31-08-2025

6001CMD30300225008 MD

PHYSICS

1)

The coefficient of static friction between block A of mass 2 kg and the table as shown in the figure is
0.2. What would be the maximum mass value of block B so that the two blocks do not move? (The
string and the pulley are assumed to be smooth and massless) :-

(1) 2.0 kg
(2) 4.0 kg
(3) 0.2 kg
(4) 0.4 kg

2) The coefficient of static friction between two surfaces depend on

(1) the normal reaction on the surface

(2) the shape of the surface in contact
(3) the area of contact
(4) None of the above

3) The graph between applied force and frictional force for a body of mass 50 kg placed on a
horizontal surface is as shown in figure. Then, what will be the value of coefficient of static and
kinetic friction respectively ?

(1) 0.4, 0.3

(2) 0.3, 0.2
(3) 0.4, 0.2
(4) 0.2, 0.3
4) A force acts on block shown. The force of friction acting on the block is :

(1) N
(2) N
(3) N
(4) N

5) Identify the correct statement.

(1) Static friction depends on the area of contact.

(2) Kinetic friction depends on the area of contact.
(3) Coefficient of kinetic friction does not depend on the surfaces in contact.
(4) Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the coefficient of static friction.

6) An ice cube is kept on an inclined plane of angle 30°. The coefficient of kinetic friction between

the block and the inclined plane is . What is the acceleration of the block

(1) zero
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 1.5 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s2

7) If the normal force is doubled, the coefficient of friction is :-

(1) Not changed

(2) Halved
(3) Doubled
(4) Tripled

8) The curved portions are smooth and horizontal surface is rough. If the block is released from 'P'
then at what distance from 'A' it will stop :-

(1) 1m
(2) 2m
(3) 3m
(4) 4m
9)

A position dependent force F acting on a particle and its force-position curve is shown in the figure.
Work done on the particle, when its displacement 0 to 5 m is :-

(1) 35J
(2) 25J
(3) 15J
(4) 5J

10) A uniform force of acts on a particle of mass 2kg. Hence the particle is displaced from

position to position .The work done by the force on the particle is :-

(1) 15 J
(2) 9 J
(3) 6 J
(4) 13 J

11) If a particle moves with velocity v = where a is a constant. Find the total work done during
a displacement from x = 0 to x = 3d :

(1)
mad
(2) mad
(3) 3mad
(4) None

12) If momentum is increased by 20%. Then KE is increased by :–

(1) 44%
(2) 55%
(3) 66%
(4) 77%

13) Due to a force velocity of 2 kg mass changes from 20 m/s to 10 m/s then find work done by that
force:-

(1) 300 J
(2) –400 J
(3) –300 J
(4) None of these

14) Two bodies of masses m and 2 m have same momentum. Their respective kinetic energies E1 and
E2 are in the ratio :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3)
(4) 1 : 4

15) Choose the correct option :

(1) work done by a force can never be negative

(2) work done by friction on a body is always positive
(3) work done by friction may be zero
(4) work done by gravity is always positive

16) An object of mass 5 kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 20m and attains a velocity of
10m/s. How much work is done by the resistance of the air on the object ? (g = 10 m/s2):

(1) 750 J
(2) –750 J
(3) 200 J
(4) –200 J

17) Work done by static friction

(1) is always zero

(2) may be positive, negative or zero
(3) is always negative
(4) is always positive

18) A force given by the relation F = 8t acts on a body of mass 2 kg initially at rest. The work done
by this force on the body during first 2 sec of its motion is :-

(1) 64 J
(2) zero
(3) 128 J
(4) 256 J

19) Force acting on a particle is given by F = x2 – 3x + 5 N then what will be the work done to
displace the particle from x = 0 to x = 2m :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A mass M is lowered with the help of a string by a distance h at a constant acceleration g/2. The
work done by the tension in string will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) An elevator of mass 1000kg is moving up with constant acceleration of 5 m/s2 starting from rest.
Work done by elevator cable in first 2 sec is :

(1) 1.5 × 105 J

(2) 1.5 × 104 J
(3) 0.5 × 104 J
(4) 1.5 × 103 J

22) A girl horizontally press her physics text book against a rough vertical wall with her hand. The
direction of the frictional force on the book exerted
by the wall is :-

(1) downwards
(2) upwards
(3) out from the wall
(4) into the wall

23) When the force retards the motion of body, the work done is: -

(1) Zero
(2) Negative
(3) Positive
(4) Positive and Negative depending upon the magnitude of force & displacement

24) Given that the displacement of the body in metre is a function of time as follows x = 2t4 + 5 The
mass of the body is 2kg. What is the increase in its kinetic energy one second after the start of
motion ?

(1) 8 J
(2) 16 J
(3) 32 J
(4) 64 J

25) A body of mass 6 kg is under a force which causes displacement in it given by metres
where t is time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is :

(1) 12 J
(2) 9 J
(3) 6 J
(4) 3 J

26) Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have equal kinetic energies. If p1 and p2 are their respective
momentum, then ratio p1 : p2 is equal to :-

(1) m1 : m2
(2) m2 : m1
(3)
(4)

27) If coefficient of friction between block and the surface is μ and F = then tension in the

string is :–

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

28) A block of mass 10 kg is moving with an acceleration of 2 m/s2 on a rough surface as shown. The
value of coefficient of kinetic friction is:-

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.1
29)

If a block is released from rest as shown in figure then find its velocity after 4 sec of its release :-
(Wedge is at rest & long)

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 6 m/s
(3) 8 m/s
(4) 0 m/s

30)

Two cars of unequal masses use similar tyres. If they are moving at the same initial speed, the
minimum stopping distance :-

(1) is smaller for the heavier car

(2) is smaller for the lighter car
(3) is same for both cars
(4) depends on the volume of the car

31) A body is moving with velocity of 2 m/s on a rough level surface. The frictional force on it is 10
N. If the body moves with velocity 4 m/s, the force of friction will be :

(1) 2.5 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 20 N

32) A rope lies on a table such that a part of it hangs down the table, when the length of hanging

part is of entire length the rope just begins to slide. The coefficient of friction between the rope
and the table is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the cart is µ. The acceleration α of the cart that will prevent the block
from falling statisfies :-

α<
(1)

α>
(2)

α>
(3)

α≥
(4)

34) Two identical blocks A and B each of mass10 kg are joined together with string as shown in
figure. The coefficient of friction between each block and the surface is µ = 0.1. The block B is

pulled with a force of 40 N. The acceleration of block B is :

(1) 1.2 ms–2

(2) 1.8 ms–2
(3) 1 ms–2
(4) none of these

35) A horizontal force of 10 N is necessary to just hold a block stationary against a wall. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. The weight of the block is :-

(1) 2 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 100 N

36)

The friction force acting on the block at time t = 4 sec will be

(1) 50 N
(2) 30 N
(3) 25 N
(4) None

37)

A body of 5 kg weight kept on a rough inclined plane of angle 30° starts sliding with a constant
velocity. Then the coefficient of friction is (assume g = 10 m/s2)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

38) Assertion : Frictional forces are opposes motion.

