CHEMISTRY

DAILY PRACTICE QUESTIONS

JW - 2027
Class (XI)
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 CONTENTS
1. Some basic concepts of chemistry-------------------------------------------------------------------------- 5

2. Structure of atom--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 23

3. Classification of elements and periodicity in properties------------------------------------- 42

4. Chemical bonding and molecular structure---------------------------------------------------------- 57

5. Thermodynamics and chemical energetics----------------------------------------------------------- 71

6. Chemical and ionic equilibrium------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 89

7. Redox reactions----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------111

8. The p-Block elements (XI) ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------124

9. Organic chemistry-Some basic principles part-I (Nomenclature)----------------------134

10. Organic chemistry-Some basic principles part-I (Reaction mechanism)-----------151

11. Organic chemistry-Some basic principles part-I (Purification)--------------------------172

12. Hydrocarbons--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------187

13. Hydrogen---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------207

14. States of matter---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------217

15. The s-Block elements -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------230

16. Environmental chemistry-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------241

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 Chapter
SOME BASIC CONCEPTS OF
01 CHEMISTRY

QUESTIONS 3. Given below are two statements:

LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION Statement - I : For a reaction between

10L H2(g) and 10 L O2(g),
1. “If a chemical reaction takes place in a
sealed vessel, that permits no matter to only 10 L of liquid water is
enter or escape, the mass of the vessel obtained, under the same
and its contents after the reaction will be conditions of pressure
identical to its earlier mass”. This statement
is related to and temperature.

Statement - II : When gases combine or

A) Law of conservation of mass
are produced in a chemical
reaction they do so in a
B) Law of definite proportions
simple ratio by volume
as their stoichiometric
C) Law of multiple proportions
coefficients, provided all
gases are present under
D) Avogadros law
the same conditions
of pressure and
2. The formation of PbO, PbO2 and Pb3O4,
temperature.
reveals that the masses of oxygen combined
with 1 g of Pb is a simple whole number
ratio. This illustrates In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
A) Law of conservation of mass options given below :

A) Statement - I and II both are correct

B) Law of definite proportions

B) Statement - is correct while II is incorrect

C) Law of constant proportions
C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect
D) Law of multiple proportions
D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is correct

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

4. Given below are two statements, 7. 1 amu is equal to

one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other is labelled as A) 12 g
Reason (R)
B) 1.66056 × 10-24 kg
Assertion (A) : Hydrogen combines
C) 1.66056 × 10-24 g
with oxygen to form two
compounds namely, D) 1.66056 × 10-24 amu
water and hydrogen
peroxide. 8. One dozen apple = 12 apple

Reason (R) : Formation of H2O and One pair pen = 2 pen

H2O2 is in accordance
with law of multiple So one mole of wheat grains is equal to
proportion.
A) 6.022 × 1023 wheat grains
In the light of the above statements, choose
B) 1.66056 × 1023 wheat grains
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below : C) 1.66056 × 10-23 wheat grains
A) If (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is D) cannot predicted
the correct explanation of (A)
9. The molecular mass of x is 28. x cannot be
B) If (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A) A) CO B) N2

C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect C) C2H4 D) O2

D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect 10. Mass of one molecule of water is
18
g . The mass of one mole of
5. What mass of silver nitrate is required 6.022 ×1023
to react with 5.85 g of sodium chloride to
produce 14.35 g of silver chloride and 8.5 g
water is
of sodium nitrate?
A) 18 amu
A) 10.7 g B) 17.0 g
B) 18 g
C) 23.0 g D) 45 g
C) 1.8 amu
ATOMIC MASS, MOLECULAR MASS,
MOLAR MASS AND NUMBER OF MOLES D) 1.8 g

11. Volume of 17 g of NH3 at NTP will be

6. Which of the following is the standard for
atomic mass ? A) 2.24 L
1 12
A) 1 H B) 6 C B) 22.4 L

C) 4.48 L
16 14
C) 8 O D) 7 N
D) 44.8 L

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

12. Which of the following has more number of 16. The number of moles of electrons which
atoms ? weigh one kg is
A) 6.02 × 1023
A) 1 mole of neon gas
1
B) ×1023
B) 1 mole of oxygen gas 9.108

C) 1 mole of ozone
6.02 ×1054
C)
D) 1 mole of carbon monoxide 9.108

13. 20 L of H2 gas at STP weigh about

108
D)
9.108 × 6.02
A) 44.8 g
17. Number of moles of urea (NH2CONH2) in 6
B) 12.2 g g of urea is same as
A) no of moles of glucose in 6 g of glucose
C) 1.8 g
(C6H12O6)

D) 20 g B)no of moles of acetic acid in 6 g of acetic

acid (CH3COOH)
14. Gram atomic mass of silicon is 28 g. How C)no of moles of sucrose in 6 g of sucrose
many silicon atoms are there in 1.00 g of (C12H22O11)
silicon ?
D) All the above
A) 2.14 × 10 atoms
22
18. Number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6
g of Na2CO3 will be
B) 1.75 × 1025 atoms
A) 6.02 × 1022

C) 1 atom B) 12.04 × 1022

C) 1.806 × 1023
D) 0.0356 atoms
D) 31.80 × 1028
15. 1g urea (NH2CONH2), 1 g acetic acid 19. How many moles of Mg3(PO4)2 will contain
(CH3COOH) and 1g of formaldehyde 0.25 mol of oxygen atoms?
(HCHO) will have H-atoms in the ratio.
A) 0.02
A) 2 : 2 : 1
−2
B) 3.125 × 10
B) 1 : 1 : 2 −2
C) 1.25 × 10
C) 1 : 1 : 1
−2
D) 2.5 × 10
D) 1 : 2 : 1

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

25. 7.5 g of a gas occupy 5.6 litres at STP. The

20. The number of atoms present in 1 molecule
gas is
of H2SO4 is

A) 7 NA B) 7 A) NO

C) 98 D) 49 B) N2O
21. The maximum number of molecules is
C) CO
present in

A) 15 L of H2 gas at STP D) CO2

B) 5L of N2 gas at STP 26. A mixture of gases contains H2 and O2 in

the ratio of 1 : 4 (w/w). What is the mole
C) 0.5 g of H2 gas ratio of the two gases in the mixture?
D) 10g of O2 gas
A) 16 : 1
22. 10g of CaCO3 contains
B) 2 : 1
A) 10 moles of CaCO3

B) 0.1 g atom of Ca C) 1 : 4

C) 6 × 1023 atoms of Ca D) 4 : 1

D) 1 mol Ca 27. Given below are two statements:

23. The vapour density of a mixture containing Given below are two statements:
NO2 and N2O4 is 38.3 at 27oC. Calculate
the number of moles of NO2 in100 g mole Statement - I : 1g each of O2 and O3
mixture: NA N
contains and A
32 48
A) 76.6
atoms respectively.
B) 3.348
Statement - II : 1g each of O2 and O3
C) 334.8 contains same number of
molecules.
D) 33.48
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
24. Number of atoms in 558.5 g Fe (atomic
options given below :
mass 55.85) is equal to
A) Statement - I and II both are correct
A) 6.022 × 1022
B) Statement - is correct while II is incorrect
B) half in 8 g He
C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect
C) twice that in 60 g carbon
D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is correct
D) 558.5 × NA

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

30. Gram atomic mass of C is

28. Given below are two statements:
A) 12 u
Statement - I : A molecule of butane,
C4H10 has a molecular 12
mass of 58 amu. B) g
NA
Statement - II : one mole of butane
contains 6.022 ×1023 C) 12 × 1.66056 × 10–24 g
molecules and has a
mass of 58 g. D) 12 g

31. Select the correct option for (NH4)3PO4

In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
A) Ratio of number of oxygen atom to
options given below :
number of hydorgen atom is 1 : 3

A) Statement - I and II both are correct B) Ratio of number of cation to number of

anion is 3 : 1
B) Statement - I is correct while II is incorrect
C) Ratio of number of atoms of nitrogen to
C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect number of atoms of oxygen s 3 : 2

D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is D) Total number of atoms in one mole of

correct (NH4)3PO4 is 20

A) A and B B) A, B and D
29. Given below are two statements:
C) C and D D) B and C
Statement - I : Both 12 g of carbon and
27 g of Aluminium will 32. The sample containing same number
have 6.02 × 1023 atoms. of Na atoms as there are in 5.3 g of
Na2CO3is
Statement - II : Gram atomic mass of an
element contains Avoga- (A) 4g of NaOH
dro’s number of atoms.
(B) 5.85 g of NaCl
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the (C ) 0.25 mol of Na2SO4
options given below :
(D) 5.6g of Na3PO4
A) Statement - I and II both are correct
A) A & C both are correct

B) Statement - is correct while II is incorrect B) B & D both are correct

C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect C) A & B both are correct

D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is correct D) C&D both are correct

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

33. Match the column 37. The number of atoms of oxygen present in
11.2 L of ozone at N.T.P are

Column-I Column-II A) 3.01 × 1022

A) 8g atoms
P) 2 moles of C3H4
of hydrogen B) 6.02 × 1023
B) 6g atoms
Q) 3 moles of CH3COOH
of carbon C) 9.03 × 1023
C) 6g atoms
R) 4 moles of N2H2
of oxygen D) 1.20 × 1024
D) 4g molecules
S) 2 moles of N2O3 STOICHIOMETRY AND LIMITING REAGENT
of nitrogen
MOLE CONCEPT
A) (A)→(P, Q); (B)→(R, S); (C)→ (P, S);
(D)→(P) 38. Air contains nearly 20% oxygen by volume.
The volume of air needed for complete
B) (A)→(P, R); (B)→(P, Q); (C)→(Q, S); (D) combustion of 100 ml of acetylene will be
→ (R)
A) 500 ml
C) (A)→(P, R); (B)→(P, Q); (C)→(Q, S); (D)
→ (S) B) 100 ml

D) (A)→(R, S); (B)→(P, S); (C)→(Q, R); C) 250 ml

(D)→(Q)
D) 1250 ml
34. The number of water molecules present in
a drop of water weighing 0.018 g is 39. 1.44 gram of titanium (Atomic weight = 48)
reacted with excess of O2 and produce ‘x’
A) 6.02 × 1026 B) 6.02 × 1023 gram of non-stoichiometric compound Ti1.44 O.
The value of ‘x’ is:
C) 6.02 × 1020 D) 6.02 × 1019
A) 2 B) 1.77
35. 34.2 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) are dissolved
in 90 g of water in a glass. The number of C) 1.44 D) 2.35
oxygen atoms in the solution are
40. Calculate the mass of calcium oxide
A) 3.66 × 1026 B) 6.6 × 1023 required that reacts with 852 g of P4O10.
C) 3.66 × 1024 D) 6.0 × 1022
A) 2016 g B) 1008 g
36. The total number of electrons present in 3.2
g of methane are : C) 504 g D) 1800 g

A) 2 × 10 × 6.022 × 1022 41. The volume of O2 required at STP for the

complete combustion of 39 g of benzene
B)10 × 6.022 × 1023 (C6H6)

C) 10 × 6.022 × 1022 A) 0.84 L B) 8.4 L

D) 6.022 × 1023 C) 84 L D) 22.4 L

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

42. 20 kg of N2 and 3 kg of H2 are mixed to 47. Given below are two statements:
produce NH3 gas. The amount of NH3
formed is Statement - I : In the reaction

A) 17 kg CH4(g) + 2O2(g)→

B) 23 kg CO2(g) + 2H2O(g). One

mole of CH4(g) reacts
C) 34 kg with two moles of O2(g) to
give one mole of CO2(g)
D) 56 kg
and two moles of H2O(g).
43. If 0.50 mol of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mol Statement - II : 1g of CH4(g) reacts with
of Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles 2g of O2(g) to give 1g of
of Ba3(PO4)2 formed is CO2(g) and 2g of H2O(g).
A) 0.25 B) 0.1 In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
C) 0.40 D) 0.50
options given below :
44. The volume of H2 evolved at STP when 0.9
A) Statement - I and II both are correct
g of Al (molar mass : 27 g mol–1) is dissolved
in excess of dilute H2SO4 is B) Statement I - is correct while II is incorrect
A) 0.58 L B) 1.12 L C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect

C) 2.40 L D) 2.9 L D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is correct

45. 6.0 g sample of CaCO3 reacts with 20 g 48. Given below are two statements:
solution of HCl having 20% by mass of HCl
(density = 1.10 g/mL). Calculate percentage Statement - I :
purity of CaCO3 sample. 4
2A + 3B→C. moles of ‘C’ are produced
3
A) 9.13%
when 3 moles of ‘A’ and 4 moles of ‘B’ are
B) 91.33% mixed.

C) 54.8% Statement - II :
‘A’ is the limiting reagent.
D) 5.48%
In the light of the above statements, choose
46. Amount of water produced by the the most appropriate answer from the
combustion of 16 g of methane is options given below :

A) 34 g A) Statement - I and II both are correct

B) Statement - I is correct while II is incorrect

B) 32 g
C) Both Statement - I and II are incorrect
C) 30 g
D) Statement - I is incorrect and II is correct
D) 36 g

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

49. 50 g CaCO3 is allowed to react with 49 g EMPIRICAL AND MOLECULAR FORMULA

H3PO4 according to the given reaction
52. Caffein has molecular weight of 194. It
3CaCO3 + 2H 3 PO 4 → Ca 3 ( PO 4 )2 + 3H 2 O + 3CO 2 contain 28.9% by mass of nitrogen. Number
of atoms of nitrogen in one molecule of it is
Then pick out the correct option
A) 2
a) 51.67 g of salts is formed
B) 3

b) Amount of unreacted reagent = 32.67 g C) 4

c) Moles of CO2 formed = 0.5 moles D) 5

d) Mass of H2O formed = 27g 53. Cortisone is a molecular substance

containing 21 atoms of carbon per
A) a and c both are correct molecule. The mass percentage of carbon
in cortisone is 69.98%. It’s molar mass is
B) b and d both are incorrect
A) 176.5 gmol–1
C) a, c and d are correct
B) 252.2 gmol–1
D) a and b both are correct
C) 287.6 gmol–1
50. If 1.5 moles of oxygen combines with Al
D) 360.1 gmol–1
to form Al2O3, the mass of Al in g ( Atomic
mass of Al = 27) used in the reaction is
54. Which of the following represents the
formula of a compound which contains 26
A) 2.7
% nitrogen and 74 % oxygen ?
B) 54
A) N2O
C) 40.5
B) NO
D) 81
C) NO2
51. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate
sample decomposes on heating to give D) N2O5
carbondioxide and 8.0 g magnesium oxide.
What will be the percentage purity of 55. A hydrocarbon contains 92.3 % carbon
magnesium carbonate in the sample? by mass. Vapour density with respect to
hydrogen is 13. The molecular formula of
A) 60 hydrocarbon is
B) 84
A) C2H2 B) C3H6
C) 75
C) C2H4 D) C4H8
D) 96

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

56. An oxide of Iodine (I = 127 amu) contain EQUIVALENT MASS

42.3 g of Iodine and 8 g of oxygen. Its
formula could be 61. Equivalent mass of a monovalent atom if its
atomic mass is 35.5 is
A) I2O5 B) I2O3
A) 35.5 amu

C) I2O7 D) I2O B) 17.25 amu

C) 1 amu
57. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives 0.72 g of
water and 3.08 g of CO2 upon combustion.
D) 5.6 amu
The empirical formula of hydrocarbon is
62. If one gram of a metal carbonate gave 0.56g
A) C2H4 B) C3H4 of its oxide on heating, then equivalent
weight of the metal will be
C) C6H5 D) C7H8
A) 30

58. A gaseous hydrocarbon X, was burnt in B) 40

excess of oxygen. 0.112 dm3 sample of X, at
STP gave 0.88g CO2. How many C-atoms C) 25
are there in one molecule of X?
D) 20
A) 1 B) 2
63. 0.126 g of an acid is needed to completely
neutralize 20 mL of 0.1N NaOH solution.
C) 3 D) 4 The equivalent weight of the acid is

59. A gaseous compound of nitrogen and A) 53

hydrogen contains 12.5% (by mass) of
hydrogen. The density of the compound B) 40
relative to hydrogen is 16. The molecular
formula of the compound is: C)45

D) 63
A) NH2 B) N3H
CONCENTRATION TERMS
C) NH3 D) N2H4 64. How many moles of NaCl should be
dissolved in 100 ml of water to get 0.2 M
60. The empirical formula of Sucrose is solution ?

A) CH2O A) 0.2

B) CHO B) 0.02

C) C12H22O11 C) 0.01

D) C(H2O)2 D) 0.1

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

65. A solution is prepared by adding 2 g of a 69. The molality of an H2SO4 solution is 9. The
substance ‘A’ to 18 g of water. Mass percent weight of the solute in 1 kg H2SO4 solution
of solute A will be is:

A) 15 % A) 900.0 g

B) 20 % B) 469 g

C) 10 % C) 882.0 g
D) 25 %
D) 9.0 g
66. A 6.90 M solution of KOH in water has 70. One litre of N/2 HCI solution was heated in
30% by mass of KOH. Calculate density of a beaker. When the volume was reduced
solution. to 600 mL, 9.125 g of HCl was lost out, the
new normality of solution is
A) 1.33 g mL–1
A) ≈ 0.04 B) ≈ 0.8
B) 1.288 g mL–1
C) ≈ 0.4 D) ≈ 0.2
C) 1.66 g mL–1
71. Calculate the concentration of nitric acid in
D) 1.44 g mL–1 moles per litre. The sample has a density,
1.41 g mL–1 and mass percentage 69%
67. A solution contains 4 g NaOH and 16.2 g
of water. The mole fraction of solute and A) 15.44 M B) 11.8 M
solvent respectively are
C) 19 M D) 8 M
A) 0.2, 0.8
72. Common salt obtained from sea-water
B) 0.1, 0.9 contains 95% NaCl by mass. The
approximate number of formula units
C) 0.05, 0.5 present in 10 g salt is:

A) 1021 B) 1022
D) 0.4, 0.6
C) 1023 D) 1024
68. Number of moles of NaOH required for the
complete neutralisation of 50 mL 0.1 M HCl 73. In 1200 g solution, 12 g urea (NH2CONH2)
is is present if density of the solution is 1.2 g/
ml then molarity if the solution is xM . Value
A) 5 × 10-3 mol of X is ?

B) 10-4 mol A) 0.1

C) 5 × 10-4 mol B) 0.2

D) 5 mol C) 0.3

D) 0.4

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

74. Number of gram equivalents present in 0.1 80. 2.45 g of sodium hydroxide (Molar mass =
N 100 mL oxalic acid solution is 40 ) are dissolved in water and the solution
is made to 100 cm3 in a volumetric flask.
A) 10 B) 1 Calculate the molarity of the solution

C) 0.1 D) 0.01 A) 0.612 M

75. A 2.0 g sample of an unknown, monobasic B) 0.5848M

acid was dissolved in water and made upto
100 mL and its 20mL portion required 15
C) 0.432 M
mL of 0.12 M standard NaOH solution to
reach the end point. If molar mass of the
D) 0.333 M
acid is 122, the percentage purity of the
acid sample is
81. Calculate the normality of solution
A) 96 B) 84 containing 31.5 g of hydrated oxalic acid
(H2C2O4.2H2O) in 1250 mL of solution
C) 78 D) 55
A) 0.2N
76. 4L of water is added to 2Lof 6 M HCl. The
molarity of the final solution is B) 0.4N

A) 4M B) 2M C)0.6N

C) 1M D) 0.5M D)1.0 N
77. The moles of sodium chloride in 250 cm3 of
82. How many grams of Na2CO3 should be
0.50 M NaClare :
dissolved to make 100 cm3 of 0.15 M of
A) 0.250 mol B) 2 mol Na2CO3Solution?

C) 0.125 mol D) 1.0 mol A) 1.23g

78. One kilogram of a sea water sample contains B) 1.59g

6 mg of dissolved O2. The concentration of
O2 in the sample in ppm is C)1.71g

A) 0.6 B) 6.0 D)1.98g

C) 60.0 D) 16.0 83. Calculate the volume of 0.015 M HCl

solution required to prepare 250 mL of a
79. The number of Cl- ions in 100 mL of 0.001M 5.25 X 10 -3 M HCl solution
HCl solution is
A) 100 mL
A) 6.022 × 1023
B) 87.5 mL
B) 6.022 × 1020
C) 66.5mL
C) 6.022 × 1019
D) 50 mL
D) 6.022 × 1024

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

84. What is the molality of a solution of 2. How many years it would take to spend
methanol in water in which the mole fraction Avogadro’s number of rupees at the rate 10
of methanol is 0.25? lakhs per second?
A) 1010 years
A) 3.6m
B) 1.8 × 109 years
B)10.1m C) 1.9 × 1010 years

C)14.5m D) 1.9 × 109 years

3. Match the column
D)18.5m
Column-I Column-II
85. 250 mL of 1.5 M solution of sulphuric acid A) Mass of 20 mol
P) 20 NA
is diluted by adding 5L of water. What is the H2SO4
molarity of the diluted solution? B) Number of mol of
Q) 6.02 × 1013
H2O in 540 g
A) 0.0520 C) Number of atoms
R) 30
in 10–10 g H2
B) 0.071 D) Number of atoms
S) 1960 g
in 224L H2 at NTP
C) 0.092
A) (A)→(S), (B)→(R), (C)→(Q), (D) → (P)
D) 0.1890 B) (A)→ (P), (B)→(R), (C)→(S), (D)→(Q)

SAMPLE QUESTIONS C) (A)→(R), (B)→(S), (C)→(P), (D)→(Q)

1. Given below are two statements, D) (A)→(P), (B)→(R), (C)→(Q), (D)→(S)
one is labelled as Assertion
4. 80 g of oxygen contain as many atoms as in
(A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R) A) 10 g of Hydrogen
Assertion (A) : The average mass of C
atom is 12.011 amu. B) 5 g of Hydrogen
Reason (R) : Three isotopes C, C
12 13

and 14C of C are found C) 800 g of Hydrogen

in nature, with different
percentage of abundance. D)1 g of Hydrogen
In the light of the above statements, choose 5. Suppose the chemists would have chosen
the most appropriate answer from the 1020 as the number of particles in a mole,
options given below : the mass of 1 mole of oxygen gas would be
A) If (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A) A) 5.32 × 10-43 g
B) If (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is
B) 5.32 × 10-3 g
not the correct explanation of (A)
C) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect C) 5.32 × 10-23 g
D) (A) and (R) both are incorrect
D) 5.32 × 103 g

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

6. 2 moles of A and 3 moles of B react to form 13. The total number of atoms of all elements
AB. present in one mole of ammonium
A + B→AB . dichromate is

Identify the limiting reagent in the A) 19 B) 6.023×1023

reaction?
A) A B) B C)114.47×1023 D) 34.32×1023

C) A as well as B D) None 14. Weight percent of hydrogen in ethanol is

7. The compound Na2CO3.x H2O has 50%
H2O by mass. The value of x is A) 52.17

A) 4 B) 5 B) 34.78
C) 6 D) 7
C) 13.04
8. 5 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon reacts with
30 mL of O2. The resultant gas, on cooling is D) 10.87
found to measure 25 mL of which 10 mL are
absorbed by NaOH and the remainder by 15. Mole fraction of NaOH in 10% (w/w)
pyrogallol. Determine molecular formula of aqueous solution is
hydrocarbon. All measurements are made
at constant pressure and temperature. A) 0.952 B) 0.048
A) C2H6 B) C3H8 C) 0.1 D) 0.56
C) C2H4 D) CH4
16. Choose the correct statements
9. Resultant molarity of H+ ion in a mixture of
100 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 and 200 mL of 0.1 A) Weight of a substance is the amount of
H3PO3 is: matter present in it
A) 0.1 B) 0.2 M
B) Mass is the force exerted by gravity on
C) 0.267 M D) 0.133 M an object
10. The molality of x% H2SO4 solution
is equal to 9. The weight of the C) Volume is the amount of space occupied
solvent present in the solution is by a substance
910 g. The value of x is D) Temperatures below 0°C are possible in
A) 90 B) 80.3 Celsius scale, but in Kelvin scale negative
C) 40 D) 47 temperature is not possible
11. The molarity of 98% H2SO4 (d= 1.8g/mL) by E) Precision refers to the closeness of
weight is various measurements for the same
A) 6M B) 18M quantity
C) 10M D) 4M Choose the correct answer from the options
12. A sample of NaNO3 weighing 0.38 g is give below
placed in a 250 mL volumetric flask. The
A) B, C and D only
flask is then filled with water to the mark
on the neck. What is the molarity of the B) A, B and C only
solution?
A) 0.008M B) 0.081M C) C, D and E only
C) 0.018M D) 0.08M D) A, D and E only

17
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

17. Concentrated nitric acid is labelled as 75% 22. The number of moles of methane required
by mass. The volume in mL of the solution to produce 11g CO2(g) after complete
which contains 30g of nitric acid is ......... combustion is [Given molar mass of
(Given density of nitric acid solution is 1.25 methane in g mol–1 : 16]
g/mL)
A) 0.35 B) 0.25
A) 32 B) 40
C) 0.5 D) 0.75
C) 55 D) 45 23. An organic compound has 42.1% carbon,
6.4% hydrogen and remainder is oxygen.
18. The elemental composition of a compound If its molecular weight is 342, then its
is 54.2%C, 9.2%H and 36.6% O. If the molecular formula is
mola mass of the compound is 132g mol–1,
the molecular formula of the compound is A) C14H20O10
[Given: The relative atomic mass of C : H :
B) C12H22O11
O = 12 : 1 : 16]
C) C12H20O12
A) C4H8O2 B) C6H12O6
D) C11H18O12
C) C4H9O3 D) C6H12O3
24. The molarity (M) of an aqueous solution
19. 2.8 × 10 mol of CO2 is left after removing
–3 containing 5.85 g of NaCl in 500 mL water
1021 molecules from its ‘–’ mg sample. The is: [Given molar mass Na : 23 and Cl : 35.5
mass of CO2 taken initially is [given : NA = gmol–1]
6.02 × 1023 mol–1] A) 20 B) 4
A) 98.3 mg C) 2 D) 0.2
B) 196.2 mg
25. If a substance ‘A’ dissolves in solution of a
C) 150.4 mg mixture of ‘B’ and ‘C’ with their respective
number of moles as nA, nB and nC. Mole
D) 48.2 mg fraction of C in the solution is
20. Combustion of glucose (C6H12O6) produces nC nB
CO2 and water. The amount of oxygen (in A) B)
g) required for the complete combustion of nA × nB × nC nA + nB
900 g of glucose is [Molar mass of glucose
in g mol–1 = 180]
nC nC
C) D)
A) 32 B) 480 nA + nB + nC nA − nB − nC
C) 800 D) 960
26. The quantity which changes with
21. The density of ‘x’ M solution (‘x’ molar) of temperature is
NaOH is 1.12 g mL–1, while in molality, the
concentration of the solution is 3m (3 molal). A) Molality
Then x is [Given : Molar mass of NaOH is
40 g/mol] B) Molarity

A) 3.8 B) 3.0 C) Mole fraction

C) 3.5 D) 2.8 D) Mass percentage

18
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

27. A metal chloride contains 55.0% of chlorine 32. The average molar mass of chlorine is 35.5
by weight. 100 mL vapours of the metal g mol–1. The ratio of 35Cl to 37Cl in naturally
chloride at STP weigh 0.57 g. The molecular occuring chlorine is close to
formula of the metal chloride is [Given :
Atomic mass of chlorine is 35.5 u] A) 1 : 1 B) 2 : 1
A) MCl2 B) MCl4 C) 3 : 1 D) 4 : 1
C) MCl3 D) MCl
33. The minimum amount of O2(g) consumed per
28. An ideal gaseous mixture of ethane (C2H6) gram of reactant is for the reaction: (Given
and ethene (C2H4) occupies 28 litre of 1 atm atomic mass : Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24, P
and 273 K. The mixture reacts completely = 31, C = 12, H = 1)
with 128g O2 to produce CO2 and H2O.
Mole fraction at C2H6 in the mixture is A) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → P4O10(s)
A) 0.6 B) 0.4
B) P4(s) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
C) 0.5 D) 0.8
C) C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) →3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
29. The number of molecules and moles in
2.8375 litres of O2 at STP are respectively D) 2Mg(s) + O2(g) →2MgO(s)
A) 1.505 × 1023 and 0.250 mol 34. Iodobenzene (C6H5I) is prepared from
aniline (C6H5NH2) in a two step process as
B) 7.257 × 1023 and 0.250 mol
shown below.
C) 7.527 × 1023 and 0.125 mol
C6H5NH2+ HNO2+HCl→C6H5N2+Cl–+ 2H2O
D) 7.527 × 1022 and 0.125 mol
C6H5N2 +Cl-+ KI→C6H5I+ N2+ KCl.
30. The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr
required to neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.01 M In an actual preparation 9.30 g of aniline
aqueous Ba(OH)2 is [Assume complete was converted to 16.32 g of iodobenzene.
neutralization) The percentage yield of iodobenzene is:

A) 7.5 mL B) 5.0 mL A) 8%

C) 10.0 mL D) 2.5 mL B) 50%

31. The exact volumes of 1M NaOH solution
C) 75%
required to neutralise 50 mL of 1M H3PO3
solution and 100 mL of 2 M H3PO2 solution,
D) 80%
respectively, are

A) 100 mL and 50 mL 35. A spherical ball of radius 7 cm contains

56% iron. If density is 1.4 g/cm3, number of
B) 100 mL and 200 mL mol of Fe present approximately is:

C) 100 mL and 100 mL A) 10 B) 15

D) 50 mL and 50 mL
C) 20 D) 25

19
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

36. A solution containing 12.0% sodium 39. One commercial system removes SO2
hydroxide by mass has a density of 1.131 g/ emission from smoke at 95oC by the
mL. What volume of this solution contains following set of reactions
5.00 mol of NaOH:
SO 2 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) → SO 2 Cl2 ( g )
A) 0.0240 L
SO 2 Cl2 + 2H 2 O → H 2SO 4 + 2HCl
B) 1.67 L H 2SO 2 + Ca(OH) 2 → CaSO 4 + 2H 2 O

C) 1.47 L Assuming the process to be 95% efficient.

How many moles of CaSO4 may be
D) 1.00 L produced from 128 g SO2.[Ca= 40, S-32,
O-16]
37. A 15 mL sample of 0.20 M MgCl2 is added to
45 mL of 0.40 M AlCl3. What is the molarity A) 1.9 moles B) 2 mol
of Cl– ions in the final solutions:
C) 3.8 mol D) 0.95 mol
A) 1.0 M
40. Calculate percentage change in Mavg of the
B) 0.60 M mixture, if PCl3 undergo 50% decomposition
in a closed vessel.
C) 0.35 M
PCl5→PCl3+ Cl2
D) 0.30 M
A) 50%
38. Monosodium glutamate (MSG) is salt
of one of the most abundant naturally B) 66.66%
occuring non-essential amino acid which
is commonly used in food products like in
C) 33.33%
“MAGGI” having structural formula as

O H O D) Zero

HO C CH2 CH2 C C ONa MORE THAN ONE CORRECT

ANSWER TYPE
NH2

41. 1 mole of H2SO4 will exactly neutralise:

Mass% of Na in MSG is:
A) 2 mole of ammonia
A) 14.8
B) 1 mole of Ba(OH)2
B) 15.1

C) 13.6 C) 0.5 mole of Ca(OH)2

D) 16.5 D) 2 mole of KOH

20
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

42. 12 g of Mg was burnt in a closed vessel 45. Select the incorrect statements for
containing 32 g oxygen. Which of the (NH4)3PO4
following is/are correct

A) 2 gm of Mg will be left unburnt A) Ratio of number of oxygen atoms to

number of hydrogen atoms is 1:3
B) 0.75 gm molecule of O2 will be left
unreacted
B) Ratio of number of cations to number of
C) 20 gm of MgO will be formed anions is 3:1

D) The mixture at the end will weigh 44 g

C) Ratio of number of gm-atoms of nitrogen
43. 50 gm of CaCO3 is allowed to react with to gm-atoms of oxygen is 3:2
68.6 gm of H3PO4 then select the correct
option(s):
D) Total number of atoms in one mole of
3CaCO3 + 2H 3 PO 4 → Ca 3 (PO 4 ) 2 + 3H 2 O + 3CO 2 (NH4)3PO4 is 20

A) 51.67 gm salt is formed

NUMERICAL TYPE
B) Amount of unreacted reagent = 35.93
gm
46. What mass of Na2SO47H2O (in gm) contains
C) n CO2 = 0.5moles exactly 6.022×1022 atoms of oxygen?

