31-08-2025

1016CMD303054250010 MD

PHYSICS

1) The figure shows a network of currents. The magnitude of current is shown here. The current i

will be

(1) 3 A
(2) 13 A
(3) 23 A
(4) -3 A

2) Figure represents a part of the closed circuit. The potential difference between points A and B (VA

– VB) is

(1) + 9 V
(2) – 9 V
(3) + 3 V
(4) + 6 V

3) The charge flowing in a conductor varies with time as Q = at– bt2. Then which of the following is
not correct :–

(1) The current decreases linearly with time.

(2) Current reaches a maximum and then decreases.

(3)
Current falls to zero after time t =
(4) Current changes at a rate – 2b.

4) The current flowing through a wire depends on time as I = 3t2 + 2t + 5. The charge flowing
through the cross-section of the wire in time from t = 0 to t = 2 sec. is

(1) 22 C
(2) 20 C
(3) 18 C
(4) 5 C
5) Current density of an area of cross section is varying according to equation . Find

the current through the cylinder

(1) πR J0
2

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Twelve resistors each of resistance 1Ω are connected in the circuit shown in the adjoining figure.

Net resistance between points A and H would be :-

(1)

(2) 1 Ω

(3)

(4)

7) Find the value of x for which bridge is balanced

(1) 80 Ω
(2) 20 Ω
(3) 160 Ω
(4) 16 Ω
8) The equivalent resistance between points A and B is:

(1) 32.5 Ω
(2) 22.5 Ω
(3) 2.5 Ω
(4) 42.5 Ω

9) Masses of three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5 :
3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical resistances are

(1) 1 : 3 : 5
(2) 5 : 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 15 : 125
(4) 125 : 15 : 1

10) Two wires of equal length, one of the aluminium and the other of copper have the same
resistance. Which of the two wires is lighter ?
(ρAl = 2.63 × 10–8 Ω m, ρCu = 1.72 × 10–8 Ω m, Relative density of Al = 2.7, of Cu = 8.9)

(1) Al
(2) Cu
(3) Both are same
(4) None

11) Resistance of a wire at 20°C is 20Ω and at 500°C is 60Ω. At what temprature its resistance is
25Ω

(1) 160°C
(2) 250°C
(3) 100°C
(4) 80°C

12) In the following shown, if point B is earthed then potential at D will be -

(1) 40 V
(2) –40 V
(3) zero
(4) 80 V

13) In the network of resistors shown in the adjoining figure, the equivalents resistance between A

and B is :-

(1) 54 ohm
(2) 18 ohm
(3) 36 ohm
(4) 9 ohm

14) Find potential difference between point A & B:-

(1) 26 V
(2) 15 V
(3) 30 V
(4) 31 V

15)

How will the reading of ammeter change if the key k is closed ?

(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remains same
(4) Information insufficient

16) In the following star circuit diagram, the equivalent resistance between the points A and H will
be-

(1) 1.944 r
(2) 0.973 r
(3) 1.17 r
(4) 0.243 r

17) The density of charge at point P on the conductor is σ C/m2. The resultant electric field near P

(just outside) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The potential of electrostatic field is given by ϕ = xy, where x & y are coordinate. Which of the
following is correct :-

(1) Electric field at all points on positive x-axis is in positive y-direction.

(2) Electric field at all point of positive y-axis is in negative x-direction.
(3) Electric field at (2, 2) is

(4)
Electric field at x, y makes an angle with x-axis.

19) A charge q1 & q2 are placed inside a spherical cavity made inside uncharged conducting sphere
of radius R. Electric field at P due all induced charge on the sphere :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Inside a spherical uncharged conducting shell centered at O, a point charge ‘q’ is kept such
that OA = d. The radius of the inner and outer surface of the shell is ‘r’ and R. The potential of point

B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) What is the electric flux linked with closed surface?

(1) 1011 N-m2/C

(2) 1012 N-m2/C
(3) 1010 N-m2/C
(4) 8.86 × 1013 N-m2/C
22) Potential at the centre due to charged arc is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) In a region of uniform electric field E, a hemispherical surface is placed in such a way that the
field is parallel to its base as shown in the figure. The electric flux linked with the entire surface of

the body is :-

(1)
πR2E
(2) 3πR2E
(3) πR2E
(4) Zero

24) The diagram shows a uniformly charged hemisphere of radius R. It has volume charge density ρ.
If the electric field at a point 2R distance above its center is E then what is the electric field at the

point which is 2R below its center?

(1) ρR/6ε0 + E
(2) ρR/12ε0 – E
(3) –ρR/6ε0 + E
(4) ρR/24ε0 + E

25) A linear charge having linear charge density λ, penetrates a cube diagonally and then it
penetrate a sphere diametrically as shown. What will be the ratio of flux coming cut of cube and

sphere:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) Fig. shows a large conducting ceiling having uniform charge density σ below which a charge
particle of charge q0 and mass m is hung from point O, through small string of length ℓ calculate the
minimum horizontal velocity required for the string to become horizontal : (Neglect gravity)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) n conducting small drops of the same size are charged to V volt each. If they coalesce to form a
single large drop, then its potential will be :-

(1) (V/n)
(2) Vn
(3) Vn1/3
(4) Vn2/3

28) The potential difference between the terminals of a cell is found to be 3 volts when it is
connected to a resistance of value equal to its internal resistance. The e.m.f. of the cell is :-

(1) 3 V
(2) 6 V
(3) 1.5 V
(4) 4.5 V

29)

Consider the system shown in figure. The pulley and the string are light and all the surfaces are
frictionless. The tension in the string is

(take g = 10 m/s2) :-
(1) 0 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 2 N
(4) 5 N

30) A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. A force of 2.8
N is applied on the block as shown in figure. The force of friction between the block and the floor is

(Take g = 10 ms–2) :-

(1) 2.8 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 20 N
(4) Zero

31) Force acting on a body of mass 16 kg varies with time as shown. If the body starts from rest then

velocity of body at t = 10 sec is (Approx) :-

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 50 m/s
(3) 49 m/s
(4) 39 m/s
32) Two iron blocks of equal mass but with double surface area slide down an inclined plane with
friction coefficient µ. If the first block with surface area A experience a frictional force f, then the
second block with surface area 2A will experience a frictional force :-

(1) f/2
(2) f
(3) 2f
(4) 4f

33) A block of mass 200 kg is being pulled up by men on an inclined plane at angle of 45° as shown.
The coefficient of static friction is 0.5. Each man can only apply a maximum force of 500 N.
Calculate the number of men required for the block to just start moving up the plane :-

(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 5
(4) 3

34) Acceleration of block A varies with time as shown in figure. The value of coefficient of kinetic
friction between block A and B is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.4
(4) None of these

35) In the given figure, find mass of the block A, if it remains at rest, when the system is released

from rest. Pulleys and strings are ideal.

(1) m
(2) 2m
(3) 2.5m
(4) 3m

36) In the given diagram, if the string connecting B and C is cut then what will be the accelerations

of blocks A, B, C, D at that instant ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) In the two cases respectively, the ratio of force of contact between the two blocks will be :-

(1) Same
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 3

38) A rope of mass 0.1 kg is connected at the same height of two opposite walls. It is allowed to hang
under its own weight. At the contact point between the rope and the wall, the rope makes an angle θ
= 10° with respect to horizontal. The tension in the rope at its midpoint between the wall is :- (sin
10° = 0.173) (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 2.78 N
(2) 2.56 N
(3) 2.82 N
(4) 2.71 N

39)
Calculate the work done for following F-d curves

(A) (P) 100 J

(B) (Q) 13.5 J

(C) (R) 15 J

(D)

(1) (A - P); (B - Q); (C - Q); (D - R)

(2) (A - P); (B - R); (C - R); (D - Q)
(3) (A - P); (B - P); (C - Q); (D - R)
(4) (A - P); (B - P); (C - R); (D - Q)

40) A block of mass 2 kg is kept at origin at t = 0 and is having velocity m/s in positive x-
direction. The only force acting on it is a conservative and its potential energy is defined as U = –x3
+ 6x2 + 15 (S.I. units). Its velocity when its acceleration is minimum after t = 0 is :-

(1) 8 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) m/s
(4) 20 m/s

41) For a particle moving under the action of a variable force, kinetic energy, position graph is given
then-

(1) At A particle is decelerating

(2) At B particle is accelerating
(3) At C particle has max. velocity
(4) At D particle has max. acc.