Reason : Work done by friction is always negative

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) Assertion : Pulling a lawn roller is easier than pushing it.

Reason : Pushing increases the apparent weight and hence the force friction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

40) The frictional force acting on 10 kg block is:

(1) 10 N down the plane

(2) 40 N up the plane
(3) 10 N up the plane
(4) None

41) A car is moving along a straight horizontal road with a speed v0. If the coefficient of friction
between tyres and the road is μ. The shortest distance in which the car can be stopped is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A man pulls a bucket full of water from h metre deep well. Mass of bucket full of water is M,
then work done by the man is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) M gh
(4) (M + m) gh

43)

Match the Column for given block :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Normal reaction (P) 12 N

(B) Force of limiting friction (Q) 16 N

(C) Actual frictional force acting (R) 20 N

(D) Acceleration of block (S) 3.6 m/s2

(1) A – R, B – Q, C – S, D – P
(2) A – P, B – Q, C – R, D – S
(3) A – R, B – Q, C – P, D – S
(4) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D – P
44) Statement-I: A truck and a car moving with same kinetic energy are brought to rest by applying
breaks which provide equal retarding forces. Both come to rest in equal distance.
Statement-II: A car moving towards east takes a turn and moves towards north, the speed remains
unchanged. The acceleration of the car is zero.

(1) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

(2) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

45) A block of mass 4 kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. Force of 8 N is
applied on the block. The force of friction between the block and the floor is

(1) 16 N
(2) 8.0 N
(3) 2.0 N
(4) Zero

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is the Lewis structure of O2

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

2) Which one of the following element will never obey octet rule:

(1) Na
(2) F
(3) S
(4) H

3) Formal charge on the underlined atom is

(1) Zero
(2) +1
(3)
(4) +2
4) Which of the following configuration shows second excitation state of Iodine:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Number of and bonds present in are

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) In the following compound

bond is of the type.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) In an octahedral structure, the pair of d orbitals involved in sp3d2 hybridisation is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) Choose the correct code of characteristics for the given order of hybrid orbitals of same atom,

(i) Electronegativity
(ii) Bond angle between same hybrid orbitals
(iii) Bond length
(iv) P character

(1) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

9) In the protonation of molecule, following statement is true:-

(1) A covalent bond is formed
(2) Hydrogen bond is formed
(3) Hybridisation state of N is changed
(4) Shape of molecule is changed

10) Statement I: Xe-atom in XeF2 is sp-hybrid state.

Statement II: XeF6 molecule does not follow octet rule.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

11) Predict the correct order of repulsion among the following :-

(1) lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
(2) lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
(3) bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
(4) lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair

12) Which of the following has pyramidal shape?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Match the interhalogen compounds of Column-I with the shape in Column-II and assign the
correct code.

Column-I Column-II

(a) XX' (i) T-shape

(b) XX'3 (ii) Pentagonal bipyramidal

(c) XX'5 (iii) Linear

(d) XX'7 (iv) Square-pyramidal

(v) Tetrahedral
Code :
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)

 (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Which combination(s) given below is incorrect

(1) angular
(2) SF4 – see saw
(3) Square planar
(4) Pentagonal bipyramidal

15) Which molecule has equal number of bonds and lone pairs

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) A bonded molecule is T–shaped. The number of lone pair electrons on central atom is

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) Can be predicted only if atomic number of M is known

17) Correct representation of PF2Cl3 is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

18) Total number of lone pairs present in XeF2 molecule :

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 18

19) The molecules having smallest bond angle is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) The correct order of decreasing bond energy is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) Which of the following has the shortest bond length?

(1) H– Cl
(2) H – F
(3) H – Br
(4) H – I

22) The lowest O–O bond length among the following molecules is in

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

23) Arrange the following in order of dissociation energy

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) In which of the following molecules all the bonds lenghts are not equal ?

(1) BCl3
(2) PCl5
(3) BeCl2
(4) CCl4

25) Decreasing order of bond angle :-

(1) CO2 > CH4 > BF3

(2) BF3 > CH4 > CO2
(3) CO2 > BF3 > CH4
(4) CO2 > BF3 = CH4

26) Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are :-

(1) The same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs respectively on central atom
(2) The same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs respectively on central atom
(3) Different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs respectively on central atom
(4) Different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs respectively on central atom

27) Which of the following molecule does not possess a permanent dipole moment:

(1) H2S
(2)
(3)
(4) CS2

28) Assertion : CO2 molecule is non-polar while SO2 is polar.

Reason :

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

29) The electronegativity difference between N and F is greater than that between N and H yet the
dipole moment of NH3 (1.5 D) is larger than that of NF3 (0.2 D). This is because

(1) In NH3 as well as in NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction
In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the same direction whereas in NF3 these are in
(2)
opposite directions
(3) In NH3 as well as NF3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in opposite directions
 In NH3 the atomic dipole and bond dipole are in the opposite directions whereas in NF3 these
(4)
are in the same directions

30) Which of the following molecules are non-polar?

(1) (i), (ii), (iii)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv)
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv)

31) Statement I: CC 4 is a non-polar molecule.

Statement II: CC 4 has polar bonds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

32) Stability of the species increases in the order of

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) The bond order of NO is 2.5 while that in is 3. The true statement for the two species is

(1) Bond length in is equal to that of NO

(2) Bond length in NO is greater to that of
(3) Bond length in NO+ is greater to that of NO
(4) Bond length is unpredictable

34) Total number of antibonding electrons present in O2 will be .

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2

35) Match the species in Column-I with the bond order in Column-II.

Column-I Column-II
 (i) NO (P) 1.5

(ii) CO (Q) 2.0

(iii) (R) 2.5

(iv) O2 (S) 3.0

(1) i - R; ii - S; iii - Q, iv - P
(2) i - P; ii - Q; iii - R, iv - S
(3) i - R; ii - S; iii - P, iv - Q
(4) i - S; ii - R; iii - Q, iv - P

36) Which of the following pair consists of only paramagnetic species?