D) 0.7 mole CO2 is evolved

47. Calculate volume (in L) of H2 gas kept at
44. ‘A’ reacts by following two parallel reactions STP if it contains as many H atoms as in 98
to give B &C . If half of ‘A’ goes into gm H3PO4, {Atomic mass of P = 31] (Take
reaction1 and other half goes to reaction II. volume of 1 mole gas of STP= 22.7 L)
Then, select the correct statement(s)

I
A + N  →B+ L 48. 80 gm of SOx gas occupies 14 litre at 2atm
II 1 1 & 273 K. The value of x is:
A + N  → B + (C) + L
2 2
A) B will be always greater than C 49. 40mg of gaseous substance (X2) occupies
4.8 mL of volume at 1 atm and 27oC. Atomic
B) If 2 mole of C are formed then total 2 mass of element X is:(R:0.08 atm L/mole-
mole of B are also formed K)

C) If 2 mole of C are formed then total 4

mole of B are also formed 50. The weight (in gram) of pure potash
Alum(K2SO4Al2(SO4)324H2O)which contains
D) If 2 mole of C are formed then total 6 0.64 kg oxygen is (Atomic weight of K= 39,
mole of B are also formed. S= 32, Al= 27)

21
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY
1 A 18 C 35 C 52 C 69 B
2 D 19 B 36 A 53 D 70 C
3 D 20 B 37 C 54 D 71 A
4 B 21 A 38 D 55 A 72 C
5 B 22 B 39 B 56 B 73 B
6 B 23 D 40 B 57 D 74 D
7 C 24 C 41 C 58 D 75 D
8 A 25 A 42 A 59 D 76 B
9 D 26 D 43 B 60 C 77 C
10 B 27 C 44 B 61 A 78 B
11 B 28 A 45 B 62 D 79 C
12 C 29 A 46 D 63 D 80 A
13 C 30 D 47 B 64 B 81 B
14 A 31 A 48 B 65 C 82 B
15 C 32 C 49 A 66 B 83 B
16 D 33 B 50 B 67 B 84 D
17 B 34 C 51 B 68 A 85 B

Sample Questions

1 A 11 B 21. B 31. B 41. A,B,D

2 C 12 C 22. B 32. C 42. B,C,D
3 A 13. C 23. B 33. A 43. A,B,C
4 B 14. C 24. D 34. D 44. A, D
5 B 15. B 25. C 35. C 45. C,D
6 A 16. C 26. B 36. C 46. 2.44
7 C 17. A 27. A 37. A 47. 34.05
8 C 18. D 28. B 38. C 48. 2
9 B 19. B 29. D 39. A 49. 100
10 D 20. D 30. C 40. C 50. 948

22
 Chapter
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
02

QUESTIONS 4. Which is the correct statement about

proton?
DISCOVERY OF SUBATOMIC PARTICLES
A) it is a nucleus of deuterium
1. The energy value assigned for free electron
at rest is ............. B) It is an ionised hydrogen molecule

A) Infinity C) It is an ionised hydrogen atom

B) –13.6 eV
D) It is an α − particle
C) Zero
5. Neutron was discovered by
D) +13.6 eV
A) J.J Thomson
2. Assertion : Anode ray starts from an-
ode and move towards B) Chadwick
cathode
C) Rutherford
Reason : In the absence of elec-
trical or magnetic field, D) Priestley
anode rays travels in
straight line. 6. The absolute value of charge on the electron
was determined by
A) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A A) J.J Thomson

B) Both A and R are correct, but ‘R’ is not B) R.A Milliken

the correct explanation of A
C) Rutherford
C) Both A and R are wrong
D) Chadwick
D) A is wrong but R is correct
e
3. The ratio of e/m for a cathode ray: 7. The highest value of of anode rays has
m
A) Varies with a gas in discharge tube been observed when the discharge tube is
filled with
B) is fixed

C) varies with different electrodes A) Nitrogen B) Oxygen

D) is maximum if hydrogen is taken C) Hydrogen D) Helium

23
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

35 37
ATOMIC MODELS 12. In 17 Cl and 17 Cl which of the following is
8. Statement-I : J.J. Thomson proposed
that an atom possesses false ?
a spherical shape (radius
approximately 10–8 cm) A) Both have 17 protons

Statement-II : Thomson’s model has a B) Both have 17 electrons

disadvantage that it can-
not explain the electrical C) Both have 18 neutrons
neutrality of atom.
D) Both show some chemical properties
A) Both statement I and II are correct
DEVELOPMENTS LEADING TO THE
B) Statement I is correct, and statement II is BOHR’S OF ATOM
wrong
a) Wave nature of electromagnetic model
C) Statement I is wrong and statement II is of atom
correct
13. Calculate the frequency of yellow radiation
D) Both statement I and statement II are
having wavelength 5800Ao
wrong
9. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of A) 5.172×1014s–1
α − particle showed for the first time that
B) 5.172×1012s–1
the atom has
C) 5.172×1016s–1
A) electrons
D) 5.172×1010s–1
B) protons
14. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum
C) neutrons
wavelength is
D) nucleus
A) Ultraviolet B) Radiowaves
10. Isotopes of the some element have
C) X-rays D) Infrared
A) same number of neutrons
B) same number of protons 15. Which of the following statements is
incorrect?
C) same atomic mass
A) The frequency of radiation is inversely
D) different chemical properties
proportional to the wavelength
11. Which of the following pairs represents
Isobars? B) Energy of radiation increases with
increase in frequency
3 4
A) 2 He and 2 He
C) Energy of radiation decreases with
24 25
B) 12 Mg and 12 Mg increase in wavelength
40 40
C) 19 K and 20 Ca D) The frequency of radiation is directly
40 39 proportional to its wavelength.
D) 19 K and 19 K

24
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

16. Visible light consists of rays with wavelength 20. A 250 W electric bulb of 80% efficiency
in the approximate range of emits a light of 6626 A0 wavelength. The
number of photons emitted per second by
o o
the lamp is (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js)
A) 4000 A to 7500 A

B) 4×10-3cm to 7.5 ×10-4 cm A) 1.42 × 1017

C) 4000 nm to 7500 nm
B) 2.18 × 1016
D) 4×10-5m to 7.5 ×10-6m
C) 6.66 × 1020
17. Which of the following among the visible
colours has the minimum wavelength? D) 2.83 × 1016
A) Red
21. Which one of the following is not the
B) Blue characteristic of Plank’s Quantum theory of
radiation?
C) Green

D) Violet A) The energy is not absorbed or emitted in

whole number multiple of quantum.
18. The wave number which corresponds to
electromagnetic radiations of 600 nm is B) Radiation is associated with energy
equal to

A)1.6 ×104 cm-1 C) Radiation energy is not emitted or

observed continuously but in the form of
B) 0.16×104cm-1 small packets a called quanta

C) 16×104 cm-1 D) This magnitude of energy associated with

a quantum is proportional to the frequency.
D) 160 ×104cm-1

b) Plank’s Quantum theory 22. Mark the incorrect statement regarding the
photoelectric effect
19. A dye, when dissolved in water, has its
maximum light absorption at 4530 A0 and A) There is no time lag between the striking
the maximum fluorescence emission of of light beam and the ejection of electrons
5080 A0. The number of fluorescence from the metal surface
quanta is an average 53% of the number
of quanta absorbed. What percentage of
absorbed energy is emitted as fluorescence B) The number of electrons ejected is
inversally proportional to the intensity of
light
A) 100

B) 47 C) Photoelectric effect is not observed

below threshold energy
C) 36
D) K.E of the electrons increases with
D) 12 increase in frequency of light used

25
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

23. The work function of metal is 5 eV. What 26. According to Einstein’s photoelectric
is the kinetic energy of the photoelectron equation, the graph between kinetic energy
ejected from the metal surface if the energy of photoelectrons ejected and the frequency
of the incident radiation is 6.2 eV? (1eV = of the incident radiation is:
1.6 × 10–19 J)
A) 6.626 × 10–19 J B) 8.01 × 10–19 J
C) 1.92 × 10–19 J D) 8.010 × 10–18 J
A) B)
24. The threshold frequency of a metal
corresponds to a wavelength of x nm. In
two separate experiments ‘A’ and ‘B’
incident radiations of wavelength
1 1
x nm and x nm respectively are used.
2 4
The ratio of kinetic energy of the released C) D)
electrons in experiment ‘B’ to than in
experiment ‘A’ is
1 27. The energy absorbed by each molecule A2
A) B) 2 of a substance is 4.4 × 10–19 J and bond
3
energy per molecule is 4 × 10–19 J. The
C) 4 D) 3 kinetic energy of the molecules per atom
will be
1 
25. A plot of the kinetic energy  mv 2  of
2  A) 2.0 × 10–20 J

ejected electrons as a function of the B) 2.2 × 10–19 J

frequency ( ν ) of incident radiation for four
C) 2.0 × 10–19 J
alkali metals (M1, M2, M3, M4) is given below:
D) 9.0 × 10–20 J

d) Atomic spectra
Kinetic M1 M
2 M
energy 3 M4 28. What is wrong about atomic emission
spectrum of hydrogen?

ν
A) It is discontinues spectrum
The alkali metals (M1, M2, M3, M4) are
respectively. B) It is dark line spectrum
A) Li, Na, K and Rb
C) It is bright line spectrum
B) Rb, K, Na and Li
C) Na, K, Li and Rb D) It is obtained by passing heat or electricity
through hydrogen gas
D) Rb, Li, Na and K

26
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

29. The shortest wavelength of the line in 33. The ratio of the frequency corresponding to
hydrogen atomic spectrum of Lyman series the third line in Lyman series of hydrogen
where RH = 109678 cm–1 is atomic spectrum to that of the first line in
Balmer series of Li2+ spectrum is
A) 1002.7 A0
A) 4 5
B) 827.2 A0

C) 1127.30 A0 B) 5 4

D) 911.7 A0 C) 4 3
30. Which series have highest energy in
hydrogen spectrum D) 3 4

A) Balmer 34. Highest energy line of Balmer series among

the following is
B) Bracket
A) 5→2
C) Pfund
B) 3→2
D) Lyman
C) 6→2
31. In a sample of hydrogen atoms, electrons
jump from 10th excited state to ground state. D) ∞→2
If X are the number of different ultraviolet
radiations Y are the number of different 35. The wavelength of limiting line (ie, of
visible radiations and Z are the possible shortest wavelength) in Balmer series of
number of different infrared radiations . H-atom is
The value Z –(X + Y) is (Assuming all the
Balmer lines lie with in visible region) A) 4758 A0

A) 17 B) 3644 A0

C) 2435 A0
B) 18
D) 4634 A0
C) 19
36. The emission spectra is observed by the
D) 36 consequence of transition of electron from
higher energy state to ground state of
32. Which of the following transition has the He+1 ion. Six photons are observed in the
same wavelength as the third line in emission spectra. The minimum wavelength
Paschen series of Li2+ during transition is

A) 4 to 2 in Be3+ 4 4
A) B)
27R H 15R H
B) 3 to 1 in H atom

C) 4 to 2 in He+ 15 16
C) D)
16R H 15R H
D) 4 to 2 in He atom

27
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

37. What is the ratio of λ max and λ min and for 41. Which one of the following statement is not
correct?
Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum ?
A) Rydberg’s constant and wave numbers
4 3 have same units
A) B)
3 4
B) Lymann series of hydrogen spectrum
9 5 occurs in the U.V. region
C) D)
5 9 C) The angular momentum of the electron
38. The wave number of the first emission line in to the ground state hydrogen atom is
in the Balmer series of H-spectrum is (R = h
equal to
Rydberg constant) 2π
5 9
A) R B) R D) One mole of photons having energy 400
36 400
kJ/mol will always break 4 mole bonds of a
molecule A2 where A–A bond dissociation
7 3 energy is 100 kJ/mol
C) R D) R
6 4 42. Electromagnetic radiation of wavelength
39. If each hydrogen atom is excited by giving 242 nm is just sufficient to ionise the
8.4 eV of energy, then the number of sodium atom. Ionisation energy of sodium
spectral lines emitted is equal to in kJ mol–1
A) None B) Two
A) 460 B) 380
C) Three D) Four
BOHR’S MODEL OF HYDROGEN ATOM C) 495 D) 370

40. If the energy of H-atom in a the ground state 43. Which among the following statement is
is -E, the velocity of photo-electron emitted wrong
when a photon having energy Ep strikes a
stationary Li2+ ion in ground state, is given A) 1st line of Brackett series is from 5→4
by:
2 ( Ep − E ) B) Balmer series belongs to IR
A) v =
m
C) The wave number of limiting line in the
RH
Balmer series is
2 ( E p + 9E ) 4
B) v =
m D) Restriction of any property to discrete
value is called quantisation

2 ( E p − 9E ) 44. Ratio of radii of first, second and third Bohr

C) v = orbits of Hydrogen atom is
m

A) 1 : 2 : 3 B) 1 : 4 : 9
2 ( E P − 3E )
D) v =
m C) 2 : 5 : 7 D) 1 : 3 : 9

28
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

45. The shell number to which the electron 50. The first ionisation energy of helium atom
of H-atom will be excited by the supply of is equal to 24.6 eV. The energy required to
12.75 eV energy is remove both the electrons from the helium
atom would be
A) 2 B) 3 A) 59 eV B) 54.4 eV

C) 4 D) 5 C) 79 eV D) 49.2 eV

51. In hydrogen atom an orbit has a diameter

46. The ratio of ionisation energies of Li2+ and of about 16.92A°. What is the maximum
Be3+ is number of electrons that can be
accomodated
2 3 A) 8 B) 32
A) B)
3 2
C) 50 D) 72
9 16 52. If velocity of an electron in first orbit of
C) D)
16 9 H atom is V, what will be the velocity of
electron in third orbit of Li+2
47. The total energy of the electron in the
hydrogen atom in the ground state is –13.6 A) V
eV. The KE of this electron is
B) V/3

A)13.6 eV B) Zero C) 3V

D) 9V
C) –13.6 eV D) 6.8 eV
53. Statement-I : Energy of electron in the
48. The radius of the following orbits are double nth stationary state of H -
as that of the first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen atom is given by
atom is −2.18 ×10−18 J
En = per
n2
A) He+ (n = 2) atom

B) Be3+ (n = 2) Statement-II : The angular momentum of

electron nth stationary
h
C) He+ (n = 3) state is n
4π
D) Li2+ (n = 2)
A) Both statement I and II are correct
49. If the radius of the first Bohr orbit in hydrogen B) Statement I is correct, and statement II is
atom is a0, the de-Broglie wavelength of wrong
electron in its third excited state will be
C) Statement I is wrong and statement II is
correct
A) πa 0 B) 4πa 0
D) Both statement I and statement II are
C) 6πa 0 D) 8πa 0 wrong

29
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

TOWARDS QUANTUM MECHANICAL 58. Uncertainity in the position of an electron

MODEL OF THE ATOM (mass = 9.1 × 10–31 kg) moving with a
velocity of 300 ms–1 accurate upto 0.001%
a) Dual behaviour of Matter will be )
54. de-Broglie wavelength associated with a A) 5.76 × 10–2 m B) 92 × 10–2 m
ball of mass 1 kg having kinetic energy 0.5
J is C) 3.84 × 10–2 m D) 19.2 × 10–3 m

A) 6.626 × 10–34
­
m 59. If the uncertainity in position and momentum
are equal, then uncertainity in velocity is
B) 13.20 × 10–34
­
m
h h
C) 10.38 × 10–21
­
m A) B)
π 2π
D) 6.626 × 10–34
­
A0

55. If two particles A and B having masses in

1 h h
the ratio 1 : 4 are moving with same velocity, C) D)
the ratio of wavelengths associated with 2m π π
them will be in the ratio
60. “The exact path of electron in 2p-orbital
A) 1 : 4 B) 4 : 1 cannot be determined”. The above
statement is based upon
C) 2 : 1 D) 1 : 2
A) Hund’s rule
56. If the kinetic energy of a subatomic
particle is increased 8-times, its de Broglie B) Bohr’s rule
wavelength becomes ‘x’ times the original
wavelength. The value of ‘x’ is C) Uncertainty principle

1 1 D) Aufbau principle
A) B)
2 2 4 61. Statement-I : Heisenberg uncertainity
principle states that it is
impossible to determine
1 1
C) D) the exact momentum and
8 2 position of electron simul-
taneously.
57. Calculate the wave length associated with
an electron moving with a velocity of 1010cm Statement-II : It rules out existence of
per sec. definite path of electrons.
o A) Both statement I and II are correct
A) 0.072 A
B) Statement I is correct, and statement II is
o
B) 0.8210 A wrong

o C) Statement II is wrong and statement I is

C) 0.062 A correct
o D) Both statement I and statement II are
D) 0.531A wrong

30
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

b) Quantum Mechanical Model of Atom 67. Maximum number of electrons in a sub-shell

of an atom is determined by the following
62. “The square of the wave function at a point
gives the probability density of the electron A) 2n2 B) 4 + 2
at that point”. This is proposed by
C) 2 + 2 D) 4 − 2
A) Schrodinger
68. Which of the following subshell have
B) Heisenberg maximum number of possible orientations?

C) Max Born A) s B) p
D) Max Plank
C) d D) f
63. The number of electrons with azimuthal
=
quantum number  1= and  2 for Cr in 69. Which of the following statement/s about an
electron with  = +2 is/are correct?
ground state are respectively
The electron could be in the third shell
A) 16, 5 B) 16, 4

C) 12, 4 D) 12, 5 II) The electron is in a non spherical orbital

64. If the principle quantum number n = 6, the III) The electron may have ms = +½
correct sequence of filling of electrons will
be IV) The electron is not in a double dumb bell
orbital.
A) ns→(n–2) f→np→(n–1)d

B) ns→(n–2) f→(n–1)d→np A) I, II

C) ns→np(n–1) d→(n–2)f B) I, II, III

D) ns→(n–1) d→(n–2)f→np
C) III
65. The correct set of four quantum number for
the valence electrons of rubidium atom (Z = D) IV
37) is
70. Total number of electrons in the 3rd energy
A) 5, 0, 0, +½ level of an atom is
B) 5, 1, 0, +½
A) 3 B) 6
C) 5, 1, 1, +½
C) 9 D) 18
D) 4, 0, 0, +½

66. The quantum number not obtained from the 71. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for
Schrodinger’s wave equation is which n = 3 ?

A) n B) l A) 14 B) 2

C) m D) ms C) 6 D) 10

31
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

72. Which of the following is not permissible 77. Number of planar nodes in ‘5s’ orbital is
arrangement of electron in an atom?
A) 0 B) 1

A) n =
3,  =
2, m = −1
−2, s = C) 2 D) 3
2
78. Magnetic moment of Xa+ (Z = 26) is 24
n 4,=
B) =  0,= = −1
m 0,s
2
B.M. Hence number of unpaired electrons
n 5,=
C)=  3, = s +1
m 0,= and value of ‘a’ respectively are
2
A) 4, 2 B) 2, 4
D) n =
3,  =
2, m = −1
−3, s =
2 C) 3, 1 D) 0, 2

73. The number of spherical nodes, angular 79. The number of possible orientations of an
nodes and nodal planes of 3pz in proper electron in an atom is given by its
order are
A) spin quantum number
A) 3, 1, 0 B) 1, 1, 1 B) spin angular momentum

C) 2, 0, 1 D) 2, 1, 1 C) magnetic quantum number

74. The nodes present in 5 p-orbital are D) orbital angular momentum

80. How many quantum numbers are required
A) 1 planar, 5 spherical to represent an orbital of an atom?
B) One planar, four spherical A) 1 B) 2

C) One planar, three spherical C) 3 D) 4

D) Four spherical 81. Assertion : We do not draw a bound-

ary surface diagram,
75. When azimuthal quantum number l = 1, the which bounds a region
shape of the orbital will be: in which the probability
of finding the electron is
A) Spherical 100%

B) Dumb bell Reason : The probability density

has always some value,
C) Double dumbbell howsoever small it may
be, at any finite distance
D) Doughnut from the nucleus

76. If there are three possible values (+1/2, A) Both A and R are correct and R is the
0, – 1/2) for the spin quantum number s, correct explanation of A
then potassium (with atomic number19) will B) Both A and R are correct, but ‘R’ is not
come under the correct explanation of A
A) f - block B) d - block C) Both A and R are wrong

C) p - block D) s- block D) A is wrong but R is correct

32
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

82. All the information about the electron in an 86. Statement I : The five ‘d’ orbitals are
atom is stored in its designated as dxy, dyz, dxz,
d x 2 − y2 and d z2
A) Principal Quantum number

B) Azimuthal quantum number Statement II : The shape of dxy, dyz, dxz

and d x 2 − y2 orbitals are
C) Orbital wavefunction ψ
similar to each other
D) Shape whereas that of the fifth
one, is different from
83. Number of orbital in ‘h’ subshell other.

A) 3 B) 5 A) Statement I and Statement II are correct

C) 11 D) 9
B) Statement I is correct and Statement II
84. Extra stability of half-filled and completely incorrect
filled subshell is due to

I) Relatively small shielding C) Statement I incorrect and Statement II

correct
II) Larger Coulombic repulsion energy

III) Small exchange energy D) Both statements are incorrect

A) I only B) I, II only 87. Statement-I : There are ‘n’ subshells in

the nth shell.
C) III only D) I, II, III

85. Assertion : No two electrons in an Statement-II : Principal Quantum num-

atom can have the same ber determines the size
set of four quantum num- of the orbital
bers
A) Statement I and Statement II are correct
Reason : Only two electrons may
exist in the same orbitals
and these electrons must B) Statement I is correct and Statement II
have opposite spin incorrect

A) Both assertion and Reason are correct C) Statement I incorrect and Statement II
and Reason is the correct explanation of correct
assertion

B) Assertion is correct and Reason is D) Both statements are incorrect

incorrect

C) Assertion and Reason are correct but 88. After filling 5d orbitals electrons enters to
Reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion A) 4p B) 6p

D) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

C) 6d D) 4f

33
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

89. Which of the following orbital diagram does 93. Number of p electrons in bromine atom is
not obey Aufbau principle? (Atomic Numbers)

A) −313.6
94. En = kcal / mol. . If the value of E=
n2
B) –34.84 kcal/mol, to which value does ‘n’
correspond?
C)
95. The ratio of energy of radiations of
o o
D) wavelengths 2000 A and 4000 A is

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER

90. The orbital diagram in which both Pauli 96. For which of the following species, the
exclusion principle and Hund’s rule are expression for the energy of electron in the
violated is:
 −13.6 2 −1 
nth  E n = n 2 Z ev atom  has the
A) ↑↑ ↑↑ ↑
validity?
B) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓
A) Tritium B) Li2+
C) ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
C) Bactrium D) He2+

D) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ 97. The angular momentum of electron can

have the value(s):
91. The incorrect statement among the following
h h
A) B)
A) Energy of electron in hydrogen atom 2π π
depends only on ‘n’
2h 5 h
C) D)
B) Energy of electron in multi electron atom π 2 2π
depends on n and  98. Which of the following statements are
correct for an electron that has n=4 and
C) Energy of orbital in same subshell m= 2?
increases with increase in atomic number
A) The electron may be in a d-orbital
D) Higher the value of (n +  ) for an orbital
B) The electron is in the fourth principal
lower in its energy electronic shell

NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS C) The electron may be in a P-orbital

92. The number of waves made by a Bohr
electron in an orbit of maximum quantum D) The electron must have the spin quantum
number 3 is number = 1 2

34
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

SAMPLE QUESTIONS 5. The position of both an electron and a

He-atom is known within 1.0 nm and the
1. Assertion : The 19th electron in potas- momentum of the electron is known within
sium atom enter in to 4s 50 × 10–26 kgms–1. The minimum uncertainity
orbital and not the 3d-or- in the measurement of the momentum of
bitals. the helium atom is
Reason : (n+1) Rule is followed for
determining the orbital of A) 50 kg ms–1
the lowest energy state.
B) 60 kgms–1
A) Both assertion and reason are correct
but reason is not correct explanation for
C) 80 × 10–26 kg ms–1
assertion.
B) Assertion is correct but reason is not D) 50 × 10–26 kgms–1
correct
C) Both assertion and reason are correct 6. Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum
and reason is correct explanation for numbers are respectively related to
assertion.
A) size, shape and orientation
D) Both assertion and reason are not
correct B) shape, size and orientation
2. For which of the following sets of four
quantum numbers, an electron will have C) size, orientation and shape
the highest energy?
D) none of the above
n l m s
A) 3 2 1 +1/2 7. The explanation for the presence of three
B) 4 2 1 +1/2 unpaired electrons in the nitrogen atom can
C) 4 1 0 -1/2 be given by
D) 5 0 0 -1/2
A) Pauli’s exclusion principle
3. In a Bohr’s model of atom when an electron
jumps from n = 1 to n = 3, how much energy B) Hund’s rule
will be emitted or absorbed?
A) 2.15 × 10–11 erg C) Aufbau principle

B) 0.1911 × 10–1­0 erg D) Uncertainity principle

C) 2.389 × 10 -12
erg
8. Which of the following sets of quantum
D) 0.239 × 10–1­0 erg numbers belongs to highest energy?
4. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron
is 1 × 10–5 kg m/s. The uncertainty in its A) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = +½
position will be (h = 6.62 × 10–34 kg-m2/s)
B) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +½
A) 1.05 × 10–28 m
B) 1.05 × 10–26 m C) n = 3, l = 1, m = 1, s = +½
C) 5.27 × 10 ­ m–30
D) n = 3, l = 2, m = 1, s = +½
D) 5.25 × 10–26­ m

35
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

9. In Balmer series of hydrogen atom 13. The radius of first Bohr’s orbit for hydrogen
spectrum, which electronic transition is 0.53 Å. The radius of third Bohr’s orbit
causes third line? would be

A) fifth Bohr orbit to second one A) 0.79 Å B) 1.59 Å

B) fifth Bohr orbit to first one C) 3.18 Å D) 4.77 Å
C) fourth Bohr orbit to second one 14. The frequency of one of the lines in Paschen
series of hydrogen atom is 2.340 × 1014 Hz.
D) fourth Bohr orbit to first one
The quantum number n2 which produces
10. Which is the correct relationship between this transition is
wavelength and momentum of particles?
A) 6 B) 5
h h
A) λ = B) π = C) 4 D) 3
p p
15. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering
experiment eventually led to the conclusion
h P
that
p=
C) λm D) h = λ A) mass and energy are related

11. Electron enters the subshell for which B) electrons occupy space around the
nucleus
( n +  ) value is minimum. This is enunciated
C) neutrons are buried deep in the nucleus
as
D) the point of impact with matter can be
A) Hund’s rule precisely determined
B) Aufbau principle 16. The orbital with maximum energy is
C) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
A) 3d B) 5p
D) Pauli’s exclusion principle
C) 4s D) 6d
12. The wavelength of a spectral line for an
17. Which of the following has maximum energy
electronic transition is inversely related to
requirement?
A) the number of electrons undergoing the 3s 3p 3d
transition
A)
B) the square nuclear charge of the atom
3s 3p 3d
C) the difference in the energy of the energy B)
levels involved in the transition
3s 3p 3d
D) the velocity of the electron undergoing
the transition C)
3s 3p 3d
A) A B) B, C, D
D)
C) C, D D) B

36
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

18. The quantum numbers n = 2, l = 1 represent 22. Which of the following statements is true?

A) 1s-orbital A) The kinetic energy of an electron is

inversely proportional to square of its
B) 2s-orbital momentum

C) 2p-orbital B) de-Broglie wavelength associated with a

particle is directly proportional to its mass
D) 3d-orbital
C) de-Broglie wavelength associated with a
particle is directly proportional to square of
19. If the velocity of hydrogen molecule is 5 ×
its velocity
104 cm sec–1, then its de-Broglie wavelength
is D) kinetic energy of an electron is directly
proportional to accelerating potential
A) 2 Å
23. The maximum kinetic energy of
B) 4 Å photoelectrons ejected from a metal, when
it is irradiated with radiationof frequency 2
C) 8 Å × 1014 s–1 is 6.63 × 10–20 J. The threshold
frequency of the metal is
D) 100 Å
A) 2 × 1014 s–1
20. The value of Planck’s constant is 6.63 × 10–
34­
Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 108 ms–1. B) 3 × 1014 s–1
Which value is closest to the wavelength
(in nanometers) of a quantum of light with C) 2 × 10–14 s–1
frequency of 8 × 1015 s–1?
D) 1 × 1014 s–1
A) 3 × 107
24. The measurement of the electron position
is associated with an uncertainty in
B) 2 × 10–25 momentum, which is equal to 1 × 10–18
gcms–1. The uncertainty in electron velocity
C) 5 × 10–18 is (mass of an electron is 9 × 10–28 g)

D) 4 × 101 A) 1 × 105 cms–1

21. The frequency of radiation emitted when the B) 1 × 10–11 cms–1

electron falls from n = 4 to n = 1 in a H-atom
will be (Given ionization energy of H = 2.18 C) 1 × 109 cms–1
×10–18 J atom–1 and h = 6.625 ×10–34­ Js)
D) 1 × 106 cms–1
A) 3.08 × 1015 s–1
25. Maximum number of electrons i n a subshell
B) 2.00 × 1015 s–1 of an atom is determined by the following

A) 4  + 2 B) 2  + 1
C) 1.54 × 1015 s–1
C) 4  –2 D) 2n2
D) 1.03 × 1015 s–1

37
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

26. Which of the following set of quantum 30. Which of the following statements does not
numbers represents the 19th electron in form part of Bohr’s model of the hydrogen
chromium (Z = 24 forCr) atom?

A) 4, 0, 0,½ A) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is

quantized
B) 4, 1, –1, ½ B) The electron in the orbit nearest the
nucleus has the lowest energy
C) 3, 2, 2, ½
C) Electrons revolve in different orbits
D) 3, 2, –2, ½ around the nucleus

27. When the electron of a hydrogen atom D) The position and velocity of the
jumps from n = 4 to n = 1 state, the number electrons in the orbit cannot be determined
of spectral lines emitted is simultaneously
31. Which one is the wrong statement?
A) 15
h
B) 9 A) The uncertainity principle is ∆E × ∆t ≥
4π
C) 6 B) Half filled and fully filled orbitals have
greater stability due to greater exchange
D) 3 energy, greater symmetry and more
balanced arrangement
28. A 0.66 kg ball is moving with a speed of
100 m/s. The associated wavelength will be C) The energy of 2s-orbital is less than the
(h = 6.6 × 10–34­ Js) energy of 2p-orbital in case of hydrogen
like atoms
A) 6.6 × 10–32 m
D) de-Broglied wavelength is given by
B) 6.6 × 10 –34
m h
λ= , where m = mass of the particle, v
mv
C) 1.0 × 10–35­ m = group velocity of the particle
D) 1.0 × 10–32 m 32. Identify the incorrect statement from the
following
29. The energies E1 and E2 of wo radiations are
25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation A) All the five 4d orbitals have shapes
between their wavelengths i.e. λ1 and λ2 will similar to the respective 3d orbitals
be B) In an atom, all the five 3d orbitals are
equal in energy in free state
A) λ1 = λ2
C) The shapes of dxy, dyz and dzx orbitals are
B) λ1 = 2λ2 similar to each other: and d x 2 − y2 and d z2
C) λ1 = 4λ2 are similar to each other
1 D) All the five 5d orbitals are different in
D) λ1 = λ
2 2 size when compared to the respective 4d
orbitals.

