 torr pressure after 30 minutes pressure of reaction mixture
become 600 torr. Order of reaction may be-

(1) 1
(2) zero
(3) 1.5
(4) 2

36) For the reaction , the rate . Therefore, the rate

is given as:

(1) 10–4 Ms–1

(2) 104 Ms–1
(3)
(4)

37) For the reaction A + B → C; starting with different initial concentration of A and B, initial rate of
reaction were determined emperimentally in four experiments.

[A]0/M [B]0/M
rate/(M
(Initial (Initial
sec–1)
conc.) conc.)

1. 1.6 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 10–3

2. 3.2 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 4×10–3

3. 1.6 × 10–3 10–1 2×10–3

4. 3.2 × 10–3 10–1 8×10–3

Rate law for reaction from above data is :-

(1) r = k[A]2 [B]2
(2) r = k[A]2 [B]
(3) r = k[A] [B]2
(4) r = k[A] [B]

38)
The hypothetical reaction P2 + Q2 → 2PQ follows the mechanism as given below :
P2 2P (fast)
P + Q2 → PQ + Q (slow)
P + Q → PQ (fast)
The order of the overall reaction is :-

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 1.5
(4) 0

39) Consider the following statements regarding the potential energy diagram for the reaction A → B

shown in figure.
(a) The P.E. of the activated complex is greater for the forward reaction than for the reverse reaction
(b) Ea of the forward reaction is (EB – EA)
(c) Activation energy (reverse) > activation energy (forward)
which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) a only
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) c only

40) A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction from 20 kJ mol–1 to 10 kJ mol–1. The
temperature at which the uncatalyzed reaction will have the same rate as that of the catalyzed
reaction at 27°C is :-

(1) 600°C
(2) 327°C
(3) 32.7°C
(4) 23°C

41) Statement-I: Hydrolysis of ester in the presence of acid is a first order reaction whereas in the
presence of alkali, it is a second order reaction.
Statement-II: In hydrolysis of ester, acid acts only as catalyst whereas alkali acts as one of the
reactant.

(1) Both statements are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-I are correct
42)

Column - I (Order Column - II

of reaction) (Characteristics)

Half life period does not depends on

(P) 0 (1)
initial concentration

(Q) 2 (2) Second half life is double of Ist half life

Reaction gets completed in a finite

(R) 1 (3)
time interval

Graph of log (rate of reaction) Vs log

(S) 3 (4) (concentration of reactant) will have a
slope equal to 3.
Which of the following code is correct. (Assume single reactant is involved in rate law)
(1) P - 2, Q - 4, R - 1, S - 3
(2) P - 3, Q - 2, R - 1, S - 4
(3) P - 3, Q - 1, R - 2, S - 4
(4) P - 1, Q - 2, R - 4, S - 3

43) For the first order reaction, if concentration of reactant becomes 0.6 M from 1M in 20 minutes.
Then find what time will it take to become from 0.6 M to 0.36 M.

(1) More than 20 mins.

(2) Less than 20 mins.
(3) Equal to 20 mins.
(4) Infinite

44) Select the correct statement among the following :

(1) order of reaction may not be fractional

(2) molecularity of a reaction may be zero
(3) zero order reaction may be complex as well elementary
(4) 2nd order reaction may be elementary as well as complex

45) The ratio of t7/8 and t3/4 for 1st order reaction :-

(1) 4 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

BIOLOGY

1) After maturation in the primary lymphoid organs, the lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid
organs for interaction with antigens. Which of the following are considered secondary lymphoid
structures ?
A. Thymus B. Bone marrow
C. Tonsils D. Lymph nodes
E. Spleen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) B, C, D only
(2) A, B, C only
(3) C, D, E only
(4) A, D, E only

2) Read the following statements carefully

A. Slow and takes time to give its full effective response.
B. Readymate antibodies are directly given to client.
C. Antibody are produced in host body.
D. Provided by colostrum
E. Provided through vaccination.
How many of following statements are correct about active immunity ?

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Four

3) How many meiosis required to form 1000 sperms ?

(1) 1000
(2) 500
(3) 250
(4) 10

4) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) In vitro fertilization (I) Gamete transfer

(B) In vivo fertilization (II) Fertilization with in the body

(C) ZIFT (III) Semen into uterus

(D) GIFT (IV) Embryo upto 8 blastomere

(E) IUT (V) Fertilization outside the body

(F) IUI (VI) Embryo more than 8 blastomere

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-I, E-VI, F-III
(2) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-III, E-VI, F-IV
(3) A-V, B-I, C-II, D-III, E-VI, F-IV
(4) A-II, B-V, C-III, D-VI, E-I, F-IV
5) Read the following statements carefully.
(A) Diaphragm condom and vaults are reusable
(B) IUDs increase phagocytosis of ovum within uterus.
(C) Estrogen only pill can be used as contraceptive.
(D) IUDs are one of most widely accepted method of contraception in India.
(E) Saheli is a pill with high contraceptive value.
How many of following statements are correct.