42) A cord is used to lower vertically a block of mass M by a distance d with constant downward

acceleration . Work done by the cord on the block is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Mgd

43) Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic energies. If p1 and p2 are their respective
momentum, the ratio p1 : p2 is equal to :

(1) m1 : m2
(2) m2 : m1
(3)
(4)

44) How much work does a pulling force of 40 N do on the 20 kg box in pulling it 8 m across the
floor at a constant speed. The pulling force is directed at 60° above the horizontal

(1) 160 J
(2) 277 J
(3) 784 J
(4) None of the above

45) The adjoining figure shows a block of mass 10 kg connected to free end of a rope of mass 10 kg
and length of 10 m. The tension of the rope at point A is (g = 10 m/s2):-
(1) 170 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 130 N
(4) 70 N

CHEMISTRY

1) Select incorrect statement about element Uut :-

(1) It belongs to p-block.

(2) Atomic number of this element is 113.
(3) IUPAC name of the element is ununtrium.
(4) It belongs to d-block.

2) Which order of radius is incorrect :-

(1) Pb > Pb+2 > Pb+4

(2) Li+ > Be+2 > B+3
(3) Co > Ni > Cu > Zn
(4) Ni < Pd ≈ Pt

3) Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+ and Yb3+ have ionic radii in the increasing order as :-

(1) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+

(2) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
(3) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+
(4) Yb+3 < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < La+3

4) An element belongs to group III(A) and 3rd period of the periodic table. Which of the following
properties will be shown by the element ?

(1) Element forms acidic oxide

(2) Solid, non-metallic
(3) Liquid, metallic
(4) Good conductor of electricity

5)

Which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) Number of e–s in pre penultimate shell of d-block elements are (1 – 10)
(2) 5th period contain 10 elements which has one or more than one 5d e–s.
(3) Except Pd, maximum e–s in outermost shell are 8
(4) Total no. of groups in p-block are 6 because p-orbital can hold maximum 6e–s.

6) ; ΔH1 = 10eV

; ΔH2 = 25eV

; ΔH3 = 35eV
IE1 of M = x
IE2 of M = y
IE3 of M = z
Determine, (x + y + z)

(1) 50 eV
(2) 60 eV
(3) 70 eV
(4) 80 eV

7) How many of these elements have greater IE1 than both adjacent elements along a period?
B, S, O, Li, Mg, P, Na, K

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

8) Incorrect statement for f-block elements is :

(1) Number of electrons in pre-penultimate shell are 19 to 32

(2) General Electronic configuration is ns2 (n–1)d0–1(n–2)f1–14
(3) All elements belong to IIIB group and 6th period
(4) Thorium do not contain any electron in 5f orbital

9) Among the following oxides, which is least acidic?

(1) Al2O3
(2) B2O3
(3) CO2
(4) NO2

10) Select correct order of radius :

(1) Li+ < Na+ < Mg2+ < Ca2+

(2) Al+3 > S–2 > O–2
(3) Fe+3 > Fe+2 > Fe+
(4) S–2 > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+

11) An element A has configuration 1s22s22p63s2 formula of its phosphate is :-

(1) A(PO4)4
(2) APO4
(3) A3(PO4)2
(4) A2(PO4)3

12) Which set not contains isoelectronic species :-

–3 –2 –1
(1) BO3 , CO3 , NO3
–2 –2 –1
(2) SO3 , CO3 , NO3
– –2
(3) CN , N2, C2
–3 –2 –1
(4) PO4 , SO4 , ClO4

13) Select the correct order.

(1) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe (B.P.)

(2) N2 < P4 < S8 (B.P.)
(3) HI > HF > HBr > HCl (M.P.)
(4) All of these

14) Which of the following molecule have pπ–pπ bond but not pπ – dπ bond?

(1) SO2
(2)
(3) SO2Cl2
(4) SO3

15) Assertion (A) : KHCO3 exists in dimeric form while RbHCO3 exists as monomer form.
Reason(R) : H bond is present KHCO3 while in RbHCO3 no H bond is present

(1) A is correct, (R) is incorrect

(2) (A), (R) are correct, (R) is correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is incorrect (R) is correct
(4) Both are incorrect

16) Which of the following is incorrect -

(1) Viscosity order H3PO4 > H2SO4 > HNO3 > HCl
(2) Boiling point order H2O > HF > NH3
Molecular weight of acetic acid is double of its molecular formula. due to dimer formation by H-
(3)
bonding.
(4) In O-Salicylaldehyde inter molecular H-bonding is present.

17) The lattice energy of the lithium compounds is in the following order :

(1) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LiI

(2) LiCl > LiF > LiBr > LiI
(3) LiBr > LiCl > LiF > LiI
(4) LiI > LiBr > LiCl > LiF

18) Which of the following molecule does not show Hydrogen bonding :

(1) HF
(2) H2O
(3) NH3
(4) H2S

19) Statement-I :- Molecules N2, CO and NO+ do not have equal bond order.
Statement-II :- Bond order of N2, N2 and N2 are in fractional.
+ –

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false

(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true

20) Correct order of viscosity is :-

(1) CH3-O-CH3 > CH3OH > H2O

(2) H2O > CH3OH > CH3-O-CH3
(3) CH3OH > H2O > CH3-O-CH3
(4) H2O > CH3-O-CH3 > CH3-OH

21) Which substances has the strongest London dispersion forces :

(1) SiH4
(2) CH4
(3) SnH4
(4) GeH4

22) W.O.F force present in dry ice.

(1) Dispersion forces

(2) Debye forces
(3) Keesome forces
(4) Ion - induced dipole forces

23) Match the Column :-

 Column - I Column - II

(i) London Force (a) SO2 & CO2

(ii) Keesome force (b) CO2 & CO2

(iii) Debye Force (c) H2O & SO2

(iv) ion-dipole forces (d) NaCl & H2O

(1) (i) - (c); (ii) - (b); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)
(2) (i) - (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)
(3) (i) - (b); (ii) - (a); (iii) - (c); (iv) - (d)
(4) (i) - (a); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (b); (iv) - (d)

24) Select incorrect statement about Born haber cycle -

(1) Its used to determine lattice enthalpy.

(2) Based on Hess Law completely
(3) For stronger ionic bond formation, sublimation enthalpy should be low.
(4) Ionic bond formation process is more endothermic.

25) WOF has highest lattice enthalpy.

(1) NaF
(2) MgF2
(3) MgO
(4) Al2O3

26)

Column - I Column - II
(Compound) (Imaginary Lattice energy
Values )

(a) LiF (p) 830 kJ/mol

(b) NaF (q) 915 kJ/mol

(c) KF (r) 1200 kJ/mol

(d) RbF (s) 1050 kJ/mol

(1) (a) - (r); (b) - (p); (c) - (s); (d) - (q)
(2) (a) - (r); (b) - (s); (c) - (q); (d) - (p)
(3) (a) - (s); (b) - (p); (c) - (q); (d) - (r)
(4) (a) - (p); (b) - (r); (c) - (s); (d) - (q)

27) What is not true about ice ?

(1) It has open cage like structure

(2) It has less density than water
(3) Each O atom is surrounded by 4-H atoms
(4) Each O atom are joined with four atoms by four H-bonds around it.

28)

Strength of H-Bond is maximum in ?