38
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

33. A 250 W electric bulb of 80% efficiency 37. Calculate the energy in joule corresponding
emits a light of 6626 A0 wavelength. The to light of wavelength 45 nm: [Planck’s
number of photons emitted per second by constant h = 6.63 × 10–34­ Js; speed of light c
the lamp is (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js) = 3 × 108 ms–1)

A) 1.42 × 1017 A) 4.42 × 10–15­

B) 2.18 × 1016
B) 4.42 × 10–18­
C) 6.66 × 1020
­C) 6.67 × 1015
D) 2.83 × 1016
D) 6.67 × 1011
34. In a sample of hydrogen atoms, electrons
jump from 10th excited state to ground state. 38. The number of of d-electrons in Fe2+ (Z =
If X are the number of different ultraviolet 26) is not equal to the number of electrons
radiations Y are the number of different in which one of the following?
visible radiations and Z are the possible
number of different infrared radiations . The A) d-electrons in Fe(Z = 26)
value Z –(x + y) is (Assuming all the Balmer
lines lie with in visible region) B) p-electrons in Ne(Z = 10)
A) 17
C) s-electrons in Mg(Z = 12)
B) 18
D) p-electrons in Cl(Z = 17)
C) 19
39. The angular momentum of electron in ‘d’
D) 36 orbital is equal to
35. Robert Bunsen was the first investigator to
to use the line spectrum for the identification A) 2 3 
of elements. Which of the following element
was discovered from its line spectrum? B) 0 

A) Al
C) 6
B) Tl
D) 2
C) Pt
40. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion
D) Fe
is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr
36. The electronic configuration of gadolinium orbit of Li2+ ion?
(atomic no.64) is
A) 15.87 pm
A) [Xe]4f8 5d9 6s2
B) 1.587 pm
B) [Xe] 4f7 5d1 6s2

C) [Xe]4f3 5d5 6s2 C) 158.7 Å

D) [Xe]4f6 5d2 6s2 D) 158.7 pm

39
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT ANSWER 45. Which of the following statement(s) about
spectral series is/are correct?
41. Bohr’s model of atom cannot explain
A) Zeeman effect A) Paschen series appears in the infrared
B) Stark effect region

C) Linear spectrum of hydrogenic species

B) The lines in the Balmer series
D) Fine spectrum of hydrogenic species corresponds to electron transitions from
42. Which of the following statements is/are energy levels higher than n=2 energy level
correct?
A) Energy of the electron in hydrogen like C) Transitions from higher energy level to
atom/ion at infinite distance is zero and yet 5th energy level produce Pfund series which
it is maximum falls in the infrared region.

B) The position and momentum of a rolling

ball can be measured accurately D) The lines of Lyman series appear in the
visible region.
C) Some spectral lines of an element may
have the same wave number
NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
D) Probabilities are found by solving
Schrodinger wave equation
46. Consider the ground state of Cr atom(Z=
43. Which of these represent possible
24). The numbers of electrons with the
arrangement(s)?
azimuthal quantum numbers,  = 1
n I m s
A) 2 1 −1 1 47. In the consideration of the Bohr theory for
2
the hydrogenic species, which electron
B) 3 0 0 − 1 orbit of the Be3+ ion can have the same
2
radius as the ground state electron orbit of
C) 3 2 −3 1
2 the hydrogen atom?
D) 5 3 −2 − 1
2
48. What is the wavelength (in nm) of the
44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are radiation emitted producing in a line in the
correct? Lyman series when an electron falls from
fourth stationary state in hydrogen atom?
An atomic orbital (RH= 1.1×107m-1)
A) Describes trajectory of elecron in an
atom 49. How many lines in the spectrum will be
B) Is a single electron wave function observed when electrons return from 7th
shell to 2nd shell?
C) Can be represented by boundary
surface diagrams
50. The de Borglie wavelength associated with
D) Defines distribution of electron density a ball of mass 1 kg having a kinetic energy
in space 0.5 J is 6.626×10-xm. The value of x is

40
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY
1. C 21. A 41. D 61. A 81. A
2. D 22. B 42. C 62. C 82. C
3. B 23. C 43. B 63. D 83. C
4. C 24. D 44. B 64. B 84. A
5. B 25. B 45. C 65. A
85. A
6. B 26. C 46. C 66. D
86. A
7. C 27. A 47. A 67. B
87. A
8. B 28. B 48. A 68. D
9. D 29. D 49. D 69. B 88. B
10. B 30. D 50. C 70. D 89. B
11. C 31. A 51. B 71. B 90. A
12. C 32. C 52. A 72. D 91. D
13. A 33. D 53. B 73. B 92. 4
14. B 34. D 54. A 74. C 93. 17
15. D 35. B 55. B 75. B
94. 3
16. A 36. B 56. A 76. C
95. 2
17. D 37. C 57. A 77. A
96. A,B,C
18. A 38. A 58. D 78. A
19. B 39. A 59. C 79. C 97. A,B,C
20. C 40. C 60. C 80. C 98. A,D

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1 C 11 B 21 A 31 C 41 A,B,D
2 B 12 B 22 D 32 C 42 A,B,D
3 B 13 D 23 D 33 C 43 A,B,D
4 C 14 B 24 C 34 A 44 B,C,D
5 D 15 B 25 A 35 B 45 A,B,C
6 A 16 D 26 A 36 B 46. 12
7 B 17 B 27 C 37 B 47 2
8 D 18 C 28 C 38 D 48 96.97
9 B 19 B 29 B 39 C 49 15
10 A 20 D 30 D 40 D 50. 34

41
 Chapter CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
03 AND PERIODICITY IN PROPERTIES

QUESTIONS 5. Modern periodic law states that the physical

and chemical properties of elements are
GENESIS OF PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION periodic functions of their
1. The law of octaves was developed by
A) Atomic number
A) Dobereiner
B) Mendeleev B) Atomic mass

C) Lothar Meyer C) Atomic volume

D) Newlands
D) Atomic radius
2. Newland’s law of octaves applies to which
of the following set of elements
6. The arrangement of elements in the
A) Be, Mg, Ca increasing order of atomic number in
horizontal rows and vertical columns, so
B) As, K, Ca that similar elements are grouped together
C) B, N, C is called

D) All of these
A) Modern periodic table
3. Lothar Meyer obtained the curve indicating
periodic variation in properties of elements B) Mendeleev’s periodic table
by plotting atomic volume of elements
against
C) Lothar Meyer’s atomic volume plot
A) Atomic number
B) Atomic weight D) Cylindrical table arrangement

C) Density 7. The number of elements that are known at

D) Melting point present including the recently discovered
and officially named man made element is
4. The periodic law which states that the
properties of elements are periodic functions
A) 106
of their atomic weight was first published by
A) Lothar Meyer B) 103
B) Mendeleev
C) 116
C) Vant Hoff
D) de-Chancourtois D) 118

42
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

8. Name given to gallium by mendeleev was 14. The element with atomic number Z = 100 is
a/an
A) Eka aluminium
A) Transition metal
B) Eka silicon
C) Eka zinc B) Inner transition metal

D) Eka germanium C) Alkaline earth metal

9. The IUPAC symbol of the element D) Alkali metal

119
15. The atomic number corresponding to
A) Uue s-block element is
B) Unp A) 52 B) 53
C) Une
C) 56 D) 58
D) Uee
16. Which among the following is a coloured
10. The heaviest halogen recently discovered gas at 298 K and 1 bar pressure?
is
A) Oxygen
A) Moscovium (Mc)
B) Chlorine
B) Tennessine (Ts)
C) Bromine
C) Nihonium (Nh)
D) Sulphur
D) Livermorium (Lv)
17. The total number of elements present in the
PERIODIC TABLE AND ELECTRONIC
first three periods in the modern long form
CONFIGURATION
of the periodic table is
11. Which of the following pairs consists of
metalloid elements? A) 8 B) 18
A) Na and K B) F and Cl C) 20 D) 36
C) Ca and Mg D) As and Si 18. The types of elements present in sixth
12. Which of the following is not a transition period of long form of periodic table is
element?
A) s-block and p-block
A) Sc B) Cu
B) s-block, p-block and d-block
C) Ag D) Zn
C) s-block, p-block, d-block and f-block
13. More than 78% of all the known elements
are D) p-block, d-block and f-block
A) metals
19. The group 13 element recently discovered
B) non metals is
C) gases A) Gallium B) Thallium
D) metalloids
C) Nihonium D) Moscovium

43
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

20. The element used in jewellery occupying 25. The element with atomic number (Z) = 74
the position 10th group of 6th period in the belongs to
long form of the periodic table is
A) Group 7, Period 5, p - block
A) Ag B) Au
B) Group 17, period 6, p - block
C) Cu D) Pt
C) Group 6, period 6, d - block
21. In the modern periodic table, the period D) Group 3, period 6, f - block
indicates the value of
26. Name of the element in the periodic table
A) Atomic number forming maximum number of compounds
B) Atomic mass A) C B) H
C) Principal quantum number C) O D) F
D) Azimuthal quantum number 27. An element recently discovered is Nihonium
(Uut). Its group number and electronic
22. Element with atomic number Z = 63 is in configuration is
A) Period 6; group 3 A) 15, [Rn]5f14, 6d10, 7s2, 7p3
B) Period 7; group 3 B) 14, [Rn] 5f14, 6d10, 7s2, 7p2
C) Period 6; group 9 C) 13, [Rn] 5f14, 6d10, 7s2, 7p1
D) Period 7; group 9 D) 13, [Rn] 5f14, 6d10, 7s2
23. Which of the following contains atomic 28. General electron filling of elements of
number of only s-block ? period 6 follows the order
A) 55, 12, 18, 53 A) ns→(n-2) f →(n-1)d→np

B) 13, 33, 54, 83 B) ns→np →(n-1)d→(n-2)f

C) 3, 20, 55, 87 C) ns→(n-1) d →(n-2)f→np

D) 22, 33, 55, 66 D) ns→np→(n-2)f → (n-1)d

24. Statement I : Valence for an element PERIODIC TRENDS IN PROPERTIES OF

placed in group 17 are 1 ELEMENTS
and 7
29. Which one of the following sets of ions
Statement II : Group 17 elements (F→I) represents the collection of isoelectronic
are coloured species?
In the light of the above statements, choose A) K+, Cl–, Mg2+, Sc3+
the most appropriate option.
B) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, F–
A) Statement I & II both are correct C) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl–
B) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect D) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl–
C) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct (Atomic Number F = 9, Cl=17, Na = 11,
Mg = 12, Al = 13, K=19, Ca=20, Sc=21]
D) Both statement I & II are incorrect

44
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

30. van der waal radius is 36. Which among the following graph is
incorrect ?
A) Twice the bond length between two atoms
of the same element
B) Half of bond length between two atoms
of the same element
C) Almost equal to bond length between
two atoms of the same element A)
D) Half the distance between nuclei of two
non bonded atoms of the same element in
closed distance
31. The element in each period having greater
than expected atomic radius is a/an
B)
A) Lanthanide B) Actinide
C) Noble gas D) Halogen
32. Which of the following atom has largest
size?
A) Ba B) Cs C)
C) Kr D) Sr
33. Which pair of elements among the following
have atomic radii very close to each other?
A) Li and Na B) Ti and Zr
D) All are incorrect
C) Zr and Hf D) La and Hf
34. The size of isoelectronic species. F–, Ne 37. In which of the following pair, radii of second
and Na+ is affected by species is smaller than that of first species?
A) Nuclear charge A) Li, Na
B) Highest principal quantum number B) Na+, F–
C) Electron-electron interaction in the outer
C) Mn7+, Mn4+
orbitals
D) N3–, Al3+
D) None of the factors because their size is
the same 38. Which of the following codes of ionic radii is
35. The correct order of atomic radius of C, Cs, correctly represented
Al and S is A) H– > H > H+
A) S < C < Al < Cs
B) Na+ > F– > O2–
B) S < C < Cs < Al
C) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3–
C) C < S < Cs < Al
D) O– > S2– > Cl–
D) C < S < Al < Cs

45
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

39. Large sized lanthanoid and small sized 43. A sudden jump between the values of
actinoid respectively are second and third ionisation enthalpies of
an element would be associated with the
A) La, Lr electronic configuration
B) Ce, Th A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1
C) La, Ac B) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1
D) Ce, Lr C) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2
40. Assertion : Ga is smaller than Al D) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
Reason : Poor shielding effect of 3d
44. The element having highest difference
electrons present in Ga
between first and second ionisation
A) Both assertion and reason are correct energies is
but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion. A) Ca B) Sc
B) Assertion is correct but reason is not C) Ba D) K
correct
45. B has smaller first ionisation enthalpy than
C) Both assertion and reason are correct Be. Consider the following statements
and reason is correct explanation for
assertion. i) It is easier to remove 2p electron than 2s
electron
D) Both assertion and reason are not
correct ii) 2p electron of B is more shielded from the
41. Statement-I : Actinoid contraction is nucleus by the inner core of electrons than
greater from element to the 2s electron fo Be
element than lanthanoid
contraction. iii) 2s electron has more penetrating power
Statement-II : In actinoid contraction, 5f than 2p electron
subshell is filled before
iv) Atomic radius of B is more than Be.
6 d.
In the light of the above statements, choose The correct statements are
the most appropriate option.
A) i, ii and iii
A) Statement I & II both are correct
B) ii, iii, iv
B) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
C) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct C) i, iii, iv

D) Both statement I & II are incorrect D) i, ii and iv

42. In the following which has highest first 46. Choose the correct statement
ionisation enthalpy?
A) IE1 of Na < IE1 of Mg
A) H
B) IE3 of Mg > IE3 of Al
B) He
C) IE1 of Al < IE1 of Mg
C) Li
D) Be D) All are correct

46
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

47. Which of the following process require 51. Assertion : Generally, ionisation en-
largest amount of energy thalpy increases from left
to right in a period.
A) Al( g ) → Al + 1e
+ −
Reason : When successive elec-
trons are added to the
2+ 3+
B) Al( g ) → Al + 1e
−
orbitals in the same prin-
cipal quantum level, the
2+
C) Al( g ) → Al + 1e
+ − shielding effect of inner
core of electrons does
not increase very much
D) All require same amount of energy to compensate for the in-
creased attraction of the
48. Correct order regarding ionisation enthalpy electron to the nucleus.
is :
A) Assertion is correct statement and
A) Hg < Zn reason is wrong statement.

B) Assertion and reason both are

B) Tl > In
correct statements and reason is correct
explanation of assertion.
C) B > Be
C) Assertion and reason both are wrong
D) O > N statements.

D) Assertion is wrong statement and reason

49. Which ionisation energy in the following
is correct statement.
equation involves the greatest amount of
energy
52. ∆ i H1 , ∆ i H 2 and ∆ i H 3 of an element ‘M’ are

A) He → He + e
+ −
750, 1500 and 7750 kJ mol-1 respectively.
The stable formula of its iodide would be:
2+
B) K → K + e
+ −
A) MI
2+
C) Li → Li + e
+ −
B) MI2

2+ C) MI3
D) Ca → Ca + e
+ −

D) MI4
50. Highest first ionisation enthalpy is observed
for 53. Second electron gain enthalpy of an
element.
A) Zn
A) is always negative (energy is released)
B) Sc B) is always positive

C) Y C) can be positive or negative

D) is always zero
D) Hg

47
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

54. In group 16, the value of electron gain 58. The electronegativity of the following
(
enthalpy ∆ eg H1 ) becomes less negative elements increases in the order

A) C,N, S, P
in the order
A) S > Se > Te > Po > O B) N, Si, C, P
B) O > S > Se > Te > Po C) Si, P, C,N
C) S > O > Se > Te > Po
D) P, Si, N, C
D) Se > Te > Po > O > S
59. Match the following
55. Electron gain enthalpy of Ar and element X
is +96 kg mol–1. X is
A) F B) Cl Column-I Column-II
C) Ne D) Kr a) Cl > Ar p) Atomic size
56. Match the correct ionisation enthalpies and b) S > O q) IE
electron gain enthalpies of the following c) Mg > Al r) EA
elements. d) Zn > Cu s) EN
Elements ∆H1 ∆H 2 ∆ eg H A) a→r, s; b→p; c→p,q; d→s

Most reactive B) a→r, s; b→p,r; c→p,q; d→p,q

i) A 419 3051 -48
non metal
C) a→s; b→r; c→p,q; d→p,q,r
Most reactive
ii) B 1681 3374 -328
metal D) a→p,q; b→r,s; c→r,s; d→s
Least reactive
iii) C 738 1451 -40 60. Electronegativity of an element depends on
element
Metal forming A) Oxidation state
iv) D 2372 2515 +18
binary halide
B) Size
A) i-B; ii-A; iii-D; iv-C
B) i-A; ii-B; iii-D; iv-C C) Effective nuclear charge
C) i-B; ii-A; iii-C; iv-D D) All these
D) i-D; ii-A; iii-B; iv-C 61. Penetrating power order of various electron
57. Which of the following is/are related to is in the order of
electro negativity of an element?
A) s > p > d > f
i) Basic/acidic nature of oxides and
hydroxides B) s > f > p > d
ii) Oxidising /reducing ability of an element C) f > d > p > s
iii) Ionic character of a bond
D) s > p > d = f
iv) Bond angle
A) i & ii 62. Among the following which is the strongest
oxidising agent?
B) iv
C) i, ii & iv A) Cl2 B) F2
D) i, ii, iii & iv C) Br2 D) I2

48
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

63. The maximum co-valency exhibited by 68. Statement-I : Lithium and Magnesium
nitrogen is exhibit diagonal relations
A) 3 B) 4 Statement-II : Size and electronegativity
C) 5 D) 6 values of Li and Mg are
almost equal
64. The covalency of Al in [Al(H2O)5Cl]2+ is
A) 3 B) 4 In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate option.
C) 5 D) 6
A) Statement I & II both are correct
65. First member of each of the groups 1, 2,
13-17 differ in many respects from other
B) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect
members of their respective groups
because of C) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
i) small size
D) Both statement I & II are incorrect
ii) high electronegativity
iii) absence of d-orbitals in valence shell 69. Which among the following is not a neutral
oxide?
iv) absence of isotopes
A) NO
A) i & ii B) iii
C) i, ii & iii D) i, ii, iii & iv B) N2O

66. Considering the elements B, Al, Mg and K, C) CO

the correct order of their metallic character
is D) CO2
A) B > Al > Mg > K
70. Which of the following is the most basic in
B) Al > Mg > B> K nature ?
C) Mg > Al > K > B A) MgO
D) K > Mg > Al > B
B) BeO
67. Assertion : [BF4]– exist but [AlF6]3–
does not C) BaO
Reason : B has vacant d-orbitals
D) CaO
A) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements but reason is not correct 71. Which one of the following orders presents
explanation for assertion. the correct sequence of the increasing
basic nature of the given oxides?
B) Assertion and reason both are
correct statements and reason is correct A) Na2O < K2O < MgO < Al2O3
explanation for assertion.
C) Assertion and reason both are wrong B) K2O < Na2O < Al2O3 < MgO
statements.
C) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
is correct statement. D) MgO < K2O < Al2O3 < Na2O

49
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS 80. Which of the following sets contain only
isoelectronic ions ?
72. Total number of elements accommodated
in period 6 and group 3 are respectively A) Zn2+, Ca2+, Ga3+, Al3+
73. Atomic number of Ag is 47. In the same
group, the difference in the atomic number B) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl–
of element placed below Ag and above Ag.
C) P3–, S2–, Cl–, K+
74. The first ionisaiton enthalpy of Na is 5.1eV.
The magnitude of electron gain enthalpy of D) Tl4+, Ar, Cr3+, V5+
Na+ will be
81. Which of the following statements is /are
75. The distance between two adjacent copper correct?
atoms in solid copper is 256 pm; hence
the metallic radius of copper is assigned a A)Electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is more
value of negative than Fluorine
76. What would be the atomic number of next
alkaline earth metal to be synthesised? B) ∆ eg H of Fluorine is least negative among

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT the halogens

77. Which of the following elements can show C) Electro negativity of Fluorine is greater
covalency greater than 4 than chlorine
A) Be B) P
D) Oxidising power of Fluorine is less than
C) S D) B that of chlorine.

78. Which of the following sequences contain SAMPLE QUESTIONS

atomic numbers of only representative 1. Among noble gases which of the following
elements element has electron gain enthalpy greater
than 100 kJ/mol
A) 3, 33, 53, 87
A) He B) Ne
B) 2, 10, 22, 36
C) Ar D) Kr
C) 7, 17, 25, 37, 48
2. Which of the following set has the strongest
D) 9, 35, 51, 88
tendency to form anions ?
79. Which of the following elements will gain
A) Ga, In & Tl B) Na, Mg & Al
one electron more readily in comparison to
other elements of their group ? C) N, O & S D) V, Cr & Mn
A) S(g) 3. Which of the following has least
electronegativity?
B) Na(g)
A) B B) Al
C) O(g)
C) Ga D) Tl
D) Cl(g)

50
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

4. In the plot of the first ionization energy

9. Diagonally related pair of elements is
against atomic number the peaks are
occupied by A) Na and Mg
A) Inert gases B) B & Al
B) Alkali metals C) Be & Al
C) Halogens D) Si & As
D) Transition elements 10. The electronic configuration of some natural
5. The correct values of ionization energies (in atoms are given below
KJ mole-1) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are A) 1s22s1 B) 1s22s22p3
A) 786,1012,999,1256 C) 1s22s22p4 D) 1s22s22p63s1
B) 1012,786,999,1256
In which of these electronic configuration
C) 786,1012,1256, 999 would you expect to have highest:

D) 786,999,1012,1256 (i) IE1 ii) IE2

6. Which of the following sequence is correct A) 3,1 B) 2,1

for decreasing order of ionic radius:
C) 3,2 D) 2,4
A) Se–2, I–, Br–, O-2, F-
11. Which of the following pairs has elements
B) I , Se , O , Br , F
- -2 -2 – - containing same number of electrons in
outer most orbit
C) Se-2, I-, Br-,F-, O-2
A) Sc, Cu B) Na, Ca
D) I-, se-2, Br-, O-2, F-
C) Pb, Sb D) As, Bi
7. Cl2O7 when react with water and form a
strong acid, the acid is 12. Zinc does not show the variable valency as
elements of d-block, because:
A) HCl B) HClO4
A) This is soft metal
C) H3O+ D) Cl2O
B) d-orbital is full
8. Which of the following orders for electron
affinity is/are correct: C) Its melting point is low
a) S>O<Se b) Cl>F D) Volatile Metal
c) S>O d) O>S 13. The right order of ionization potential of Li,
e) N>P f)C>N Be, B&C is:

A) a,b,c,e A) C>Be>B>Li

B) a,b,c,f B) C>B>Be>Li

C) b,c,d,e C) C>B>Li>Be

D) b,c,f D) B>C>Be>Li

51
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

14. The covalency of P in PCl5 is : 18. Statement-I : Lithium and Magnesium

exhibit diagonal relations
A) 3 B) 5 Statement-II : Size and electronegativity
values of Li and Mg are
C) 2 D) 0 almost equal
In the light of the above statements, choose
15. Downwards in a group the electropositive the most appropriate option.
character of elements
A) Statement I & II both are correct
A) increases
B) Statement I is correct but II is incorrect

B) decreases C) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct

D) Both statement I & II are incorrect
C) remain same
19. The correct order of second ionization
D) None potential of C, N, O and F is

16. Increasing order of metallic characteristic of A) C>N>O>F B) O>N>F>C

C, Sb, As, Bi, Si is shown by:
C) O>F>N>C D) F>O>N>C
A) C, Si, As, Sb, Bi 20. The correct sequence of the electron affinity
of C, N, O and F is:
B) C, Si, Bi, Sb, As
A) C>N<O<F B) O>N>C>F
C) C, Si, Sb, Bi, As
C) C<N>O<F D) C>N>O>F
D) C, Si, As, Bi, Sb 21. An element which forms an amphoteric
oxide is
17. Assertion : [BF4]– exist but [AlF6]3–
does not A) Ca B) Ba

Reason : B has vacant d-orbitals C) B D) Be

A) Assertion and reason both are correct 22. The correct order of chemical reactivity in
statements but reason is not correct terms of oxidising property with standard
explanation for assertion. reduction potential

B) Assertion and reason both are A) F > Cl > O > N B) F > O > Cl > N
correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion. C) Cl > F > O > N D) O > F > N > Cl

23. The correct order of ionization energies of

C) Assertion and reason both are wrong
F–, Cl-, F and Cl is
statements.
A) Cl<F<Cl-<F- B)Cl– <F–<Cl<F
D) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
is correct statement. C) F–<Cl–<Cl<F D) Cl–<Cl<F–<F

52
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

24. Atomic radii of alkali metals (M) follow 28. Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to:
the order Li<Na<K<Rb but ionic radii in
aqueous solution follow the reverse order A) the same effective nuclear charge from
Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+. The reason of the reverse Ce to Lu
order is:
B) the imperfect shielding on outer electrons
by 4f electrons from the nuclear charge
A) Increase in the ionisation energy
C) the appreciable shielding on outer
B) Decrease in the metallic bond character electrons by 4f electrons from the nuclear
charge
C) Increase in the electropositive character
D) the appreciable shielding on outer
D) Decrease in the amount of hydration electrons by 5d electrons from the nuclear
charge.
25. The first ionization potentials(eV) of Be and
29. Ionic radii are
B respectively are:
A) Inversely proportional to square of
A) 8.29eV, 9.32 eV effective nuclear charge

B) 9.32 eV, 9.32 eV B) Directly proportional to effective nuclear

charge
C) 8.29 eV, 8.29 eV
C) Directly proportional to square of effective
D) 9.32 eV, 8.29 eV nuclear charge

26. The decreasing order of the ionization D) Inversely proportional to effective nuclear
potential of the following elements is: charge

A) Ne>Cl>P>S>Al>Mg 30. Identify the correct order of the size of the

following:-
B) Ne>Cl>P>S>Mg>Al
A) Ca2+ < Ar < K+ < Cl– < S2–
C) Ne>Cl>S>P>Mg>Al
B) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < S2– < Cl–
D) Ne>Cl>S>P>Al>Mg
C) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar < Cl– < S2–
27. One element has atomic weight 39. Its
electronic configuration is 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, D) Ar < Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
3s2, 2p6,4s1. The true statements for that
element is: 31. Among the following which one has the
highest cation to anion size ratio?
A) More (IE)
A) CsF
B) Transition element
B) LiF
C) Isotone with 18Ar 36
C) NaF
D) Stable oxide M2O
D) CsI

53
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

32. Identify the wrong statement in the following Statement type questions

A) Atomic radius of the elements increases A) If both statement-I and statement-II

as one moves down the first group of the are true and statement-II is the correct
periodic table explanation of statement-I

B) If both statement-I and statement-

B) Atomic radius of the elements decreases
II are true and statement-II is not the
as one moves across from left to right in the
correct explanation of statement-I
second period of the periodic table
C) If statements-I is true but statement-II
C) Amongst isoelectronic species, smaller is false
the positive charge on the cation, smaller ist
he ionic radius D) If both statement-I and statement-II
are false
D) Amongst isoelectronic species, greater
the negative charge on the anion, larger is 35. Statement-I: The ionization energy of
the ionic radius Na2+ is less than that of
Na+

33. Which of the following orders of ionic radii is Statement-II: The electrons in Na+ are
correctly represented? more loosely held com-
pared to Na2+
A) H > H+ > H
36. Statement-I: Moseley’s experiment
showed that the proper
B) Na+ < F– < O2– sequence criterion for
the periodic arrangement
C) F– > O2– > Na+ of atoms was not atomic
weight but atomic num-
ber.
D) Al3+ > Mg2+ > N3–
Statement-II: The square root of the
34. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the wavelength of the X-ray
same number of electrons. In which order produced of the elements
do their radii increase? is directly proportional to
the atomic number.
A) Ca2+ < Ar < K+
37. Statement-I: The general valence shell
electronic configuration
B) Ca2+ < K+ < Ar of p-block elements is
ns2np0-6.
C) K+ < Ar < Ca2+
Statement-II: They are placed in group
D) Ar < K+ < Ca2+ number 16 to 18

54
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

38. Statement-I: The valence shell elec- 44. The group doesnot having isoelectronic
tronic configuration of species
d-block elements is ns0-2
(n–1) d1-10 including Pd. A) O2– F– Na+ Mg2+
Statement-II: The electronic configurai-
ton of Pd (Z = 46) is [Kr] B) O– F– Na+ Mg2+
5s2 4d10
C) O– F– Na Mg2+
39. Statement-I: f-block elements are
known as inner transition D) O2– F– Na Mg2+
elements.
45. Diagonal relationship is shown by
Statement-II: They are placed at the
bottom of the long form of A) Li and Mg
periodic table.
B) Be and Al
40. Statement-I: Radius of C4– is less than
that of O2– C) B and Si
Statement-II: Zeffective of C is greater than
D) C and P
that of O.

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS

41. Which of the following is Doberenier triad 46. An element of s-block has electronic
configuration [Ar]4s1, then the total number
A) Cl, Br, I B) Ca,Sr, Ba of s-block metals before this element will be

C) Li, Na, K D) Fe, Co, Ni 47. The atomic number of a d-block element is

42. Which element/s are of p block from the Atomic number = 29,49,81,58,17,70,95
following
48. If IE1 and IE2 of Mg are 170 and 340 kcal
A) As B) Ga mole–1, then
C) Sr D) Po
∆H for Mg(g) → Mg 2+ ( g ) + 2e − is
43. In which of the following options, the order
of arrangements doesnot agree with the 49. If the value of azimuthal quantum number
variation of property indicated against it for d subshell is assumed to be 3, then
number of groups in d-block will be
A) Li<Na<K<Rb (increasing metallic radius)
50. The successive ionization enthalpics (IE)
B) Al3+<Mg2+ <Na+<F– ( Increasing ionic for an element A are as follows
size)
IE1 IE 2 IE3
A  → A + → A 2+  → A 3+ → .............
C) B<C<N<O (increasing first ionization
enthalpy) The IE1 and IE3 values are 27 kJ mol–1 and
51 kJ mol–1 respectively. Then predict the
D) I<Br<Cl<F ( increasing electron gain value of IE2 from the following values.
enthalpy)
21,33,59,63,74,85

55
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY

1. D 17. B 33. C 49. C 65. C

2. A 18. C 34. A 50. D 66. D
3. B 19. C 35. D 51. B 67. C
4. B 20. D 36. C 52. B 68. A
5. A 21. C 37. D 53. B 69. D
6. A 22. A 38. A 54. A 70. C
7. D 23. C 39. D 55. D 71. C
8. A 24. A 40. C 56. A 72. 32
9. A 25. C 41. A 57. D 73. 50
10. B 26. B 42. B 58. C 74. 5.1
11. D 27. C 43. D 59. B 75. 128
12. D 28. A 44. D 60. D 76. 120
13. A 29. C 45. A 61. A 77. B,C
14. B 30. D 46. D 62. B 78. A,D
15. C 31. C 47. B 63. B 79. A,D
16. B 32. B 48. B 64. D 80. B,C
81. A,C
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. B 11. D 21. D 31. A 41. A,B,C

2. C 12. B 22. A 32. C 42. A,B,D

3. B 13. A 23. C 33. B 43. C,D

4. A 14. B 24. D 34. B 44. B,C,D

5. C 15. A 25. D 35. D 45. A,B,C

6. D 16. A 26. B 36. C 46. 4

7. B 17. C 27. D 37. D 47. 29

8. B 18. A 28. B 38. C 48. 510

9. C 19. C 29. D 39. B 49. 14

10. B 20. A 30. C 40 D 50. 33

56
 Chapter CHEMICAL BONDING AND
04 MOLECULAR STRUCTURE

QUESTIONS 4. The formal charges on nitrogen atoms 1 and

2 and oxygen atom 3 in N ≡ N → O are
1 2 3
INTRODUCTION TO CHEMICAL BONDING
(IONIC, COVALENT AND CO-ORDINATE respectively
BOND) A) 0, +1, –1
1. In which of the following the bond is
B) 0, –2, +1
nondirectional?
C) 0, 0, –1
A) NCl3 B) RbCl
D) –1, –1, 0
C) BeCl2 D) BCl3 5. The number of σ bond, π bond and lone pair
2. The lattice energy of NaCl is 788 kJ mol . –1 of electrons respectively in acetone
This means that 788 kJ of energy is required O
are
A) to separate one mole of solid NaCl into CH3–C–CH3
one mole of Na+(g) and one mole of Cl–(g) to
infinite distance
A) 9, 2, 1
B) to separate one mole of solid NaCl into B) 8, 2, 2
one mole of Na(g) and one mole of Cl(g) to
infinite distance C) 10, 1, 1
D) 9, 1, 2
C) to convert one mole of solid NaCl into one
mole of gaseous NaCl 6. Which of the following atoms can have more
than 8 outermost electrons when it forms a
D) to convert one mole of gaseous NaCl into covalent compound?
one mole of solid NaCl
A) N B) F
3. The electronegativities of 4 atoms D, E, F and C) B D) Cl
G are as follows: D - 3.8, E - 3.3, F - 2.8 and
7. Which of the following is/are correct
G - 1.3. If the atoms form molecules DE, DG,
statement(s) ?
EG and DF, the increasing order of covalent
character in them is A) CuCl is covalent and NaCl is ionic
B) Inner d electrons have poor shielding effect
A) DG < EG < DF < DE
on the nucleus
B) DF < DG < DE < EG C) Cations with 18 valence shell electrons have
greater polarising power than cations with 8
C) DG < DF < EG < DE valence shell electrons
D) DE < EG < DG < DF D) All the above statements are correct

57
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

8. Which is the correct order of lattice energy of 14. The d orbitals used in the hybrid orbitals of
the following compounds? Xe in XeF4 are

A) NaCl > MgBr2 > CaO > Al2O3 A) dxy and dyz

B) NaCl > CaO > MgBr2 > Al2O3 B) dxz and dz2

C) Al2O3 > CaO > MgBr2 > NaCl C) dx2 - y2 and dz2

D) Al2O3 > MgBr2 > CaO > NaCl D) dxy and dz2

VBT, HYBRIDISATION AND VSEPR THEORY 15. Which of the following molecules contains 2
types of bond lengths?
9. What is the change in the hybridisation of the
carbon atom when CH4 undergoes complete A) PCl5
combustion?
B) XeF4
A) sp3 to sp2
C) SF6
B) sp3 to sp
D) CF4
C) sp2 to sp
D) sp2 to sp3 16. The bent or V shape of molecules can be
resulted from the hybridisations
10. Molecular shapes of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are
A) sp3
A) the same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pairs of
electrons respectivley B) sp2
B) the same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pairs of C) sp3d
electrons respectively
D) Both A and B
C) different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of
electrons respectively 17. Which of the following are isosteres?
D) different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of I) SF4
2−
II) BeF4
electrons respectively
11. A σ bonded molecule MX3 is T shaped. The
III) BF4
−
number of non bonding pairs of electrons on IV)
M are A) I, II, III and IV
A) 0 B) 2
B) I, III and IV
C) 1 D) 4
C) III and IV
12. Two hybrid orbitals have angle 109° 28/
between them. The % of S character in the D) II, III and IV
hybrid orbital is about
18. A π bond is formed by the overlap of Px
A) 25% B) 33% orbitals of two atoms. The atoms can
C) 50% D) 66% approach along

13. The geometrical shape of BrF5 is similar to A) X axis

that of
B) Y axis
A) PCl5 B) XeF4
C) Z axis
C) PCl
+
4 D) XeOF4
D) Y or Z axis

58
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

19. Select the systematic diagram which rep-

The number of bp-lp repulsion at 900 in ICl4
−
23.
resents the correct change in the percentage
of S character in the hybrid orbital of Be
is

A) 6 B) 8

C) 12 D) 4
A)
24. Which of the following species do not exist?