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Four

6) In IVF and ET technique, A or early embry B could be transferred into fallopian tube by the
method called C.
In above statements, identify the A, B and C :

A B C

(1) Sperm Ovum GIFT

(2) Ovum Zygote ZIFT

(3) Gamete Upto 16 blastomeres IUT

(4) Zygote upto 8 blastomeres ZIFT

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) How many of the following are included in the temporary method of contraceptives ?
Periodic abstinence, coitus interruptus, Lactational amenorrhea, cervical cap, vaults, IUDs, saheli,
implants, vasectomy, Tubectomy.

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 2

8) Read the following diseases carefully.

Typhoid fever, pneumonia, Dysentery, plague, Diphtheria, common cold, Malaria, amoebiasis,
Ascariasis.
How many of above diseases are bacterial?

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 2
9) Find the correct statement : (A) Dysentery, rabies and diptheria etc. are bacterial diseases in man.
(B) In common cold lungs are affected primarily.
(C) In filariasis, the pathogens are transmitted to healthy person through the bite by the female
mosquito vectors.
(D) Fungi belonging to the genera microphyton, trichosporum are responsible for ringworm.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, B only
(2) C only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) C, D only

10) Which of the following hypothalamic hormone is necessary for spermatogenesis at Puberty ?

(1) FSH
(2) LH
(3) GnRH
(4) Androgen

11) Which of the following type of immunity is present at the time of birth and provide defense with
the help of physical barrier, cellular barrier etc.

(1) Humoral immunity

(2) Antibody mediated immunity
(3) Innate immunity
(4) Active immunity

12) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Mons pubis (I) Tiny finger like structure

(B) Labia majora (II) Paired fold of tissue

(C) Labia minora (III) Fleshy fold of tissue

(D) Clitoris (IV) Cushion of fatty tissue

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

13) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Acrosome (I) Mitochondria

 (B) Neck (II) Sperm motility

(C) Middle (III) Proximal centriole

(D) Tail (IV) Enzyme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

14) Statement-I : Secondary spermatocytes are diploid

Statement-II : The spermatids are transformed into sperm by the process called spermiation.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(1) Both Statements are correct

(2) Both statement are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct only
(4) Statement-II is correct only

15) During a routine prenatal check up, a doctor detects heartbeat in a developing embryo using a
stethoscope. Later at around 20 weeks, the mother reports feeling the first fetal movements. After
some time, ultrasound confirms the presence of fine hair and separated eyelids. based on this
information which of the following combination of fetal development events is correct matched with
their approximate time of occurrence ?

(1) Heartbeat → End of 2nd month

(2) First fetal movements → 24 weeks
(3) formation of digits → 5th month
(4) Eyelid separation and eye lash formation → End of 2nd trimester.

16) Which of the following provides humoral immune response ?

(1) PMNL
(2) Natural killer cell
(3) B-lymphocytes
(4) T lymphocytes

17) Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

(A) Ringworm (I) Alveoli get filled with fluid

(B) Ascariasis (II) Stool with mucus & blood

(C) Amoebiasis (III) Internal bleeding

(D) Pneumonia (IV) Dry scaly lesions

Choose the option with correct matches :
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

18) Menstruation is initiated by

(1) A sudden release of FSH from the anterior pituitary

(2) A lack of estrogen and progesterone due to degeneration of the corpus luteum
(3) An increased release of estrogen and progesterone from the corpus luteum
(4) A sudden drop in FSH

19) Secondary follicle in ovary has-

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Ootid
(4) Antrum

20) In the following structures identify morula and Blastocyst respectively :-

(1) c & e
(2) c & d
(3) b & e
(4) a & d

21) Differentiation occurs in which stage :-

(1) Primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte

(2) Secondary spermatocyte → Spermatid
(3) Spermatid → Spermatozoa
(4) Spermatogonia → Secondary spermatocyte

22) The region outside the seminiferous tubule which contain small blood vessels, interstitial cells
and immunologically competent cells is present called:-

(1) Perivitelline space

(2) Peritesticular space
(3) Interstitial space
(4) Inguinal space

23) The tertiary follicle is characterised by ______

(1) Presence of oocyte

(2) Presence of theca externa
(3) Presence of theca interna
(4) Presence of antrum

24) Haploid number of chromosomes are found in:

(1) Germinal epithelium

(2) Sertoli cells
(3) Primary spermatocyte
(4) Secondary spermatocyte

25) Assertion : hCG and hPL are produced in women only during pregnancy.
Reason : These hormones are produced by placenta.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

26) Assertion : Oxytocin released from the maternal pituitary causes strong uterine contractions.
Reason : Oxytocin is responsible for the milk ejection.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

27) Which of the following structure is associated with human egg ?