(1) HF & HF
(2) & HF
(3) H2O & H2O
(4) R–OH & H2O

29) 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/ml. The molarity of the solution is-

(1) 2.9732
(2) 3.05
(3) 3.64
(4) 2.05

30) Find molality of an aqueous solution of CH3OH, in which mole fraction of CH3OH is 0.2 :-

(1) 1.3
(2) 13.9
(3) 3.9
(4) 21.2

31) How many gram of dibasic acid (Mol. mass = 200) should be present in 100 mL of its aqueous
solution to give decinormal strength :-

(1) 1 g
(2) 2 g
(3) 10 g
(4) 20 g

32) 10 mL of concentrated sulphuric acid (18 M) is diluted to 10 litre. The approximate

concentration of the diluted acid would be:

(1) 0.18 N
(2) 0.036 N
(3) 0.36 N
(4) 0.09 N

33) At a given temperature, total vapour pressure in Torr of a mixture of volatile components A and
B is given by

hence vapour pressure of pure A and B respectively (in Torr) are

(1) 120, 75
(2) 120, 195
(3) 120, 45
(4) 75, 45

34) Equal moles of benzene and toluene are mixed the V.P. of benzene and toluene in pure state are
700 and 600 mm Hg respectively. The mole fraction of benzene in vapour state is

(1) 0.7
(2) 0.47
(3) 0.50
(4) 0.54

35) 45 gm of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) is mixed with 600 gm of water. The freezing point of solution
will be : (kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)

(1) 270.9 K
(2) 272 K
(3) 370 K
(4) 372 K

36) Assertion : The depression in freezing point depend on the amount of solute dissolved and not
on the nature of solute and solvent.
Reason : For aqueous solutions of different electrolyte, molal depression constant will have
different value.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) In the freezing point depression experiment, it is found that :-

(a) Vapour pressure of solution is less than that of pure solvent
(b) Vapour pressure of solution is more than that of pure solvent
(c) Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point.
(d) Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point.
Correct are :-

(1) a, d
(2) c, a
(3) b, d
(4) b, c

38) If I is a vapour pressure curve of solvent and II is vapour pressure curve of solution then what
is/are correct statement- (a) x is depression in freezing point
and y is elevation in boiling point.
(b) x is elevation in boiling point and y in depression in freezing point.
(c) T1 is freezing point of pure solvent and T2 is freezing point of solution
(d) T3 is boiling point of pure solvent and T4 is boiling point of solution.

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, c
(3) a, c
(4) b, d

39) The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 0.850 bar. A non-volatile, non-
electrolyte solid weighing 0.5 g when added to 39.0 g of benzene (molar mass 78 g mol–1). Vapour
pressure of the solution then, is 0.845 bar. What is the molar mass of the solid substance?

(1) 140 g mol–1

(2) 85 g mol–1
(3) 340 g mol–1
(4) 170 g mol–1

40) A solution containing 10g per dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol-1) is isotonic with a 5%

solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non-volatile solute is

(1) 250 g mol-1

(2) 300 g mol-1
(3) 350 g mol-1
(4) 200 g mol-1

41) In three beakers labelled as (A), (B) and (C), 100 mL of water, 100 mL of 1 M solution of glucose
in water and 100 mL of 0.5 M solution of glucose in water are taken respectively and kept at same
temperature :-

Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Vapour pressure in all the three beakers is same.

(2) Vapour pressure of beaker B is highest.
(3) Vapour pressure of beaker C is highest.
Vapour pressure of beaker B is lower than that of C and vapour pressure of beaker C is lower
(4)
than that of A.

42) A solution is prepared by dissolving 10 g of non-volatile solute in 180g of H2O. If the relative
lowering of vapour pressure is 0.005, find the molecular weight of the solute.

(1) 200
(2) 100
(3) 1000
(4) 50

43) Boiling point of benzene is 353.23 K. When 1.8g of non volatile solute is dissolved in 90 g of
benzene. Then boiling point raised to 354.11 K. Give Kb (benzene) = 2.53 K kg mol–1. Then molecular
mass of non volatile substance is.

(1) 58g mol–1

(2) 120g mol–1
(3) 116g mol–1
(4) 60g mol–1

44) In the below set up, net flow of solvent is from A to B then:-

(1) Solution A will be more concentrated relative to solution B

(2) Solution A will be more dilute relative to solution B
(3) Solution A and solution B will be equally concentrated
(4) Solution A will be at higher temperature relative to solution B

45)

The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10g glucose (π1), 10g urea (π2) and 10g
sucrose (π3) are dissolved in 250 ml of water is

(1) π1 = π2 = π3
(2) π3 > π1 > π2
(3) π1 > π2 > π3
(4) π2 > π1 > π3

BIOLOGY

1)

Which of the following structure does not open into the cloaca of a female frog ?
(1) Rectum
(2) Oviduct
(3) Urinogenital duct
(4) Both (1) and (2)

2) Match the following columns with reference to frog and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

Situated on the ventral side of the

(a) Sinus venosus (i)
heart

(b) Conus arteriosus (ii) Joins the right atrium

Venous connection between kidney

(c) Hepatic portal system (iii)
and lower parts of the body

Venous connection between liver and

(d) Renal portal system (iv)
intestine.
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

3) Which type of respiration occurs in frog during hibernation and aestivation ?

(1) Both cutaneous and pulmonary

(2) Both cutaneous and bucco-pharyngeal
(3) Only cutaneous
(4) Only pulmonary

4)

Read the following statements about the frog and choose the correct option :
(A) The undigested solid waste moves into the rectum and passes out through anus.
(B) RBC's are enucleated and contain haemoglobin.
(C) The ventricle opens into a sac like conus arteriosus.
(D) It is an ammonotelic animal.
(E) On land the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs.

(1) All are incorrect

(2) Only A, B, C and D are incorrect
(3) Only D is incorrect
(4) Only A, B and D are incorrect

5) Which of the following plant growth regulators is responsible for ‘respiratory climactic’ ?

(1) Auxin
(2) Ethylene
(3) ABA
(4) Cytokinin

6)

Identify the correct match from column I, II and III

Column I Column II Column III

1 GA a Gaseous i Promote bolting

2 Auxin b Cytokinesis ii Zeatin

Flowering in
3 Cytokinin c Phototropism iii
Pineapple

4 Ethylene d Acidic iv Fruit ripening

(1) 1–d–ii, 2–a–iv, 3–c–iii, 4–b–i
(2) 1–d–i, 2–c–iii, 3–b–ii, 4–a–iv
(3) 1–c–i, 2–b–iv, 3–a–ii, 4–d–iii
(4) 1–b–ii, 2–c–i, 3–d–iii, 4–b–iv

7) Which of the following plant growth regulator promotes internode elongation just prior to
flowering in beet ?

(1) Cytokinin
(2) Auxin
(3) Ethylene
(4) Gibberellin

8) Assertion :- Buttercup produces two different kind of leaves within the same plant body.
Reason :- Plants can follow different pathways in response to environment or phases of life to form
different kinds of structures, due to plasticity.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

9) Which of the following is not a function of auxin ?

(1) Apical dominance

(2) Prevent abscission
(3) Induce senescence in young part
(4) Induce parthenocarpy

10) Which of the following is not true for gibberellins?

(1) Promotes formation of male flowers

(2) Hormone with alkaline nature
(3) Substitute of vernalisation
(4) Substitute of long photoperiod in LDP

11) Which of the following function is not suitable with its factor :

(1) Oxygen - helps in releasing metabolic energy

(2) Water - Medium for enzymatic activities
(3) Minerals - synthesis of protoplasm
(4) Temperature - Optimum temperature is same for all plant organism

12) Name the plant growth regulator which upon spraying on cucumbers, promotes female flowers
and increase the production.

(1) Abscisic acid

(2) Cytokinin
(3) Gibberellin
(4) Ethylene

13) The phytohormone play role is seed development and maturation

(1) Growth promoter hormones

(2) Abscisic acid
(3) Cytokinin
(4) Ethylene

14) Select the incorrect statement from the following ?