A) SF6 B) SH6

C) SO3 D) HClO4
B)
25. Which of the following will result in zero
overlap if the molecular axis is X axis?

i. 1s - 2px ii. 2s - 2pz

iii. 2px - 2px iv. 1s - 2py

C)
A) i only B) i and ii

C) ii and iv D) iii and iv

26. The state of hybridisation in SF6 is

D)
A) sp3d B) sp3d2

C) sp3 D) sp3d3
20. Which of the following Xenon compound has 27. Match the interhalogen compounds of
the same number of lone pairs as in I3 ?
−
Column I with the geometry in Column II
A) XeO4 and assign the correct code (X and X’ are
different halogens)
B) XeF4
C) XeF2 Column-I Column-II

D) XeO3 a. XX' i T shape

Pentagonal bipyra-
21. Which of the following species is not linear? b. XX 3' ii
midal
A) ICl2 B) I3
− −
c. XX 5' iii Linear
C) CO2 D) ClO2 d. iv Square pyramidal
XX '7
22. Which of the following molecules have dis- v Tetrahedral
torted geometry?
I) H2O II) NH3 A) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

III) PCl3 IV) XeF2 B) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

A) I, III, IV B) I, II, IV C) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii
C) I, II, III, IV D) I, II
D) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

59
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

28. Number of 900 bond angles in IF7 molecule 33. What is the geometry around the carbon atom
is in CH4?

A) 10 A) Trigonal pyramidal

B) 8 B) Trigonal planar

C) 5 C) T-shape

D) 8 D) Tetrahedral

29. In which of the following molecule or ion all 34. What is the shape of NH3 molecule?
the bonds are not equal ?
A) Trigonal pyramidal
B) BF
−
A) XeF4 4
B) Trigonal planar
C) C2H4 D) SiF4
C) Tetrahedral
30. The pair of species having identical shapes
D) Irregular tetrahedral
for molecules is
35. Which of the following statements is correct
A) PF5, IF5 for 1 : 1 complex of (CH3)3N and BF3?
B) CF4, SF4 A) Geometry around N is pyramidal with sp3
hybridisation and that around B is planar with
C) XeF2, CO2 sp2 hybridisation
D) BF3, PCl3 B) The B–F bond length in the complex is
longer than that in BF3
31. The species having pπ − dπ bond is
C) The geometry around N and B both are
A) CN– tetrahedral with sp3 hybridisation

B) NO2 D) B and C both

C) H2O
RESONANCE, POLAR AND
3−
NON-POLAR MOLECULES
D) PO 4
36. Which is the correct order of dipole moment
32. What is the geometry around the sulphur among the following molecules?
atom in SF6?
A) CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3F
A) Trigonal pyramidal
B) CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br
B) Trigonal planar
C) CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br
C) T-shape
D) CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
D) Octahedral

60
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

37. Resonance structures can be written for BOND PARAMETRES

A) O3 B) H2O 42. The C–H bond distance is longest in

C) CH4 D) SF6 A) C2H2

38. Resonating structures of a molecule may not B) C2H4

have C) C2H2Br2
A) Identical bonding D) C2H6
B) Identical arrangement of atoms 43. In which of the following, carbon-carbon
single bond length is the shortest
C) Nearly the same energy content

D) The same number of unpaired electrons

A) B)
39. PClxF5-x molecule will be polar and non polar
for the values of x given as

Polar Nonpolar C) D)

A) 2,3,5 0,4,1
44. The correct order of Cl–O bond order in the
B) 0,2,5 3,1,4 following ions is

A) ClO3 < ClO 4 < ClO 2 < ClO

− − − −
C) 4,3,0 2,0,4
B) ClO < ClO 4 < ClO3 < ClO 2
− − − −
D) 2,1,4 3,0,5

C) ClO < ClO 2 < ClO3 < ClO 4

− − − −
40. Which of the following pair of compounds
have permanent dipole moment for both the
D) ClO 4 < ClO3 < ClO 2 < ClO
− − − −
molecules?

A) SiF4, CO2 MOLECULAR ORBITAL THEORY

B) SiF4, NO2 45. Which of the following species have same

bond order and identical magnetic property?
C) NO2, CO2
I) O 2
+

D) NO2, O3
II) NO
41. Which of the following molecules will have
III) N 2
+
polar bonds but zero dipole moment?

A) O2 A) I and II

B) CHCl3 B) I and III

C) CCl4 C) I, II and III

D) O3 D) II and III

61
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

2−
Peroxide ion, O 2 51. During the change of O2 to O 2 , the electron
−
46.
i) has half filled antibonding molecular is added to which one of the following
orbitals orbitals?
ii) is diamagnetic
A) π* orbital B) π orbital
iii) has bond order one
iv) is isoelectronic with Ne2 C) σ* orbital D) σ orbital

Which of these are correct?

52. Which among the following will favour reduc-
tion? N 2 , O 2 , O 2 , CO, CN and N 2
+ − +
A) ii and iii
B) i, ii and iv
A) N 2 B) O 2
+ +

C) i, ii and iii
D) CO, CN– and O 2
+
D) i and iv C) N2 and O2

47. Which of the following will be stabilised by

53. In which of the following pairs of molecules/
the removal of an electron?
ions both the species are not likely to exist?
A) CN– B) N2
2− 2−
A) H 2 , He 2 B) H 2 , He 2
+ −
C) B2 D) O2
48. Which of the following will have electron in 2+
C) H 2 , He 2
2+
D) H 2 , He 2
−

antibonding π* molecular orbital ?

A) CN­– 54. The increasing order O–O bond energy in O2,
Na2O2 and KO2 is
B) N2
C) B2 A) KO2 < Na2O2 < O2

D) O2 B) Na2O2 < KO2 < O2

49. D e c r e a s i n g o r d e r o f s t a b i l i t y o f
O 2 , O 2− , O 2+ and O 22− is C) Na2O2 < O2 < KO2

2−
A) O 2 > O 2 > O 2 > O 2
− +
D) O2 < KO2 < Na2O2
2−
B) O 2 > O 2 > O 2 > O 2
+ −
55. The decreasing order of bond energy among
2− F2, Cl2, O2 and N2 is :
C) O > O > O2 > O
− +
2 2 2

2−
D) O 2 > O 2 > O 2 > O 2
+ −
A) N2 > O2 > Cl2 > F2

50. W h i c h o f t h e f o l l o w i n g s p e c i e s i s
B) O2 > F2 > Cl2 > N2
paramagnetic?
2−
A) NO– B) O 2 C) F2 > Cl2 > O2 > N2

C) CN– D) CO D) N2 > O2 > F2 > Cl2

62
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

56. Which is the correct order of bond angle in HYDROGEN BONDING

O3, NO 2 and NOF?
−
60. Which of the following is steam volatile?
A) o-nitrophenol
A) NO 2 > O3 > NOF
−

B) Aniline
B) NOF > O3 > NO
−
2 C) Glycerol
D) p-nitrophenol
C) O3 > NOF > NO 2
−

61. Which of the following is the correct order of

boiling point among HF, HCl, HBr and HI
D) O3 > NO 2 > NOF
−

A) HF < HCl < HBr < HI

57. Correct order of O–O bond length in O2, H2O2
B) HCl < HBr < HI < HF
and O3 is
C) HF < HI < HBr < HCl
A) H2O2 > O3 > O2 D) HI < HBr < HCl < HF

B) H2O2 > O2 > O3 62. The correct order of decrease in hydrogen

bond strength in HF, H2O, H2O2 and H2S is :
C) O2 > O3 > H2O2
A) H2O2 > H2O > HF > H2S
D) O3 > O2 > H2O2
B) H2O > H2O2 > HF > H2S
58. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
C) HF > H2O > H2O2 > H2S
A) The O–O bond length in H2O2 is larger than
that in O2F2 D) HF > H2O2 > H2O > H2S

B) The O–O bond length in H2O2 is slightly MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
2−
smaller than that in O 2 63. Select the correct statements
A) Polarizability of S2– is lower than that of
C) O 2 and O 2 species are paramagnetic
− +
Se2–
B) Polarizability of S2– is higher than that of
and have same number of unpaired electrons
Cl–
D) None of the above C) Polarizability of S2– is lower than that of
P3–
59. The common features of the species D) Polarizability of S2– is lower than that of
N 22− , O 2 and NO − are O2–
64. Which of the following molecules are polar
A) bond order 3 and isoelectronic
and sp3d2 hybridized?
B) bond order 2 and isoelectronic A) IF5
B) XeF4
C) bond order 3 but not isoelectronic
C) XeOF4
D) bond order 2 but not isoelectronic D) SO3

63
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

65. In which case/s there is a change in hybridi- NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS

sation?
69. There are some species given below
A) NH3 combines with H+ i. O 2
+
ii. CO
B) AlH3 combines with H–
iv. O 2
−
iii. B2
C) NH3 loses H to form NH
+ −
2

vi. He 2
+
v. NO+
2−
D) SiF4 forms SiF 6
2+
66. X, Y and Z are three substances. X does not vii. C 2 viii. CN–
conduct electricity in the solid or liquid state.
Y conducts electricity both in the fused and ix. N 2
−

solution states. Z conducts electricity only in

solution state. Which of the following state-
Total number of species which have fractional
ments is/are correct?
bond order is
A) X has polar covalent linkage 70. Calculate the I – I distance in Å for the given
compound CH2 – CI2 if C – I bond length is
B) X has non-polar covalent linkage 2.35 Å (sin 600=0.866)
C) Y is ionic in nature 71. The total number of electrons in the
antibonding molecular orbitals of O 2 is
−
D) Z has polar covalent linkage
67. Which of the following species is/are having 72. Calculate the expression (x + y+z) for diatom-
π2p as HOMO? ic molecules
x = total number of singly occupied molecular
A) N 2
−
orbitals in O2
2+ y = total number of singly occupied molecular
B) O 2
orbitals in B2
C) NO+ z = total number of singly occupied molecular
orbitals in NO
D) B2
+
MATRIX MATCH TYPE QUESTIONS
68. Which is/are not the correct variation of 73.
properties in NH 2 , NH 3 and NH 4
− +
Compound Type of bond
A) NH4Cl i) Hydrogen bond
A ) NH 3 < NH 3 < NH 4
− +
- H–N–H bond
B) Cu- ii) Co-ordination
angle SO4.5H2O bond
C) HNC iii) Ionic bond
B) NH 2 < NH 3 < NH 4 - number of lone pairs
− +
D) Liquid iv) Covalent bond
H2O2
on N atom

C) NH −2 < NH 3 < NH +4 - N–H bond length A) A → ii, iii, iv; B → i, ii, iii, iv; C → ii, iv;
D → i, iv
D) NH 2 < NH 3 < NH 4 - number of s and p
− +
B) A → i; B → ii; C → iii; D→ iv
C) A → ii; B → i; C → iv; D → iii
orbitals used in hybridisation
D) A → vi; B→ iii; C → ii; D → i

64
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

SAMPLE QUESTIONS 6. Octet rule is not followed in

1. Formation of anion from a neutral atom X is A) CCl4, N2O4 and N2O5
favoured by
B) BF3, BeCl2 and NO2
A) high electron affinity C) NaCl, MgCl2, MgO
B) large size of X D) PCl3, NH3, H2O
C) low ionisation potential 7. Which has maximum number of lone-pairs of
electrons on the central atom?
D) high charge on anion X
A) XeF2
2. Which set contains no ionic species?
B) H3O+
A) NH4Cl, OF2, H2S
C) XeF4
B) CO2,CCl4, Cl2 D) XeF6
C) BF3, AlF3, TlF3 8. Geometrical configuration of BF3 and NF3
D) I2, CaO, CH3Cl molecules is
A) the same because of same covalency of
3. Elements A,B and C have respectively
the central atom
1,3 and 5 electrons in valence shell. Ionic
compound is not formed from B) different because BF3 is polar and NF3 is
non-polar
A) A and C
C) different because BF3 is non-polar and NF3
B) A and B is polar
C) B and B D) none is correct
D) B and C 9. Which of the following is a positive overlap
which leads to bonding ?
4. Which pair is not correct order of lattice
+
energy? + - +
A) + z B) z
A) KCl > MgO + -

B) AIN >MgO
C) CaO>BaO
+ +
D) MgCO3>CaCO3 - + - +
C) z D) z
5. Select the correct statement + - + -

A) Both lattice energy and hydration energies px px

decrease with ionic size
10. The angle between the bonding orbitals of a
B) Lattice energy can be calculated using
molecule AX3 with zero dipole moment is
Born-Haber cycle
A) 120o
C) If the anion is large compared to the cation,
the lattice energy will remain almost constant B) 109o
within a particular group C) 104o
D) All of the above are correct statements D) 180o

65
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

11. Which of these molecules have non-bonding 16. The geometry of the atoms in the species
electron pairs on the central atom? PCl+4 is best described as
I) SF4 A) tetrahedral
II) ICl3 B) see-saw
III) SO2
C) square planar
A) II only B) I and II only
D) trigonal bipyramidal
C) I and III only D) I, II and III
17. PCl 5 has a shape of trigonal bipyramid
12. Which species has the same shape as the whereas IF 5 has the shape of a square
NO3− ion? pyramid. It is due to
A) SO3 A) presence of unshared electron pair on I
2− which is oriented so as to minimise repulsion
B) SO3
while P in PCl5 has no unshared pair.
C) ClF3
B) Octet of P is complete while that of I is
D) ClO
−
3 incomplete
13. When the number of electron pairs on the C) P and I are of different groups
central atom is six, then geometry of the
molecule is D) F and Cl have different extent of repulsion

A) Octahedral 18. Among the following molecules/ ions,

B) trigonal bipyramidal C22− , N 22− , O 22− , O 2

C) equilateral triangle Which one is diamagnetic and has the

shortest bond length?
D) linear
2−
14. Arrange the following bonds according to their A) C 2 B) O2
average bond energies in descending order 2− 2−
C) O 2 D) N 2
C − Cl, C − Br, C − F, C − l
19. In which pair or pairs is the stronger bond
A) C − F > C − Cl > C − Br > C − I found in the first species?
B) C − Br > C − I > C − Cl > C − F I : O 22− , O 2 : II : N 2 , N 2+ ; III : NO + , NO −
C) C − I > C − Br > C − Cl > C − F A) I only B) II only
D) C − Cl > C − Br > C − I > C − F
C) I and III only D) II and III only
15. What hybrid orbitals are employed by carbon
atoms 1,2 and 3, respectivly as labelled in the 20. Assuming that Hund’s rule is violated, the
compound shown? bond order and magnetic nature of the
diatomic molecule B2 is
O
A) 1 and diamagnetic
H3C1 C2 C
3 N
B) 0 and diamagnetic
A) sp3, sp, sp B) sp3, sp2, sp C) 1 and paramagnetic
C) sp , sp, sp
3 2
D) sp , sp , sp
3 2 2
D) 0 and paramagnetic

66
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

21. Which of the following has zero dipole 25. H-bonding is maximum in
moment?
A) ethanol
A) CO
B) SO2 B) methoxy methane

C) SO3 C) chloroethane

D) H2O D) N,N-diethyl amino ethane

22. Which of the following statement is wrong?
26. Which property is not due to H-bonding?
A) A σ − bond is shorter than a π − bond
A) High boiling point of water
B) Bond energies of σ and π − bonds are of
B) High viscosity of glycerol
same order.
C) Solubility of ammonia in water
C) Free rotation of atoms about a σ − bond
D) Polar nature of halogen acid
is allowed but not in case of a π − bond
27. Among the following, the molecule expected
D) A σ − bond determines the direction to be stabilised by anion formation is C2,O2,
NO, F2.
between C-atoms but a π − bond has no
A) C2 B) F2
primary effect which leads to bonding.
C) NO D) O2
23. Select the correct statement.
A) BF3 and NH3 have same dipole moment 28. The formal charge of the O atoms in the ion
+
B) Dipole moment of NH3 is smaller than that [:O N O:] is
of BF3
A) –2 B) –1
C) BF3 molecule has a planar structure, while
the NH3 molecule is tetrahedral C) 0 D) +1
D) The nitrogen atom has unshared pair of
29. Delocalised molecular orbitals are found in
electrons, while the boron atom has a free
(vacant) valance orbital. A) H2
24. Select the correct statement.
B) HS–
A) Cations with 18 electron shell have greater
polarising power than the cations with 8 C) CH4
electron shell
2−
D) CO3
B) Inner electrons have poor shielding effect
on the nucleus and thus electronegatively of 30. Which one of the following is least volatile
the 18 electron shell is increased.
C) CuCl is covalent and NaCl is ionic A) HCN B) HF

D) All the above are correct statements C) H2O D) CS2

67
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

31. The compound that has the largest H–M–H 35. The correct order of increasing C–O bond
bond angle (M=N, O, S, C) is 2−
length of CO, CO3 , CO 2 is
A) H2O B) NH3 2−
A) CO3 < CO 2 < CO
C) H2S D) CH4
2−
B) CO 2 < CO3 < CO
32. Among the following species, identify the
isostructural pairs
2−
C) CO < CO3 < CO 2
NF3 , NO , BF3 , H 3O , HN 3
−
3
+

2−
D) CO < CO 2 < CO3
A)  NF3 , NO3  and  BF3 , H 3O 
− +

36. Correct Lewis structure is

B) [ NF3 , HN 3 ] and  NO3 , BF3 
−

C)  NF3 , H 3O  and  NO3 , BF3 

+ − A) [:O C N:]-

D)  NF3 , H 3O  and [ HN 3 , BF3 ] B) [ C = C :]2−

+

33. A central atom in a molecule has two lone -

C) [:Cl O: ]
pairs of electrons and forms three single
bonds. The shape of this molecule is
D) :N=O:
A) see-saw
37. Which of the following has the highest
B) T-shaped percentage of ionic character in its bonding?
C) planar triangular
A) LiI
D) trigonal pyramidal
B) MgCl2
34. Which has maximum dipole moment?

Cl C) CsF
Cl
Cl
Cl Cl 4) CsI
A) B)
38. Which of the following is non-polar but
contains polar bonds?
Cl
A) HCl

Cl Cl
B) CO2
Cl Cl
C) D) C) NH3

2−
D) SbF2
Cl Cl

68
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

39. Specify the coordination geometry around 44. Which combinations of the compounds and
the hybridisation of N and B atoms in a 1:1 their geometry are correct?
complex of BF3 and NH3.
A) HgCl2-linear
A) N:tetrahedral, sp3: B: tetrahedral, sp3
B) ClF3-V-shaped
B) N:pyramidal, sp3: B: pyramidal, sp3
C) ClF3–T-shaped
C) N: pyramidal, sp3; B: planar, sp2
D) ICl4 -square planar
−
D) N:pyramidal, sp3; B:tetrahedral, sp3

40. Which one of the following has the highest 45. According to Molecular Orbital Theory
boiling point?
2−
A) C 2 is expected to be diamagnetic
A) AsH3 B) SbH3
2+
B) O 2 expected to have a longer bond length
C) PH3 D) NH3
than O2
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT

C) N 2 and N 2 have the same bond order

+ −
41. Which of the following have identical bond-
order?
D) He 2 has the same energy as two isolated
+

B) O
−
A) CN –
2
He atoms
C) NO+ D) CN+

42. Which are the species in which sulphur NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
undergoes sp3- hybridisation?
46. Total number of orbitals involved in the
formation of hybrid orbitals in ClF2 is...........
−
A) SF4

B) SCl2 47. Superoxide ion has ....... electrons in

2−
antibonding molecular orbitals.
C) SO 4
2−
48. Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90o
D) SO 3 F–Br–F angles in BrF5 is _________

43. Among the following the pair in which the two

49. The number of species below that have two
species are isostructural are
lone pairs of electrons in their central atom
is ______
A) SiF4 and SF4

SF4, BF4 , ClF3, AsF3, PCl5, BrF5, XeF4, SF6

−
B) IO3 and XeO3
−

C) BH 4 and NH 4
− +
50. Difference of σ and π bonds in C(CN)4 is

D) PF6 and SF6

− _______,

69
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY

1. B 20. C 39. D 58. D

2. A 21. D 40. D 59. B
3. A 22. C 41. C 60. A
4. A 23. B 42. D 61. B
5. D 24. B 43. C 62. C
6. D 25. C 44. C 63. A,B,C
7. D 26. B 45. C 64. A,C
8. C 27. B 46. A 65. B,D
9. B 28. A 47. D 66. B,C,D
10. D 29. C 48. D 67. B,C,D
11. B 30. C 49. B 68. B,C,D
12. A 31. D 50. A 69. 4
13. D 32. D 51. A 70. 4.07
14. C 33. D 52. A 71. 7
15. A 34. A 53. C 72. 5
16. D 35. D 54. B 73. A
17. D 36. B 55. A
18. D 37. A 56. D
19. A 38. A 57. A

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. A 11. D 21. C 31. D 41. A,C

2. B 12. A 22. B 32. C 42. B,C,D

3. C 13. A 23. D 33. B 43. B,C,D

4. A 14. A 24. D 34. A 44. A,C,D

5. D 15. B 25. A 35. D 45. A,C

6. B 16. A 26. D 36. C 46. 5

7. A 17. A 27. A 37. C 47. 7

8. C 18. A 28. C 38. B 48. 0

9. C 19. D 29. D 39. A 49. 2

10. A 20. A 30. C 40 B 50. 0

70
 Chapter THERMODYNAMICS AND
05 CHEMIAL ENERGETICS

4. One mole of methane undergoes

QUESTIONS combustion to form CO2 and water at 25°C.
Then
INTRODUCTION
1. Which one of the following is a path A) ∆H < ∆U
function?
B) ∆H > ∆U
A) Temperature

B) Potential energy C) ∆H =∆U

C) Work D) Can’t be predicted

D) Enthalpy
5. The work done on the system when
one mole of an ideal gas is compressed
FIRST LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS
isothermally to a final volume of 0.01 m3 at
2. The difference between ∆H and ∆U for the constant external pressure of 5 bar is 20 kJ.
What is initial volume of the gas?
combustion of toluene (C7H8) at 300 K is
A) 0.05 m3
A) –2 RT
B) 0.025 m3
B) –4 RT

C) +2 RT C) 0.04 m3

D) +4 RT D) 0.03 m3

3. Pick out the wrong statement 6. 64 g of oxygen (assume ideal behaviour) at

A) mode of energy transfer due to difference 27°C undergoes reversible isothermal
in temperature is heat expansion from 2.5 L to 25 L. The values of
∆U ,w and q are (in cal)
B) open system can exchange both energy
and matter with surroundings A) 0, 2764, –2764

C) energy transferred due to difference in B) 0, –2764, 2764

temperature is called work

D) in an isolated system, no energy can C) 2764, –2764, 0

be exchanged between system and
surroundings D) –2764, 0, 2764

71
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

7. The difference of heat of reaction at 12. Work done by the system in a cyclic process
constant pressure and at constant volume will be
for combustion of 2 mol of liquid benzene at
300 K A) ΔH B) –q

A) 3.74 kJ B) –7.48 kJ C) ΔU D) ΔV

C) –3.74 kJ D) 7.48 kJ 13. In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed

by a system and 394 J of work is done by
8. 1L atm = ................ J the system. What is the change in internal
energy of the process?
1) 100 2) 101
A) 284 J
3) 101.3 4) 100.3

9. During an adiabatic process, the pressure B) 394 J

of a gas is found to be proportional to cube
of its absolute temperature. The Poisson’s C) 700 J
ratio of gas is
D) 307 J
A) 3/2 B) 7/2
THERMOCHEMISTRY
C) 5/3 D) 9/7
14. ∆Hcombustion of C6H6 (  ) ,C ( s ) and H2 (g) are
10. How many calories are required to heat 40
gram of argon from 40 to 100°C at constant
–3000 kJ, –390 kJ and –290 kJ mol–1
volume (Assuming ideal behaviour)?
respectively. Hence heat of formation of
benzene, is
A) 120

B) 2400 A) –210 kJ mol–1

C) 1200 B) 210 kJ mol–1

D) 180 C) 3680 kJ mol–1

11. The work done in reversible adiabatic D) –3680 kJ mol–1

expansion of an ideal gas is :
15. ∆ f H 0 of H2O, CO2 and sucrose (C12H22O11)
V2
A) w = − nRTn
V1 are respectively (in kJ mol–1) –286, –393.5
and –2222. The enthalpy of combustion of
sucrose is
w nCv∆T
B) =
A) –5466 kJmol–1
nR∆T
C) w =
γ −1 B) –5646 kJmol–1

C) –2823 kJmol–1
D) Both B and C
D) +5466 kJmol–1

72
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

16. A cylinder of cooking gas is assumed to 19. The heat of combustion of methane is –880
contain 14.2 kg butane (C4H10). Combustion kJ mol–1. If 3.2 g of methane is burnt, .......
of butane is kJ of heat is evolved

13 A) 88 B) 264
C4 H10( g ) + O 2(g) 
→ 4CO 2(g) + 5H 2 O(  ) ; ∆H= −2660kJ
2
C) 176 4) 440
If a family needs 14000 kJ of energy per
day for cooking and assuming that 20% 20. H 2(g) + 1 O 2(g) 
→ H 2 O(  ) ; ∆H= −68 kcal
of the gas is wasted due to incomplete 2
combustion, how long would the cylinder 1
K (s) + H 2 O(  ) + aq 
→ KOH (aq) + H 2( g ) ; ∆H= −48kcal
last? 2
KOH (s ) + aq 
→ KOH ( aq ) ; ∆H= −14 kcal
A) 37 days
0
From the above data ∆ f H of KOH is
B) 18 days
A) –130 B) 130
C) 25 days
C) +102 D) –102
D) 30 days 21. The lattice enthalpy and hydration enthalpy
of four ionic solids are given below
17. When 0.2 g of 1-butanol was burnt in a
suitable apparatus, the heat evolved was
sufficient to raise the temperature of 200 Lattice Hydration
g water by 5°C. The values of enthalpy Compound enthalpy enthalpy
of combustion and calorific value of (kJ mol–1) (kJ mol–1­)
1-butanol are [kcal]
P 780 -980
Q 1012 -812
A) –370, –5
R 820 -960
B) +370, 5 S 632 -540

The compounds which are largely soluble

C) –370, 5
in water are

D) +370, –5 A) P and Q B) Q and S

18. 200 mL 0.1 M H2SO4 is mixed with 200 mL C) P and R D) Q and R

0.2 M NaOH. The heat generated due to
neutralisation is 22. If bond enthalpies of H2, Br2 and HBr are
433, 192 and 364 kJ mol–1 respectively,
heat of formation of HBr is
A) 1142 J
A) –103 kJ mol–1
B) 114.2 kJ
B) –51.5 kJ mol–1
C) 228 kJ
C) –159 kJ mol–1
D) 2280 J
D) +103 kJ mol–1

73
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

23. Enthalpy of vaporisation of benzene is 30.8 26. Given that bond energies of H-H
kJ mol–1 at its normal boiling point of 80°C. and Cl-Cl are 430 kJ mol-1 and 240 kJ
Time required for a 100 W electric heater to mol-1 respectively and ∆ f H for HCl is
vapourise 100 g benzene at its boiling point
(Given 1W = 1 Js–1) -90 kJ mol-1. Bond enthalpy of HCl is:

A) 3.95 min A) 245 kJ mol-1

B) 5.13 min B) 290 kJ mol-1

C) 513 sec C) 380 kJ mol-1

D) 6.6 min D) 425 kJ mol-1

24. If the bond dissociation energy of XY, X2

27. The enthalpy of combustion of C(S) , H 2( g )
and Y2 (all diatomic molecules) are in the
ratio of 1:1:0.5 and ∆ f H for the formation and CH 4( g ) are –94.2, –68.3 and –210.8
of XY is –200kJ mol–1, the bond dissociation Kcal mol–1 respectively. Find the enthalpy of
energy of X2 will be formation of CH4 in Kcal mol–1

A) 100kJ mol–1
A) –55

B) 200kJ mol–1
B) –40

C) 800kJ mol–1
C) +55

D) 400kJ mol–1
D) –20

25. If the heat of neutralisation of strong acid-

base reaction is –57.1 kJ, what would be 28. The enthalpy of atomisation of CH4 is 360
the heat released in kJ when 350cm3 of 0.2 kJ/mol. The bond dissociation energy
M H2SO4 is mixed with 650 cm3 of 0.1 M of C–C bond in CH3–CH3 is (enthalpy of
NaOH. atomisation of CH3–CH3 is 580 kJ/mol)

A) 3.17 A) 80

B) 3.71 B) 40

C) 0.317 C) 60

D) 317 D) 50

74
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

29. Ethanol can undergoes decomposition to 32. (1 2 ) S8 (s) + 6O2 (g) → 4SO3 (g); ∆H =−1590kJ
form two sets of products
1 The enthalpy of combustion of S8 will be
C2H4(g)+ H2O(g);