(1) Acrosome
(2) Zona pellucida
(3) Fimbriae
(4) Clitoris

28)

Choose the animals which shows estrus cycle:-

(1) Humans and Chimpanzee

(2) Cat and Gorilla
(3) Rabbit and Cat
(4) Monkey and Human

29) Which sexually transmitted disease is curable ?

(1) AIDS
(2) Hepatitis B
(3) Genital herpes
(4) Genital warts

30) According to 2011 census report the population growth rate was -

(1) Less than 2%

(2) more than 2%
(3) 7.2%
(4) 5%

31) Statement-I : IUT, IUI and IUD are the abbreviations related to infertility.
Statement-II : 'Saheli' is a 'once a month' pill with very few side effects and high contraceptive
value.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

32) Matching of MHC is essential prior to transplantation in which graft ?

(1) Auto graft

(2) Iso graft
(3) Homo graft
(4) Xeno graft

33) Which of the following does not provide active immunity ?

(1) Infection
(2) Vaccine
(3) Toxoid
(4) Antiserum

34) Which of the following is affected by the infection of Wuchereria bancrofti ?

(1) Lymphatic vessels

(2) Respiratory system
(3) Nervous system
(4) Blood circulation
35) A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring every three to four days in
malarial fever is :-

(1) Haemoglobin
(2) haemozoin
(3) hirudin
(4) colostrum

36) Abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess mucus and blood clots are associated with :-

(1) Protozoa disease

(2) Fungal disease
(3) Round worm
(4) Viral disease

37) Vaccination is :-

(1) Artificial active innate immunity

(2) Natural passive acquired immunity
(3) Artificial active acquired immunity
(4) Artifical passive acquired immunity

38) Hepatitis-B vaccine is produced by

(1) Parasite
(2) Transgenic yeast
(3) Recombinant-RNA technology
(4) (2) and (3) both

39) Memory cells are stored in :-

(1) Primary lymphoid organs

(2) Secondary lymphoid organ
(3) Lymphnodes
(4) (2) and (3) both

40) After getting into the body of the person HIV virus enters into macrophages where RNA genome
of the virus replicates to form viral DNA with the help of ?

(1) DNA polymerase

(2) Reverse transkinase
(3) Reverse transcriptase
(4) Protease

41)

Genome of AIDS virus is :

(1) ds-RNA
(2) ds-DNA
(3) ss-RNA
(4) ss-DNA

42) AIDS spreads through :-

(1) Mere touch

(2) Mosquito Bite
(3) Body fluids
(4) Both (1) and (2)

43) A patient is suspected to be suffering from acquired immuno deficiency Syndrome. Which
techniques will you recommend for its screening and confirmation :

(1) WIDAL and ELISA Respectively

(2) ELISA and Western blotting Respectively
(3) MRI and ELISA Respectively
(4) Western blotting and PCR Respectively

44) Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

(1) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
(2) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
(3) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
(4) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.

45) Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity ?

(1) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains
(2) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes.
(3) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake.
(4) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes

46) Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to:-

(1) Low temperature

(2) Hot and humid environment
(3) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(4) Inhalation of seasonal pollen

47)

Disease which is shown in the figure spreads through?

(1) Contaminated food and water
(2) Using towel of infected individual
(3) The bite by mosquito vectors
(4) Droplet infection

48) Reena is a 12 years old girl studying in higher secondary. Over the last few days, she was feeling
tired. By the time, the weekend had arrived, she developed fever with chills, cough, headache and
difficulty in breathing. On Sunday evening, her mother took her to doctor. On completing the
examination, the doctor found out that her alveoli was filled with fluid causing difficulty in
breathing.
The most probable diagnosis for the condition of Reena would be -

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Diphtheria
(3) Typhoid
(4) Amoebiasis

49) How many of the following are correct about given diagram ?
(a) is anamnestic response
(b) Memory cells are responsible for
(c) Memory cells are responsible for
(d) IgM is responsible for

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

50) The drugs used to reduce the symptom of allergy are :-

(1) Antihistamin and adrenaline

(2) Histamine and thyroxine
(3) Adrenaline and a-Interferon
(4) All of these

51) Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non infectious diseases. How many of the
following are infections diseases ?
(i) Small pox (ii) Allergy (iii) Common cold
(iv) AIDS (v) Cancer

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

52) Autoimmune disease is caused due to the

A. Ability of immune cells to discriminate between self cells from non-self cells.
B. Inability of immune cells in damaging self cells.
C. Inability of immune cells in distinguishing self cells from non self cells.
D. Malfunctioning of the immune cells leading to the damage of self cells.