+
(1) H2, O2
(2) N2, O2
(3) CO, N2
+ –
(4) H2 , O2

37) Which of the following has bond order of 1.75?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) Intramolecular H-bonding is shown by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) & (3)

39) Strongest hydrogen bond is shown by:

(1) Water
(2) Ammonia
(3) Hydrogen fluoride
(4) Hydrogen sulphide

40) Correct order of volatility is:

(1) HF > HC > HBr > HI
(2) HC > HBr > HI > HF
(3) HI > HBr > HC > HF
(4) HBr < HC < HI < HF

41) Which of the following is correct order of covalent character :-

(1) SiCl4 > AlCl3 > CaCl2 > MgCl2

(2) SiCl4 > CaCl2 > AlCl3 > MgCl2
(3) AlCl3 > SiCl4 > MgCl2 > CaCl2
(4) SiCl4 > AlCl3 > MgCl2 > CaCl2

42) Correct order of Lattice energy :-

(1) NaCl < MgCl2 < AlCl3

(2) AlCl3 < MgCl2 < NaCl
(3) NaCl < AlCl3 < MgCl2
(4) AlCl3 < NaCl < MgCl2

43) Among the following second group (IIA) carbonates, which of the following carbonate has
highest solubility:-

(1) BeCO3
(2) MgCO3
(3) CaCO3
(4) SrCO3

44) Which of the following option is/are true ?

(1) Ionic bonds have non-directional nature

(2) Ionic compounds do not show conductivity in solid state
(3) Generally, ionic compounds have high melting points
(4) All are true

45) Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic
configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, the simplest formula for this compound is :-

(1) Mg2X3
(2) MgX2
(3) Mg2X
(4) Mg3X2

BOTANY
1) Identify shape of bacteria

(1) a - cocci, b - rod - shaped, c - bacilli, d - comma - shaped

(2) a - spherical coccus, B - Bacilli, c - spirilla, d - vibrio
(3) a - cocci, b - spirilla, c - vibrio, d - Bacilli
(4) a - vibrio, b - spirilla, c - bacilli, d - coccus

2) Match the Column-I & Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(i) Halophiles (a) Marshy area

(ii) Thermoacidophiles (b) Salty area

(iii) Methanogens (c) Hot springs

(1) (i) – c, (ii) – b, (iii) – a
(2) (i) – c, (ii) – a, (iii) – b
(3) (i) – b, (ii) – c, (iii) – a
(4) (i) – b, (ii) – a, (iii) – c

3) Label (A), (B) and identify organism (C)

A - Heterocyst, B - Mucilagenous sheath,

(1)
C - Nostoc, an archaebacteria
A - Heterocyst, B - Mucilagenous sheath,
(2)
C - Euglena
A - Mucilagenous, B - Heterocyst,
(3)
C - Nostoc
 A - Heterocyst, B - Mucilagenous sheath,
(4)
C - Nostoc, a filamentous BGA

4) Assertion (A):- Chlamydomonas and chlorella were classified under protista according to
Whittaker
Reason (R):- all the unicellular organisms were classified into Protista by him

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

5) Dinoflagellates have :

(1) A single flagellum in the transverse groove between the cell plates
(2) A single flagellum in the longitudinal groove between the cell plates
Two flagella, one lies longitudinally, and the other transversely in a furrow between the wall
(3)
plates
(4) No flagella

6) Which of the following releases toxins that may even kill other marine animals like fishes ?

(1) Gonyaulax
(2) Diatoms
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Desmids

7) Which of the following statements about Euglena is true?

(1) Euglenoids are flagellates

(2) Euglena placed in continuous darkness loses their photosynthetic activity and die
(3) The pigments of Euglena are quite different from those of green plants
(4) Euglena is a marine protist

8) Which of the following is correct about the slime mould?

I. The body of the slime moulds moves along decaying twigs and leaves to engulf organic material
II. During unfavourable conditions plasmodium differentiates and produces fruiting
bodies, sporangium
III. Spores possess no true cell wall.
IV. Spores are dispersed by air current.
V. Being extremely resistant, spores survive for many years
VI. Plasmodium is formed during favourable conditions

(1) I, II, IV, V, VI

(2) I, II, III
(3) I, II, III, VI
(4) II, III, VI
9) Which of the following is considered to be primitive relatives of animals ?

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Slime moulds
(3) Protozoa
(4) Protochordata

10) Who of the following 1st attempted in a scientific mode of classifying organisms?

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Aristotle
(3) Theophrastus
(4) Eichler

11) The limitations of 2 kingdom classification are

(a) Did not distinguish between Plants & Animals
(b) Did not distinguish between Prokaryotes & Eurkaryotes
(c) Did not differentiate between Unicellular & Multicellular organisms
(d) Did not distinguish between Photosynthesis & Non-photosynthesis organisms

(1) (a), (b) & (c)

(2) (a), (b), (c) & (d)
(3) (b), (c) & (d)
(4) (a), (b) & (d)

12) Modern classification systems have undergone a lot of changes over a period of time and are
considering how many of the following characteristics?
(a) Gross morphology
(b) Cell structure
(c) Nature of wall
(d) Mode of nutrition
(e) Methods of reproduction
(f) Habitat
(g) Evolutionary relationships

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Which of the following characteristics are not used (or) not considered by Whittaker for his 5
kingdom classification as a criteria?

(1) Thallus organisation

(2) Mode of Nutrition & Reproduction
(3) Habitat
(4) Phylogenetic relationships and cell structure
14) "The changes in the classification of organisms in the Modern classification is due to the
improvement in understanding characteristics and phylogeny". Here what does phylogeny means?

(1) Physiology of organisms

(2) Morphology of organisms
(3) Evolutionary relationships of organisms
(4) Reproductive similarities between organisms

15) Which of the following micro organisms show the most extensive metabolic diversity?

(1) Virus
(2) Bacteria
(3) Fungi
(4) Protozoa

16) Which of the following structure is an added advantage of Archaebacteria for surviving in
extreme conditions

(1) Cell wall of peptidoglycan

(2) Cell wall of complex polysaccharides
(3) A tough cell membrane
(4) Both (1) & (2)

17) Colonies surrounded by gelatinous sheath & colonies forming water blooms in polluted water are
the characteristic features of which of the following?