(1) Classification system for the living organisms have undergone several changes over the time
(2) R.H. Whittakar proposed five kingdom classification in 1869
In three domain classification system classification of prokaryotes was based on sequence of r-
(3)
RNA
(4) Bentham and Hooker used natural classification system

15) Branch of taxonomy which is based on cytological information like chromosome number,
structure etc. is

(1) Numerical taxonomy

(2) Cytotaxonomy
(3) Chemotaxonomy
(4) Both (1) and (3)

16) Membrane extensions present in cyanobacteria and have photosynthetic pigments are known as:

(1) Mesosome
(2) Gas vacuoles
(3) Chromatophore
(4) Cristae

17) How many are the correct statement about bacteria

(A) Bacteria are the sole member of kingdom monera.
(B) They are the most abundant microorganisms.
(C) They also live in extreme habitats.
(D) Bacteria are the member of kingdom protista.

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Four

18) Read the following statements (A-D)

A. Bacteria are the sole member of kingdom Monera.
B. They also live in extreme habitats such as hot spring desert, snow, deep ocean etc.
C. Most of bacteria are autotrophs.
D. Some archaebacteria are symbiotic organism.
How many of the above statements are correct.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

19) Mesosome in prokaryotes do not help in-

(1) Cell wall formation

(2) DNA replication
(3) Respiration
(4) Locomotion

20) Photosynthetic protists are :-

(1) Euglenoids & slime moulds

(2) Protozoans & Euglenoids
(3) Diatoms & Euglenoids
(4) Dinoflagellates & protozoans

21) After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in :-

(1) Trichoderma
(2) Saccharomyces
(3) Rhizopus
(4) Rust fungi
22) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Deuteromycetes I. Rhizopus & mucor

B. Phycomycetes II. Sac fungi

C. Basidiomycetes III. Bracket fungi

D. Ascomycetes IV. Fungi imperfecti

(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

23) Fungi which produce exogenous sexual spore is

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Agaricus
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Albugo

24) Assertion: Archaebacteria can survive in very harsh environmental conditions.

Reason: Archaebacteria contains unique cell wall and plasma membrane composition.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

25) An infectious acellular agent has following characters :-

(a) Protein coat is absent
(b) Infectious ribonucleic acid
(c) Cause disease in plants
Identify the agent :-

(1) Prions
(2) Viroids
(3) Virus
(4) Virion

26) Morels, Truffles and Mushrooms have common property that is :-

(1) They all produce haploid ascospores.

(2) Their only asexual stage is known.
(3) They all can be used as food.
(4) They all are obligate parasites on plants.
27) Assertion: Bryophytes usually occur in damp, humid and shaded localities.
Reason: They play an important role in plant succession on bare rocks/soil.

(1) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are correct but reason is not correct.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

28) Statement-1: The plant body of bryophytes is more differentiated than that of algae.
Statement-2: The sex organs in bryophytes are unicellular.

(1) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect.

(2) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

29) Which statement is incorrect w.r.t. bryophytes ?

(1) The main plant body of the bryophyte is diploid.

(2) Zygote do not undergo reduction division immediately.
The sporophyte is not free-living but attached to the photosynthetic and derives nourishment
(3)
from it.
(4) Bryophytes in general are of little economical importance

30) Assertion: Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between fungi and roots of higher plant.
Reason: Fungi provides shelter, water and minerals to root and root provides water and food to
fungi.

(1) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.

(2) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(3) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

31) Statement-1: Fungi make mycorrhizal association with roots of Cycas.

Statement-2: Mycorrhizal association facilitate the exchange of nutrients between the fungus and
the plants

(1) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect

(2) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct
(3) Both statements are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

32) Unlike bryophytes and pteridophytes, in the male and female gametophytes do not have
an independent free existence. They remain within retained on the . Identify A, B
and C.

(1) A-Gymnosperms, B-Sporangia, C-Sporophytes

(2) A-Thallophytes, B-Sporangia, C-Gametophytes
(3) A-Gymnosperms, B-Archegonia, C-Gametophytes
(4) A-Gymnosperms, B-Archegonia, C-Sporophytes

33) In which plant the multicellular female gameto phyte is retained within megasparangium?

(1) Funaria
(2) Marchantia
(3) Cedrus
(4) Dryopteris

34) Which statement is correct w.r.t. Pinus ?

(1) It is a dioecious plant.

(2) It is homosporous
(3) It has winged pollen grains.
(4) It has corolloid roots for N2-fixation with cyanobacteria

35) Adiantum is a member of ?

(1) Psilopsida
(2) Lycopsida
(3) Sphenopsida
(4) Pteropsida

36) Which plant is not related with pteropsida ?

(1) Pteris
(2) Dryopteris
(3) Lycopodium
(4) Adiantum

37) Assertion: Lichens are symbiotic association between algae and fungi
Reason: Algae prepare food for fungi and fungi provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and
water for its partner.

(1) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect

(2) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
(3) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Assertion and reason both are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.

38) With respect to lichen, which statement is incorrect ?

(1) Algal partner is called phycobiont

(2) Fungal partner is called mycobiont
(3) They are very good sound pollution indicator.
 Algae prepare food for fungi and fungi provide shelter, water and mineral nutrients for its
(4)
partner.

39) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

Antennae pigments help to make photosynthesis more efficient by absorbing different

(1)
wavelengths of light.
(2) In PS II, reaction centre has absorption maxima at 680 nm.
(3) Electron transport system is consist of cytochromes.
Electrons excited from reaction centre of PS I are transferred to another acceptor molecule that
(4)
has a lower redox potential.

40) The whole scheme of transfer of electrons, starting from the PS II, uphill to the acceptor and
finally downhill to NADP+ reducing it to NADPH + H+ is called Z-scheme. This shape is formed
when:

(1) All the carriers are placed randomly on a redox potential scale.
(2) All the carriers are placed in a sequence on a redox potential scale.
(3) All the carriers are placed randomly on a electromagnetic potential scale
(4) All the carriers are placed in a sequence electromagnetic potential scale

41) Assertion: Chemiosmosis requires a membrane, a proton pump, a proton gradient and ATP
synthase.
Reason: Energy is used to pump protons across a membrane to create a gradient or a high
concentration of protons within the thylakoid lumen

(1) Assertion and reason both are incorrect

(2) Assertion and reason both are correct
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct

42) Water spliting during the non-cyclic photophosphorylation is linked with-

(1) PS-II
(2) PS-I
(3) Outer membrane of thylakoid
(4) Membrane of mitochondria

43) Like respiration, in photosynthesis, ATP synthesis linked to development of _____A_____ across
the _____B_____ membrane.
Fill in the blanks using options given below.

(1) A-Electron gradient, B-Mitochondria

(2) A-Proton gradient, B-Mitochondria
(3) A-Proton gradient, B-Thylakoid
(4) A-Electron gradient, B-Thylakoid
44) Assertion: The breakdown of protons gradient due to movement of protons through the CFo part
of the ATP synthase enzyme releases enough energy for synthesis of ATP.
Reason: After absorbing light, electrons are excited and transferred through PS II and PS I and
finally to NADP+ forming NADPH + H+.

(1) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect

(2) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct
(3) Assertion and reason both are incorrect
(4) Assertion and reason both are correct

45) Select the incorrect statement ?

(1) Photosynthesis takes place only in the green parts of the plants, mainly the leaves.
Within the chloroplasts, the membranes are sites for the light reaction, while the
(2)
chemosynthetic pathway occurs in the stroma.
Splitting of water molecules is associated with PS I resulting in the release of O2, protons &
(3)
transfer of electrons to PS I
(4) RuBiSCO also catalyses a wasteful oxygenation reaction in C3 plants: Photorespiration.

46) Statement-1: In the photorespiratory pathway, there is neither synthesis of sugars, nor of ATP.
Rather it results in the release of CO2 with the utilization of NADPH + H+.
Statement-2: Calvin pathway occurs in all photosynthetic plants.

(1) Statement-1 is correct but statment-2 is incorrect.

(2) Statement-1 is incorrect but statment-2 is correct.
(3) Both statements are incorrect
(4) Both statements are correct

47) Match the column A with column B and select correct one ?

Column-A Column-B

A Chemiosmosis i ATP + NADPH synthesis

B Z-scheme ii Mechanism of ATP synthesis

C Calvin cycle iii Phosphoglycolate

D Photorespiration iv Sugar synthesis

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv

48) demonstrated that photosynthesis is essentially a light dependent reaction in which

hydrogen from a suitable oxidation compound reduces CO2 into carbohydrates. This happens with
help of . Identify A and B.