(1) A & C
(2) B & C
(3) C & D
(4) A & B

53)
Above diagrametic representation show action of cellular mediated immunity. In which what is A, B
and C respectively?

A B C

(1) Macrophage Body cell TK

(2) APC Lymphotoxin TK

(3) APC TK Lymphotoxin

(4) Body cell B-cell Lymphotoxin

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54)

A B C D
(1) IgA Heparine Hypotension Steroids
(2) IgE Heparine Sneezing Adrenaline
(3) IgA Histamine Watery eyes Adrenaline
(4) IgE Histamine Running Nose Steroids
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

55) Widal test is used to diagnose the disorder :-

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Dengue
(3) Cholera
(4) Typhoid

56) Which of the following is not a vector borne disease

(1) Dengue
(2) Chikungunya
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Malaria

57) The region of antibody that binds with antigen is called :-

(1) Paratope
(2) Epitope
(3) Aggretope
(4) Hapten

58) Stability is something related to energy status of the molecule. Transition state is high energy
state as compared to substrate. So we can conclude that :-

(1) Transition state is more stable than substrate

(2) Substrate is more stable than transition state
(3) Both substrate and transition state are very much unstable.
(4) Stability can not be compared.

59) Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at high temperatures while enzymes get damaged at high
temperatures (above 40°C). This feature of enzymes is not applicable to :

(1) The enzymes which are made up of proteins

(2) The enzymes isolated from thermophobic organisms
(3) The enzymes which have allosteric sites
(4) The enzymes of organisms who live in hot water springs

60) Assertion (A) :- Enzymatic activity gets destroyed at high temperature.

Reason (R) :- Proteins get denatured at high temperature.
Select the correct answer :-

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.

61) Statement I : Enzymes have been classified into different groups based on the type of reactions
they catalyse.
Statement II : Hydrolases enzyme catalyses hydrolysis of ester, ether, peptide and glycoside bonds.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

62) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : When the inhibitor closely resemble to the substrate and inhibits the activity of
enzyme, it is known as competitive inhibitor.
Statement II : Competitive inhibitors are often used in the control of bacterial pathogen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

63) The catalytic cycle of an enzyme action is described as :

(A) Substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme
(B) The active site, now in close proximity of the substrate breaks the chemical bonds of the
substrate.
(C) The binding of the substrate induces the enzymes to alter its shape.
(D) Active site fits move tightly around the substrate.
(E) Enzyme releases the products of the reaction.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A → C → B → D → E
(2) A → C → D → B → E
(3) A → B → C → D → E
(4) B → A → D → C → E

64) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Enzyme-substrate complex is short lived and dissociates into its products and the
unchanged enzyme with an intermediate formation of the enzyme-product complex.
Statement-II : When the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme, it induces the enzyme to
alter its shape, fitting less tightly around the substrate.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I and statement-II both are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I and statement-II both are correct.

65) With regard to concept of activation energy, identify the wrong statements :
(A) If product is at a lower level than substrate, the reaction is an endothermic reaction.
(B) The difference in average energy content of substrate from that of transition state is called
activation energy.
(C) The pathway of transformation of substrate into product must go through the transition state.
(D) There could be only one altered structural states between the stable substrate and the product.
(E) Enzymes eventually bring down the activation energy barrier.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A, C and D only

(2) A, B, C and D only
(3) A and D only
(4) B, C and D only

66) In peroxidase & catalase enzymes which one of the following is prosthetic group ?

(1) Mg
(2) NAD+
(3) FAD
(4) Haem

67)

A. Enzymes for the glycolysis are present in cytosol.

B. Enzymes for the anaerobic respiration are present in the cytosol.
C. Enzymes for the lactic acid fermentation are present in cytoplasm of plant cell
D. Enzymes for the alcoholic fermentation are present in cytoplasm of the animal cell
Read the above given all the statement A to D and choose the correct option :-

(1) A & C is correct and B and D are incorrect

(2) A & B is correct but C and D are incorrect
(3) A & B is incorrect but C and D are correct
(4) A & D is incorrect but C and B are correct

68) Two redox equivalent are removed in the form of two hydrogen atom when

(1) PGAL is oxidised to 1,3-BiPGA

(2) 1,3-BiPGA is converted to 3-PGA
(3) 3-PGA is converted to 2-PGA
(4) Fructose 1,6-bis phosphate splits into PGAL and DHAP