C2H5OH(g) ΔH0 = 45.54 kJ A) -1590 kJmol-1

2 CH3CHO(g)+ H2(g); B) -3180 kJmol-1

ΔH0 = 68.91 kJ
C) +1590kJmol-1
If the molar ratio of C2H4 to CH3CHO is 8:1
in a set of product gases, then the energy D) -795kJmol-1
involved in the decomposition of 1 mole of
ethanol is 33. Enthalpy of neutralization of HCl and NaOH
A) 65.98kJ B) 48.137 kJ is x. The heat evolved when 500 mL of
2NHCl are mixed with 250 mL of 4N NaOH
C) 52.46 kJ D) 57.22 kJ will be
30. The molar heat capacities at constant
pressure (assumed constant with respect A) x
to temperature) of A,B and C are in ratio of
3:1.5:2. The enthalpy change for the B) 500 x
exothermic reaction A+2B →3C at 300 K is
∆H300 and ∆H310 respectively then C) 100 x

A) ∆H300 > ∆H310 D) 10 x

ENTROPY AND 2nd LAW OF

B) ∆H300 < ∆H310 THERMODYNAMICS
34. When the egg is hard boiled, there is
C) ∆H300 =
∆H310
A) Increase in disorder
D) if T2 > T1 then ∆H310 > ∆H300 and
if T2 < T1 then ∆H310 < ∆H300 B) Decrease in disorder

31. For which of the following equations ΔrH0 C) No change in disorder

equal to ΔfH0 for the product
D) No change in free energy
1) Xe(g) + 2F2 (g)→XeF4(g)
2) 2CO(g) + O2 (g) →2CO2 (g)  5 
35. When two mole an ideal gas  Cp.m = R 
3) N2 (g) + O3 (g)→ N2O3 (g)  2 
4) H(g) + F(g) →HF(l) heated from 300 K to 600 K at constant
5) C(diamond) + O2(g) →CO2(g) pressure, The change in entropy of gas
6) C(graphite) + O2(g) → CO2(g) ( ∆S) is :
1 3 3 3
7) N 2(g) + H 2(g) → NH 3(g) A) R n2 B) − R n2
2 2 2 2
A) 1, 3, 4, 6 B) 1, 6 3
C) 5R n 2 D) − R n2
C) 1, 6, 7 D) 1, 2, 5 2

75
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

36. Which expansion will produce more change 40. The direct conversion of A to B is difficult,
in entropy during reversible and isothermal hence it is carried out by the following
expansion? shown path:
C D
A) 1 mol H2 at 300 K from 2L to 20 L

B) 1 mol N2 at 400 K from 1L to 10 L A B

C) 1 mol O2 at 500 K from 3L to 30 L ∆S ( A → C ) = 50; ∆S ( C → D ) = 30; ∆S (B → D ) = +20

D) All have same change in entropy The entropy change for the process A→B is

A) 100 B) –60
37. For which of the following processes ∆S is
C) –100 D) +60
negative ?
41. ∆H vapourisation of substance X (  ) (molar

A) H 2(g) 
→ 2H ( g ) mass 30) is 300 J/g at its boiling point 300K,
then molar entropy change for reversible
B) CaCO3(s) 
→ CaO(s ) + CO 2(g) condensation process is

C) NaCl(s) dissolves in water A) 30 J/mol K

B) –300 J/mol K
D) Water crystallise to ice at 0°C
C) –30 J/mol
38. For the gas phase reaction
D) 3000 J/mol K
PCl5(g) → PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) , which of the

FREE ENERGY AND SPONTANEITY
following conditions are correct?
42. A) For N2O gas, the difference in specific
A) ∆H < 0, ∆S < 0 heats at constant pressure and at constant
volume is equal to 0.04545 cal/g
B) ∆H > 0, ∆S < 0
B) Entropy of a perfectly crystalline solid is
zero at absolute zero of temperature
C) ∆H = 0, ∆S < 0
C) Standard Gibbs energy of formation and
D) ∆H > 0, ∆S > 0 standard enthalpy of formation are zero for
elements in standard state
39. For a reversible reaction at equilibrium
D) T∆Stotal =
∆G system Which of these
∆Ssys + ∆Ssurr is
statements are true?
A) >0
A) All
B) <0
B) B, C
C) =0 C) A, B, C

D) none D) B, C, D

76
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

PbO(s ) + C(s ) 
→ Pb(s ) + CO( g ) ; 47. Entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50
43. Given
JK-1 mol-1 respectively. For the reaction
1 3
108 kJmol−1 and ∆S =
∆H = 190 JK −1mol−1 X 2 + Y2 → XY3 ; ∆H = −30kJ to be at
2 2
reduction of PbO(s) is spontaneous: equilibrium, the temperature will be:

A) Below 296°C A) 600 K B) 750 K

B) Spontaneous at all temperatures C) 700 K D) 725 K

C) Non spontaneous at all temperatures 48. 2POCl3( g ) → 2PCl3(g ) + O 2( g ) ; ∆H 0 =

572kJ

0
D) Above 296°C and ∆S =179JK −1 . This reaction can be

spontaneous if
44. Equilibrium constant of a reaction is 10,
0
what will be the value of ∆G (in kcal mol–1) A) T > 1200K

at 298 K? B) T < 3200 K

C) T > 2400 K
A) 4.6 B) –1.37
D) T > 3200 K
C) 46 D) 1.37
49. In the reaction : A 2(g) + 3B2(g) → 2AB3(g) the
45. Consider the following spontaneous
15 standard entropies (in JK–1 mol–1) of A2(g),
reaction C6 H5COOH(s) + O2(g) 
→ 7CO 2(g) + 3H 2 O(  ) ,
2 B2(g) and AB3(g) are respectively 190, 130
and 195 and the standard enthalpy change
Sign of ∆S, ∆H and ∆G
for the reaction is –95 kJ mol–1. The
temperature at which the reaction attains
A) –, –, – equilibrium is (in K)

B) –, +, – A) 500 K B) 400 K

C) 300 K D) 600 K
C) +, –, –
50. For a reaction, P + Q →R + S. The value
D) +, +, – of ΔH0 is –30 k Jmol–1 and ΔS is –100 JK–1
mol–1. At what temperature, the reaction will
46. Standard Gibbs free energy change of a be at equilibrium
reaction is zero. The value of equilibrium
A) 27°C
constant will be
B) 52°C
A) 10 B) 1
C) 30°C
C) 100 D)1000
D) 45°C

77
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT 56. Identify correct expression/s from the
following
51. Free expansion of gas in vacuum

A) ΔSsystem > 0 A) −∆G= T∆Ssystem

B) ΔSsurrounding = 0
B) ∆G =∆H − T∆S
C) ΔStotal > 0

D) Work done=0 V2
C) ∆S =nR n at constant temperature
V1
52. Identify extensive property from the
following D) ∆G =−RT  n K C
A) U B) H
57. Which of the following statements are
C) S D) G correct?

53. Identify incorrect statements from the

following? A) When ΔG is positive, the process is said
to be endoergonic
A) Work done during a cyclic process is
zero
B) Entropy change of vapourisation of
B) Change in internal energy is zero in a CHCl3 and benzene remains constant and
cyclic process is approximately equal to 88 J/K/mol

C) Change in internal energy depends on

C) ΔneutralisationH0 of HF and NaOH is always
temperature
greater than –13.7 Kcal/equivalent
D) Internal energy cannot be changed by
doing some work done on the system ∆H C
D) calorific value =
54. Dissociation of NH4Cl in water Molar mass

A) ΔS > 0 B) ΔH < 0 58. From the following which one is/are correct
relations
C) ΔH > 0 D) ΔG < 0
0
−∆G / RT
55. At 27oC the reaction, A) K = e


15 V2
C6 H 6() + O 2( g ) → 6 CO 2(g) + 3H 2 O(  ) B) ∆S =+ 2.303nRT log
2 V1
proceeds spontaneously, because
V2
C) Wmax = −2.303nRT log
A) ΔH = TΔS B) ΔH < TΔS V1

C) ΔH > TΔS D) ΔG < 0 D) ∆G =∆G 0 + RT n QC

78
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

STATEMENT TYPE QUESTIONS 63. Statement-I : At constant temperature

and pressure
A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true chemical reactions are
and Statement-II is the correct explanation of spontaneous in the
Statement-I direction of decreasing
Gibb’s energy
B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
true but Statement-II is not the correct Statement-II : For every chemical
explanation of Statement-I reaction at equilibrium
standard Gibb’s energy of
the reaction is zero.
C) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false

64. Statement-I : Heat of neutralisation of

D) Statement-I is false and Statement-II is
HNO3 and NaOH is same
true
as that of HCl and KOH

59. Statement-I : Work and heat are path

Statement-II : Both HNO3 and HCl are
functions.
strong acids and both
NaOH and KOH are
Statement-II : Work and heat are strong bases
modes of energy transfer
between stystem and
65. Statement-I : An exothermic process
surroundings.
which is non spontaneous
at high temperature may
60. Statement-I : The enthalpy of formation become spontaneous at
of H2O(l) is zero low temperature

Statement-II : Enthalpy of formation is Statement-II : Spontaneous process is an

zero for an element in its irrevessible process and
standard state may be reversed by some
external agency
61. Statement-I : Eventhough HF is a weak
acid heat liberated during
NUMERICAL / INTEGER TYPE
neutralisation with a
strong base is more than
57 kJ mol–1 66. Calculate the magnitude of free energy
change in kJ mol–1 at 270C for H2 + Cl2 →
2HCl. Bond enthalpies of H2, Cl2 and HCl
Statement-II : Hydration energy of F– is
are 435, 240 and 430 KJ mol–1 respectively.
very large
Entropies of H2, Cl2 and HCl are 131, 223
and 187 JK–1 mol–1
62. Statement-I : Enthalpy of graphite is
lower than that of diamond
67. The entropy change in JK–1 mol–1 involved
in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2
Statement-II : Entropy of graphite is moles of an ideal gas from a volume of 10
greater than that of dm3 to a volume of 100 dm3 at 270C is
diamond.

79
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

68. From the following data, the enthalpy 74. Matrix Match Type Questions
change in kJ mol–1 for the sublimation of ice
at 223 K will be [mean heat capacity of ice Column-I Column-II
(Process) (ΔS)
= 2 J K–1 g–1, mean heat capacity of H 2 O(  )
= 4.2 J K–1 g–1, mean heat capacity of a) Isothermal T2
H 2 O( g ) = 1.85 J K–1 g–1, enthalpy of fusion reversible p) nC v n
T1
of ice at 00C = 334 J g–1, enthalpy of b) Adiabatic
evaporation of water at 1000 = 2255 J g–1 T2
reversible q) nC p n
T1

69. A cylinder of gas supplied by Bharat c) Isochoric

Petroleum is assumed to contain 14kg of
T2 V
reversible r) nC v n + nR n 2
butane. If a normal family requires 20, 000 T1 V1
kJ of energy per day for cooking, butane
gas in the cylinder last for .................. days d) Isobaric V2
reversible s) nRn
V1
( ∆H C −2658KJmol−1 )
of C4 H10 =
A) a → s; b → r; c → p; d → q

B) a → s; b → r; c → q; d → p
70. The magnitude of work done during the
expansion of a gas from 4 dm3 to 6 dm3 C) a → r; b → p; c → q; d → s
against a constant external pressure of 3
atm (1L atm = 101.3 J) in Joule is D) a → r; b → q; c → p; d → s

75. Matrix Match Type Questions

71. What will be the melting point of KCl in
K if enthalpy change for the process Column-I Column-II
is 7.25 Jmol–1 and entropy change is
0.007JK–1 mol–1 ? A) ΔH is -ve and P) Spontaneous at
ΔS is +ve high temperature

72. 2.1g Fe combines with S evolve 3.75 kJ B) ΔH is +ve and Q) Spontaneous at

heat. The magnitude of heat of formation of ΔS is +ve low temperature
FeS in kJ/mol according to the equation Fe
+ S →FeS is C) ΔH is -ve and r) Nonspontaneous
ΔS is -ve at all temperature

D) ΔH is +ve and s) Spontaneous at

73. What will be the magnitude of standard
ΔS is -ve all temperature
enthalpy change for the reaction
OF2( g ) + H 2 O( g ) → O 2( g ) + 2HF( g ) at 298K if
ABCD ABCD
A) B)
enthalpies of formation of SPQR SPRQ
OF2( g ) , H 2 O( g ) and HF( g ) are +20, –250 and

–270 kJmol–1 respectively? ABCD ABCD

C) D)
PSQR SQPR

80
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

SAMPLE QUESTIONS 5. For a cyclic process

1. Conditions of standard state used in A) W=0 B) ∆E =0

thermochemistry is
C) ∆H ≠ 0 D) ∆E ≠ 0
A) 0 C and 1 atm
o

6. Identify an extensive property amongest

B) 20 C and 1 atm
o the following

C) 25oC and 1atm A) Viscosity B) Heat capacity

D) 0K and 1 atm C) Density D) Surface tension

2. The temperature of the system decreases 7. The heat change at constant volume (qV) is
in an equal to

A) Adiabatic compression A) ∆U B) ∆H

B) Isothermal compression C) RT D) ∆G

C) Isothermal expansion 8. An ideal gas at constant temperature and

pressure expands then its
D) Adiabatic expansion
A) Internal energy remains same
3. Changes in a system from an initial state to
the final state were made by a different B) Internal energy decreases
manner that ∆H remains same but q
C) Internal energy increases
changes because
D) Entropy first increases and the decreases
A) ∆H is a path function and q is a state
9. Five moles of a gas is put through a series
function of changes as shown graphically in a
cyclic process the A→B, B→C and C→A
B) ∆H is a state function and q is a path respectively are

function

C) Both ∆H and q are state functions

D) Both ∆H and q are path functions

4. An adiabatic process occurs in

A) Open system A) Isochoric, Isobaric, Isothermal

B) Closed system B) Isobaric, Isochoric, Isothermal

C) Isolated system C) Isothermal, Isobaric, Isochoric

D) In all the given systems D) Isochoric, Isothermal, Isobaric

81
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

10. Thermodynamics is not concerned about 14. For a gaseous

reaction at 300 K,
∆H − ∆U = −4.98kJ , assuming that R= 8.3
A) Energy changes involved in a chemical
reaction
JK–1 mol–3. ∆n ( g ) is
B) The extent to which a chemical reaction
proceeds A) 1 B) 2

C) The rate at which a reaction proceeds C) –2 D) 0

D) The feasibility of a chemical reaction.
15. The work done by a system is 8 joule, when
11. The internal energy change when a system 40 joule heat is supplied to it. What is the
goes from state A to B is 40 kJ/mole. If the increase in internal energy of system.
system goes from A to B by a reversible path
and returns to state A by an irreversible path A) 25J
what would be the net change in internal
energy. B) 30 J

A) 40 kJ C) 32 J
B) >0kJ
D) 25 J
C) <40 kJ
16. The volume of a gas decreases from 500
D) Zero cc to 300 cc when a sample of gas is
compressed by an average pressure of
12. A constant T and P, which one of the 0.6 atm. During this process 10 J of heat is
following statements is correct for the liberated. The change in internal energy is
1
reaction, CO( g ) + O 2( g ) → CO 2( g )
2 A) –2.16 J

A) ∆H is independent of the physical state B) 12.156 J

of the reactants of that compound C) 2.16 J

B) ∆H > ∆E D) 101.3 J

C) ∆H < ∆E 17. The molar heat capacity of water at

constant pressure is 75 JK–1mol–1. When
D) ∆H =∆E
1.0 kJ of heat is supplied to 100 g of water
13. Which of the following expressions which is free to expand. Then increase in
represents the first law of thermodynamics temperature of water is

A) ∆E =−q + W A) 6.6 K

B) ∆E = q − W B) 1.2 K
C) ∆E = q + W
C) 2.4 K
D) ∆E =−q − W
D) 4.8 K

82
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

18. For the process dry ice →CO2(g) 22. Pressure volume(PV) work done by an
ideal gaseous system at constant volume is
A) ∆H is positive while ∆P is negative (where E is internal energy of the system)

B) Both ∆H and ∆P are negative A) ∆VP / P

C) Both ∆H and ∆P are positive
B) zero
D) ∆H is negative while ∆P is positive
C) − V∆P
19. A mixture of two moles of carbon monoxide
and one mole of oxygen, in a closed vessel D) −∆E
is ignited to convert the carbon monoxide to
carbon dioxide. If ∆H is the enthalpy 23. On the basis of thermochemical equation
i, ii and iii, find out which of the algebraic
change and ∆E is the change in internal relationships given in options a to d is
correct.
energy, then
i) C(graphite) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆ r H =
xkJ mol−1
A) ∆H > ∆E
ii) C ( graphite ) + 1 O 2 ( g ) → CO ( g ) ; ∆ r H =
ykJmol−1
B) ∆H < ∆E 2

C) ∆H =∆E iii) CO ( g ) + 1 O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆ r H =
zkJ mol−1
2
D) The relationship depends on the capacity A) z=x+y
of the vessel.
B) x= y-z
20. The standard enthalpy of formation of which
of the following is zero C) x= y+z
A) CH3OH
D) y=2z-x
B) HF
24. For the allotropic change represented by
C) H2O equation C(diamond)→C(graphite); the
enthalpy change is ∆H = −1.89kJ . If 6g of
D) F2
diamond and 6 g of graphite are separated
21. The work done by the gas liberated when 50 burnt to yield carbon dioxide, the heat
g of iron (molar mass 55.85 g mol–1) reacts liberated in the first case is
with hydrochloric acid in an open beaker at
25oC
A) Less than in the second case by 1.89 kJ
A) Zero
B) More then in the second case by 1.89 kJ
B) –2.2 kJ

C) 2.2kJ C)Less than in the second case by 11.34 kJ

D) 0.22 kJ D) More than the second case by 0.945 kJ

83
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

25. The sublimation energy of I 2(s) is 57.3 kJ/ 28. The pressure-volume work for an ideal gas
can be calculated by using the expression
Vf
mol and the enthalpy of fusion is 15.5 kJ/
W = − ∫ Pex dV . The work can also be
mol. The enthalpy of vaporisation of I2 is
Vi

A) 41.8 kJ/mol calculated from the pV-plot by using the

area under the curve within the specified
limits. When an ideal gas is compressed
B) –41.8 kJ/mol (a) reversibly or (b) irreversibly from volume
Vi to Vf. Choose the correct option

C) 72.8 kJ/mol
A) W(reversible)= W(irreversible)

D) –72.8 kJ/mol B) W(reversible)<W(irreversible)

C) W(reversible)>W(irreversible)
26. A sample of liquid in a thermally insulated
container is stirred for 1hr by a mechanical
attachment to a motor in the surroundings, D)W(reversible)= W(irreversible) + Pex ∆V
which of the following thermodynamic
quantity for the system is zero 29. The entropy values (in JK–1mol–1) of
H2(g)=130.6, Cl2(g)=223.0 and HCl(g)= 186.7
at 298 K and 1 atm pressure. Then entropy
A) Work (W) change for the reaction
H 2( g ) + Cl2( g ) → 2HCl( g ) is
B) Change in internal energy ( ∆E )
A) +540.3

C) Change in enthalpy ( ∆H ) B) + 727.3

C) –166.9
D) None of these
D) + 19.8
27. The entropy change in the isothermal
reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal 30. Choose the reaction with negative ∆S
gas from 10 to 100 L at 300 K is
value
A) 42.3 JK–1
A) 2NaHCO3(s ) → Na 2 CO3(s ) + CO 2( g ) + H 2 O( g )

B) 35.8 JK–1 B) CL 2( g ) → 2Cl( g )

C) 38.3 JK–1 C) 2SO 2( g ) + O 2( g ) → 2SO3( g )

D) 2KClO3( s ) → 2KCl( s ) + 3O 2( g )
D) 32.3 JK–1

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

31. 9.0 g of H2O is vaporised at 100oC and 1 34. Enthalpy of vaporization of benzene is
atm pressure. If the latent heat of +35.3 kJ mol–1 at its boiling point, 80oC.
vaporisation of water is xJ/g, then ∆S is The entropy change in the transition of the
vapour to liquid at its boiling point in JK–
given by 1
mol–1) is _____

x A) –441 B) –100
A)
373
C) +441 D) +100

18x 35. As isolated box, equally partitioned contains

B) two ideal gases A and B as shown
100
When the partition is removed, the gases
18x mix. The changes in enthalpy ( ∆H ) and
C)
373
entropy ( ∆S) in the process, respectively,

1 18x are
D) ×
2 373
A) Zero, positive
32. Which of the following statement is true. B) Zero, negative
The entropy of the universe
C) Positive, zero
A) Increases and tends towards maximum
value D) Negative, zero
B) Decreases and tends to be zero 36. Based on the following thermochemical
C) Remains constant equations

D) Decreases and increases with a periodic H 2 O ( g ) + C ( s ) → CO ( g ) + H 2 ( g ) ; ∆H =

131kJ
rate.
1
CO ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆H =−282kJ
33. Which is the correct expression, that 2
relates changes of entropy with the change
of pressure for an ideal gas at constant
temperature in the following 1
H 2( g ) + O 2( g ) → H 2 O( g ) ; ∆H =−242 kJ
2
P2
A) ∆S =nRTIn
P1
C ( s ) + O 2 ( g ) → CO 2 ( g ) ; ∆H =XkJ
S T ( P2 − P1 )
B) ∆= The value of X is
P1 A) –393 kJ
C) ∆S =nRIn
P2
B) –655 kJ

P1 C) +393 kJ
D) ∆S =2.303nRTIn
P2 D) +655 kJ

85
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

37. The enthalpy of combustion at 25oC of 40. Four grams of graphite is burnt in a bomb
H2, cyclohexane (C6H12) and cyclohexene calorimeter of heat capacity 30 kJ K–1 in
(C6H10) are -241, –3920 and –3800 KJ/mole excess of oxygen at 1 atmospheric pressure.
respectively. The heat of hydrogenation of The temperature rises from 300 to 304
cyclohexene is K. What is the enthalpy of combustion of
graphite (in kJ mol–1)
A) –121 KJ/mole
A) 360 B) 1440
B) +121 KJ/mole
C) –360 D) –1440
C) –242 KJ/mole
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
D) +242 KJ/mole

38. During complete combustion of one mole of 41. Select the correct statements:
butane, 2658 kJ of heat is released. The
A) Thermodynamic equilibrium involves,
thermochemical reaction for above change
chemical, mechanical and thermal
is
equilibrium simultaneously.
A) 2C4 H10 ( g ) + 13O 2 ( g ) → 3CO 2 ( g ) + 10H 2O (  ) B) Molar entropy, specific volume, volume,
−2658.0kJmol−1
∆r H =
internal energy and heat capacity are
extensive properties
13
B) C4 H10 ( g ) + 2 O 2 ( g ) → 4CO 2 ( g ) + 5H 2O (  ) ; C) Melting point boiling point, pH and EMF
∆r H =
−1129.0kJ mol −1 of the cell are internsive properties

D) Mechanical work is specially important in

13
C) C4 H10 ( g ) + 2 O 2 ( g ) → 4CO 2 ( g ) + 5H 2 O (  ) system that contain gas liquids system.
−2658.0kJmol−1
∆r H = 42. Select the correct statements:

13 A) If w1, w2,w3 and w4 for an ideal gas are

D) C6 H10 ( g ) + 2 O 2 ( g ) → 4CO 2 ( g ) + 5H 2O (  ) ; magnitude of work done in isothermal,
+2658.0kJmol−1
∆r H = adiabatic, isobaric and isochoric reversible
expansion processes.
39. When 400 mL of 0.2 N solution of a weak
acid is neutralized by a dilute aqueous The correct order is : w1>w2>w3>w4
solution of sodium hydroxide under
standard conditions, 4.4 kJ amount of B) 0.1 mole of a gas at 27oC, is compressed
heat is liberated. Therefore, the standard from 3.0 L to 1.0 L at constant T, at an
enthalpy of neutralization of this weak acid external pressure of 3.0 bar. Work done for
in kJeq–1 is this process is 600 J
A) –11 C) 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27oC expands
from 1.0 L to 3.0 L at constant T, work done
B)–44 if the gas expands against vacuum is zero
C) –55 D) For a reversible adiabatic ideal gas
dP dV
D) –22 equation = −γ
P V

86
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

43. Which one is/are correct for a cyclic process 47. 5 mole of an ideal gas at temperature T is
as shown in the figure? compressed isothermally from 12 atm, to
24 atm. Calculate the value of 10 r (Given:
In 2= 0.7)

Work done along reversible process

Where, r=
Work done along single irreversible process

48. x g sample of NH4NO3 is decomposed in

a Bomb calorimeter. The temperature
of calorimeter increases by 4oC. The
heat capacity of the system is 1.25 kJ/oC.
Calculated the value of x.
A) dU=0

B) q=-w Given molar heat of decomposition of

NH4NO3 at constant volume is 400 kJ mol –1.
C) w=314 J
49. Amongst the following, the total number of
D) w=31.4 J reactions/ processes in which the entropy
increases are:
44. For which process does ∆U =0 holds true
a) 2NaHCO3 ( s ) → Na 2CO3 ( s ) + CO2 ( g ) + H 2O ( g )
for ideal gas?

A) Cyclic process b) A liquid cyrstallises into a solid

B) Isothermal expansion c) Temperature of cystalline solid is raised

from zero K to 100 K
C) Isochoric process

D) Adiabatic process d) Hard boiling of an egg

45. Which of the following type of energies are e) Devitrification of glass

involved in Born Haber’s cycle?
f) Stretching of a rubber band
A) ∆ sub H
g) Desalination of water
B) Ionisation energy

C) Bond dissociation energy h) NH 3 ( g,10atm ) → NH 3 ( g,1atom )

D) Lattice energy 50. of Cyclohexene (I) and benzene at

∆f H
NUMERICAL / INTEGER TYPE 25oC is –156 and +49 kJ mol–1, respectively.
∆ hydrogenation H of cyclohexene (I) at 25oC is
46. Bond dissociation energy of xy, x2 and y2 (
all diatomic molecules) are in the ratio of –119 kJ mol–1.
1:1:0.5 and ∆H f of xy is –100 kJ mol-1.
Resonance energy of benzene is found to
The bond dissociation energy of x2 is 100x.
be –38 x kJ mol–1. Find the value of x.
Find the value of x.

87
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY
1. C 16. A 31. C 46. B 61. A
2. A 17. C 32. B 47. B 62. B
3. C 18. D 33. A 48. D 63. C
4. A 19. C 34. A 49. A 64. A
5. A 20. D 35. C 50. A 65. B
6. B 21. C 36. D 51. A, B, C, D 66. 191
7. B 22. B 37. D 52. A, B, C, D 67. 38.3
8. C 23. D 38. D 53. A, D 68. 50.97
9. A 24. C 39. C 54. A, C, D 69. 32
10. D 25. B 40. D 55. C, D 70. 607.8
11. D 26. D 41. C 56. A, B, C 71. 1035.71
12. B 27. D 42. C 57. A, B, C, D 72. 100
13. D 28. B 43. D 58. A, C, D 73. 310
14. A 29. B 44. B 59. B 74. A
15. B 30. C 45. A 60. D 75. A

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. C 11. D 21. B 31. D 41. A,C,D

2. D 12. C 22. B 32. A 42. B,C,D

3. B 13. C 23. C 33. C 43. A,B,C

4. C 14. C 24. D 34. B 44. A,B

5. B 15. C 25. A 35. A 45. A,B,C,D

6. B 16. C 26. D 36. A 46. 4

7. A 17. C 27. C 37. A 47. 7

8. A 18. C 28. B 38. C 48. 1

9. A 19. B 29. D 39. C 49. 4

10. C 20. D 30. C 40 C 50. 4

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 Chapter CHEMICAL AND IONIC
06 EQUILIBRIUM

QUESTIONS 4. The following equilibria and their equilibrium

constants are given:
LAWS OF CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM AND
EQUILIBRIUM CONSTANT, APPLICATIONS
OF EQUILIBRIUM CONSTANT  2NH 3 ; K1
N 2 + 3H 2 
1. For the equilibrium  2NO;
N 2 + O 2  K2
 NH 3(g) + H 2S(g), , K = 2 ×
NH 4SH (s)  1
C
 H 2 O; K 3
H 2 + O 2 
2
10–4 mol2 L–2 at 300 K. The value of Kp at
300 K is
Therefore, the equilibrium constant of the
A) 1.15 × 10–1 B) 4.2 × 10–3
C) 2.3 × 10–2 D) 3.45 × 10–1 (atm2) 5  K

reaction: 2NH 3 + O 2  2NO + 3H 2 O
2. For which of the following gaseous equilibria 2
is Kp > Kc? in terms of K1, K2 and K3 is
 2NO
A) N 2 + O 2 

KK K 2 K 33
 2SO3
B) 2SO 2 + O 2  A) 1 2 B)
K3 K1

 PCl3 + Cl2

C) PCl5  K1K 3
C) K1K2K3 D)
K2
 2NH 3
D) N 2 + 3H 2 
5. If K1 and K2 are the eq. const of (a) and (b)
3. If Kc of the reaction respectively, what is the relation between
the two constants:
 2NH 3 (all gases) at 750 K is
N 2 + 3H 2 

49, then the KC of the reaction

a) SO 2(g) + 1 O 2(g) 
 SO3(g) ; K1
2
 1 N 2 + 3 H 2 (all gases) at
NH 3  the
2 2  2SO 2(g) + O 2(g) ; K 2
b) 2SO3(g) 
same temperature is
1 2
A) K1 = 1/ K 2
2
B) K 2 = K1
A) B) 7
49

1 C) K1 = 1/ K 2 D) K1 = K2
C) 49 D)
7

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

6. What is the equilibrium expression for the  2C + D

10. In the chemical reaction A + 2B 
 P4 O10(s)
reaction P4(s) + 5O 2(g) 
the initial concentration of B was 1.5 times
[ P4O10 ] 1 that of A, but the equilibrium concentrations
A) K C = B) K c =
[ P4 ][O2 ] [O2 ] of A and B were found to be equal. The KC
5 5

for the reaction is

[ P4O10 ] A) 16
C) KC = [O2]5 D) K C =
5 [ P4 ][ O 2 ]
B) 4
7. Equimolar concentrations of H2 and I2
gases are heated to equilibrium in a closed C) 1
container. At equilibrium, the forward and
backward rate constants are found to be 1
D)
equal. What % of the initial concentration 4
of H2 reacted and got consumed at
equilibrium? 11.  2CO(g) . At equilibrium,
C(s) + CO 2(g) 

A) 60% B) 50% 25% of the CO2 got converted into CO. If

the equilibrium pressure was 12 atm, the
C) 40% D) 33.3% partial pressure of CO2 at equilibrium was

8.  2NH 3(g) + CO 2(g) . If

NH 2 COONH 4(s)  A) 0.25 atm

the equilibrium pressure for the above B) 7.2 atm

reaction at 573 K is 3 atm, the KP of the
reaction at 573 K is C) 2.4 atm
1
A) 27 B) D) 9 atm
27
4 12. AB gas dissociates as
C) 4 D)
27  2A (g) + B2(g) .
2AB(g)  The initial
9. 1.2 mol of A is kept in a closed 2 L container
and heated to a constant temperature when pressure of AB was 500 mm Hg. The
the following equilibrium is attained pressure became 625 mm Hg when
equilibrium was attained. Assuming that
 2B + C ( all gases )
2A  volume remains constant, the Kp of the
reaction is
At equilibrium, the container is found to hold
0.1 mol of C. Hence, the Kc for the reaction : A) 750

 2A at the same temp is

2B + C  B) 600

A) 5 × 102 B) 1 × 10–2 C) 375

C) 2 × 10–3 D) 1 × 102
D) 125 (mm Hg)

90
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

13. 2 moles of PCl5 were heated in a sealed 5 L 16. At the equilibrium of the reaction
container to constant temperature. If the  2NO 2 (g) , the observed
N 2 O 4 (g) 
degree of dissociation of PCl5 at the
temperature is 0.4. the Kc of the reaction molecular mass of N2O4 is 80 at 383 K. The
 PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is
PCl5(g)  % dissociation of N2O4 at 383 K is

A) 0.27 A) 10%

B) 0.35 B) 12%

C) 0.11
C) 15%
D) 0.54
D) 18%
14. A sample of CaCO3(s) is introduced in a
sealed container of volume 0.654 L and 17. 1 mol of solid Ca(HCO3)2 at 25°C was very
heated to 1000 K until equilibrium is strongly heated in a sealed container, and
reached. The equilibrium constant of the later the container and its contents cooled
reaction back to 25°C. If the KP of the reaction at
 CaO(s) + CO 2(g) is 3.9 × 10­-2
CaCO3(s)  25°C is 36 atm2, the partial pressure of CO2
at equilibrium in the container is
atm at this temperature. The mass of CaO
present at equilibrium is A) 18 atm