(1) Euglena
(2) Slime moulds
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Archaebacteria

18) All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Bacteria

19) The five kingdom classification was proposed by

(1) R.H. Whittaker

(2) C. Linnaeus
(3) A. Roxberg
(4) Rudolf Virchow

20) Naked cytoplasm, multinucleated and saprophytic are the characteristics of

(1) Bacteria
(2) Desmids
(3) Diatoms
(4) Slime molds

21) The prebiotic atmosphere of the earth was of a reducing nature. It was transformed into an
oxidising atmosphere of present day due to the emergence of

(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Photosynthetic higher plants
(4) Eukaryotic Algae

22) Which of the following statements is not true for Nostoc?

(1) It is unicellular prokaryotic

(2) It is a oxygenic photosynthetic autotroph
(3) It is not filamentous
(4) It is a colonial marine/terrestrial algae

23) The system of classification of plants proposed by these two botanists is claimed to be a natural
system?

(1) Linnaeus & Aristotle

(2) Bentham & Hooker
(3) Aristotle & Theophrastus
(4) Darwin & Linnaeus

24) Heterotrophic bacteria are abundant in the nature and most of them are

(1) Symbiotic
(2) Chemo autotrophs
(3) Parasitic
(4) Decomposers

25) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus and Citrus canker are the diseases caused by

(1) Protozoa
(2) Euglena
(3) Eubacteria
(4) Virus

26) Cell fusion type of reproduction was first observed in

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Mycota (Fungi)
(4) Virus

27) Which of the following are the characteristics of Protista

(1) Aquatic autotrophs

(2) Decomposing heterotrophs
(3) Heterotrophic predators
(4) All the above

28) Usage in polishing, filtration of oils and syrups are the economical contributions of

(1) Diatoms
(2) Desmids
(3) Gonyaulax
(4) Nostoc

29) Which of the following satisfies the reason behind the formation of Diatomaceous earth by
Diatoms

(1) Silica presence in their cell wall

(2) Thin overlapping shells of cell wall
(3) Large deposits of indestructible cell wall are left behind
(4) Both (1) & (3)

30) Production of the methane (Biogas) from cellulose is due to

(1) Anaerobic oxidisation by bacteria

(2) Presence of methanogens in the gut of cows
(3) Fermentation by bacteria
(4) More than one option is correct

31) Marine, mostly photosynthetic, colouration pigments, cellulosic plate are the characteristic
features of

(1) Diatoms
(2) Desmids
(3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Euglenoids

32) Red tide mechanism in sea is due to

(1) Rapid multiplication of red dino Flagellates

(2) Neurotoxin released by red dino Flagellates
(3) Colour released by red dino Flagellates
(4) Blood of fishes killed by red dino Flagellates
33) Stagnant fresh water habitat, protein rich flexible layer are the characteristic features of

(1) Slime moulds

(2) Desmids
(3) Euglenoids
(4) Dinoflagellates

34) Which of the following statements are not true about Euglenoids

(1) They are heterotrophs when deprived of sunlight

(2) The pigments of Euglenoids are identical with that of higher plants
(3) They have one longer flagella and one shorter flagella
(4) They are unicellular prokaryotes

35) Match the following:

(1) a-Q-ii, b-P-iv, c-P-i, d-Q-iv

(2) a-P-ii, b-Q-ii, c-Q-i, d-P-iii
(3) a-Q-iv, b-P-ii, c-P-ii, d-Q-iii
(4) a-P-iv, b-P-i, c-ii, d-Q-iii

36) Ganesh got fever and is diagnosed with Malaria. Which of the following statements are relevant
to the above inference
(a) Certain sporozoans cause diseases
(b) A parasite called Plasmodium is responsible for the above disease
(c) It's a protozoan carried by cockroaches during their life cycle
(d) There is a spore stage of life cycle during malarial parasite infection.

(1) a, b, c & d are relevant

(2) Only a & b are relevant
(3) a, b & d are relevant
(4) Only a, b & c are relevant

37) The cyanobacteria Anabena combines with which of the following as a part of symbiotic
relationship and produces an extraordinary Bio-fertilizer ?
(1) Azolla
(2) Gingko
(3) Ephedrine
(4) Pinus

38)

Which of the following statements is/ are incorrect regarding bacteria ?

Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise various organic substances like nitrates to

(1)
synthesise their ATP
(2) Bacteria have a significant impact on human life by helping in making curd and antibiotics
(3) Parasitic ones cause diseases in both humans and crop plants
(4) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission type of division

39) Which of the following is a highly resistant spore formed by Bacillus bacteria ?

(1) Zoospore
(2) Endospore
(3) Exospore
(4) Plasmodium

40) Which of the following is analogous to Lysosome of eukaryotes?

(1) Peri-plasmic space

(2) Mesosomes
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Vacuole

41) Match the following

(a) Clostridium (i) Facultative parasite

(b) Staphylococcus (ii) Obligate saprophyte

(c) Mycobacterium (iii) Obligate parasite

(d) Tuberculosis (iv) Faultative saprophyte

(1) (a - i) (b - iv) (c - iii) (d - ii)
(2) (a - ii) (b - iv) (c - iii) (d - i)
(3) (a - iii) (b - iv) (c - ii) (d - i)
(4) (a - iv) (b - iii) (c -ii) (d - i)

42) Assertion (A) : The kingdom Protista doesn’t have well defined boundaries.
Reason (R) : All protists are of various types like autotrophic, saprophytic, parasitic.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

43) Assertion (A) : Some of the parasitic bacteria do rely on dead and decaying organic matter in
the absence of a living host.
Reason (R) : Few bacteria can behave like a Facultative saprophyte.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

44) Assertion (A) : Prokaryotes don’t have membrane bound organelles.

Reason (R) : Prokaryotes are unicellular organisms.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

45) Assertion (A) : Only Bacteria have Flagella as a locomotory organelle.

Reason (R) : All protozoans have Cilia.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

ZOOLOGY

1) Match the following with respect to the average composition of cells.

% of the total
Component
cellular mass

a. Proteins (i) 5-7

b. Carbohydrates (ii) 3

c. Lipids (iii) 10-15

d. Nucleic acids (iv) 2

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

2) Which element is present in very less amount in Earth crust?

(1) Si
(2) O
(3) N
(4) Mg

3) All the elements present in a sample of earth's crust are also present in a sample of living tissue.
Which of the following are present in low percentage in earth crust but much higher percentage in
living tissue?