(1) A-C.V. Niel, B-Light

(2) A-T.W. Engelmann, B-Products of light reaction
(3) A-Jan Ingehhousz, B-Light
(4) A-C.V. Niel, B-Products of light reaction

49) Assertion: Biosynthetic phase doesn't directly depends on presence of light but is dependent on
the products of the light reaction i.e. ATP and NADPH, besides CO2 and H2O.
Reason: In biosynthetic phase, for each CO2 molecule entering the calvin cycle, 3 molecules of ATP
and 2NADPH are required

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect
(3) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion

50) Which statement is correct ?

(1) C4 plants tolerate higher temperatures, and have lesser productivity of biomass.
(2) In C4 pathway the primary CO2 acceptor is a 3-C molecule Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP).
(3) RuBiSCO bas a much lesser affinity for CO2 when the CO2 : O2 is nearly equal
(4) In C3 plants photorespiration doesn't occur.

51) The RuBP instead of being converted to 2 molecules of 3-PGA binds with O2 to form one molecule
of phosphoglycerate and phosphoglycerate (2C) in a pathway called:-

(1) Photosynthesis
(2) PCR cycle
(3) Photorespiration
(4) Z-scheme.

52) Match the column A with column B and select correct one ?

Column-A Column-B

A Calvin cycle i Universal pathway

B Photorespiration ii Wasteful process

C C4 plants iii Kranz-anatomy

D Dark reaction iv Stroma

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

53) Statement-1: Carboxylation is the fixation of CO2 into a stable organic intermediate and it is
most crucial step of the Calvin cycle.
Statement-2: In C4 plants, the mesophyll cells lack RuBisCO enzyme. The C4 acid OAA is formed in
the mesophyll cells.

(1) Both statements are incorrect

(2) Both statements are correct
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but statement-2 is correct
(4) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is incorrect

54) When plastoquinone passes on its electron to the electron carrier on the inner side of the
membrane, the proton is released in to :

(1) The lumen side of the membrane

(2) The stoma side of the membrane
(3) The periplastidal side of the membrane
(4) The perimitochondrial side of the membrane

55) Along with electrons that come from the acceptor of electrons of PS I, protons are necessary for
the:

(1) Oxidation of NADPH + H+ to NADP+

(2) Reduction of NADP+ to NADPH + H+
(3) Oxidation of NADH + H+ to NAD+
(4) Reduction of NAD+ to NADH + H+

56) With regard to light reaction, identify the correct statements:

A. Photosystems are named in the sequence of their discovery, and not in the sequence in which they
function during the light reaction.
B. The reaction centre is different in both the photosystems.
C. Photochemical phase include light absorption, water splitting and oxygen release only.
D. Light harvesting system is also called antennae.
E. Antennae help to make photosynthesis more efficient by absorbing different wavelength of sound.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C and D only

(2) A, B, C, D and E only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A, D and E only

57) Photochemical phase include:

A. Light absorption
B. Oxygen release
C. Water splitting
D. Formation of ATP
E. Formation of NADH.
Choose the correct ans from the options given below:

(1) A, B, C, Dand E only

(2) A, B, C and D only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) A, C, D and E only

58) Agents that can cause neoplasmic transformation of normal cells are called ?

(1) Carcinogens
(2) Virus
(3) Radiations
(4) Bacteria

59) Carcinoma refers to :-

(1) Malignant tumours of the connective tissue

(2) Malignant tumours of the epithelial tissue
(3) Benign tumours of the colon
(4) Benign tumours of the connective tissue

60) (a) Coke

(b) Diacetylmorphine
(c) Brown in colour
(d) Odourless
(e) Sweet compound
(f) Extracted from latex of Bhang plant
How many statements/informations are correct for heroin :-

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Four

61) Which of the following stimulates the secretion of adrenaline ?

(1) Cocaine
(2) LSD
(3) Smack
(4) Tobacco

62) Which of the following drugs are obtained from same source ?

(1) Opium and Ganja

(2) Morphine and bhang
(3) Cocaine and Hashish
(4) Hashish and Marijuana

63) Find the correct match :-

Column-I Column-II
 (i) LSD (a) Lungs

(ii) Morphine (b) Liver cirrhosis

(iii) Alcohol (c) Analgesic

(iv) Pneumonia (d) Hallucinogen

(1) i–a, ii–b, iii–d, iv–c
(2) i–d, ii–c, iii–b, iv–a
(3) i–d, ii–b, iii–a, iv–c
(4) i–d, ii–c, iii–a, iv–b

64) Identify the following chemical structure of drug:

(1) Morphine
(2) Cannabinoid
(3) Cocaine
(4) None of these

65) Several genes called _______ have been identifies in normal cells which when activated will turn
into ______ under certain conditions could lead to cancerous transformation of cells :-
Complete the above paragraph by selecting correct sequence of words

(1) oncogene, Protooncogenes

(2) cellular oncogenes, Protooncogenes
(3) protooncogenes, oncogenes
(4) oncogenes, tumor suppresor gene

66) Read the following statements carefully.

(i) Cancer causing viruses have genes called viral oncogenes.
(ii) Malignant tumors remain confined to their original location
(iii) Cancer cells do not exhibit contact exhibition
(iv) X-rays and infrared rays are potent carcinogens
(v) Cancer detection is based on biopsy.
Which of the above statements are not correct regarding cancer ?

(1) (iii) and (v)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i),(iii) and (v)
(4) (ii), (iv) and (v)

67)

Read the following statements for dinosaurs :-

(a) The land reptile were, of course the dinosaurs.
(b) The biggest dinosaurs was Triceretops rex
(c) About 65 mya the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth
(d) Climatic change did not kill them probably.
(e) Most of them evolved into snakes

How many of above statements are incorrect ?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1

68) Arrange the events of chemogeny and biogeny, given below in correct order :-
(A) Origin of simple organic compounds.
(B) Origin of complex organic compounds.
(C) Origin of noncellular form of life.
(D) Origin of free atoms.
(E) Origin of protobiont.
(F) Origin of Prokaryotes.

(1) A, B, C, D, E, F
(2) D, A, B, C, E, F
(3) F, E, D, C, B, A
(4) D, A, B, E, C, F

69) Identify what the given diagram indicates ?

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Recapitulation
(4) Parallel evolution

70) Forelimbs of cheetah used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of
bats used in flying are an example of :-

(1) Analogous organs

(2) Vestigial organ
(3) Homologous organs
(4) Convergent evolution

71) Which is not true with respect to homology?

(1) It explains divergent evolution.

(2) Indicates towards common ancestry
(3) Vestigial organs are not examples of homology.
(4) Biochemical similarities also explain homology.

72) Some mammals like dolphin, whale, seal etc. have evolved in such a way that their characters
appear similar to that of the fishes, in order to adjusting in aquatic habitats. These similarities are an
example of:

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Cyclical evolution

73) S. L. Miller an American scientist created electric discharge in a closed flask containing ...(A)...
at ...(B)... ?

(1) A-CH4, CO2 and H2O vapour, B-800°C

(2) A-CH4, H2, NH3 & H2O vapour, B-800°C
(3) A-CH4, H2, NH3 & H2O vapour, B-600°C
(4) A-CH4, O2, NH3 & H2O vapour, B-800°C

74) Read the following four statements A to D

A. Evolutionary biology is the study of history of life forms on earth.
B. When we see stars we apparently are peeping into the present.
C. Stellar distance are measured in light years.
D. The universe is very old-almost 13.8 million year old.
Find out correct statements :-

(1) C, A and D
(2) B and C
(3) C and A
(4) D and C

75) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of fore-limbs of
mammals. Which one of these is correctly identified in the option given, along with its correct

function and adaption :-

Fore limb Function Adaptation

(1) (D) Bat Flying Aerial
(2) (A) Man Running Carnivore
(3) (B) Whale Swimming Aquatic
(4) (C) Cheetah Running Carnivore
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

76)

According to chemical evolution the condition on primitive earth were existed :-

(a) High temperature
(b) Volcanic stroms
(c) Reducing atmosphere with free oxygen
(d) Low temperature

(e) Oxidising environment

(1) a, b and c
(2) a, c, b and e
(3) Only a, b
(4) a, b, c and d

77) Which of the following is not a connotation of theory of special creation.