A) 3.11 × 10­–4 g B) 12 atm

B) 0.0174 g C) 9 atm

C) 1 g D) 6 atm

D) 0.056 g
18. At a certain temperature the equilibrium
constant Kc = 16 for the reaction.
15.  A 2 (g) + 2B2 (g) . 5 moles of
2AB2 (g) 
 SO3(g) + NO(g) . If one
SO 2(g) + NO 2(g) 
AB2 were heated in a closed vessel to
constant temperature. Equilibrium was
attained by the time 2 moles of its mol each of all the 4 gases is taken in a one
dissociated. If the equilibrium pressure was litre container, the concentration of NO2 at
12 atm, the Kp of the reaction is approximately equilibrium would be

A) 0.72 A) 1. mol L1

B) 0.27 B) 0.8 mol L–1

C) 0.4 mol L–1

C) 0.6

D) 0.6 mol L–1

D) 0.9

91
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

19. The equilibrium constants kp1 and kp2 for 23. One mole of a compound AB reacts with 1
 2Y and Z 
the reactions X   P + Q mole of a compound CD according to the
 AD + CB . When
equation AB + CD 
respectively are in the ratio 1 : 9. If the
degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal, equilibrium had been established it was
then the ratio of total pressure at this 3
found that mole each of reactant AB and
equilibria is 4
A) 1 : 36 B) 1 : 1 CD has been converted to AD and CB.
There is no change in volume. The
C) 1 : 3 D) 1 : 9 equilibrium constant of the reaction is
20. 40% of a mixture of 0.2 mol of N2 and 0.6 9 1
mol of H2 react to give NH3 according to the A) B)
16 9
equation  2NH 3(g) at
N 2(g) + 3H 2(g) 

constant temperature and pressure. Then

the ratio of the final volume to the initial 16
volume of gases are C) D) 9
9
A) 0.2 B) 0.3
24.  B + C
∆G 0 at 300 K for the reaction 2A 
C) 0.8 D) 0.6

21.  A (g) + B(g) ; AB

For the reaction AB (g)  is 4015 J. At a given instant, the composition
of the reaction mixture is [A] = 0.5 M, [B] =
is 33% dissociated at a total pressure of P. 2M and [C] = 0.5 M. At this instant, the
Therefore, P is related to Kp by one of the reaction will proceed in the
following options.
A) Forward direction because QC < KC
A) P=Kp
B) Reverse direction because QC > KC
B) P= 3Kp
C) Forward direction because QC > KC
C) P=4Kp
D) reverse direction because QC < KC
D) P=8Kp
25. At 500 K, the Kc of the reaction
22. The value for kp for the reaction  2NH 3 (all gases) is 61. A
N 2 + 3H 2 
 2CO(g) is 3.0 at 1000 K.
CO 2(g) + C(s) 
mixture of N2, H2 and NH3 with molar
If initially PCO2 0.48
= = bar and PCO 0 bar concentrations 1 × 10–3 M, 3 × 10–3 M and
2 × 10–3 M respectively was prepared at
The equilibrium partial pressures of CO and 500 K. Which statement below is true?
CO2 are
A) The system is now in equilibrium
A) 0.3 bar and 0.2 bar
B) The forward reaction occurs
B) 0.25 bar and 0.35 bar
C) The backward reaction occurs
C) 0.66 bar and 0.15 bar
D) More data is needed to predict what
D) 0.4 bar and 0.15 bar happens

92
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

26. The Kc for the reaction FACTORS AFFECTING EQUILIBRIA-


PCl5  PCl3 + Cl2 (all gases) at a certain LECHATLIER PRINCIPLE
29. Assertion : In the reaction,
temperature is 2 × 10–2 mol L–1. The number   Fe ( SCN ) 
2+
Fe3(aq)
+
+ SCN (aq)
−

of moles of PCl5 that must be taken in a 1L aq

vessel at the same temperature to obtain a addition of oxalic acid

concentration of 0.2 mol L–1 of Cl2 at decreases the intensity of
equilibrium is red colour of the solution.
Reason : Oxalic acid reacts with
A) 2 B) 0.4
Fe3+ ions to form the
stable complex ion,
C) 1.8 D) 2.2
[Fe(C2O4)3] .
3-

A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is

27. An equilibrium system for the reaction
the correct explanation of (A).
between hydrogen and iodine to give
hydrogen iodide at 765 K in a 5 litre volume, B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
contains 0.4 mole of hydrogen , 0.4 mole of not the correct explanation of (A).
iodine and 2.4 moles of hydrogen iodide. C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
The equilibrium constant of the reaction. D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
 2HI
H 2 + I 2  30. The increase of pressure of ice-water
system at constant temperature will lead to
A) 36.0 A) No effect on the equilibrium
B) Decrease in entropy of the system
B) 15.0 C) A shift of equilibrium in the forward
direction
C) 0.067 D) An increase in Gibb’s energy of the
system
D) 0.028 31. The Van’t Hoff equation gives the
relationship between the equilibrium
28.  3A 2(g) , the
For the reaction 2A 3(g)  constant of a reaction and temperature.
The equation is
equilibrium constant at a certain temperature K  ∆H  1 1 
o A) log=

1
  − 
is certain temperature is 1×1030 and ∆G  K2  R  T1 T2 

is –172.4 KJ mol–1. The equilibrium

temperature is about (Given 2.303 R = K  Ea  1 1 
log  1 
B)=  − 
19.15 JK–1 mol–A)  K2  2.303R  T1 T2 

A) 400 K K  Ea  1 1 
=
C) log  2   − 
 K1  2.303 R  T1 T2 
B) 300 K

K  ∆H  1 1 
C) 350 K =
D) log  2   − 
 K1  2.303 R  T1 T2 

D) 450 K
(In all the 4 options T2 > T1)

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

32. Which of the following graph represents an  2SO3(g) ;

34. The reaction 2SO 2(g) + O 2(g) 
exothermic reaction?
∆H < 0 is favoured by

A) A) high temperature and pressure

B) low temperature and high pressure

C) low temperature and low pressure

D) high temperature and low pressure

B)
35. Consider the following equilibrium in a
 2NO 2(g) . At
closed container : N 2 O 4 

a fixed temperature, the volume of the

containers is halved. For this change, which
of the following statements is true regarding
the equilibrium constant (Kp) and degree of
dissociation (α) of N2O4 ?

C)
A) Neither Kp nor α changes

B) Both Kp and α change

C) Kp changes but α does not

D) D) Kp does not change but α changes

36. Adding an inert gas to the gaseous

equilibrium  2NH 3
N 2 + 3H 2 

maintained at constant V and T results in

33. At equilibrium, on adding heat, the
equilibrium will shift to A) No change in the concentration of NH3

A) High enthalpy side

B) An increase in the concentration of NH3

B) Low enthalpy side

C) A decrease in the concentration of NH3
C) Zero enthalpy side
D) Total conversion of the N2 and H2 into
D) No change NH3

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

37. Statement-I : In the dissociation of PCl5 40. Among the following, the Bronsted acid
at constant pressure and which has the weakest conjugate base is
temperature addition of
helium at equilibrium in- A) HF
creases the dissociation
of PCl5. B) H2S
Statement-II : Helium reacts with Cl2
C) H2O
and hence shifts the equi-
librium in forward direc-
D) HCl
tion.
Given below are two statements : In the 41. For every diprotic acid of the type H2X, how
light of the statements, choose the most would you relate the ionisation constants,
appropriate answer from the options given
K a1 and K a 2 ?
below :
A) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect. A) K a1 = K a 2

B) Statement I is incorrect but statement II

is correct. B) K a 2 < K a1

C) Both statement I and statement II are

correct. C) K a 2 > K a1

D) Both statement I and statement II are

incorrect. D) K a1 may be greater than K a 2 depending
THEORY OF ACID BONES & PH SCALE
on what acid H2X is
38. If the degree of dissociation (α)of a certain
weak monobasic acid in its 0.1 M aq. 42. Ka of the weak acids HA and HB at 298 K are
solution at 298 K is 0.01, the α of this acid 1.6 × 10–5 and 6.4 × 10–5 respectively. The
in its 0.025 M aq. solution at 298 K is ratio of the acid strengths of the two in their
aq. solutions of the same concentration is :
A) 0.05
B) 0.04 A) 1 : 2

C) 0.03 B) 1 : 4
D) 0.02
C) 2 : 1
39. At infinite dilution, the percentage ionisation for
D) 4 : 1
both strong and weak electrolytes is
43. Which of the following cannot be a Lewis
A) 1% acid?

A) AlCl3
B) 20%
B) SiF4
C) 50%
C) CCl4

D) 100% D) BeF2

95
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

44. A monoprotic acid in 0.1M solution has Ka= 49. The Ka of CH3COOH and Kb of NH4OH are
1×10-5. The percentage of dissociation of 1 × 10–5 each at 298 K. If the pH of a certain
acid is, aq. solution of CH3COOH is 3, what will be
the pH of an aq. solution of NH4OH of the
A) 1.0% same concentration?

B) 99.9% A) 3
C) 0.1%
B) 4
D) 99%
C) 10
45. At a certain temperature, Ka values of
HCOOH and CH3COOH are 1.8 × 10–4 D) 11
and 1.8 × 10–5 respectively. The molarity
of an acetic acid solution in which the H+ 50. The [Link] H+ ions present in 250 ml of lemon
concentration is the same as in a 0.001 M juice of pH = 3 is Na= 6×1023)
formic acid solution is
A) 1.5 × 1022
A) 0.1 M
B) 1.5 × 1020
B) 0.0001 M
C) 3 × 1021
C) 0.01 M

D) 0.001 M D) 6 × 1020

46. If the pH of a decimolar aq. solution of a 51. At 100°C, the Kw of water is 55 times its
weak monoprotic acid at 298 K is 3, the pKa value at 25°C. (log 55 = 1.74). What will be
of this acid at 298 K is the pH of a neutral aq. solution at 100°C?

A) 4 B) 5 A) 6.13

C) 6 D) 7 B) 7.0

47. 5 × 10–3 mol of Ba(OH)2 is dissolved in C) 5.13

water and made upto 100 ml. Assuming
that the Ba(OH)2 is 100% ionised, the pH of D) 7.87
the solution at 298 K is
52. 1.095 g of HCl gas was passed through 100
A) 13 B) 12
cm3 of 0.2 M Ba(OH)2 solution. The pH of
C) 11 D) 10 the resulting solution is

48. An [Link] of a weak monobasic acid A) 1

has a molarity of 5 × 10–3 and a pH of 5.
What is its % ionisation in this solution? B) 2

A) 0.5% B) 20% C) 9

C) 0.2% D) 2% D) 13

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

53. Determine the pH of the solution that 59. he increasing order of basic strength of
results from the addition of 20 mL of 0.01 M Cl− , CO32− , CH 3COO − , OH − and F− is
Ca(OH)2 to 30 mL of 0.01 M HCl.
2−
A) OH < Cl < F < CH 3COO < CO3
− − − −
A) 11.30 B) 10.53
2−
B) Cl < F < CO3 < OH < CH 3COO
− − − −
C) 2.70 D) 8.35
2−
C) Cl < F < CH 3COO < CO3 < OH
− − − −
54. Equal volumes of three acid solutions of pH
3, 4 and 5 are mixed. What is the total H+
2−
D) CH 3COO < Cl < F < CO3 < OH
− − − −
concentration in the mixture?

A) 1.11 × 10–4 M B) 3.7 × 10–4 M 60. The dissociation constants of monobasic

acids A, B, C & D are 6 × 10-4, 5 × 10-5, 3.6 ×
C) 1.11 × 10–3 M D) 3.7 × 10–3 M 10-6 & 7 × 10-10 respectively. The pH values
of their 0.1 molar aqueous solutions are in
The conjugate acid of NH 2 is
−
55. the order.

A) N2H4 B) NH3 A) A < B < C < D

D) NH 4
+
C) NH2OH B) A > B > C > D

56. For NH3, Kb = 1.8 × 10–5 at 298 K. Hence, Ka C) A = B = C = D

for NH 4 at 298 K would be
+

D) A > B < C > D

A) 5.5 × 10 –10
B) 1.8× 10 –9
61. pH of 10–8 M HCl is
C) 5.5 × 105 D) 1.8× 1010
A) 8
57. At 298 K, the Ka of HCN is 1 × 10 . The pH –9

of a decimolar aqueous solution of HCN at B) 0

298 K is
C) 2
A) 4 B) 5
D) 6.96
C) 3.3 D) 2
SALT HYDROLYSIS AND BUFFER
58. Four species are listed below SOLUTION
(I)HCO3− , ( II ) H 3O + , ( III ) HSO −4 , ( IV ) HSO 4 F .
62. The pH values of 0.1 M aq. solutions of
Which one of the following is the correct (I) NaCl (II) HCl (III) CH3COONa and (IV)
sequence of their acidic strength. C6H5NH3Cl at 298 K increase in the order

A) IV < II < III < I A) I < IV < III < II

B) II < III < I < IV B) III < IV < I < II

C) I < III < II < IV C) II < IV < I < III

D) III > I > IV > II D) II < I < III < IV

97
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

63. pH of water is 7. When a substance Y is 67. Ka for CH3COOH is 1.8×10-5 and Kb for
dissolved in water, the pH become 13. The NH4OH is 1.8×10-5. The pH of ammonium
substance Y is a salt of acetate will be

A) Strong acid and strong base A) 7.005

B) Weak acid and weak base B) 4.75

C) 7.0
C) Strong acid and weak base
D) Between 6 and 7
D) Weak acid and strong base
68. Hydrolysis constants of two potassium salts
64. If Kh (hydrolysis constant) for anilinium ion KA and KB of the weak acids HA and HB are
is 2.4×10-5, then Kb for aniline will be 10–8 and 10–6 respectively. The dissociation
constant of a third acid HC at the same
A) 4.1×1010 temperature is 10–4. The strengths of the
three acids are in the order :
B) 4.1×10-10
A) HA > HB > HC
C) 2.4×109
B) HB > HA > HC
D) 2.4×10-19 C) HC > HA > HB

65. Kb of a weak base BOH at 298 K is D) HC > HB > HA

1.8 × 10–5. The hydrolysis constant (Kh) of
the salt BCl at 298 K is 69. The pKa of HCOOH at 298 K is 3.8. The pKb
of NH4OH at 298 K is 4.8. The pH of a 0.2
A) 1.8 × 10–19 M aq. solution of ammonium formate at 298
K is :
B) 5.5 × 10–5
A) 5.5
C) 1.8 × 10 –9
B) 6.5
D) 5.5 × 10–10
C) 7
66. 50 ml each of 0.2 M NH4OH and 0.2 M HCl D) 6
solutions are mixed together. The pH of the
resulting solution is (Given Kb of NH4OH at 70. pH of a 0.01 M aqueous solution of
298 K = 1 × 10–5) potassium propanoate is 8 at 298 K. The Ka
of propanoic acid at 298 K is
A) 5
A) 1 × 10–2
B) 7
B) 4.5 × 10–3
C) 5.5
C) 3 × 10–4
D) 6.5 D) 1 × 10–4

98
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

71. The pKa of the weak acid HA is 4.8. The pKb of the 75. The sum of pH and pKb for a certain basic
weak base BOH is 4.6. Therefore, the pH of a buffer is 13. The ratio of the concentration
0.1 M aq. solution of the salt BA is of the base to that of the salt in this buffer is

A) 9.4 A) 10
B) 7.1 B) 0.05
C) 4.7
C) 20
D) 6.9
D) 0.1
72. The equilibrium constant for the reaction
 HOCl + NaOH 76. How many moles of HCOONa must be
NaOCl + H 2 O 
added to 1L of a 0.1 M solution of HCOOH
in aqueous medium at 298 K is 3.6 × 10–7. in order to prepare a buffer solution of pH =
Hence, the Ka of HOCl at 298 K is 3.4? (Given Ka of HCOOH = 2 × 10–4 at 298
K)
A) 1.8 × 10–7
A) 0.01
B) 6 × 10–4
B) 0.05
C) 2.8 × 10–8
C) 0.1
D) 1.2 × 10–6
D) 0.2
73. In a buffer solution containing
equal concentrations of B– and
77. The ratio of the pH of solution (I) containing
the weak acid HB, the Kb of
1 mol each of CH3COONa and HCl in 1L
B– is 10–9. The pH of the buffer is:
and solution (II) containing 1 mol each of
A) 4 CH3COOH and CH3COONa in 1L is

B) 5 A) 1 : 2

C) 9 B) 3 : 1

D) 10 C) 2 : 1

74. Which of the following statements is false? D) 1 : 3

A) The pH of water is temperature 78. When 1 mol of HCl was added to 1L of a
dependent certain acidic buffer, the pH of the buffer
decreased from 4.16 to 3.83. The buffer
B) When a buffer solution is diluted, its pH
capacity of this buffer is
does not change

C) The buffer system in our blood is H2CO3 A) Zero

+ HCO3
−
B) 3
D) At a given temperature, the pH values
C) 4
of 0.1 M and 0.5 M aq. solutions of
CH3COONH4 are different D) 6

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

79. The pKb of NH4OH at 298 K is 4.75. An aq. 82. Calculate the amount of (NH4)2 SO4 in
solution of NH4OH is titrated against HCl. grams which must be added to 500 ml of
The pH of the solution when one half of the 0.2 M NH4OH to yield a solution of pH = 9.
NH4OH has been neutralised is Kb for NH4OH 2×10-5.

A) 7.5 A) 3.248 g B) 4.248 g

B) 8.5
C) 13.2 g D) 6.248 g
C) 9.25
83. How many moles of HCN will be required
D) 4.75 to prepare one litre buffer solution of pH =
10.4 using 0.01 mol NaCN (Ka (HCN) = 4
80. Which of the following statements about an ×10–10)
acid-base buffer solution are correct?
A) 2×10-2 mol B) 1×10-3 mol
I) It can be prepared by combining a strong
acid and its conjugate base
C)4×10-4mol D) 9×10-3 mol
II) pH of acidic solution increases if more
salt is added 84. Matrix match type

III) pH of basic buffer decreases if more salt

is added
Column-I Column-II
IV) When any amount of acid or base is (Solutions) (Characteristics)
added to the acidic or basic buffer, there is
no change in pH value of the buffer solution a) 0.1 M CH3COOH p) Acidic buffer
(pKa = 4.74) + 0.1 M at its maximum
CH3COONa capacity
A) I, II, IV
b) 0.1 M CH3COOH
B) II & III q) Buffer solution
+ 0.1 M HCl

C) III & IV c) 0.1 M CH3COOH

(pKa = 4.74) + 0.1 M r) pH < 7 at 25°C
D)I, II, III & IV NH4OH (pKb = 4.74)

81. The concentration of H+ in a solution d) 300 ml of 0.1 M

containing 0.2 mol of dichloroacetic acid CH3COONa + 100 ml s) pH = 7 at 25°C
of 0.1 M HCl
(Ka=5×10–2 at 298 K) and 0.1 mol of sodium
dichloroacetate is 1L of the solution is:
A) a→p; b→q; c→r; d→s
A) 0.1 M
B) a→p,r; b→r; c→s; d→q
B) 0.05 M

C) 0.025 M C) a→r; b→p; c→q; d→s

D) 0.005 M (log 5=0.7) D) a→s; b→r; c→q; d→p

100
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

85. Matrix match type 88. A solution which is 10–3 M each in Mn2+, Fe2+,
Zn2+ and Hg2+ is treated with an aq. solution
of H2S in which the S2– concentration is 10–16
M. The metal sulphide which will precipitate
Column-I Column-II out first is

p) Neutral solution (Given : Ksp values of MnS, FeS, ZnS and

a) NH4Cl in H2O which does not HgS are respectively 10–15, 10–23, 10–20 and
undergo hydrolysis 10–54 MB)
b) CH3–COONa in
q) Cationic hydrolysis A) MnS
water

c) NH4CN in water r) Anionic hydrolysis B) FeS

s) Both cationic and
d) NaCl in water C) ZnS
anionic hydrolysis

A) a→q; b→r; c→s; d→p D) HgS

B) a→p; b→q; c→r; d→s 89. In a saturated solution of the sparingly

soluble salt AgIO3 at 298 K (molar mass =
C) a→r; b→p; c→q; d→s 283 g mol–1), the equilibrium which sets in
 Ag (aq)
is: AgIO3(s) 
+
+ IO3(aq)
−
. If the Ksp
D) a→s; b→r; c→q; d→p
of AgIO3 is 1 × 10–8M2 at 298 K, what is the
SOLUBILITY AND SOLUBILITY PRODUCT mass of contained in 100 ml of its saturated
86. What is the correct representation for the solution?
solubility product of SnS2 ?
A) 2.83 × 10–2 g
A) [Sn ] [S ]
2+ 2– 2

B) 1 × 10–4 g
B) [Sn ] [S ]
4+ 2– 2

C) 2.83 × 10–3 g
C) [Sn ] [2S ]
2+ 2–

D) 1 × 10–5 g
D) [Sn ] [2S ]
4+ 2– 2

90. Ksp of CaSO4 at 298 K is 6.4 × 10–5 M2. If

87. The Ksp of M(OH)2 is 5 ×10–10 M3 at 298 K. 9 × 10–3 mol of CaSO4 is added to 1L of
The molar solubility of M(OH)2 in a 0.1 M water at 298 K, the amount of CaSO4
NaOH solution is remaining undissolved is

A) 5 × 10–8 M A) 11.3 × 10–3 mol

B) 5 × 10–9 M B) 2.6 × 10–3 mol

C) 5 × 10–12 M C) 8 × 10–3 mol

D) 5 × 10–16 M D) 1 × 10–3 mol

101
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

91. The concentration of Ag+ ions in 95. Using the

Gibbs energy change
a saturated aq. solution of silver ∆G =0
65.6 kJ for the following reaction
oxalate (Ag2C2O4) is 2.2 × 10–4 mol
L–1 at 298 K. The Ksp of Ag2C2O4 at 298 K is
 2Ag + (aq) + CO32− (aq) , the
Ag 2 CO3(s) 
A) 2.4 × 10 –8

Ksp of Ag2CO3 at 298 K is approx

B) 2.7 × 10–12

C) 4.5 × 10–11 A) 5 × 10–26

D) 5.3 × 10–12 (M3) B) 8× 10–2

92. If a maximum concentration of PbCl2 in
its aq. solution at 298 K is 1 × 10–2 M, its C) 3 × 10–3
maximum concentration in a 0.1 M aq.
solution of NaCl at 298 K is D) 3.4 × 10–12
A) 2 × 10–3 M
(Given log 3 = 0.48, log 4 = 0.6, log 5 = 0.7,
B) 4 × 10–4 M log 8 = 0.9)

C) 4 × 10–6 M
96. Solubility product of AgCl is 2.8×10-10 at
D) 3 × 10–5 M 250C. Calculate solubility of the salt in 0.1M
AgNO3 solution.
93. Suppose the solubilities of AgCl
in water, in 0.01 M CaCl2 solution, A) 2.8×10-9 mol/L
in 0.01 M NaCl solution and in
0.05 M AgNO3 solution are S1, S2, S3 and
S4 respectively. The correct order of these B) 2.8×10-10 mol/L
solubilities is
C) 3.2×10-9 mol/L
A) S1 > S2 > S3 > S4

B) S4 > S3 > S2 > S1 D) 3.2×10-12 mol/L

C) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4
97. In presence of HCl (aq), H2S gas results the
D) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4 precipitation of group-2 cations but not of
group-4 cations during qualitative analysis.
94. The Ksp of the salt AB2 at room temperature It is due to
is 1 × 10–12 M3. Which of the following
solutions of B– can precipitate AB2 from a
10–4 M aq. solution of A2+? A) Lower concentration of S2-

A) 10–6 M
B) Higher concentration of S2-
B) 10–4 M
C) Lower concentration of H+
C) 10–3 M

D) All these D) Higher concentration of H+

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

98. If the Ksp of the salt AB is 1 × 10–8 M2 at a 101. When HCl gas is bubbled through a
certain temperature, which of the following saturated aqueous solution of NaCl, identify
solution of B– can precipitate AB from a 10–2 the incorrect statements of the following
M solution of A+?
A) Ksp of NaCl increases
A) 10–5 M B) 10–4 M

C) 10–3 M D) All these B) Degree of dissociation of NaCl increases

99. How many grams of calcium oxalate is

C) Some NaCl precipitate out
to be dissolved in one litre water to get a
saturated solution of it (Ksp of CaC2O4 = 2.5
× 10–9 ) D) KIP < Ksp

A) 6.4 × 10–3 B) 6.4 × 10–5 SAMPLE QUESTIONS

C) 5 × 10–5 D) 6.4 × 10–2 1. At 500 K, the equilibrium constant for

reaction cis − C 2 H 2 Cl2  trans − C 2 H 2 Cl2
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
is 0.6. At the same temperature, the
100. Reversible reaction is studied graphically equilibrium constant for the reaction
as shown in the given figure. trans − C2 H 2 Cl2  cis − C2 H 2 Cl2 will be
 2NO 2 , K = 4. Select the
N 2 O 4  C
A) 1.67
correct statements
B) 1.65

C)1.06

D) 1.60

2. For the reaction:

2NO 2 ( g )  2NO ( g ) + O 2 ( g )

K=
C 1.8 ×10−6 at 184o C
R = 0.0831 kJ K −1mol−1
A) Reaction quotient has minimum value at
point A when KP and KC are compared at 184oC, it
is found that
B) Reaction proceeds left to right at a point
A) KP is greater than KC
when [N2O4] = [NO2] = 0.1 M
B) KP is less than KC
C) KC = Q when point D or F reached
C) KP=KC
D) C is the point of equilibrium
D) None of the above

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

3. For the reaction: 6. The equilibrium constant of a reaction is

300, if the volume of the reaction flask is
tripled, the equilibrium constant will be
2NOCl ( g )  2NO ( g ) + Cl2 ( g ) , K C at
A) 100
427oC is 3×10-6L mol-1. The value of KP is
B) 300
A) 7.5
C) 250
B) 2.5×10–5
D) 150

C) 2.0×10–4
7. When the reaction, 2NO 2 ( g )  N 2 O 4 ( g )

D) 1.75×10–4 reaches equilibrium at 298 K. The partial

pressure of NO2 and N2O4 are 0.2 KPa, and
0.4 KPa respectively. What is the equilibrium
4. For the reaction, A ( g ) + 2B ( g )  2C ( g ) , constant KP of the above reaction at 298 K?

the rate constant for forward and the reverse A) 0.1

reactions are 1×10–4 and 2.5×10-2
respectively. The value of equilibrium B) 0.5
constant, K for the reaction would be
C) 1.0
A) 2×10–4
D) 10
B) 3×10–2
8.

C) 4×10–3

D) 3×102

The gas A2 in the left flask allowed to react

5. HI was heated in a sealed tube at 400oC till with gas B2 present in right as
the equilibrium was reached. HI was found A 2 ( g ) + B2 ( g )  2AB ( g ) K c =
4 at 300
to be 22% decomposed. The equilibrium
constant for dissociation is K. What is the concentration of AB when
equilibrium is established?
A) 1.99
A) 0.33 M
B) 0.0199
B) 0.66 M

C) 0.0796 C) 2.66 M

D) 0.282 D) 1.33 M

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

9. Manufacture of ammonia from the elements 12. An aqueous solution of HCl is 10–9 M HCl.
is represented by The pH of the solution should be

N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g )  2NH 3 ( g ) + 22.4 kcal A) 9

The maximum yield of ammonia will be B) Between 6 and 7

obtained when the process is made to take
place. C) 7

A) At low pressure and high temperature D)Unpredictable

B) At low pressure and low temperature 13. One of the following is a Bronsted acid but
not a Bronsted base:
C) At high pressure and high temperature
A) H2S
D) At high pressure and low temperature
B) H2O
10. The equilibrium constant KP for a
homogeneous gaseous reaction is 10–8. C) HCO3
The standard Gibbs free energy change
∆G for the reaction (using R=2 cal K–1 D) NH3
mol–1) is
14. A solution has pOH equal to 13 at 298 K.
The solution will be
A) 10.98 kcal

A) Highly acidic
B) –1.8 kcal

B) Highly basic
C) –4.1454 kcal

C) Moderately basic
D) +4.1454 kcal

11. For pure water, D) Unpredictable

A) Both pH and pOH decrease with increase 15. How many grams of NaOH must be
in temperature. dissolved in 1 L of the solution to give it a
pH value of 12?
B) Both pH and pOH increase with increase
in temperature. A) 0.20g L–1

C) pH decreases and pOH increases with B)0.40 gL–1

increase in temperature.
C) 0.10 g L–1
D) pH increases and pOH decreases with
increase in temperature D) 1.2 g L–1

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

16. The gastric juice in our stomach contains 21. An acid solution of pH=6 is diluted 100
enough HCl to make the hydrogen ion times. The pH of solution becomes
concentration about 0.01 mol L–1. The pH
of gastric juice is A) 6.95

A) 0.01 B)1
B) 6
C) 2 D) 4
C) 4
17. The molarity of NH3 of pH =12 at 25oC is
(Kb=1.8×10–5). D) 8

A) 11.7 M 22. Which of the following solutions will have

pH=10 at 298 K?
B) 5.5 M
A) 1×10–10 M HCl solution
C) 0.55 M
B) 1×10–4 M NaOH solution
D) 0.01 M
C) 1×10–10M NaOH solution
18. H3BO3 us:

A) Monobasic and weak Lewis acid D) Both 1 and 2

B) Monobasic and weak Bronsted acid 23. At 90oC, pure water has  H 2 O  = 10 M .
⊕ −6

C) Tribasic and weak Bronsted acid What is the value of KW at 90oC.

D) Monobasic and strong Lewis acid A) 10–6

19. Which of the following can act both as a

B) 10–8
Bronsted acid and a Bronsted base?

C) 10–12
A) O2 B) HCl

D) 10–14
C) HSO4 D) Na2CO3
24. Which of the following is a buffer solution?
20. Which of the following is not a Lewis base?

A) A solution of KCl and KOH

A) CN

B) ROH B) A solution of CH3COONH4

C) NH3 C) A solution of K2SO4 and NH4OH

D) AlCl3 D) A solution of PhCOOK and PhCOOH

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

25. The pH of an acid buffer can be raised by 2 29. Which of the following salts will not undergo
units by hydrolysis is water?

A) Increasing the concentration of both A) Sodium sulphate

weak acid and salt by two moles.

B) Increasing the concentration of both the B) Ammonium sulphate

acid and salt by 10 times
C) Aluminium sulphate
C) Diluting the solution by 10 times
D) All the salts will hydrolyse
D) Increasing the concentration of the salt
by 10 times and decreasing concentration
30. When 20 mL of M/20 NaOH is added to 10
of the acid by 10 times.
mL of M /10 HCl, the resulting solution will
26. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following
salts decreases in the order A) Turn blue litmus red

A) HCl>NaCl>NH4Cl>NaCN B) Turn phenolpthalein solution pink

B) HCl> NaCN>NH4Cl> NaCl

C) Turns methyl organge red
C) NaCN>NaCl>NH4Cl>HCl
D) Will have no effect on either red or blue
D) NH4Cl>NaCN>NaCl> HCl litmus.

27. pH of separate solution of four potassium 31. Which of the following salt is basic?
salts, KW, KX, KY, and KZ are 7.0, 9.0, 10.0
and 10.5, respectively. If each solution is A) HOCl
0.2 M, the strongest acid would be

A) HW B) NaOCl

B) HX C) NaHSO4

C) HY D) NH4NO3

D) HZ
32. The solubility of A2B3 is x mol dm–3. Its Ksp is
28. Two buffer solutions, A and B, each made
with acetic acid and sodium acetate differ in A) 6x4
their pH by one unit, A has salt: acid = x:y, B
has salt: acid= y: x. If x>y, then the value of B) 64x4
x:y is
C) 36x5
A) 10,000 B) 3.17

C) 6.61 D) 2.10 D) 108x5

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

33. The pH of Ca(OH)2 is 10.6 at 25oC. Ksp of 37. Passing H2S gas into a mixture of Mn2+, Ni2+,
Ca(OH)2 is Cu2+ and Hg2+ ions in an acidified aqueous
solution precipitates.
A) 3.2×10–12M3
A) CuS and HgS
B) 3.2×10–11M3
B) MnS and CuS
C) 1.6×10–12M3
C) MnS and NiS
D) 1.6×10–11M3
D) NiS and HgS
34. The solubility of silver benzoate
(C6H5COOAg) in H2O and in a buffer 38. How many litres of water must be added to
solution of pH=2,3, and 4 are S1, S2, S3 and 1 litre of an aqueous solution of HCl with a
S4 respectively. The decreasing order of pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with
solubility is pH of 2?