(1) C, H and Ca
(2) C, H and Si
(3) C, Na and O
(4) C, H and N

4) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column
Column II Column III
I

Acid insoluble Biomacro

(i) Protein
fraction molecule

Nucleic Acid insoluble Biomacro

(ii)
acid fraction molecule

Acid insoluble Biomacro

(iii) Lipids
fraction molecule
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

5) A non proteinaceous enzyme among the following is

(1) Ligase
(2) Dehydrogenase
(3) Ribozyme
(4) Isomerase

6) The activity of an enzyme can be affected by

(a) High pH
(b) High temperature
(c) Presence of inhibitor
(d) Concentration of substrate

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

7) Which of the following biomolecules is not found in acid-soluble pool of cells?

(1) Lipids
(2) Nucleotides
(3) Amino acids
(4) Monosacchrides

8) To analyse the chemical composition of living tissue we solubilize them in

(1) HNO3
(2) HCl
(3) CF3COOH
(4) C 3CCOOH

9) Identify the correct match from the following table :

Column-I Column-II

(i) Alkaloid Abrin Ricin

(ii) Drug Vinblastin Curcumin

(iii) Toxins Codeine Cellulose

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) only
(3) (i) and (ii)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

10) Which of the following is not a primary metabolite ?

(1) Nucleic acid

(2) Carbohydrate
(3) Cellulose
(4) Protein

11) The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which
one of the four options (1-4) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are identified

correctly?
 A B C D

Activation
Activation
Transition energy
1. Potential energy energy with
state without
Enzymes
enzymes

Activation Activation
Potential
2. Transition state energy without energy
energy
enzymes with Enzymes

Activation
Activation
Transition energy
3. Potential energy energy
state without
without enzyme
enzymes

Activation
Activation
Transition energy
4. energy Potential energy
state without
with Enzymes
enzymes
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12)

Cellulose, the most important constituent of plant cell wall is made up of:-

(1) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(2) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 6 glycosidic bond
Branched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond in straight chain and 1, 6
(3)
glycosidic bond at the site of branching
(4) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked by 1, 4 glycosidic bond

13) Identify the sugars A and B :

(1) A = Glucose, B = Deoxyribose

(2) A = Glucose, B = Ribose
(3) A = Pentose, B = Hexose
(4) A = Non-reducing sugar, B = Ribose

14) Choose the odd one w.r.t. aromatic amino acids

(1) Phenylalanine
(2) Tyrosine
(3) Threonine
(4) Tryptophan

15) Which of the following is not homopolysaccharide?

(1) Cellulose
(2) Inulin
(3) Starch
(4) Hyaluronic acid

16) Which of the following diasaccharide gives two molecules of glucose on hydrolysis?

(1) Maltose
(2) Lactose
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Sucrose

17) Which of the following statements is not correct regarding chitin?

(1) It is a storage polysaccharide.

(2) It is a homopolysaccharide
(3) It is constituent of arthropod's exoskeleton and fungal cell wall
(4) Made up of N-acetyl glucosamine

18) How many carbon atoms are generally used in composition of monosaccharides?

(1) 3 to 7
(2) 1 to 5
(3) 5 to 10
(4) 5 to 15

19) ___A___ is the most abundant protein in animal world while ____B____ is the most abundant
protein in the whole of the biosphere.
Fill in the blanks A and B respectively.

(1) RuBisCO, Collagen

(2) Collagen, RuBisCO
(3) Cellulose, Glucose
(4) Glucose, Cellulose

20) The given reaction can be carried out by

(1) Hydrolases
(2) Lyases
(3) Ligases
(4) Isomerases

21) Assertion : A protein is a heteropolymer

Reason : It is made of different types of amino acids

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

22) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching:-

(1) a–Primary structure, b–Secondary structure

(2) a–Secondary structure, b–Primary structure
(3) a–Secondary structure, b–Tertiary structure
(4) a–Tertiary structure, b–Quaternary structure

23) Statement-I : The positional information in a protein-which is the first amino acid, which is
second, and so on is called the secondary structure of a protein.
Statement-II : Tertiary structure is absolutely necessary for the many biological activities of
proteins.

(1) Statement-I is false and statement-II is true

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true
(4) Statement-I is true and statement-II is false

24) Three of the following statements about enzymes are correct and one is wrong. Which one is
wrong?

(1) Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity

Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms they are
(2)
effective even at temperatures 80°-90°C
(3) Enzymes are highly specific
(4) Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids

25) There are _A_ types of amino acids that forms protein, based on nature of __B__ . What are A and
B respectively.
(1) 18 and Hydroxyl group.
(2) 20 and Carboxyl
(3) 20 and R group
(4) 18 and amine group.

26) Most of the biological activities of protein is due to which configuration?

(1) Primary configuration

(2) Secondary configuration
(3) Tertiary configuration
(4) Quaternary configuration

27) Find out the Zwitterionic form–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) & (2)

28)

Adenine + X —→ Adenosine
Adenosine + Y —→ Adenylic acid
What does X and Y represent here ?

X Y

(1) Phosphate group Sugar molecule

(2) Sugar molecule Phosphate group

(3) Sugar molecule Nitrogenous base

(4) Nitrogenous base Sugar molecule

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) Which one of the following structural formulae of two organic compounds is correctly identified
along with its related function?

(1) B: adenine – a nucleotide that makes up nucleic acids

(2) A: Triglyceride – major source of energy
(3) B: Uracil – a component of DNA
(4) A: Lecithin – a component of cell membrane

30) Assertion(A): Enzymes lower the activation energy of the reactant molecule to make its
transition into product easier.
Reason(R): Enzymes are highly substrate specific.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

31) Which one of the following pairs of nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched with
the category mentioned against it?

(1) Guanine, Adenine - Purines

(2) Adenine, Thymine -Purines
(3) Thymine, Uracil- Pyrimidines
(4) Uracil, Cytosine - Pyrimidines

32) Which of the following is a Nucleoside:-

(1) Adenylic acid

(2) Uridine
(3) Thymidylic acid
(4) Cytosine

33) Archidonic acid contain–

(1) 18C + 1 carbon of —COOH group.

(2) 19 C + 1 carbon of —COOH group
(3) 15 C + 1 carbon of —COOH group.
(4) 16 C + 1 carbon of —COOH group.

34) The molecule given in diagram belongs to which category of biomolecules?

(1) Fatty acids
(2) Phospholipids
(3) Triglycerides
(4) Steroids

35)
In the given graph X axis shows the temperature, whereas Y axis shows enzyme activity.
The reason that the enzyme activity declines when temperature increases beyond a certain point is

(1) Enzyme becomes temporarily inactive

(2) Activation energy decreases
(3) Inhibitor binds to the active site of enzyme
(4) Enzyme gets denatured

36) Assertion (A) : Enzymes are divided into 6 classes.