(1) All living beings that we see today are created as such.
(2) Diversity was always the same since creation and will be same in future
(3) Earth was formed 4.5 bya
(4) Both 1 and 2

78) Find out the incorrect match :-

Theory of special Diversity was same and

(1)
creation will be same in future

Theory of New life can be originated on earth

(2)
Biogenesis by decaying and rotting matter.

Cosmic
Life came from outer space in the
(3) panspermia
form of spores
theory

Oparin Haldane First life have come from pre existing

(4)
theory non-living organic molecule
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) When we are looking at star into a clear night sky, we are actually peeping into past,
Above sentence indicates that

(1) we can go into the past,

(2) Distance between earth and stars is very great
(3) In past, earth was also a gaseous cloud
(4) In future, earth will become star

80) Evolutionary Biology is the study of

(1) Origin of life

(2) Origin of universe
(3) History of life forms
(4) Origin of earth

81) How many years after the formation of earth, life appeared :-

(1) 500 billion years

(2) 300 million years
(3) 500 million years
(4) 3 billion years

82) Oparin of Russia and Haldane of England proposed that the first form of life could have come
from pre-existing ___(A)____ organic molecules and that formation of life was preceded by ___(B)____.

(1) A-Living, B-Chemical evolution

(2) A - Non-living, B-Organic evolution
(3) A - Non-living, B-Chemical evolution
(4) A - Living, B - Inorganic evolution

83) In 1953 S.L. Miller performed an experiment which proves :-

(1) Chemical evolution of Louis Pasteur

(2) Organic evolution of Charlers Darwin
(3) Chemical evolution of Charles Darwin
(4) Chemical evolution of Oparin
84) Which gases were used by miller in above
experiment :-

(1) H2, N2, O2, CH4

(2) CH4, H2O(vapour), O2, CO2
(3) CH4, H2, NH3, H2O(vapour)
(4) H2O(vapour), CO2, O2, H2

85) Select an analogus set of organs :-

(1) Thorn of Bouganvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita

(2) Flippers of penguine and dolphins
(3) Heart of frogs and human heart
(4) Brain of different vertebrates

86) Which type of evolution is shown by given structures ?

(1) Parallel evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Retrogressive evolution

87) Select the analogous structures :

(A) Wings of butterfly and birds
(B) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
(C) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A, B & C
(4) Only C

88) Wings of an insect and birds are

A-Homologous structures
B-Analogous structures
C-Result of divergent evolution
D-Result of convergent evolution
E-Due to adaptive convergence
Correct option is :

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) B, D and E
(4) A and E

89) The organisms which evolved into first amphibians were:

(1) Therapsid
(2) Coelacanth
(3) Ichthyosaurs
(4) Synapsids

90) Identify 'A' in given figure :-

(1) Crocodile
(2) Bird
(3) Tyrannosaurus
(4) Mammal
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 1 3 3 1 2 4 1 4 2 4 4 1 3 3 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 4 2 3 3 4 2 4 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 2 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 3 3 1 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 2 4 3 2 3 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 2 4 1 4 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 4 4 2 4 2 1 2 1 2 3 4 1 4 1 4 4 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 1 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 3 3 4 2 2 4 4 3 2 4 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 3 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 4 3 3 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 1 3 4 3 2 2 4 4 2 3 1 2 1 2 3 2 1 2 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 3 3 2 3 1 3 3 2 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 4 3 2 3 1 3 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)
put ℓ = 1 cm
A = 1 cm × 100 cm

2) The given part of a closed circuit can be redrawn as follows. It should be remember that
product of current and resistance can be treated as an imaginary cell having emf = iR.

⇒
⇒ Hence VA – VB = +9 V

3)
Q = at – bt2
i = a – 2bt

4)

5)
6)

Use symmetry method

RAH = = r

7) for balanced bridge

320 + 16x = 20x

x = 80 Ω

8)

Question Explanation:
Given circuit question is asking for equivalent resistance between A & B.
Concept:
Nodal Method
Solution:

RAB = 2 + 12.5 + 8 = 22.5 Ω

Final Answer: The correct option is (2).
9)

:: 125 : 15 : 1

10)

R= ; m = Vd = Aℓd

R= = A=
R, ℓ → same then m ∝ δd

=
Hence All wire is lighten.

11)

20 = R0(1 + α(20)) ...........(1)

60 = R0 (1 + α(500)) ...........(2)

⇒ °C–1
At temp. t
25 = R0 (1 + αt) ..............(3)

⇒
⇒5 + 100α = 4 + 4αt

⇒t= = 80°C

12)
VB – VD = I (RBD) = (1) (15+25) = 40
but VB = 0 ⇒ VD = –40V

13)

14) I1 = I2 = 2 Amp.
VA – 2(3) – 5 – 0(2) – 2(10) = VB
VA – VB = 6 + 5 + 20 = 31 volt

15)

when key open when key closed

16) ⇒ Balanced W.S.B.

RAH = 1.17 r

17)

Resultant field near surface of conductor is .

18)

19)

= =

20)

21)
22)

23) According to Gauss's theorem, the total electric flux linked with the surface is equal
to times the total charge enclosed within the surface. Since no charge is enclosed within the
hemispherical body, the flux linked with its entire surface is zero.

24)

Field due to complete sphere at B will be

Field due to half sphere at B will be E

∴ Net field at

25) Flux coming out of the cube ....(i)

and from sphere ϕ2 = ...(ii)

26)

By conservation of energy
ΔKE = ΔPE

27) Asking about: The potential of a large drop formed by the coalescence of n identical
charged small drops.
Concept: Conservation of charge, capacitance of a spherical conductor, electric potential.
Formula:
Charge on a capacitor:
Capacitance of a sphere:

Potential of a sphere: V =

Volume of a sphere:

Explanation: Let the radius of each small drop be r and charge be q. Then , so q =
4πε0rV
Total charge on n small drops = nq = n(4πε0rV)
Let the radius of the large drop be R. Its volume is n times the volume of a small drops:
 ⇒
The total charge on the large drop is the same as the total charge on the small drops: Q =
n(4πε0rV)
The potential of the large drop V' is:

= = n1–1/3 V = n2/3V
Final answer: Vn2/3
Correct option: (4)

28)
VAB = 3 ⇒ i = 3/r
E –ir = 3 ⇒ E = 3 + ir = 3 + 3 = 6V

29)

If a is acceleration of m2, then from figure.

m2g – T = m2a ...(i)

and T = m1a = 1a ...(ii)
From (i), m2g – T = m2a
1g – m1a = m2a
1g = (m1 + m2)a = (1 + 1) a

a= 5m/s2

∴ T = m1a = 1 × 5 = 5N

30) Limiting force of friction

= μR = μMg = 0.4 × 2 × 10 = 8 N
As external applied force = 2.8 N. Because it is less than the limiting friction, the actual force
of friction is equal to external force of 2.8 N but in opposite direction.

31) Area of F–t = ΔP

250 + 375 = 16 [v]
625 = 16v
v= m/s

32) Frictional force is independent of the area of surfaces in contact, as long as normal
reaction between the two bodies in contact remains the same.

When an iron block of mass m with surface area A is placed on an inclined plane inclined at
an angle θ, it will experience a frictional force f as shown in figure (i).
f = µR = µmgcosθ ...(i)
When an iron block of mass m with surface area 2A is placed on an inclined plane inclined
at an angle θ, it will experience a frictional force f' as shown in figure (ii).
f' = µR = µmgcosθ ...(ii)
From (i) and (ii), we get f' = f.

33)
Here, mass of the block, m = 200kg

coefficient of static friction, µs = 0.5 =

angle of incline plane, θ = 45°
Maximum force that each man can apply, F = 500 N
Let N number of men are required for the block to just start moving up the plane NF = mgsinθ
+f
= mgsinθ + µsR
= mgsinθ + µsmgcosθ = mg[sinθ + µscosθ]

∴ .