A) S1>S2>S3>S4 A) 0.9 L

B) 2.0 L
B) S4>S3>S2>S1
C) 9.0L
C) S2>S3>S4>S1
D) 0.1 L
D) S3>S2>S4>S1
39. The Ksp of Ag2CrO4 is 1.1×10–12 at 298 K.
35. Three sparingly soluble salts M2X, MX, and The solubility (in mol/L) of Ag2CrO4 in a 0.1
MX3 have the same solubility product. Their M AgNO3 solution is
solubilities will be in the order.
A) 1.1×10–11
A) MX3>MX>M2X
B) 1.1×10–10
B) MX3>M2X>MX
C) 1.1×10–12
C) MX>MX3>M2X
D) 1.1×10–9
D) MX>M2X>MX3
40. The initial rate of hydrolysis of methyl
36. What are the units in which the solubility acetate(1M) by a weak acid (HA,1M) is
product of Ca3(PO4)2 is expressed? 1/100th of that of a strong acid (HX, 1M) at
25oC. The Ka of HA is
A) mol dm–3
A) 1×10–4
B) mol2dm–6 B) 1×10–5

C) mol3dm–9 C) 1×10–6

D) mol5dm–15 D) 1×10–3

108
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT 45. Which of the following expressions is/are
true?
41. For which of the following reaction,
KP ≠ KC ?
A) [OH] = 10–7 M for a neutral solution at
298 K
A) 2NOCl ( g )  2NO ( g ) + Cl2 ( g )
B) pH+pOH = 14 at all temperature
B) N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g )  2NH 3 ( g )

C) H 2 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g )  2HCl ( g ) C) [OH] < K W for an acidic solution

D) 2N 2 O 4 ( g )  2NO 2 ( g )  ⊕

D) =
H ⊕  =O H KW for a neutral
 
42. Equilibrium constant can have the units:
solution.
A) mol L–1

B)mol–1L NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS

C) (atm) 46. For a homogeneous chemical reaction KP=

KC when ∆n = ______ .
D) (atm)–1

47. The equilibrium constant for the reactions

43. For the reaction H 2 ( g ) + I 2 ( g )  2HI ( g ) ,

the equilibrium can be shifted in favour of A + B  AB is 0.5 at 200 K. The

product by
equilibrium constant for the reaction
A) Increasing the [H2] AB  A + B would be ______

B) Increasing the pressure 48. The dissociation constant of a substituted

benzoic acid at 25o C is 1.0×10–4. Find the
C) Increasing the [I2] pH of a 0.01 M solution of its sodium salt.

D) By using the catalyst 49. Find the total number of diprotic acids
among the following H3PO4, H2SO4, H3PO3,
44. Lewis acids among the following is/are H2CO3, H2S2O7, H3BO3, H3PO2, H2CrO4,
H2SO3.
A) NH 4
+

1
B) SiCl4 50. pH of a mixture of N 75 mL NaOH and
5
C) BF4
−
1
N 25mL HCl is _______
5
D) SF4

109
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY
ANSWER KEY
1 A 21 D 41 B 61 D 81 A
2 C 22 C 42 A 62 C 82 C
3 D 23 D 43 C 63 D 83 B
84 B
4 B 24 B 44 A 64 B 85 A
5 A 25 C 45 C 65 D 86 B
6 B 26 D 46 B 66 A 87 A
7 D 27 A 47 A 67 C 88 D
8 C 28 B 48 C 68 C 89 C
90 D
9 A 29 A 49 D 69 B
91 D
10 B 30 C 50 B 70 D 92 B
11 B 31 D 51 A 71 B 93 C
12 D 32 D 52 D 72 C 94 C
13 C 33 A 53 A 73 B 95 D
96 A
14 B 34 B 54 B 74 D
97 A
15 D 35 D 55 B 75 D 98 D
16 C 36 A 56 A 76 B 99 A
17 D 37 A 57 B 77 A 100 A, B, C
18 C 38 D 58 C 78 B 101 A, B, D
19 A 39 D 59 C 79 C
80 B
20 C 40 D 60 A

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. A 11. A 21. A 31. B 41. A,B,D

2. A 12. B 22. B 32. D 42. A,B,C,D

3. B 13. A 23. C 33. B 43. A,C

4. C 14. A 24. D 34. C 44. B,D

5. B 15. B 25. D 35. B 45. A,C,D

6. B 16. C 26. C 36. B 46. 0

7. D 17. C 27. A 37. A 47. 2

8. B 18. A 28. B 38. C 48. 8

9. D 19. C 29. A 39. B 49. 6

10. A 20. D 30. D 40 A 50. 13

110
 Chapter
REDOX REACTION
07

QUESTIONS 5. The oxidation state of the most

electronegative element in the products of
OXIDATION NUMBER AND REDOX the reaction between BaO2 and H2SO4 are :
REACTION
A) 0, -1 B) -1, -2
1. Oxidation number of carbon is highest in
C) -2, 0 D) -2, +1
A) HCOO–
2−
6. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2 O 7 to
B) HCHO

C) CH3OH CrO5 which has two (–O–O–) bonds.

Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
D) CH4
A) +5
2. The oxidation number of Cr in
+ B) +3
Cr (NH3 )4 Cl2  is :
C) +6
A) + 3
D) –10
B) + 2
7. In which of the following changes, there is
C) + 1
transfer of five electrons ?
D) zero 2−
A) MnO4 → MnO2
3. Which of the following halogens always
show only one oxidation state 2−
B) Cr2O7 → 2Cr
3+

A) Cl B) Br 2− 3+
C) CrO4 → Cr
C) I D) F
2+
D) MnO4 → Mn
−

4. Oxidation number of carbon in C3O2, Mg2C3

are respectively : 8. SO2 under atmospheric condition changes
2−
to SO x . If oxidation number of S is + 6,
A) - 4/3, + 4/3
2−
B) + 4/3, - 4/3 what is the value of x in SO x ?

C) - 2/3, + 2/3 A) 1 B) 2

D) - 2/3, + 4/3 C) 3 D) 4

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

9. Which of the following outer electronic 14. The oxidation state of C is +2 in :

configuration the element will exhibit largest
oxidation number? 1) HCN 2) CO

A) 3d1 4s2 B) 3d3 4s2 3) CH4 4) HNC

C) 3d5 4s1 D) 3d5 4s2 A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 3

10. In a reaction 4 mole of electrons are C) 1 only D) 1 and 4
transferred to 1 mole of HNO3, the possible
product obtained due to reduction is :
In the half reaction : 2ClO3 → Cl2
−
15.
A) 0.5 mole N2
A) 5 electrons are gained
B) 0.5 mole N2O
B) 5 electrons are lost
C) 1 mole NO2
C) 10 electrons are gained
D) 1 mole NH3
D) 10 electrons are lost
11. Among the following identify the species
with an atom in +6 oxidation state 16. The oxidation number of C1, C2 and C3 in
3 2 1
A) MnO4
−
propyne CH3 − C ≡ CH are :

B) Cr ( CN)6 A) -1, 0, -3 B) -1, 1, -4

3−

2−
C) NiF6 C) -2, 0, -3 D) +1, -2, -3

D) CrO2Cl2 17. Which of the following has fractional

oxidation numbers :
12. In which of the following, the same element
does not exhibit two different oxidation A) IF7 B) HIO4
states :
C) I3
−
D) HIO3
A) C3O2
18. Which is correct about Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
B) Na2S4O6
A) All the iron atoms have same oxidation
C) CrO5
number
D) OsO4
B) Oxidation number of iron atoms outside
13. How many electrons are donated by 0.16 the square bracket is +3
g of CH3OH on oxidation to HCOOH by
excess of acidified K2Cr2O7 ? C) Oxidation number of Fe atoms outside
the square bracket is +2
A) 2.4 × 1023 B) 1.2 × 1022
D) Oxidation number of Fe inside the square
C) 2 × 1020 D) 1.2 × 1020 bracket is +3

112
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

19. Among NH3, HNO3, NaN3 and Mg3N2, the OXIDISING AND REDUCING AGENTS
number of molecules having nitrogen in
negative oxidation state only
23. In the reaction,
A) 2 B) 1
2Na 2S2 O3 + I 2 
→ Na 2S4 O6 + 2NaI , I2 is
C) 4 D) 3
A) Oxidising agent
20. Oxidation [Link] P in H4P2O5, H4P2O6,
H4P2O7 are respectively B) Reducing agent

A) +3,+5,+4 B) +4,+3,+5 C) Oxidising as well as reducing agent

C) +3,+4,+5 D) +5,+3,+4 D) None of the above

21. In which of the following compounds oxida- 24. Which of the following cannot be an
tion number of iron is least? oxidising agent

A) K 3 Fe ( CN )6 A) H2SO4 B) H2S

B)  Fe ( H 2 O )5 NO  SO 4 C) SO2 D) H2SO3

25. Which is the reducing agent in the following

C) FeSO 4 . ( NH 4 )2 SO 4 .6H 2 O reaction ?

D) Fe (CO)5 3Ni + Cr2O72− + 14H+ → 3Ni2+ + 2Cr 3 + + 7H2O

2−
22. Match the compound with oxidation state of A) Cr2O7 B) H+
Iron
C) Ni D) H2O

Column-I Column-II 26. Equivalent weight of H3PO2 (M = Mole.

wt.) when it disproportionates into PH3 and
A) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 p) +12/5 H3PO3 is

B) [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 q) +2 A) M B) M/2

C) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 r) +18/7
C) M/4 D) 3M/4

27. F2 is the strongest oxidising agent because

D) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] s) +1
it has

A) A→r; B→s; C→p; D→q A) highest electron affinity

B) A→p; B→q; C→r; D→s B) lowest electron affinity

C) A→s; B→r; C→q; D→p C) highest reduction potential

D) A→q; B→r; C→s; D→p D) lowest reduction potential

113
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

28. N2 → NH3. What is the equivalent weight of 32. The composition of a sample of wurtzite is
N2 ? Fe0.93O. What percentage of iron is present
in the form of Fe(III)?
M M
A) B) A) 15% B) 35%
3 6
M M C) 50% D) 75%
C) D)
2 5
29. In which of the following reactions H2O2 33. Find the number of electrons released or
acts as a reducing agent? absorbed to produce 18.6 g aniline from
nitrobenzene in acidic medium is

1) H 2 O 2 + 2H + + 2e − 
→ 2H 2 O
A) 1.2 moles released
2) H 2 O 2 − 2e − 
→ O 2 + 2H +
3) H 2 O 2 + 2e − 
→ 2OH − B) 1.2 moles absorbed

4) H 2 O 2 + 2OH − − 2e − 
→ O 2 + 2H 2 O C) 6 moles released

A) 1, 2 B) 3, 4 D) 6 moles absorbed

C) 1, 3 D) 2, 4 34. Number of moles of electrons produced

per mole of FeCr2O4 in the following redox
reaction,
30. In which of the following reactions SO2
behaves as an oxidising agent?
FeCr2 O 4 + KOH + O 2 
→ K 2 CrO 4 + Fe 2 O3
A) Cl2 + SO2 →SO2Cl2
A) 6 B) 1

B) 2H2S + SO2 →3S + 2H2O

C) 7 D) 3
→ 5SO 24− + 2Mn 2+ + 4H +
C) 2MnO4 + 5SO2 + 2H 2O 
−

TYPES OF REDOX REACTION

D) SO 2 + H 2 O 
→ H 2SO3
35. An example of a disproportionation reaction
is
31. Identify the element oxidised in the reaction
A) 2MnO −4 + 10I − + 16H + 
→
As2S3 + HNO3 → H3AsO4 + H2SO4 + NO:
2Mn 2+ + 5I 2 + 8H 2 O
A) As only
B) 2NaBr + Cl2 
→ 2NaCl + Br2
B) N only
C) 2KMnO 4 
→ K 2 MnO 4 + MnO 2 + O 2
C) S only

D) Both As and S D) 2CuBr 

→ CuBr2 + Cu

114
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

36. Which of the following is not an BALANCING OF REDOX REACTION

intramolecular redox reaction :
40. In the following redox reaction,
A) NH4NO2 → N2 + 2H2O
xFe 2+ + yCr2 O72− + zH + 
→ Fe3+ + Cr 3+ + H 2 O
B) 2Mn2O7 → 4MnO2 + 3O2

C) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2 x, y and z are respectively

D) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2 A) 3, 1 and 14

37. Which one of the following reactions B) 6, 1 and 7

involves disproportionation?
A) 2H 2SO 4 + Cu 
→ CuSO 4 + 2H 2 O + SO 2 C) 6, 1 and 14

D) 6, 2 and 34
B) As 2 O3 + 3H 2S 
→ As 2S3 + 3H 2 O

C) 2KOH + Cl2 
→ KCl + KOCl + H 2 O 41. What are the coefficients of H2O, H+ and
NO2− in the balanced equation :
D) Ca 3 P2 + 6H 2 O 
→ 3Ca(OH) 2 + 2PH 3
NO2− + MnO−4 + H+ → Mn2+ + NO3− + H2O
38. Which among the following is not a dispro-
portionation reaction ? A) 3, 6, 5
A) 3H 3 PO 2 → 2H 3 PO3 + PH 3 B) 2, 3, 5
B) 2HCHO + OH → HCOO + CH 3 OH
− −

C) 3, 5, 6
C) NH 4 NO3 → N 2 O + 2H 2 O
D) 3Cl2 + 6OH → 5 Cl + ClO3 + 3H 2 O
− − − D) 4, 5, 3

39. Match reactions in column I with their 42. The values of x and y in the following
characteristics in column II reaction are :

Column-I Column-II
x Cl2 + 6OH− → ClO3− + yCl− + H2O
p) fractional A) x = 2, y = 4
A) P→PH3 + H 2 PO3− oxidation number
B) C3O2 q) Redox reaction B) x = 5, y = 3
r) Zero oxidation
C) CH2Cl2 C) x = 3, y = 5
number (carbon)
D) MnO2 + 4HCl →
s) Disproportionation D) x = 4, y = 2
MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
t) Auto-redox rection H +
43. C2H2 + MnO−4 → Mn2+ + CO2
A) A → q,s; B → p; C → r; D → q
The number of H+ ions in the balanced
B) A → t; B → q, p; C → s; D → q equation is :
C) A → t; B → q, p; C → p,s; D → q
A) 2 B) 4
D) A → p, q, r; B → s, t; C → p,s; D → q
C) 6 D) 8

115
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

44. BrO3− changes into Br2 in an acidic medium 48. HNO3 oxidises NH 4 to nitrogen and gets
+

of a unbalanced equation. How many reduced to NO2. Moles of HNO3 reduced by

electron should be present in the balanced one mol NH4Cl is:
equation?
A) 4 B) 3
A) 10 electron in left
C) 2 D) 5
B) 6 electron in left
49. 2 mole of FeSO4 are oxidised by x mole
C) 3 electron in left of KMnO4 whereas 2 mole of FeC2O4 are
oxidised by y mole of KMnO4. The ratio of
D) 5 electron in left
x and y is
45. In the reaction
−2 +2 A) 1 : 3 B) 1 : 2
C2 O + MnO + H → Mn
4
−
4
+
+ CO 2 the
C) 1 : 4 D) 1 : 5
reductant is
−2 50. In the reaction,
A) C 2 O 4
2CuSO4 + 4KI → Cu2I2 + I2 + 2K 2SO4
B) H+

the equivalent weight of Cu will be :

C) MnO 4
−

D) CO2 A) 31.75 B) 63.5

46. In the redox reaction: C) 127 D) 15.88

x MnO + y PbO 2 + z HNO3 

→ (atomic mass of Cu = 63.5)
a HMnO 4 + b Pb ( NO3 )2 + c H 2 O
51. Volume of 0.1 M ferrous oxalate solution
required to react completely with 60 ml of
A) x = 2, y = 5, z = 10 0.1 N acidified KMnO4 solution is :

B) x = 2, y = 7, z = 8 A) 30 ml B) 20 ml
C) x = 2, y = 5, z = 8
C) 150 ml D) 10 ml
D) x = 2, y = 5, z = 5
52. V1 ml. of 0.1 M K2Cr2O7 is needed for
complete oxidation of 0.678 g N2H4 in acidic
REDOX TITRATION
medium. The volume of 0.3 M KMnO4
needed for same oxidation in acidic medium
47. Number of moles of K2Cr2O7 reduced by 1
will be :
mol of Sn2+ is :
2 5
A) 1/3 B) 1/6 A) V1 B) V1
5 2
1
C) 2/3 D) 1 C) 113 V1 D) V1
3

116
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

53. It requires 40 ml. of 0.50 M Ce4+ to titrate 10 57. In titration between KMnO4 solution and
ml. of 1 M Sn2+ to Sn4+. What is the oxidation Mohr’s salt solution, indicator used is
state of cerium in the reduced product ?
A) methyl orange
A) 1 B) 2
B) phenolphthalein
C) 3 D) 4 C) diphenyl amine

54. In titration between KMnO4 and oxalic acid D) KMnO4 functions as self indicator
solutions, the indicator used is :
58. For the reaction,
A) Methyl orange 1
M x + + MnO 4 − → MO3− + Mn 2+ + O 2
2
B) Phenolphthalein

If one mole of MnO 4 oxidises 1.67 moles

−
C) Anthranillic acid

D) KMnO4 acts as self indicator of Mx+ to MO3 , then the value of x in the
−

55. For decolurisation of 1 mole of KMnO4, reaction is

moles of H2O2 required is :
A) 5 B) 3
1 3
A) B) C) 2 D) 1
2 2
59. 0.1 N K2C2O4. 3H2C2O4.4H2O solution reacts
5 7 completely with 20 ml 0.05 M of KMnO4
C) D) solution in acidic medium. Another sample
2 2 of same solution of K2C2O4. 3H2C2O4.4H2O,
having same volume is titrated with
56. H2O2 oxidises Fe ( CN)6 
4−
to Fe ( CN)6 
3−
1
M NaOH solution, then volume of NaOH
8
3− solution is
in acidic medium, but reduces Fe ( CN)6 
A) 20 ml B) 30 ml
4−
to Fe ( CN)6  in alkaline medium. The
C) 50 ml D) 60 ml
other products formed are respectively :
(NH4)3PO4 get converted into NO3 and PH3
−
60.
A) H2O and (H2O + O2)
on reacting with KMnO4 in acidic medium. If
50 m l of 0.2 M (NH4)3PO4 solution reacts
B) H2O and (H2O + OH­–)
with 16 ml of KMnO4 solution, then normali-
ty of KMnO4 solution is
C) (H2O + O2) and H2O
A) 5 B) 8
D) (H2O + O2) and (H2O + OH­–)
C) 10 D) 20

117
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

61. 70 ml of a solution containing HCl was treat- 64. E 0Zn 2+ / Zn = −0.76 V

ed with excess of KBrO3 and KBr solution of
unknown concentration where Br2 liberated E 0Al3+ / Al = −1.66 V
is titrated against a standard solution of 21
ml of 2M Na2S2O3 solution. Molarity of HCl 0
What is E cell
solution is
A) 2.42 V B) 0.9 V
2 36
A) B)
10 100 C) -0.9 V D) 1.1 V
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
6 86
C) D) 65. Oxidation state of S is +6 in
10 100
62. Match the underlined substance in the reac- A) Caros acid B) H2SO4
tions listed in column I with their equivalent
masses listed in column II (M = molecular C) Marshall’s acid D) HSO3
−

mass of the substances in question,)

66. Which among the following cannot
Column-I Column-II disproportionate ?

A) FeC2 O 4 + Cr2 O72− + H + → Products p) M/6 A) F2

B) SO2
B) Fe3O 4 + MnO 4− + H + → Products q) M/2

C) ClO 4
−
C)
r) M
KHC2 O 4 +MnO-4 +H + → Products
D) NO3
−

D) H 2 O 2 +Cr2 O 72- +H + → Products s) M/3

67. For which of the following elements, the
standard reduction potential is positive
A) A→s; B→r; C→q; D→p
A) Ca B) Mg
B) A→p; B→q; C→r; D→s
C) Cu D) Ag
C) A→r; B→s; C→q; D→p

D) A→p; B→r; C→s; D→q 68. Oxidation number of carbon is correctly giv-
en for
ELECTROCHEMICAL CELL

63. In SHE, the pH of the acid solution should

Compound Oxidation number
be :
→ +2
A) 7 A) HN = C
B) H−C ≡ N +4
B) 1
C) CCl4 -4
C) 0
D) C6H12O6 0
D) 14

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

69. Consider the redox reaction SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. SO2 under atmospheric condition changes to
2S2 O32− + I 2 → S4 O62− + 2I −
SO 2x− . If oxidation number of S in SO 2x− is

2−
2− 2−
A) 2S2 O3 gets reduced to S4 O 6 +6, what is the value of x in SO x ?

A) 2 B) 1
2− 2−
B) 2S2 O3 gets oxidised to S4 O 6 C) 3 D) 4

2. Sulphur has highest oxidation state in

C) I2 gets reduced to I–
A) SO2
D) I2 gets oxidised to I–
B) H2SO4
70. Which of the following reactions do not in- C) Na2S4O6
volve oxidation reduction
D) Na2S2O3
A) 2Rb + 2H2O →2RbOH + H2
3. The number of electrons involved in the re-
B) 2CuI2 → 2CuI + I2 duction of nitrate (NO3 ) to hydrazine (N2H4)

C) NH4Cl + NaOH →NaCl + NH3 + H2O is

A) 8 B)7
D) 4KCN + Fe(CN)2→K4[Fe(CN)6]
C) 3 D) 5
NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS 4. Which of the following is a disproportionation
reaction?
71. Calculate the number of grams of FeSO4 that
will be oxidised by 24.0cm3 of 0.05M KMnO4 A) Cr2 O 72− + 2OH → 2CrO 24− + H 2 O
in a solution acidified with H2SO4 (Mw of
2− 2−
B) CrO 4 + 2H → CrO 7 + H 2 O
⊕
FeSO4 = 152) (Answer divided by 0.456)
2+
C) CaCO3 + 2H → Ca + H 2 O + CO 2
⊕
4−
72. Oxidation number of P in P2 O 7 is
2+
D) Cu 2 O + 2H → Cu + Cu + H 2 O
⊕
73. The oxidation state of molybdenum in its oxo
complex species [Mo2O4(C2H4)2H2O2)]2– is 5. In balancing the half reaction

74. A 2.5 mol of hydrazine N2H4 loses 25 mole CN → CNO ( skeletal )

of electrons to form a new compound X. As-
suming that all of the nitrogen appears in the The number of electrons that must be added
new compound. What is the oxidation state is
of nitrogen in compound X.
A) 1 on the right B) 0
75. Sum of oxidation state of Fe in Fe3O4 is
C) 1 on the left D) 2 on the right

119
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

6. In the reaction 10. Which of the following is not a redox reac-

3Cl2 + 6NaOH → NaClO3 + 5NaCl + 3H 2 O tion?

A) MgCO3 → MgO + CO 2
the element which loses as well as gains
electrons is
B) O 2 + 2H 2 → 2H 2 O
A) Na B)O
C) Cl D) None of these
7, Which of the following reactions do not in- ( )
C) K + H 2 O → KOH + 1 2 H 2
volve oxidation reduction?
D) MnBr → MnBr + ( 1 2 ) Br
I) 2Ca + 2H 2 O → 2CaOH + H 2 2 2 2

11. The number of peroxide bonds in perxenate

II) 2CuI 2 → 2CuI + I 2 ion[XeO6]4- is

A) 0 B) 2
III) NH 4 Br + KOH → KBr + NH 3 + H 2 O
C) 3 D) 1
IV) 4KCN + Fe ( CN )2 → K 4  Fe ( CN )6  12. The oxidation number of Pr in Pr6O11 is

A) I, II B) I, III 22 20
A) B)
C) I, III, IV D) III, IV 6 6
8. In which of the following pairs there is C) 3 D) 4
greater difference in the oxidation numbers
of the underlined elements? 13. Which of the following is not an intramolecu-
A) NO 2 and N 2 O 4 lar redox reaction?

A) NH 4 NO 2 → N 2 + 2H 2 O
B) P2 O5 and P4 O10
B) 2Mn 2 O 7 → 4MnO 2 + 3O 2
C) N 2 O and NO
C) 2KCIO3 → 2KCl + 3O 2
D) SO 2 and SO3
D) 2H 2 O 2 → 2H 2 O + O 2

9. Which of the following is not a disproportion- 14. The oxidation number of P in Mg2P2O7 is
ation reaction?
A) KO 2 + H 2 O + CO 2 → KHCO3 + O 2 A) +3 B) +2

C) +5 D) –3
B) KCIO3 → KCIO 4 + KCl
15. Which of the following reactions does not in-
volve either oxidation or reduction?
C) PbO 2 + H 2 O → PbO + H 2 O 2
2+
A) VO → V2 O3 B) Na → Na
⊕

D) OH
OHC − COOH → HOH 2 C − COOH
2− 2− 2+
+ OOC − COO C) CrO 4 → Cr2 O 7 D) Zn → Zn

120
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

16. The oxidation number of Fe in 22. Which of the following reactions is not a re-
Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] is dox reaction?
A) +2 B) +1
A) H 2 O 2 + KOH → KHO 2 + H 2 O
C) +3 D) –2
B) Cr O 2− + 2OH → 2CrO 2− + H O
17. The oxidation number of Cl in CaOCl2 is 2 7 4 2

A) –1 and +1 B) +2
C) Ca ( HCO3 )2  → CaCO3 + CO 2 + H 2 O
∆

C) –2 D) None
1
18. For the redox reaction: D) H 2 O 2 → H 2 O + O2
2
Cr2 O72− + H ⊕ + Ni → Cr 3+ + Ni 2 + H 2 O
23. The oxidation number of carboxylic carbon
The correct coefficients of the reactants for atom in CH3COOH is
the balanced reactiion are:
A) +2
Cr2 O72− Ni H ⊕
A) 1 3 14 B) +4

B) 3 3 12 C) +1
C) 2 3 14 D) +3
D) 1 1 16
24. Which of the following statements is/are cor-
19. When copper is treated with a certain con- rect?
centration of nitric acid, nitric oxide and nitro-
gen dioxide are liberated in equal volumes A) PbO2 reacts with HCl to evolve Cl2 gas
according to the equation. B) PbO2 reacts with HNO3 to form O2 gas
xCu + yHNO3 → Cu(NO3 ) 2 + NO + NO 2 + H 2 O
C) Pb3O4 reacts with HCl to evolve Cl2 gas
The coefficients x and y are
D) Pb3O4 reacts with HNO3 to form PbO2, but
A) 2 and 3 B) 2 and 6 O2 is not liberated.
C) 1 and 3 D) 3 and 8 25. Which of the following statements is/are cor-
20. The oxidation state of chromium in the final rect?
product formed in the reaction between KI In the reaction
and acidified potassium dichromate solution
is xCu 3 P + yCr2 O72− → Cu 2+ + H 3 PO 4 + Cr 3+
A) +4 B)+6
A) Cu in Cu3P is oxidised to Cu2+ whereas P
3−
C) +2 D) +3 in Cu3 P is also oxidised to PO 4

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT B) Cu in Cu3P is oxidised to Cu2+ whereas P

in Cu3P is reduced to H3PO4
21. Which of the following compounds can be ox-
idised further with a strong oxidising agent? C) In the conversion of Cu3P to Cu2+ and
A) CrO3 B) Al2O3 H3PO4, 11 electrons are involved

C) SO2 D) MnO3 D) The value of x is 6

121
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS 29. Among the following, what is the total num-
ber of compounds having zero oxidation
26. Among the following, what is the total num-
state of the underlined elements?
ber of compounds having +3 oxidation state
2−
of the underlined elements? a) SO3
a) K 4 P2 O 7 b) NaAuCl4
b) H 2 CO

c) Rb 4 Na  HV10 O 28  d) ICI
c) CH 2 Cl2

e) Ba 2 XeO 6 f) OF2
d) Na 2 Cr2 O 7

g) Ca ( ClO 2 )2 h)
NO 2 e) O3

27. In the following reaction 30. Among the following, what is the total num-
ber of species which are very good oxidising
xZn + yHNO3 ( dil ) → aZn ( NO3 )2
agents?
+ bH 2 O + cNH 4 NO3
a) F2 b) F
What is the sum of the coefficients (a+b+c)?
d) Na
⊕
c) Na
28. CN ion is oxidised by a powerful oxidising
e) MnO4 f) I
2−
agent to NO3 and CO 2 or CO3 depending g) Cl h)Ce4+
on the acidity of the reaction mixture.
2− 2−
CN → CO 2 + NO3 + H ⊕ + ne − i) Cr2 O 7 j) CrO 4

What is the number (n) of electrons involved k) HNO3 l) Fe2+

in the process, divided by 10?

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY

1. A 20. C 39. A 58. C

2. A 21. D 40. C 59. B
3. D 22. A 41. A 60. C
4. B 23. A 42. C 61. C
5. B 24. B 43. C 62. A
6. C 25. C 44. A 63. C
7. D 26. D 45. A 64. B
8. D 27. C 46. A 65. A,B,C
9. D 28. B 47. A 66. A,C,D
10. B 29. D 48. B 67. C,D
11. D 30. B 49. A 68. A,D
12. D 31. D 50. B 69. B,C
13. B 32. A 51. B 70. C,D
14. D 33. B 52. A 71. 2
15. C 34. C 53. C 72. 5
16. A 35. D 54. D 73. +3
17. C 36. D 55. C 74. +3
18. B 37. C 56. A 75. 8
19. D 38. C 57. D

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. D 11. A 21. C,D

2. B 12. A 22. A,B,C

3. B 13. D 23. D

4. D 14. C 24. A,B,C,D

5. D 15. C 25. A,C,D

6. C 16. A 26. 3

7. D 17. A 27. 3

8. D 18. A 28. 1

9. C 19. B 29. 3

10. A 20. D 30. 6

123
 Chapter
THE p-BLOCK ELEMENTS
8

QUESTIONS 4. The ions present in aqueous solution of

TI3 is
GROUP 13 ELEMENTS: THE BORON FAMILY
3+
A) T and I
−

1. The decrease in stability of higher oxidation

state in p-block with increasing atomic
B) T and I3
+ −
number is due to
3+
C) T and I3
−
A) increase in bond energy as going down
the group
D) T and I
+ −

B) the reluctance of s-sub shell electrons to

participate in the chemical bonding 5. Which of the following anion is not formed
by Boron?
C) both are correct
A) BH 4 B) BO 2
− −

D) none is correct

C) B ( OH )4
− 3−
2. Oxidation state shown by group 13 elements D) BF6
is
6. Which of the following compound is a gas
A) +1 and +3 (at 0°C)?