Reason (R) : Lyases remove groups without hydrolysis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) Which one of the following is not a cofactor?

(1) Coenzyme
(2) Metal ions
(3) Prosthetic group
(4) Apoenzyme

38) Which one out of A - D given below correctly represents the structural formula of the basic
amino acid?

A B C D
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

39) Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate is an example of -

(1) Allosteric modulator

(2) Catalytic activator
(3) Non competitive inhibitor
(4) Competitive inhibitor

40)

Find out the correct match from the following table:-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

POLYMER MONOMER FUNCTION

Component of
(i) Cellulose Fructose
plant cell wall

N-Acetyl Component of
(ii) Chitin
Glucosamine fungal cell wall

Component of
(iii) Starch Glucose
plant cell wall
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) ii only
(4) ii and iii

41) Reducing sugars are those which can reduce Cu+2 ions to Cu+ state. On that basis which of the
following can be considered as a non-reducing sugar?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Glucose
(4) Fructose

42) The steps in catalytic cycle of an enzyme action are given in random order-
I. The enzyme releases the products. Now enzyme is free to bind another substrate
II. The active sites, now in close proximity of substrate breaks the bond of substrate and E-P complex
forms
III. Binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the
substrate
IV. The substrate binds to the active site of enzyme

(1) I, II, III, IV

(2) IV, III, II, I
(3) I, III, II, IV
(4) I, II, IV, III

43) Cholestrol is:

(1) Compound lipid

(2) Glycolipid
(3) Derived lipid
(4) Simple lipid

44) Which is an essential amino acid ?

(1) Methionine
(2) Serine
(3) Valine
(4) Both (1) & (3)

45) Which of the following statements are not true ?

A. Glycerol is a 3-carbon compound with three–OH groups.
B. GLUT-4 enables glucose transport into the cell.
C. Proteins are heteropolymers of nucleotides.
D. Stearic acid is a unsaturated fatty acid while oleic acid is saturated fatty acid.

(1) A & B only

(2) B & C only
(3) C & D only
(4) A & D only
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 1 1 4 1 1 1 4 2 1 1 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 4 4 3 1 1 3 3 3 2 4 3 1 4 1 4 1 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 4 2 3 1 4 1 2 4 3 1 2 1 4 2 2 2 3 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 2 3 4 4 1 2 3 4 2 2 1 3 4 2 4 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 1 4 4

BOTANY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 3 4 3 3 1 1 1 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 2 3 2 1 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 2 4 3 2 4 1 4 4 3 1 3 4 4 3 1 1 2 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 1 1 2 4

ZOOLOGY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 2 3 4 2 3 4 1 4 2 3 2 4 2 3 4 1 1 1 2 2
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 1 3 1 4 3 3 1 2 4 2 2 2 2 3 4 2 4 4 4 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 3 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Answer

2) Answer

3) FL = µS mg
200 = µs × 500
µs = 0.4
fk = µk mg
150 = µk × 500
µk = 0.3

4) Given
so 4 + N = 10
⇒ N = 6 newton
fL = µN = 0.3 × 6
⇒ fL=1.8 N
but Fx = 1 N
So friction is also 1 N (backward) i.e. f = –

5)

By theory

6)
[refer to Q. no. 53]

a = zero.

7) Coefficient of friction is constant for two given surfaces in contact. It does not depend upon
the weight or normal reaction.

8) mgh = mmgS
S = 5m
 ∴ distance From A is 1m

9)

W = (Area)1 – (Area)2

W = × (3 + 1) × 10 – × (2 + 1) × 10
=5J

10)

11)

Answer

12)

Ek =

Ek' = = 1.44 Ek

% change in KE =

= = +44%

13) 1. Question Explanation:

We are given a force acting on a 2 kg mass, causing its velocity to change from 20 m/s to 10
m/s. We need to determine the work done by the force.

2. Concept Based:
The work done by a force can be calculated using the work-energy theorem, which states that
the work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy:

Where:

A. m is the mass of the object,

B. vf is the final velocity,
C. vi is the initial velocity.

3. Formula Used:
4. Calculation:
Given:

A.
B.
C.

Substitute these values into the formula:

Answer:
The work done by the force is:
3. - 300 J.

14)

Answer

15)

Answer

16)

Answer

17)

Answer

18)

Answer

19)

Answer

20)

21) T – (1000)g = (1000) 5

T = 15,000 N

WT = 15,000 × 10
= 1.5 × 105 J

22) Answer

23)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks what kind of work is done by a force when it slows down
or opposes the motion of an object. In simpler terms, it wants to know if the work done by such a
force is zero, positive, negative, or changes depending on certain factors.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involved is the work done by a force in physics. Work is
defined as the product of the force applied on an object, the displacement of the object, and the
cosine of the angle between the force and displacement directions. When a force acts opposite to
the motion (displacement), it is said to retard or oppose the motion, affecting the sign (positive or
negative) of the work done.

Relevant Formulas: The formula used is:

where - is the work done, - is the magnitude of the force, - is the displacement, - is the
angle between the force and displacement vectors.

Step-by-Step Calculation: When the force retards motion, it acts in the opposite direction to
displacement, so . Since ,

.
Because and are positive quantities, is negative, which means the work done is negative.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that when force and displacement are in the same direction, work is
positive; when opposite, work is negative. This can help quickly determine the sign of work without
detailed calculations.

Common Mistakes: One common mistake is assuming work done by any force is always positive
or zero. Another is ignoring the angle between force and displacement when calculating work,
leading to wrong sign determination.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Zero is incorrect because work done is zero only if the force
is perpendicular to displacement ( ) or if either force or displacement is zero. Positive is
incorrect because the force retards the motion, so it doesn't add energy but removes it. 'Positive
and Negative depending upon magnitude' is incorrect because the sign depends on the direction
(angle), not on the magnitude comparison.