34) after 10 sec , for block A

fK = ma
µkmg = ma

a = µkg ⇒ µk = = 0.5
35) T1 = mAg and T2 = but T1 = 2T2 so mA = 3m

36) FBD's of bodies just after cutting the string:

37)

(i)

N1 = ma =

(ii) a =

N2 = 2ma =
ratio N1 : N2 = 1 : 2

38)

Mass of rope, m = 0.1 kg, θ = 10°

From figure, 2T sin θ = mg

⇒T=

39)

Work done = Area under F – d curve

40) F = = –[–3x2 + 12x]

F = 3x2 – 12x
 = 6x – 12

= 6 → minima → at x = 2
Now at t = 0 → U = 15 J (∵ x = 0)

KE = mv2

= = 80J
So total ME = 95 J
Now at x = 2 where acceleration is minimum
U = –8 + 24 +15 = 31 J
KE = ME – U
KE = 95 – 31 = 64 J

v = 8 m/s

41) [Link] = dK

Shope of K-x cursive gives force.

So slope is max at D, hence acc. is max. at D.

42) When the block moves vertically downward with acceleration then tension in the cord

T=M = Mg
Work done by the cord = FS cos θ
Td (cos 180°)

= × d = – 3Mg .

43) P = (If E = const.) ∴ =

44)

45) T = 130 N
CHEMISTRY

46) Element Uut belongs to group 13 (p-block).

47)

The correct order of radius is :

Co ≈ Ni < Cu < Zn

48) ln lanthanoids, as atomic number increases ionic radius decreases.

49) That element is Al.

Al2O3 is an amphoteric oxide.
Al is solid but metallic.

50)

(i)
(ii) 5th period elements contain only 4d e– s
(iii) Pd [Kr] 4d10 (outermost e– = 10)
(iv) any orbital can hold maximum 2 e– s
(Pauli's exclusion principle)

51) IE1 of M (x) = 10eV

IE2 of M (y) = 15eV
IE3 of M (z) = 35 eV
x + y + z = 10 + 15 + 35 = 60 eV

52) Order of IE1:-

Na < Mg > Al (In third period)
Si < P > S (In third period)

53) Actinoids belong to 7th period

54) Acidic strength of oxides ∝ EN of central atom Al is least EN among these four.

55) Correct order of radius is,

S–2 > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
(They are isoelectronic)

56)
 Explanation

A. The formula of a compound depends on the valency (combining capacity) of its

constituent elements. The valency is related to the number of electrons in the outermost
shell. The phosphate ion has a formula (PO₄)³⁻ and a valency of -3.

Concept

A. The electronic configuration of element A is 1s²2s²2p⁶3s². This indicates that the

outermost shell is the 3rd shell, which contains 2 electrons. Therefore, the valency of
element A is +2 (it can lose these two electrons to achieve a stable noble gas
configuration).

B. To form a neutral phosphate compound, the total positive charge from element A must
balance the total negative charge of the phosphate [Link] the formula of the phosphate
be Aₓ(PO₄)y.

C. The total positive charge = x × (valency of A) = x × (+2) = +2x The total negative
charge = y × (valency of PO₄) = y × (-3) = -3y

D. For a neutral compound, the total positive charge must equal the total negative charge:
2x = 3y

E. The smallest whole number values for x and y that satisfy this equation are x = 3 and y =
2.

F. Therefore, the formula of the phosphate of element A is A₃(PO₄)₂.

Answer option 3, {A₃(PO₄)₂}.

57)

Explanation

A. Isoelectronic species have the same number of electrons.

Concept

A. Option 1:

A. BO₃³⁻: 5 + (3 × 8) + 3 = 32 electrons
 B. CO₃²⁻: 6 + (3 × 8) + 2 = 32 electrons

C. NO₃⁻: 7 + (3 × 8) + 1 = 32 electrons

B. Option 2:

A. SO₃²⁻: 16 + (3 × 8) + 2 = 42 electrons

B. CO₃²⁻: 6 + (3 × 8) + 2 = 32 electrons

C. NO₃⁻: 7 + (3 × 8) + 1 = 32 electrons

C. Option 3:

A. CN⁻: 6 + 7 + 1 = 14 electrons

B. N₂: 7 + 7 = 14 electrons

C. C₂²⁻: 6 + 6 + 2 = 14 electrons

D. Option 4:

A. PO₄³⁻: 15 + (4 × 8) + 3 = 50 electrons

B. SO₄²⁻: 16 + (4 × 8) + 2 = 50 electrons

C. ClO₄⁻: 17 + (4 × 8) + 1 = 50 electrons

E. Option 2 contains species with different numbers of electrons.

Answer option 2, (SO₃²⁻, CO₃²⁻, NO₃⁻).

58)

Explanation
Boiling point depends on the strength of intermolecular forces. Stronger forces require more
energy (higher temperature) to overcome.

Concept

A. He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe: Correct. Boiling point increases down the noble gas group due to
increasing atomic size and stronger London Dispersion Forces.
 B. N₂ < P₄ < S8: Correct. N₂ has weak London Dispersion Forces. P₄ has larger size and stronger
LDF. S8 exists as a puckered ring, leading to an even stronger LDF and a higher Boiling point.
C. HI > HF > HBr > HCl: Correct.
A. HCl, HBr, and HI: Melting point increases down the group due to increasing size and
stronger Van der Waals forces.
B. HF: Has a higher melting point than expected due to strong hydrogen bonding.
However, HI has a higher melting point than HF due to its significantly larger size and
stronger London Dispersion Forces which outweigh the hydrogen bonding in HF.

Answer option 4, (All of these).

59) Explanation -
The question asks you to identify a molecule from a list that exhibits a specific type of chemical
bonding

Concept - (Specific chemical bonding of N & O in NO32-)

Nitrogen (N) and Oxygen (O) are in the second period and has p-orbitals. And they do not
have d-orbitals available for bonding.

Therefore, NO32- has pπ-pπ bonds but not pπ-dπ bonds.

Final Answer - Option (2)

60)

61)

62) Explanation : In this question we have to check correct order of lattice energy.

Concept : Lattice energy

So, correct order : LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LII

63) NCERT-XI, Pg # 127

64) NCERT-XI, Pg # 105

65) Module-2, Pg # 76
 66) London force ∝ mol. mass ∝ surface area.

67) Dry ice → CO2 & CO2

μ=0μ=0
So, london dispersion forces present between them.

68) (i) - (b); (ii) - (c); (iii) - (a); (iv) - (d)

69) Ionic bond formation process is more endothermic.

70) so, more lattice energy due to more charge.

71) (a) - (r); (b) - (s); (c) - (q); (d) - (p)

72)

each 'O' surrounded by 2'H' covalent bond and 2'H' by H-bond.

73) & HF shows symmetrical H-Bonding thus maximum strength.

74) Question Explanation:

3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/ml. The molarity of the solution is-

Concept: Molality to molarity

Given Data:

A. Molality of NaOH solution (m) = 3.0 molal

B. Density of the solution (d) = 1.110 g/mL

Solution:

A. Consider 1 kg of solvent: A 3.0 molal solution means 3.0 moles of NaOH are present in 1 kg
(1000 g) of solvent (water).
B. Calculate mass of NaOH: The molar mass of NaOH is approximately 10 g/mol (23 + 16 + 1).
So, the mass of 3.0 moles of NaOH is 3.0 mol × 40 g/mol = 120 g.
C. Calculate mas of solution: The total mass of the solution is the sum of the mass of the
solvent and the mass of the solute: 1000 g (solvent) + 120 g (NaOH) = 1120 g
D. Calculate volume of solution: Using the density, we can find the volume of the solution:

Volume = = = 1009.009 mL (approximately).