69) How many compounds in the list given below are common products of glycolysis, fermentation
and Krebs cycle ?
NAD+, CO2, fructose-6-phosphate, GTP, Lactic acid, Malic acid, NADH +H+, FADH2

(1) Zero
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

70) Read the following four statements (A-D) regarding glycolysis :-

(A) It occurs in all living organisms
(B) Phosphorylated form of glucose gets phosphorylated again before converting into fructose -6-
phosphate
(C) First ATP is synthesized during conversion of phosphoenol pyruvic acid to pyruvic acid
(D) Four redox equivalents are removed from two molecules of PGAL.
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

71) Match the following column and choose correct answer :-

Column-II
Column-I
(End Product)

(i) Glycolysis (A) Ethanol + CO2

(ii) Alcohol fermentation (B) CO2 + H2O

(iii) Aerobic respiration (C) Lactic acid

(iv) Lactic acid fermentation (D) Pyruvic acid

(1) i-D, ii-C, iii-B, iv-A
(2) i-D, ii-A, iii-B, iv-C
(3) i-B, ii-A, iii-D, iv-C
(4) i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C
72) Breaking of C–C bond of complex compounds through oxidation in cells leading to release of
energy and trapping of this energy for ATP synthesis. This process is called :-

(1) Photorespiration
(2) Cellular respiration
(3) Photooxidation
(4) Vernalisation

73) The first member of Krebs cycle is :-

(1) Acetyl CoA

(2) Succinate
(3) OAA
(4) Malate

74) The metabolic pathway through which the electron passes from one carrier to another is called :-

(1) Chemiosmosis hypothesis

(2) Electron transport system
(3) TCA cycle
(4) Glycolysis

75) Assertion (A) :- Fermentation is the incomplete oxidation of glucose into ethyl alcohol.
Reason (R) :- Fermentation occur in prokaryotes only.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

76) Match the column-I with column-II and choose the option with correct match :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Complex-I (i) Cytochrome bc1 complex

(b) Complex-II (ii) Succinate dehydrogenase

(c) Complex-III (iii) Cytochrome-c-oxidase

(d) Complex-IV (iv) NADH-dehydrogenase

Options:-
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-iv, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

77) Pyruvate, which is formed by the glycolytic catabolism of carbohydrates in the cytosol, after it
enters mitochondrial matrix undergoes :-
(1) Reductive amination
(2) Oxidative decarboxylation
(3) Reductive carboxylation
(4) Reductive decarboxylation

78) Source of electron for the transport chain during aerobic respiration is :-

(1) NADH + H+
(2) FADH2
(3) H2O
(4) 1 and 2 Both

79) In Citric acid cycle how many substrate level phosphorylation (s) occur between -ketoglutaric
acid and succinic acid ?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

80) Common oxidative pathway for carbohydrates, fats and proteins involve the formation of
common intermediate–

(1) Pyruvate
(2) 3 PGAL
(3) Acetyl Co-A
(4) Glucose-6-phosphate

81) Which of the following statements about glycolysis is not correct ?

(1) It is an anaerobic process

(2) It doesn't require input of energy
(3) It is universal process among all living organisms.
(4) It is also known as EMP pathway

82) R.Q. is less than one if the respiratory substrate is :-

(1) Organic acids

(2) Fats and protein
(3) Sucrose
(4) Glucose

83) Cytochrome-c is a small protein attached to :-

(1) Outer surface of the inner membrane

(2) Inner surface of the outer membrane
(3) Inner surface of the inner membrane
(4) Outer surface of the outer membrane

84) Which of the following enzyme belongs to anaerobic/fermentation respiration ?

(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase

(2) Succinate dehydrogenase
(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(4) Malate dehydrogenase

85) Pyruvic acid + CoA + NAD+ → Acetyl CoA + CO2 + NADH + H+

What is the site of this reaction :-

(1) Cytosol
(2) Golgi-apparatus
(3) Mitochondrion
(4) Chloroplast

86) Final electron acceptor in E.T.S:-

(1) Oxygen
(2) NADH + H+
(3) H2O
(4) FADH2

87) Match the column-I with column-II and select correct option.

Column-I Column-II

Condensation of
A TCA cycle I
acetyl CoA with OAA

Mechanism of
B Chemiosmosis II
ATP formation

Oxidative decarboxylation
C Link Reaction III
of pyruvate

Electron transport Formation of

D IV
system electrochemical gradient
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

88) What is the correct for cytochromes ?