24) v = = 8t3
 v0s = 0, v1s = 8 m/s

∴ ΔKE = × 2 × (64 – 0) = 64 J

25) ∴

Now

26)

27)

Answer

28)

29) Explain: A 10 kg block is released from rest on an inclined plane with an angle of 37° and
a coefficient of friction μ = 0.5. We find its velocity after 4 seconds
Concept: Friction inclined planar
Formula: Component of gravity along the incline = mgsinq
Component of gravity perpendicular to the incline = mgcosθ
Normal force N = mgcosθ
Kinetic Friction force fk = μN = μmgcosθ
Net force along the incline Fnet = mgsinθ–f
Acceleration a = = gsinθ – μgcosθ
Velocity after time t v = u + at, where u is the initial velocity.
Calculation:
Acceleration of the block a = gsin(37°) – μgcos(37°)
a = 10 × 0.6 – 0.5 × 10 × 0.8
a = 6 – 4 = 2 m/s2
Velocity after 4 seconds : v = u + at
v = 0 + (2) (4) = 8 m/s
Ans. (3)
Difficulty Level: tough

30)

Answer

31)

Explain : A body moves with a uniform velocity of 2 m/s on a rough level surface. The frictional
force acting on it is 10 N. find the frictional force when the body moves with a velocity of 4
m/s.
Concept : Kinetic friction is independent of the velocity of the body.
Formula : Kinetic Friction: Fk​=μk​N Where Fk​ is the kinetic frictional force, μk​ is the
coefficient of kinetic friction and N is the normal force
Calculation :surface is same and normal force (N) remains constant. Since kinetic friction is
independent of velocity, the frictional force will remain the same.
Ans (3) Difficulty level : easy

32)

Let mass of rop = m

m1g = µm2g ⇒

33)
34)
For block 'A' —→ T – Fr = 10 × 1.2
T – 10 =12
T = 22 N
For Block 'B' —→ 40 – T – Fr = 10 × a
40 – 22 – 10 = 10 a
a = 0.8 ms–2

35) Given: horizontal force, F = 10 N and coefficient of friction between block and wall (μ) =
0.2.
We know that at equilibrium horizontal force provides the normal reaction to the block against
the wall. Therefore, normal reaction to the block (N) = F = 10 N.
We also know that weight of the block
(W) = Frictional force=μN=0.2×10=2 N.

36) at t = 4 sec, f = 40 N
f2 = 0.5 × 100 = 50 N
i.e., friction force f = 40 N

37)

N = mg cos 30° =

f = mg sin 30° = mg

µN = mg

µ=

38) Question explain

We are asked whether friction is a conservative force and if potential energy can be associated
with it, based on the definitions and characteristics of conservative forces.
Concept based
Conservative forces do not dissipate mechanical energy and have path independent work.
Friction always dissipates energy and its work depends on the path taken.
Formula used
For conservative forces:
 Wconservative = –ΔU and Wpath = independent of path
Friction:
Wfriction = – (depends on path)
∴ d = distance or path length

w = – (fk) (2πR)
friction always opposite to the displace so that finite work done in closed loop path.
Calculation
Friction is a non-conservative force → assertion is false.
Potential energy cannot be defined for friction → reason is also false.
Answer: 4 Both Assertion & Reason are False.

39) Ques explanation: To compare the pushing and pulling a roller.

Solution: During pulling the body has a tendency to go up which decreases Normal reaction.
Hence friction force decreases.
But during pushing we apply force on the body from above at some angle which increases
normal reaction. So, friction force increases and it's tougher to push the body than pull.
So, the above statement and reason both are correct and reason is the correct explanation too.
Concept: Motion On Rough Horizontal Plane
Formula: Not required

40)

Answer

42)

Work done by the man = change in potential energy

CMB → center of mass of bucket
CMR → center of mass of rope

= Mg hCMB + mg hCMR

= Mgh + mg

=
Hence option (3)
 43)

Answer

44)
B. Given Data

A. Statement - I : A truck and a car moving with the same kinetic energy are brought to rest
by applying brakes that provide equal retarding forces. Both come to rest in equal distances.

B. Statement -II : A car moving towards the east takes a turn and moves towards the north,
with its speed remaining unchanged. The acceleration of the car is zero.

C. Concept

A. Statement-I: This is based on the work-energy principle. The work done by the braking force
to bring the vehicle to rest is equal to the change in kinetic energy. The relationship between
kinetic energy and mass (KE = 1/2 mv²) plays an important role here. For two objects with
the same kinetic energy, the object with greater mass would require more time or distance
to stop, assuming the same braking force.

B. Statement-II: Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, which is a vector quantity. Even
if speed (the magnitude of velocity) remains constant, a change in direction implies a change
in velocity, which means the object has acceleration. Thus, any change in direction, even
without a change in speed, implies non-zero acceleration.

D. Mathematical Calculation

A. For Statement-I:

A. The work done to bring an object to rest is equal to the change in kinetic energy.

B. Work = Force × Distance, and since KE = 1/2 mv², the larger the mass, the larger the
distance needed to stop the vehicle (given the same retarding force).

C. Therefore, the statement claiming both vehicles come to rest in equal distances is
incorrect.

B. For Statement-II:

A. Acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity. Since the car changes
direction from east to north, its velocity vector changes, meaning there is a non-zero
acceleration, even though the speed is constant.
 B. Therefore, the statement that the acceleration is zero is incorrect.

E. Final Answer

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

Answer: 4 (Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect).

45)

Answer

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

Conceptual.

48)

49)

Conceptual.

51) Concept of hybridization

52)

53)

54)

55) Conceptual.

56)
 lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair

57)

Conceptual.

58)

Conceptual.

59) Conceptual.

60) 2 lone pairs

2 bond pairs

61)

63)
Total no. of L.P. = 9

64) Page no. 65, [Link].2

65)

66)

Explanation:

A. Bond length in diatomic molecules is primarily determined by the atomic size of the
constituent atoms. Smaller atoms form shorter bonds. Down a group in the periodic table,
 atomic size increases.

Concept:

A. The given options are diatomic halogens (Group 17 elements). As we move down Group 17
from Fluorine (F) to Iodine (I), the atomic size increases significantly. This increase in atomic
size leads to a greater distance between the nuclei of the two atoms forming the bond, hence a
longer bond length.
B. Therefore, the order of increasing bond length is: F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2.

Answer : Option 2, (F2).

67)

68) Concept based

69) Explanation:- Not equal bond is asked

Concept:- VSEPR
Solution:- PCl5

2 axial
3 equatorial

70) EXPLANATION:- decreasing order of bond angle among CO₂, CH₄, and BF₃
Concept Used:- BOND ANGLE

SOLUTION:-

Molecule Shape Hybridization Ideal Bond Angle

CO₂ Linear sp 180°
BF₃ Trigonal planar sp² 120°
CH₄ Tetrahedral sp³ 109.5°

So, the decreasing bond angle is simply based on their ideal [Link]₂ (180°)>BF₃
(120°)>CH₄ (109.5°)

Final Answer : Option (3)

72)

Conceptual.

73)
Conceptual.

74)

75) Page no. 70, [Link].3

76) CC 4 does not have permanent dipole moment.