E. Convert volume to liters: 1009.009 mL × (1 L / 1000 mL) = 1.009 L (approximately).

F. C a l c u l a t e m o l a r i t y : M o l a r i t y ( M ) = = = 2.9732 M
 (approximately).

Final Answer:
Option (1) 2.9732

75)

76)

Dilution M1V1 = M2V2

then N = M × V.f

77) 10 ml of 36 N = 10,000 ml of N
N1V1 = N1V2
i.e. N2 = (10 × 36)/10,000 = 0.036 N

78)

Raoult's Law

79)

yA =

80)

ΔTf = Kf . m

81)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question presents an assertion and a reason about freezing point
depression and asks whether both are true or false, and if the reason correctly explains the
assertion. Essentially, it tests understanding of how freezing point depression depends on
solute amount and nature, and the role of molal depression constants for aqueous electrolyte
solutions.

Underlying Concept: Freezing point depression is a colligative property, which depends on

the number of solute particles in solution, not on their identity. The depression in freezing
point ( ) depends on the molality of the solute, the cryoscopic constant ( ) of the solvent,
and the van 't Hoff factor ( ) which accounts for dissociation of solutes into ions. The molal
depression constant is a property of the solvent only and remains the same for aqueous
solutions regardless of the solute.

Relevant Formulas: where = depression in freezing point, = van 't

Hoff factor (number of particles the solute dissociates into), = molal freezing point
depression constant (depends only on solvent), = molality of the solution (moles of solute
per kg of solvent).

Tips and Tricks: Keep in mind that is fixed for a solvent (like water), while accounts for
how many particles the solute produces; this helps in distinguishing roles of solute and solvent
factors in freezing point depression.

Common Mistakes: Assuming varies with solute type in aqueous solutions; neglecting the
van 't Hoff factor ( ) and thinking only amount of solute matters.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Choices claiming varies for different aqueous
electrolytes are wrong because depends only on solvent; also, ignoring leads to incorrect
assertion that freezing point depression is independent of solute nature.

82)

Theory NCERT of vapour pressure and F.P.

83)

NCERT B.P. and F.P. graph

84) NCERT Reference: Class XII, Part-I, Page No. 50

85)

C1 = C2

86)

Order of V.P. for beakers A, B and C

A>C>B

87)
 88) Explanation: The question asks for the molecular mass of the non-volatile solute.

Given data:

A. Boiling point of pure benzene (Tb°): 353.23 K

B. Boiling point of solution (Tb): 354.11 K
C. Mass of solute (w2): 1.8 g
D. Mass of solvent (benzene) (w1): 90 g
E. Ebullioscopic constant (Kb) for benzene: 2.53 K kg mol⁻¹

Concept: ΔTb = Kb x mWhere:

A. ΔTb = Tb - Tb°
B. m = (w2 / M2) / (w1 / 1000) (molality)
C. w2 = mass of solute, M2 = molecular weight of solute, w1 = mass of solvent

Calculation:

ΔTb = 354.11 K - 353.23 K = 0.88 K

m = ΔTb / Kb = 0.88 K / 2.53 K kg/mol ≈ 0.3478 mol/kg

ΔTb = Kb x (w2 x 1000) / (M2 x w1)

M2 = (Kb x w2 x 1000) / (ΔTb x w1)

M2 = (2.53 K kg/mol x 1.8 g x 1000) / (0.88 K x 90 g) ≈ 58 g/mol

Final answer: The molecular mass of the non-volatile substance is approximately 58 g/mol.

Correct option: 1

89)

Osmosis

90)

π = CRT : π ∝ C ∝
V → same π ∝ n

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg#83

92)

NCERT Pg#82

93)

NCERT Pg#82

94) NCERT Pg#82,83

95) NCERT-XI Eng. Pg. # 250 (2nd para)

96)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 248, 249, 250

97)

NCERT XI Eng. Pg. No. # 249

98)

NCERT-XI Page No: 246 (2021 - 2022)

99) NCERT–XI, (E) Pg. 251, 1st para

100)

Module # 06, Pg. 149

(Some special points/कुछ महवपूण िबदु)

101) NCERT Pg.#244

102)

NCERT XI Pg # 250

103) NCERT-XI Pg # 251,252

104) NCERT XI Pg.# 10, 11

105) Explanation:
Cytotaxonomy is the branch of taxonomy that uses cytological information, such as
chromosome number, structure, and behavior, to classify and identify organisms. It is distinct
from other forms of taxonomy like numerical taxonomy (which uses statistical methods) and
chemotaxonomy (which uses chemical composition).
Correct Ans. (2)

106) NCERTXI Pg. 129

107) NCERT-XI, Page No. 18

108) NCERT-XI Page No. # 18,19 A, B and D are correct

109) NCERT-XI Pg # 129

110) NCERT-XI Pg. # 14, 15

111) NCERT-XI Pg. # 18

112) NCERT-XI Pg. # 17, 18

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 18

114)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 12

115)

NCERT-XI Pg#27

116)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 24

117) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29, 30

118) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29,30

119) NCERT-XI, Pg. 29

120) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 16

121) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 16

122) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 33

123) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 33

124)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 33

125)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 33

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. 21

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 21

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138, 139, 140

130)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 138, 139

131)

NCERT-XI ; Page No. # 142

132)

NCERT XI ; Page No. # 140

133)

NCERT XI ; Page No. # 140

134) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 151

 135) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 151

136) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143, 147

137)

NCERT XI ; Page No. # 140, 143, 147

138) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 135, 136

139) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 142

140) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 146, 147

141) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 147

142)

NCERT XI ; Page No. # 143., 147, 144

143) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143

144) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 141

145) NCERT-XI, Pg. No. # 141

146) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138

147) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 138

148)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 141

149)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 141

150) Let's analyze the statements about heroin and see which ones are correct:

A. (a) Coke: This is incorrect. Coke is a slang term for cocaine, which is a different drug.
 B. (b) Diacetylmorphine: This is correct. Diacetylmorphine is the chemical name for heroin.
C. (c) Brown in colour: This is usually correct. Heroin can appear in different colors, but brown is
a common color due to impurities.
D. (d) Odourless: This is correct. Pure heroin has little or no odour.
E. (e) Sweet compound: This is incorrect. Heroin does not have a sweet taste.
F. (f) Extracted from latex of Bhang plant: This is incorrect. Heroin is derived from morphine,
which is extracted from the opium poppy plant.

Therefore, only two statements are correct for heroin: (b) Diacetylmorphine and (c) Brown in colour.
So, the correct answer is Option 1.

151) NCERT-XI Pg. # 160

152) NCERT-XI Pg. # (E) 159 (H) 172

153) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 158,159, Para-8.5

154)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 143

155)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 141

156) Correct Answer:

2. (ii) and (iv)
Explanation:
(ii) Malignant tumors remain confined to their original location: This is incorrect.
Malignant tumors are characterized by their ability to metastasize, meaning they can spread
from the original site to other parts of the body. Tumors that stay in their original location are
called benign.
(iv) X-rays and infrared rays are potent carcinogens: This is incorrect. X-rays are a
known potent carcinogen (cancer-causing agent). However, infrared rays are part of the
electromagnetic spectrum and are not considered potent carcinogens. Other types of
radiation, like UV rays, are carcinogenic.

157) NCERT Pg. # 140,144,150

158)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 111

159)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 117

160)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 115

161) NCERT (XII) Pg # 130-131

162)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 115

163) NCERT Pg# 127

164) NCERT Pg. # 126, 127

165) NCERT (XII) Page no. 115

166)

NCERT (XII) Page no. 111, 112

167)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 112

168)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 111

169) The correct answer is 2. Distance between earth and stars is very large.
"Peeking into the past" : When we look at a star, we are seeing the light it emitted in the
past. This is because it takes time for the light to travel the vast distance between the star and
Earth.

170)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 110

171)

NCERT, Pg. # 111

172) NCERT XIIth Pg.#111

173) NCERT Pg # 127(E), 137(H)

174) NCERT-XII, Pg # 128, Fig. 7.1

175) NCERT XII, Pg.# 131

176)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 115

177)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 115

178) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 115

179)

Coelacanth or lobefins evolved into the first amphibians that lived on both land and water.

180) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 114