(1) Porphyrin absent

(2) Works only in respiration
(3) Presents in plants, animals
(4) Mg acceptor

89) How many statements are wrong from a to e ?

a. Fermentation take place by many prokaryotes and all multicellular eukaryotes.
b. Pyruvic acid, change in Acetyl CoA before entering in TCA-Cycle.
c. Respiration is a amphibolic process.
d. ETS occurs in mitochondria.
e. One NADH2 equivalent to 3 ATP molecule

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

90) Give below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : In both lactic acid and alcohol fermentation not much energy is released and not all
of it is trapped as high energy bonds of ATP.
Reason (R) : In fermentation, the incomplete oxidation of glucose is achieved under anaerobic
conditions with slow rate of oxidation of NADH.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A and R both are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) A and R both are true but R is the correct explanation of A.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 1 3 2 3 4 1 2 1 1 2 1 2 3 3 2 4 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 2 3 4 4 3 3 2 4 2 1 4 1 3 1 1 4 2 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 3 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 4 3 3 2 4 4 3 3 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 1 2 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 4 1 2 2 3 4 3 4 4 2 4 2 1 2 3 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 3 4 2

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 3 1 2 4 2 1 2 3 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 2 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 4 4 1 2 2 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 2 1 3 2 4 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 3 2 3 3 4 3 1 2 1 3 3 3 4 4 3 1 2 4 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 2 1 3 4 2 1 1 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 4 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 2 1 3 3 1 3 3 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

sin2θ = is incorrect relation

3)

= radian

4)

cos(165°) = cos(180° – 15°) = –cos15°

= –cos(45° - 30°)

5)

6) (by chain rule)

7) Given : ,

km/hr

8)
9) ,
, = 40 m/s
, = 25 m/s
, = 15 m/s
= const.
∴ aAB = 0

10)

In both situations, a = 0
so, t1 = t2

11)

⇒ d = 10 km
Total distance travelled = 10 + 10 = 20 km

12)

13) :-

:-

:-

14)
Vertical displacement should be same
usin60° = 20sin45°

15)
Resultant velocity of Rain

The man has to hold the umbrella in the direction of resultant velocity .

16) Change in momentum = Impulse

=
= Area of graph

= 10 × 5 + × 10 × 4
= 70 N s.

17)

Impulse = Δp = m (v2 – v1)

= 70 × 3.96
= 277.2 kg m/sec

18)

F – Mg = Ma
2 × 104 – 103 × 10 = 103 a
a = 10 m/s2
 19)

Impulse =

20)

Area of F – t graph gives impulse.

21) Favg =

=
= N

22) Initially particle was at rest. By the application of force its momentum increases.
Here, Final momentum of the particle =
Area of F - t graph ⇒ mu = Area of semi ellipse

⇒ mu

23)

Concept:

(i) Electric field line moves from higher potential to lower potential
(ii) Equipotential surface are perpendicular to electrical field lines.

Visual diagram:

Correct diagram of
Electric field lines
equipotential surface

(P) (4)
(Q) (3)

(R) (2)

(S) (1)

24)

25)
τ2 = P2E1 sin90°

26)
27) Potential at x = 0
v = v1 + v2 + v3 + v4 + .....

28) dV =
Vp – Vo =
Vp – 150 =
Vp – 150 = –(40 + 60) = –100
Vp = 50 V

29) , where,

⇒ so,

30)
Here, V = – x2y – xz3 + 4

31) Potential at the centre is

V=

32)

E=– = – (Slope of v-r graph)

At x = 2 m, E = 0 (∵ slope = 0)

33)

V = 0 at P, Q
For P → = ⇒ x1 = 6 cm

Q→ = ⇒ x2 = 24 cm
Distance from positive charge → x1' = 10 cm, x2' = 40 cm.

34)

35)

Electric field on the axis of the dipole:

where:
- k is Coulomb's constant,
- p is the dipole moment,
- r is the distance from the dipole.
Electric field on the equatorial line of the dipole:

where k is Coulomb's constant, p is the dipole moment, and r is the distance from the dipole.
Now, we calculate the ratio of the electric fields:

36)

U=K
⇒ 2Q2 > 3Qq ⇒ 2Q > 3q

37) (1)

(2)
 =–
⇒ U1/U2 = 3

38) W1 = –e[70 V – 100 V] = +30 eV

W2 = –e[70 V – 90 V] = +20 eV
W3 = –e[70 V – 80 V] = +10 eV
W4 = –e[80 V – 100 V] = +20 eV

39) Due to mutual repulsion of charges distributed on the surface of bubble, its radius
increases

40)

cos2α + cos2β + cos2 γ = 1

41)

θ = 90º

42)

43)
λ=2

44) =3

45)

= 10 N

CHEMISTRY

46) sp < sp2 < sp3

- As % p-character in HO's ↑ses
- Size of HO's ↑ ses
47)