77)

78) As bond order increases, bond length

79) According to M.O.T of 2 O2 ‘6’ antibonding electrons will present

80) Explanation
The bond order of a molecule or ion can be determined using Molecular Orbital Theory
(MOT).
Concept
The bond order (BO) formula is:
BO=(Number of bonding electrons-Number of antibonding electrons)/2
(i) NO (Nitric Oxide)
• Total electrons: 7+8=15

• Molecular orbital configuration:

Bond order = (8-3)/2=5/2==2.5
NO ➔ Bond Order= 2.5 (R)
(ii) CO (Carbon Monoxide)
• Total electrons: 6+8=14
• Molecular orbital configuration (same as N2 because CO is isoelectronic with

• Bond order= (8-2)/2=6/2=3.0

CO ➔ Bond Order = 3.0 (S)
(iii) 02 - (Su peroxide Ion)
• Total electrons: 8+8+1 =17

• Molecular orbital configuration:

• Bond order= (8-5)2=3/2=1.5 ]
-
02 ➔ Bond Order= 1.5 (P)
(iv) 02 (Dioxygen)
• Total electrons: 8+8=168+8=16
 • Molecular orbital configuration:
• Bond order= (8-4)/2=4/2=2.0
02 ➔ Bond Order= 2.0 (Q)
Answer option 3

81)

Conceptual.

82)

83)

Intermolecular H-bonding will present ortho position.

84) Fact

85) Page no. 79, [Link].5

87)

NaCl < MgCl2 < AlCl3

89) Question Explanation: Identify true statement(s)

Concept: This question based on ionic compounds
Solution: All options are true: Ionic bonds are non-directional solids don’t conduct, and ionic
compounds generally have hight melting points.
Final Answer: (4)

90)

Mg3X2

BOTANY

91) NCERT Page No.12

92) NCERT Page No.13

93) NCERT Page No.13

94)

NCERT Page No. 12

95) NCERT Page No. 15

96) NCERT Page No. 15

97) NCERT Page No. 15

98) NCERT Page No. 15

99) NCERT Page No. 15

100) NCERT Page no. 10

101) NCERT Page no. 10

102) NCERT Page no. 10

103) NCERT Page no. 11

104) NCERT Page no. 11

105) NCERT Page no. 13

106) NCERT Page no. 13

107) NCERT Page no. 13

108) NCERT Page no. 14

109) NCERT Page no. 11

110) NCERT Page no. 15

111) NCERT Page no. 13

112) NCERT Page no. 13

113) Allen module

114) NCERT Page no. 13

115) NCERT Page no. 14

116) NCERT Page no. 14

117) NCERT Page no. 14

118) NCERT Page no. 14

119) NCERT Page no. 14

120) NCERT Page no. 13

121) NCERT Page no. 15

122) NCERT Page no. 15

123) NCERT Page no. 15

124) NCERT Page no. 15

125) Allen module theory application

126) NCERT & module application

127) AIIMS - PYQ

128)

NCERT Page No. 13 & 14

129) NCERT P-12. diagram

 130) Allen module - structure of a Prokaryotic cell / Eubacteria.

131) Allen module

132) NCERT Page no. 14

133) Allen module

134) Allen module

135) Allen module

ZOOLOGY

136)

Biomolecules → Percentage in Cell

(a) Proteins (iii) 10-15%
(b) Carbohydrates (ii) 3%
(c) Lipids (iv) 2%
(d) Nucleic acids (i) 5-7%

137) NCERT, Page No. 105

138) Carbon (C), Hydrogen (H), and Nitrogen (N) are relatively scarce in the Earth's crust but
are present in much higher percentages in living tissues, as they are essential components of
biomolecules like proteins, nucleic acids, and carbohydrates.

139)

→ Protein → Acid insoluble fraction → Biomacromolecule

→ Nucleic Acid → Acid insoluble fraction → Biomacromolecule

140) Ribozyme

141)

Conceptual

142)

Lipids are large biomolecules that do not dissolve well in acids and are found in the acid-
insoluble fraction, whereas nucleotides, amino acids, and monosaccharides are small
molecules present in the acid-soluble pool.

143)

C 3CCOOH

144)

NCERT Page No.146

145)

Cellulose

146)

Conceptual

147)

→ Cellulose → chain structure

→ polymer of glucose
→ α-1, 4-Glycosidic bond

148) NCERT Pg. # 145

149) Threonine

150) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 148, Para-2, Line-4,5,6,7,8,9

151)

Maltose: Upon hydrolysis, maltose yields two glucose molecules.

152)

Statement 1: It is a storage polysaccharide. This is incorrect. Chitin is a structural

polysaccharide, not a storage polysaccharide. Storage polysaccharides like starch and
glycogen store energy.

153)

Conceptual
154) NCERT Pg # 148

155)

Conceptual

156) NCERT Page no 149

157) (a) shows a coil, representing an alpha-helix, which is a secondary structure of proteins.
(b) shows a complex, folded 3D shape of a single chain, representing tertiary structure.
So, a–Secondary structure, b–Tertiary structure

158) - Secondary structure is zig-zag not based on amino acid position incorrect.
- Tertiary structure → Necessary for many biological activities of protein.

159)

Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids

160) NCERT Pg. No.143 - 144

161) NCERT Pg.# 150

162)

Conceptual

163)

Adenine + Sugar → Adenosine

Here, adenine (a nitrogenous base) combines with a sugar molecule (ribose or deoxyribose) to
form a nucleoside (Adenosine).
So, X = sugar molecule
Adenosine + Phosphate → Adenylic acid (AMP - Adenosine Monophosphate)
When a phosphate group is added to adenosine, it forms a nucleotide called adenylic acid
(AMP)
So, Y = phosphate group
Thus, X = sugar molecule & Y = Phosphate group,

164)

A: Lecithin – a component of cell membrane

165)
Conceptual

166)

Adenine is a purine, but Thymine is a pyrimidine so, the pair is wrongly matched as both are
not purines.

167)

Uridine

168)

19 C + 1 carbon of —COOH group

169)

Triglycerides

170)

Enzyme gets denatured

171) NCERT Page No. # 158

172)

Apoenzyme

173)

Conceptual

174) NCERT -XI, Pg. # 117-118

175)

Conceptual

176)

→ Sucrose → do not convert Cu+2 into Cu+

→ Glucose + fructose
→ Both functional groups used in bonding.
 177)

Conceptual

178)

Derived lipid

179)

A. Both methionine and valine are essential amino acids.

B. Essential amino acids are those that the body cannot synthesize and must be obtained from
the diet.

180)

Factual