IF5 ⇒ Hyb ⇒ sp3d2 (5σ + 1ℓp)

∴ d orbital's used are ⇒

48)

isostructural species ⇒ species having same shape are isostructural species

∴ (3) SO4–2 , BF4⊝
- sp3 Hyb
- both are tetrahedral

49) Conditions for regular Geometry

(a) All side atoms in a molecule = same
(b) Number of ℓp's on CA = zero
(c) All adjacent B.A. should be same

50)
C2–2 ⇒ total e–s = 14
∴ by M.O.T ⇒ 1σ + 2π bonds

51)

52)

53)

N2O5(s) ⇒ NO2⊕ + NO3⊝

– sp Hyb. – sp2 Hyb
– Linear – Trigonal Planar
– 180° – 120° B. Angle

54)
55) (π*2px2 = π*2py2)

56)
Valency of S = 6 in 2nd excited state

57)

O3 , SnCl2 , SO2
– all are v - shape molecules
– so isostructural in nature

58) → total 7e– in octate

59) XeF2 ⇒ 3 ℓp + 2σ
⇒ HO 's = 5
⇒ Hyb = sp3d
⇒ Shape = Linear
ICl3 ⇒ 3σ + 2 ℓp
⇒ HO 's = 5
⇒ Hyb = sp3d
⇒ Shape = T-Shape

60) AsO3–3, ClO3– and SO3–2 ⇒ sp3 hybridisation so non planar.

61)

B. Angle ⇒ XeO4 > NH3 > H2O

3 3
– sp – sp – sp3
– Tetrahedral – Pyramidal – v-shape
– 109°28' – 107° –104.5°

62)

NEET, Class-XI

63)

for homologus functional group must be same and a difference of –CH2– unit
64)

Based upon IPUAC priority table.

65) 2-propyl but-2-en-1-oic acid

66)

General formula
CnH2nO2 ⇒ Aldehyde/Ketone/Cyclic ether/olefinic alcohol

67)

68) Question Explanation: The que. asks what is the hybridisation of C1, C2, C3 carbon in the
following compound ?
Concept : This question is based on Hybridisation.
Solution :
Hybridisation is find out by following way :-
n = Number of σ-bond + lp

The hybridisation of C1 , C2 , C3 in given compound is sp3, sp2, sp

Final Answer : option (3)

69)
70)

OR NEET, Class-XI
Purification quantitative and qualitative analysis

71)
m-Toluidine
3-methyl aniline

72)

73)

For unsaturated compound π bond present between carbon and carbon.

ethylene chloride no π bond between C & C.

74) 3°C : 2°C

6 : 21 or 2 : 7

75)

NEET, Class-XI
Purification quantitative and qualitative analysis
76)
F.G. (3)

F.G. (5)

F.G. (4)

77)

78)

79)

⇒
k = 0.25 L. mol–1 min–1

80)
Reaction completed in 30 minute
(finite time) ⇒ zero order

81)

82)

R ∝ (A)x(B)y
(1) 10–3 ∝ (1.6 × 10–3)x(5 × 10–2)y
(2) 4 × 10–3 ∝ (3.2 × 10–3)x(5 × 10–2)y
(3) 2 × 10–3 ∝ (1.6 × 10–3)x (10–1)y

83)

From slow step

KC[P2] = [P]2

[P] =
r = KKC1/2[P2]1/2[Q2]1
r = K(P2)1/2(Q2)1

Order =

84)

Refer graph, (a) is incorrect

(b) is incorrect
[EB – EA = ΔH]
(c) correct

85)
at 27°(300K) in presence of catalyst

(In absence of catalyst)

According to condition k1 = k2

T = 600K or 327°C
 86)

Theory based

87) Theory based

88)

1M → 0.6M; ratio =

0.6M → 0.36 M; ratio =

same ratio of concentration ⇒ same time duration for first order kinetics

89) order may be +ve, –ve or fraction or zero. molecularity may be only 1, 2 or 3

90)

If half life is t1/2

then t7/8 = 3t1/2
t3/4 = 2t1/2

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg. No. 138

92)

NCERT P.g No. 152

93) NCERT XI Pg # 31

94) NCERT P.g No. 48

95) NCERT P.g No. 44

96) NCERT P.g No. 48

97) NCERT P.g No. 44-45

98) NCERT P.g No. 131-133

99) NCERT P.g No. 131 & 133

100) NCERT, Pg. # 31

101) NCERT P.g No. 134

102) NCERT P.g No. 30

103) NCERT P.g No. 32

104) NCERT P.g No. 31

105) NCERT P.g No. 38

106) NCERT P.g No. 135

107) NCERT P.g No. 130 to 134

108)

NCERT Pg. 50

109) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 52 (E) 57(H) , Fig. (3.11)

110) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 52 (E), 57 (H)

111) NCERT Pg. # 47

112)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 27

113) NCERT Pg. # 48(E), 53(H)

114)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 33
 115)

NCERT-XIIth Pg. # 37

116) NCERT XII Page No. # 54

117) NCERT Pg # 35

118) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 62

119)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 47

120)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 43

121)

Question Asking About:

The question asks you to evaluate the accuracy of two statements regarding infertility and
contraception.

Solution :

A. Statement-I: & qut;IUD, IUI and IUT are the abbreviations related to infertility."
IUD (Intrauterine Device) is a contraceptive method, not related to infertility treatment.
B. IUI (Intrauterine Inseminatin) and IUT (Intrauterine Transfer) are indeed related to
infertility treatments.
C. Therefre, Statement-I is incrrect.
D. Statement-II: &qut;'Saheli' is a 'once a month' pill with very few side effects and high
contraceptive value."
&qut;Saheli" is a once a week pill, nt once a month.
E. Therefre, Statement-II is incrrect.
F. Final Answer : Option (2)

122)

NCERT-XIIth, From module no. 7

123)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 152

124)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 149

125)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 147

126)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 148

127)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 152

128)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 152

129)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 154

130)

NCERT Page # (E) 155, (H) 167

131)

NCERT XII, Pg # 154

132)

NCERT XII Pg # 155, para 8.3

133)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 156

134)

NCERT XII Pg # 151

135)
NCERT XII Pg # 152

136)

NCERT XII Pg # 153

137)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 149

138)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 147

139)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 151

140)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 153

141) Explanation :
Infectious diseases: Smallpox, Common cold, and AIDS.
So, the correct answer is Three infectious diseases.
Answer: 3 (Three).

142)

NCERT-XIIth, Pg. # 153

143)

Generated by Allie
Problem Statement: The question asks you to identify what the labels A, B, and C represent
in a diagram that illustrates the process of cell-mediated immunity.
Underlying Concept: Cell-mediated immunity is an immune response that involves the
activation of specific cells to attack and destroy infected or abnormal body cells. Key players
include antigen-presenting cells (APCs), T helper cells (T_H), cytotoxic T lymphocytes or T
Killer cells (TK), and molecules like lymphotoxin that aid in destroying infected cells.
Tips and Tricks: Remember the flow in cell-mediated immunity: Pathogen -> APC -> T helper
cells -> T Killer cells. This helps in identifying what each label represents in the diagram.
Common Mistakes: Confusing APCs with body cells or mixing up T Killer cells with other
immune components. Also, mixing lymphotoxin with lymphotoxin's source cells.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that label A as a body cell or B as lymphotoxin
confuse cellular roles, as APCs present antigens, and T Killer cells perform the killing function,
not body cells or molecules alone. Lymphotoxin is a molecule secreted by T Killer cells, not a
cell itself.

144)

NCERT, XIIth, Pg. # 153

145) Explanation: The Widal test is a serological test used to diagnose typhoid fever, also
known as enteric fever. It detects antibodies against Salmonella typhi, the bacteria that causes
typhoid.

Correct Answer: 4. Typhoid

146) Arboviral disease are viral diseases that are spreaded by arthropodes.

147)

Allen module

148) NCERT XI Eng. Page # 156 (1st para)

ू रा पे राग ाफ)
िहदी पे ज # 156 (दस

149)

NCERT Pg. # 154

150)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 157

151) NCERT(XI) Pg. # 158

152) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 118

153) NCERT Pg. No. # 115, 116

154) NCERT Pg. No. # 115, 116

155) NCERT Pg. No. # 114, 115

156) NCERT-XI Pg. # 159

157)

NCERT XI#230

158) NCERT_Page No. 229

159) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 229, 230, 232 (E)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 229, 230, 232 (H)

160) NCERT-XI Pg. # 229

B & C are incorrect.

161) NCERT Page No. # 229, 230

162) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 227

163) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 232

164)

NCERT XI Page No. # 232

165) NCERT XI Page No. # 235

166) NCERT XI Page No. # 233

167) NCERT XI, Pg # 231

168) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 233

169) NCERT XI Eng. Pg. No. # 232 (1st para & Fig 14.3)

170) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 232

171) NCERT , Pg.# 228,229

172)

NCERT Pg. # 237, Para-14.7

173) NCERT Pg. # 233, Para-14.4.2

174)

Module No-3, Pg. # 218

175) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 231

176)

NCERT XI #233

177) NCERT Pg. No. # 158, 159, 160

178) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 233

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 230, 232, 235

180) NCERT Pg.#157