B) +1, +2 and +3 A) BF3

C) +2, +3 and +4 B) BCl3

D) +1 and +4 C) BBr3

3. B3+ ion cannot exist in aqueous solution D) Bl3

because of its
7. The Lewis acid character of boron trihalides
A) strong reducing ability follows the order

B) strong oxidizing ability A) BI3>BBr3>BCl3>BF3

C) high sum of first three ionisation B) BI3>BF3>BBr3>BCl3

enthalpies cannot be compensated by
hydration enthalpy C) BI3>BCl3>BF3>BBr3

D) large size and small charge D) BBr3>BI3>BCl3>BF3

124
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

8. Borax is
13. Boric acid is polymeric due to
A) Na2B4O7 A) its acidic nature
B) Na2B4O7 . 4H2O B) the presence of hydrogen bond

C) Na2B4O7.7H2O C) its monobasic nature

D) Na2B4O7.10H2O D) its geometry

9. An aqueous solution of borax is 14. When orthoboric acid (H3BO3) is heated the
residue left is
A) neutral
A) boron
B) amphoteric B) metaboric acid

C) basic C) boric anhydride

D) acidic D) borax

10. Borax bead test is applicable for: 15. Which of the following statements regarding
orthoboric acid (H3BO3) is false?
A) divalent metals
A) It acts as a weak monobasic acid
B) heavy metals
B) It is soluble in hot water
C) light metals C) It has a planar structure

D) metal which forms coloured metaborates D) It acts as a tribasic acid

11. The borax bead is chemically 16. Diborane reacts with water to form:

A) B2O3 A) HBO2 B) H3BO3

B) Na2B4O7 C) H3BO3 + H2 D) H2
17. The incorrect statement about borazine is
C) Na3BO3
A) It can react with water
D) B2O3 + NaBO2
B) It is a cyclic compound
12. On the addition of mineral acid to an
aqueous solution of borax, the compound C) It has electronic delocalization
formed is
D) It contains banana bonds
A) borodihydride
18. The element used in high temperature
B) orthoboric acid thermometer is
C) metaboric acid A) Al B) Hg

D) pyroboric acid C) Ga D) Pb

125
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

19. On a weight to weight basis, the electrical INTEGER TYPE

conductivity of aluminium is twice that of
23. Number of OH groups attached to Al in the
A) Fe B) Ga complex obtained by reacting aluminium
with aqueous NaOH solution is _____
C) Cu D) Ni
24. Number of 3-centre-2-electron bonds in
20. Aluminium is more reactive than iron. But Diborane is
aluminium is less easily corroded than iron
25. Borax is made up of x triangular and y
because
tetrahedral units. Then (x + y) is
A) aluminium is a noble metal GROUP 14 ELEMENTS: THE CARBON FAMILY
B) oxygen forms a protective oxide layer on 26. Elements of group 14
aluminium surface
A) exhibit oxidation state of +4 only
C) iron undergoes reaction easily with water B) exhibit oxidation state of +2 and +4
D) iron forms both mono and divalent ions C) form M–2 and M4+ ions

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT D) form M2+ and M4+ ions

27. Which of the following is distinctly acidic?
21. Diborane can be prepared by the reaction/s
diethyl ether
A) SiO B) CO
A) BF3 + LiAlH4  →
C) GeO D) SnO
B) NaBH4 + I2 →
28. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?
C) B ( OH )3 + H2O → A) CO2
450 K
D) BF3 + NaH 
→ B) SiO2

22. Refer the following reactions and identify C) SnO2

the correct statements. D) GeO2
29. Which of the following doesn’t exist?
A) PbI 4
B) PbF4
C) PbCl4
D) SnI 4
30. Allotropy is due to
A) difference in the number of atoms in the
A)Compound A is B2H6 molecules
B) Step B→C proves the Lewis acid nature B) difference in the arrangement of atoms
of ortho boric acid in the molecules in the crystal
C) Compound D is HBO2 C) difference in chemical properties
D) Compound E is HBO2 D) all of these

126
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

31. Graphite is a soft solid lubricant extremely 36. Pure carbon monoxide is obtained from
difficult to melt. The reason for this
anomalous behavior is that graphite A) synthesis gas

A) is a non-crystalline substance B) dehydration of HCOOH

B) is an allotropic form of diamond C) Producer gas

C) has molecules of variable molecular D) COCl2
masses like polymers
37. Producer gas is the mixture of
D) has carbon atoms arranged in large
plates of rings of strongly bound carbon
A) CO and N2
atoms with interplate bonds

32. Graphite has B) CO and H2

A) 2-D sheet structure C) N2 and NH3

B) Van der Waals forces between different D) CO, H2 and N2

layers
38. During water gas shift reaction
C) sp2 hybridised carbon linked with other
three carbon atoms in hexagonal planar A) Water is evaporated in pressure of
structure catalyst

D) All of these B) Carbon monoxide is oxidized to carbon

dioxide
33. In diamond, carbon have hybridisation
C) Carbon is oxidized to carbon monoxide
A) sp3 hybridisation
D) Carbon dioxide is reduced to carbon
B) sp hybridisation monoxide.

C) sp2 hybridisation 39. Carbonic acid is a

D) sp3d2 hybridisation A) weak tribasic acid

34. Which of the following is a good conductor B) weak dibasic acid
of electricity?
C) strong tribasic acid
A) Diamond B) Graphite
D) strong dibasic acid
C) Coal D) None
40. Silica (SiO2) with excess HF give
35. Thermodynamically the most stable form of
carbon is
2−
A) SiF4 B) SiO3
A) diamond B) graphite
4−
C) H2SiF6 D) SiO 4
C) fullerenes D) coal

127
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

41. An amorphous form of silica used in filtration MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
plants is
46. “CCl4 is inert towards hydrolysis but SiCl4 is
A) Quartz readily hydrolysed”. Which of the following
is/are not correct regarding this statement?
B) Cristobalite A) Carbon cannot expand its octect but
silicon can expand its octet
C) Tridymite
B) Carbon does not have vacant d-orbitals
D) Kieselghur but silicon does
C) Ionisation potential of carbon is higher
42. Silica in its normal form is almost non- than silicon
reactive because of
D) Electronegativity of carbon is higher than
A) acidic nature silicon
47. Which of the following is/are the properties
B) very high Si–O bond enthalpy
of CO gas?
C) amphoteric nature A) Colourless B) Odourless

D) very large Si –O bond length C) Neutral oxide D) Green house gas

INTEGER TYPE
43. Which of the following chlorosilane will
control the chain length of silicones? 48. ppm level of CO2 in atmosphere is____

A) (CH3)3SiCl 49. Number of Pi bonds obtained by the overlap

of sp hybrid orbitals in CO2 is _____
B) (CH3)2SiCl2 50. Number of six- membered rings in C60
fullerene is
C) CH3SiCl3
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
D) (CH3)2SiCl3
1. Consider the following statements for
44. Two important manmade silicates are diborane

A) Cement and asbestose 1) Boron is approximately sp3- hybridised

2) B–H–B angle is 180o
B) glass and asbestose
3) There are two terminal B–H bonds for
C) cement and glass each boron atom

D) glass and zeolites 4) There are only 12 bonding electrons

available.
45. Feldspar is
Of these statements
A) a zeolite A) 1,2 and 4 are correct
B) an aluminosilicate B) 1,2 and 3 are correct

C) a silica form C) 2,3 and 4 are correct

D) 1,3 and 4 are correct
D) None

128
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

2. Aqueous solution of borax reacts with 2 6. Which reactions can be used to prepare
moles of acids. This is because of diborane?

A) Formation of 2 moles of B(OH)3 only I) NaBH 4 + BF3 ( in ether ) →

B) formation of 2 moles of [B(OH)4]– only
II) NaBH 4 + I 2 →
C) formation of 1 mole each of B(OH)3 and
[B(OH)4]– III) BF3 + NaH →

D) formation of 2 moles each of [B(OH)4]– A) I, III

and B(OH)3, of which only [B(OH)4]– reacts
with acid. B) I, II

3. The incorrect statement regarding the C) II, III

structure of C60 is:
D) I, II and III
A) The six-membered rings are fused to
both six and five-membered rings 7. Which of the following statements about
H3BO3 is not correct?
B) Each carbon atom forms three sigma
bonds A) It is strong tribasic acid
C) The five-membered rings are fused only B) It is prepared by acidifying an aqueous
to six-membered rings solution of borax.
D) It contains 12 six-membered rings and
C) It has a layer structure in which planar
24 five- membered rings.
BO3 units are joined by hydrogen bonds
Na 2 B4 O7 .10H 2 O 
∆
→ NaBO 2 + ( A ) + H 2 O
4. D) It does not act as a Lewis acid by
( A ) + MnO 
∆
→ ( B) accepting hydroxyl ion.

A and B are 8. Reactivity of borazole is greater than that of

benzene because
A) Na3BO3, Mn3(BO3)2
A) borazole is polar compound
B) Na2(BO2)2, Mn(BO2)2
B) borazole is non-polar compound
C) B2O3, Mn(BO2)2

D) None of the above is correct C) borazole is electron deficient compound

5. Borax Na2B4O7.10H2O is actually D) of localised electrons in it

A) Na 2  B4 O5 ( OH )4  .8H 2 O 9. H3BO3 is

A) monobasic acid and weak Lewis acid

B) Na 2  B4 O 4 ( OH )6  .7H 2 O
B) monobasic and weak Bronsted acid
C) Na 2  B4 O3 ( OH )8  .6H 2 O
C)monobasic and strong Lewis acid
D) Na 2  B4 O 2 ( OH )10  .5H 2 O
D) tribasic and weak Bronsted acid

129
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

10. Select the correct statement(s). 14. Boron does not form B3+ cation easily. It is
due to
A) Aluminium dissolves in dilute mineral
acids but is made passive by concentrated A) energy required to form B3+ ion is far more
nitric acid than that which would be compensated by
lattice energies or hydration energies of
B) Aluminium vessel can be used as storage such ion.
of NaOH
B) boron is non- metal
C) Both A and B
C) boron is semiconductor
D) None of the above
D) None of the above
11. The relative stability of the different oxidation
15. In BF3
state
A) all the B–F bonds are single covalents in
Tl+ > Tl3+ , > Ga 3+ > Ga + nature.
Tl+ > In + > Ga +
B) boron- fluorine bond has some double
bond character and this bond is delocalised
is an example of
C) bond energy and bond length of B–F
A) redox potential bond indicate its single bond character

B) disproportionation D) All the bonds are ionic

C) inert pair effect 16. Dimer formation can take place with

D) electron- affinity A) BH3 B) AlCl3

12. The correct order of catenation is C) NO2 D) All of these

A) C>Sn>Si ≈ Ge 17. Stability of hydrides of carbon family is in

order
B) Si>Sn>C>Ge
A) CH4>SiH4>GeH4>SnH4>PbH4
C) C>Si>Ge ≈ Sn
B) CH4<SiH4<GeH4<SnH4<PbH4
D) Ge>Sn>Si>C C) CH4>SnH4>GeH4>SiH4>PbH4
13. The one that is extensively used as a D) None of the above
piezoelectric material is
18. Dry ice is
A) quartz
A) H2O(s)
B) tridymite
B) NH3(g)
C) amorphous silica
C) CO2(s)
D) mica
D) PH3(g)

130
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

19. Consider the following statements, 22. Graphite is a good conductor of heat and
electricity because it contains
I) In diamond, each carbon atom is linked
tetrahedrally to four other carbon atoms by A) layers of carbon atoms
sp3 bonds
B) sheet like structure
II) Graphite has planar hexagonal layers of
carbon atoms held together by weak van C) free electrons
der Walls’ forces.
D) pπ − dπ bonding
III) Silicon exists only in diamond structure
due to its tendency to form pπ − pπ bonds
23. Which one of the following statements
to itself. about the zeolite is false?

In this A) They are used as cation exchangers

A) Only I and II are correct B) They have open structure which enables
them to take up small molecules
B) Only I is correct
C) Zeolites are aluminosilicates having
C) Only II and III are correct three dimensional network.

D) All the above are correct statements 4−

D) Some of the SiO 4 units are replaced by

20. Which is the incorrect statement about

silicones? AlO54− and AlO96− ions in silicates.

A) They are repeating units (SiO4) in 24. Stable oxides of carbon are
silicates.
A) CO, CO2, C3O2
B) They are synthetic polymers containing
repeated R2SiO2 units. B) CO2,C3O2, C2O

C) They are formed by hydrolysis of R2SiCl2 C) CO, CO2

D) All the above are incorrect statements. D) C2O, C3O2

21. Which one of the following bonds has the

25. CO behaves as
highest bond energy?
A) Lewis acid
A) C–C

B) Si–Si B) Lewis base

C) Ge–Ge C) amphoteric oxide

D)Sn–Sn D) None of these

131
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT 28. Group 14 (carbon family) elements have
the following properties
26. Select the correct statement(s)

A) Diborane is an electron-deficient A) They are all network solids with

compound octahedral network.

B) Diborane is stoichiometrically analogous

B) Only SiO2 is a network solid with
to ethane (C2H6)
tetrahedral coordination and is a giant
C) Total electrons involved in bonding are molecule.
12 in diborane and ethane
C) SnO2 and PbO2 are amphoteric oxides
D) Total electrons involved in bonding are
12 in diboroane and 14 in ethane.
D) All oxides are acidic
27. Silicones

A) are synthetic polymer containing INTEGER TYPE

repeating (R2SiO2)

B) are formed by hydrolysis of R2SiCl2 29. C –C bond length in diamond is _____ pm.
C) are natural occurring repeating (SiO4)
units 30. The difference between first ionisation
enthalpies of Sn and Pb is ______ kJ mol–1.
D) Single R2SiO2 unit

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY
1. B 11. D 21. A,B,D 31. D 41. D

2. A 12. B 22. A,B,C 32. D 42. B

3. C 13. B 23. 4 33. A 43. A

4. B 14. C 24. 2 34. B 44. C

5. D 15. D 25. 4 35. B 45. B

6. A 16. C 26. B 36. B 46. C,D

7. A 17. D 27. C 37. A 47. A,B,C

8. D 18. C 28. C 38. B 48. 3

9. C 19. C 29. A 39. B 49. 0

10. D 20. B 30. B 40. C 50. 20

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. D 11. C 21. A

2. D 12. C 22. C

3. D 13. A 23. D

4. C 14. A 24. C

5. A 15. B 25. B

6. D 16. D 26. A,B,D

7. A 17. A 27. A,B

8. D 18. C 28. B,C

9. A 19. D 29. 154

10. A 20. A 30. 8

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 Chapter ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
9 SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES
PART-I (NOMENCLATURE)

QUESTIONS 5. Which one of the following is an example of

alicyclic compound
INTRODUCTION
A) Cyclobutene B) Benzene

1. Which of the following represents C) Pyrrole D) Thiophene

unsaturated hydrocarbons?
6. Which one of the following is an example of
A) Alkanes fused ring benzenoid compound?
B) Alkenes A) Benzene B) Phenol
C) Alkynes
C) Furane D) Naphthalene
D) Both B and C
7. Which of the following is incorrect about
2. Pyridine is homologons series?

A) Heterocyclic but not aromatic A) They have a difference of –CH2– group

between any two successive members.
B) Homocyclic but not aromatic
B) They can be represented by a general
C) Heterocyclic and aromatic formula

D) Homocyclic and aromatic C) They are all unbranched compounds

3. In IUPAC system 2o suffix is used to specify D) They contain the same functional group
A) Presence of functional group 8. Number of 3o carbon atoms present in 2,2-
dimethyl propane is
B) Presence of sidechain

C) Presence of multiple bond A) 0 B) 1

D) Whether the compound is cyclic or C) 2 D) 3

acyclic
9. The number of 2° carbon atoms in the
4. Which of the following compound does not following compound (CH3)2CH CH2 CH
contain OH group. (CH3)2 is

A) Alcohol B) Carboxylic acid A) 1 B) 2

C) Phenol D) Ketone C) 3 D) 4

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

10. The group of heterocyclic compound is 13. The IUPAC name of the alkane

A) Phenol, furan

B) Furan, Thiophene
is
C) Thiophene, phenol
A) 2,2,6,6,7-Pentamethyloctane
D) Phenol, Aniline
B) 2,3,3,7,7-Pentamethyloctane
SATURATED AND UNSATURATED
HYDROCARBONS C) 5-tert-butyl-2-isopropyl-2-methylpentane
11. Identify the false statement D) 2-Isopropyl-2,6,6-trimethylheptane
A) IUPAC name of CH3 CH is 14. IUPAC name of Neo-hexane

CH3 A) 2-methyl butane

B) 2,2-Dimethyl butane
1- methyl ethyl
C) 2-methyl propane
B) Isobutyl is also accepted as IUPAC name
CH3 CH CH2 D) 2,2,3-Trimethyl propane
of
CH3 15. IUPAC name of CH ≡ C − C ( CH 3 )3 is :

A) 2,2-dimethyl-3-propyne
C) IUPAC name of
CH3 CH CH2 B) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butyne
CH2
C) 2-vinylpropane

CH3
D) 1-isopropylethene
is 2 - methylbutyl
16. The correct IUPAC name of the following
D) Isopentyl is also accepted as the IUPAC compound is
name of CH3 CH CH2 CH2

CH3

12. The IUPAC name of

is :

A) 3-ethyl-4,4-dimethylheptane A) 1,1,5-trimethyl-1,6-hexadiene

B) 1,1-diethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane B) 2,6-dimethyl-2,6-heptadiene

C) 4,4-dimethyl-5,5-diethylpentane C) 2,6-dimethyl-1,5-heptadiene
D) 5,5-diethyl-4,4-dimethylpentane D) 1,5-dimethyl-1,6-heptadiene

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

17. The correct IUPAC name of 2-ethyl-3- ORGANIC COMPOUNDS CONTAINING

pentyne is FUNCTIONAL GROUPS
A) 3-methylhex-4-yne 21. The IUPAC name of
CH3–CH=CH–COOC2H5 is
B) 4-ethylpent-2-yne
A) Ethylbut-1-enoate
C) 4-methylhex-2-yne
B) Ethyl but-2-enoate
D) None of these C) Ethyl prop-2-enoate
18. The correct IUPAC name of the compound D) Hex-2-enoate
CH3 CH3 22. The IUPAC name of,
CH3 CH3
C CH − CH − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 3 is
CH 3 − CH 2 − C =−
CH–CH2–C–CH2–CH
C2H5
CH3 CH3
A) 5-Ethyl-3,6-dimethyl non-3-ene O
A) 2,4-dimethylhexan-3-one
B) 5-Ethyl-4,7-dimethyl non-3-ene
B) 2,6-dimethylheptan-4-one
C) 4-Methyl-5,7-dimethyl oct-2-ene C) 2,6-dimethylhexan-4-one
D) 2,6-dimethylheptan-5-one
D) 2,4-dimethyl-5-methyl oct-2-ene
23. The IUPAC name of
19. The IUPAC name of
CH3 O

CH3 C C CH2 CH2OH

is : H
A) 1-hydroxy-4-methylpentan-3-one
B) 2-methyl-5-hydroxypentan-3-one
A) 4-Ethyl-5,6,7,9-tetramethyldeca-2,9-diene
C) 4-methyl-3-oxopentan-1-ol
B) 7-Ethyl-2,4,5,6-tetramethyldeca-1,8-diene
D) hexan-1-ol-3-one
C) 7-Ethyl-2,4,5,6-tetramethyldeca-1,7-diene 24. I U PA C n a m e o f C H 3 – O – C H 2 C H 3
D) 7-(1-Propenyl)-2,3,4,5-tetramethyl-non- is
1-ene A) Ethoxy methane B) Methoxy ethane
20. The IUPAC name of the compound C) Methyl ethyl ether D) Ethyl methyl ether
25. The correct IUPAC name of
O O

CH3–C–O–C–H is
A) Hex-2-en-5-yne
A) acetyl methanoate
B) Hex-4-en-1-yne B) formyl ethanoate
C) Pent-3-en-1-yne C) ethoxy methanoate
D) Pent-2-en-4-yne D) ethanoic methanoic anhydride

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

26. The IUPAC name of the following compound 31. The IUPAC name of the compound

Cl CH2CH3
N
C C
CH3 I
A) N, N-Dimethyl-3-methyl pentan-1-amine is
B) N, N,3-Trimethyl pentan-3-amine A) 2-chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene
C) 3-Methyl-N,N, 3-Trimethyl pentanamine B) 2-chloro-3-iodo-3-pentane
D) Both A and B C) 3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
27. Which of the following is not correctly
D) 3-iodo-4-chloro-3-pentene
matched ?
A) Lactic acid CH3–CH–COOH 32. The IUPAC name of Cl3CCH2CHO is

OH A) Chloral
B) 3,3,3-Trichloropropanal
B) Tartaric acid HO–CH–COOH
HO–CH–COOH C) 1,1,1-Trichloropropanal
C) Pivaldehyde (CH3)3C–CHO D) 2,2,2-Trichloro propanal
CH3
33. The IUPAC name of the compound is
D) Iso-octane CH3–C–CH–CH3
O CH2 CH CH2
CH3CH3
28. The IUPAC name of CH3CH2OCH2C–H is CN CN CN

A) formyl methyl ethyl ether A) 1, 2, 3-Tricyanopropane

B) ethyl aldomethyl ether B) Propane tricarbylamine
C) 2-Ethoxy formate
C) Propane-1,2,3-tricarbonitrile
D) 2-Ethoxy ethanal
D) 2-cyano pentane-1,5-dinitrile
29. Give the IUPAC name of tetramethyl
ethylene 34. The structure of 4-methyl pent-2-en-1-ol is
A) 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene A) (CH3)2C = CHCH2CH2OH
B) 1,1,2,2- tetramethyl ethene B) (CH3)2CHCH = CHCH2OH
C) 2,3- Dimethyl butane
C) CH3 CH2 CH = CH CH2OH
D) 1,1,2,2- tetramethyl ethene
D) CH3CH (OH) CH = C(CH3)2
30. The IUPAC name of
35. The formula of propane nitrile is
CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2COOH is
A) 4-Hydroxy pentanoic acid A) CH3CN

B) 1-carboxybutan-3-ol B) CH3CH2CN

C) 1-carboxybutan-4-ol C) CH3CH2CH2CN
D) 4-carboxybutan-2-ol D) CH3CH2NC

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

36. neo-heptyl alcohol is correctly represented 38. When bromine atom of 3-bromo-2-methyl-
as : hexane is replaced by COOH group then the
IUPAC name of the compound will be
CH3
A) A) 3-carboxy-2-methylhexane
CH3 C CHCH2CH3
B) 2-ethylpentanoic acid
CH3 OH
C) 2-(1-methylethyl)pentanoic acid
CH3
B) D) 3-methyl-2-propylbutanoic acid
CH3 C CH2CH2CH2CH3
39. The IUPAC name of the following is
OH
CH 3 − CH =CH − CH 2 − CH − CH 2 − CONH 2
CH3 NH2
C)
CH3 C CH2CH2CH2OH
A) 3-Aminohept-5-enamide
CH3
B) 5-Amino hex-2-ene carbamide
C2H5
C) 3-Amino-1-heptanamide
D) C2H5 C OH
D) 4-Amino hept-4-enamide
C2H5
40. Which one of the following IUPAC name is
incorrect
37. The incorrect IUPAC name is A) Ethanoic acid

CH3 C CH CH3 B) Ethanal

A)
O CH3 C) Pent-3-ene
D) 3-methyl pentan-2-ol
2-Methyl butan-3-one
41. Ethanoyl chloride is the IUPAC name
of
CH3 CH CH CH3
B) A) CH3CH2Cl B) CH3COCl
CH3 CH2 CH3
C) CCl3CHO D) CH2ClCOOH
2, 3-Dimethyl pentane 42. Give the IUPAC name of the following com-
pound :
C) CH3 – C ≡ C – CH(CH3)2 S

4-methyl pent-2-yne CH3 C CH2 COOH

CH3 CH CH CH3 A) 3-Thiobutanoic acid

D) B) 3-Sulphobutanoic acid
Cl Br
C) 2-Thiobutanoic acid

2-Bromo-3-chlorobutane D) 3- Thioxobutanoic acid

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

43. The IUPAC name of acetylacetone is 47. Which one of the following compounds has
incorrect IUPAC nomenclature ?
A) Pentane-2,5-dione
A) CH 3 − CH 2 CH 2 − COOC 2 H 5
B) Pentane-2,4-dione ethylbutanoate

CH3 CH CHCH3
C) Hexane-2,4-dione B)
CH3 OH
D) Butane-2,4-dione 2-methylbutan-3-ol

CH3
44. The IUPAC name of CH3CH2 N CH2CH3 CH3CH C CH2CH3
C)
is CH3 O
2-methylpentan-3-one
A) N-methyl-N-ethyl ethanamine
CH3 CH CH2CHO
B) Diethyl methanamine
D)
CH3
C) N-Ethyl-N-methyl ethanamine 3-methylbutanal
48. The IUPAC name of the compound
D) Methyl diethyl ethanamine
CH2 CH CH2
45. IUPAC name of OH is is
OH OH OH
CH3
A) 1,2,3-trihydroxypropane
A) 5-methylhexanol

B) 2-methylhexenol B) 3-Hydroxypropane-1,2-diol

C) 2-methyl hex-3-enol C) 1,2,3-Hydroxypropane

D) 4-methylpent-2-en-1-ol D) Propane-1,2,3-triol

46. The correct IUPAC name of 49. The IUPAC name of

CH3 CH2 C COOH BrCH2CHCOCH2CH2CH3

is
CH2 CONH2 is

A) 2-methylbutanoic acid A) 2-(bromomethyl)-3-oxohexanamide

B) 2-ethylprop-2-enoic acid B) 1-bromo-2-amido-3-oxohexane

C) 2-carboxy butene C) 1-bromo-2-amido-n-propylketone

D) None of the above D) 3-bromo-2-propylpropanamide

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

50. The correct decreasing order of preference 53. The IUPAC name of the given compound is
of functional groups during the IUPAC no-
menclature of poly functional compounds is: CH3

A) –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2, –CHO CH3

HO
B) –SO3H, –COOH, –CONH2, –CHO
A) 1,1-dimethyl-3-hydroxycyclohexane
C) –CHO, –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH3
B) 3,3-dimethyl-1-hydroxycyclohexane
D) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COOH
C) 3,3-dimethylcyclohexan-1-ol

ALICYCLIC COMPOUNDS D) 1,1-dimethyl-3-cyclohexanol

CH3 54. The IUPAC name of the compound shown

below is :
Cl
51. IUPAC name of is

Br
A) 3-methyl hexene
A) 2-bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
B) 3-methyl cyclohexene
B) 6-bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
C) 6-methyl cyclohexene C) 3-bromo-1-chlorocyclohexene

D) 1-methyl cyclohex-2-ene D) 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene

52. The IUPAC name of the given structure is 55. Among the following which group has least
priority

A) –CHO B) –COOH

Cl C) –OH D) –Cl

Br
56. The IUPAC name of

A) 5-Bromo-6-chloro-1-cyclohex en-3-yne
A) Cyclopentylcyclohexane
B) 6-Bromo-5-chloro cyclohex en-3-yne
B) Cyclopropylcyclohexane
C) 6-Bromo-5-chloro cyclohex-3-en-1-yne C) Cyclohexylcyclopropane

D) 4-Bromo-3-chloro cyclohex-1-en-5-yne D) Both B and C

140
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

57. The IUPAC name of 62. IUPAC name of

O
Cl
CH2CH2COCH3
is :

Br
A) 4-(2-Oxocyclohexyl)butan-2-one
F
B) 1-(2-Oxocyclohexyl)butan-3-one
C) 4-(2-Oxobutyl)cyclohexan-1-one A) 1-Bromo-5-chloro-2-fluorocyclohexane
D) 2-(3-Oxobutyl)cyclohexan-1-one
B) 1-Bromo-3-chloro-6-fluorocyclohexane
58. How many secondary carbon atoms does
methyl cyclopropane have C) 3-Bromo-1-chloro-4-fluorocyclohexane
A) 1 B) 2
D) 2-Bromo-4-chloro-1-fluorocyclohexane
C) 3 D) None
59. How many secondary carbon atoms does 1, 63. The IUPAC name of,
1-dimethyl cyclohexane have
A) 4 B) 2 OH
C) 5 D) None
is :
60. The IUPAC name of
CH CH CH CH2 CH3 CH3
CH3
A) 3-methylcyclo-1-buten-2-ol
is
B) 4-methylcyclo-but-2-en-1-ol
A) 1-Cyclohexyl-3-methyl pent-1-ene
B) 3-Methyl-5-cyclohexyl pent-1-ene C) 4-methylcyclo-1-buten-3-ol
C) 1-cyclohexyl-3-ethyl but-1-ene D) 2-methylcyclo-3-buten-1-ol
D) 1-cyclohexyl-3,4-dimethyl but-1-ene
64. CH C CH CH3 the IUPAC name
61. Select the correct IUPAC name of the follow-
ing compound :
Cl

of this compound is :
C2H5 OH
A) Butynyl-cyclobutane
A) 2-ethyl,1-chloro,cyclohexanol
B) (1-methyl-2-propynyl)cyclobutane
B) 4-chloro,3-ethylcyclohexanol
C) 4-chloro,5-ethylcyclohexanol C) 3-cyclobutylbut-1-yne
D) 4-hydroxy,2-ethyl-1-chlorocyclohexane
D) Both B and C

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

MULTIPLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE 68. The IUPAC name of the following compound
is
65. How many of the following are correctly
OH
matched ?

A) 2- ethyl-1,1-dimethylcyclopro-
CN
pane
Br

A) 4-Bromo-3-cyanophenol
B) 2-cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene
B) Propylcyclohexane
C) 2-Bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile
D) 6-Bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile
O
69. IUPAC name of
C) Cyclopropyl propio-
O
Cl CH2 CH2 COOH
nate is
A) 3- (4- chlorophenyl) propanoic acid
O
D) penta-2,4-dienal B) 4- (3- chlorophenyl) propanoic acid
C) 1-chloro-4-ethylbenzoic acid
AROMATIC COMPOUNDS
D) Chloro ethylphenyl carboxylic acid
66. IUPAC name of C6H5 COCl is
70. IUPAC name of NH
A) Chlorobenzylketone

B) Benzene chloroketone A) Biphenyl aniline B) N-phenylaniline

C) Benzoylchloride C) Diphenylamine D) Both B and C
D) Chlorophenyl ketone INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS
67. What is the correct IUPAC name o the com- 71. Consider the following molecule
pound having structural formula
I
O
Cl O
CH2 C
Br
A) Benzyl phenyl ketone If x = locant of ‘I’
B) 1,2 -diphenyl ethanone y = locant of ‘Cl’
C) Diphenyl methyl ketone z = locant of ‘Br’
D) Benzoyl methyl benzene Calculate (z + y – x)

142
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

72. C5H12 give ............. types of alkyl group

4. The number of 1º, 2º, and 3º H atoms in
73. Number of carbon atoms in the parent chain 2,5,6-trimethyl octane, respectively, is :
HO A) 16,5,3 B) 15,6,3
of C) 16,6,3 D) 15,5,2
5. The number of σ and π bonds in
74. Number of carbon atoms in the parent chain
5-oxohexanoic acid, respectively, is:
O
A) 18,2 B) 17,2
H C
C) 17,1 D) 18,2
of 6. In 3-chloro cyclohexanol, the primary prefix
is:

75. Number of carbon atoms in the parent chain A) 3-Chloro

B) Cyclo
HO
C) an(e)

of D) -ol
7. Which of the following has only 1º and 2º C
atoms?
SAMPLE QUESTIONS A) 2-Methyl butane
1. Alicyclic compounds are:
B) Butane
A) aromatic compounds
C) 2,2-Dimethyl butane
B) aliphatic cyclic compounds
D) 2,2,3,3- Tetramethyl pentane
C) heterocyclic compounds
8. Which group is always taken as a substituent
D) none of the above
in the IUPAC system of nomenclature?
2. Tropolone is an example of:
A) –NO2 B) −C ≡ N
A) benzenoid aromatic compound
B) alicyclic compound C) C O D) –NH2
C) non-benzenoid aromatic compound
D) acyclic compound 9. Correct combination is
3. Select the correct priority for citation as 1) Word root a) propyl
principal group 2) 1ºsuffix b) cyclo
O O O
A) 3) 2º suffix c) hept
C OH > C > C H> OH > SH
4) 1º prefix d) oic acid
O O O 5) 2º prefix e) yne
B)
C OH > C > C H> SH > OH 12345 12345
A) B)
C) O O O eca bd eda bc
C OH > C H> C > SH > OH
O O O
12345 12345
C) D)
D) ced ba dca eb
C OH > C H> C > OH > SH

143
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

10. Which is incorrect statement 14. The IUPAC name of

A) A group obtained by the removal of one H CH2 CH3
atom from an alkane is known as alkyl group C2H5 C CH2 CH NH2
B) The chemical properties of an organic
compound depends upon functional group. A) 4-amino-2-ethylpent-1-ene

C) Homologous series can be represented B) 2-ethylpentan-4-amine

by a general formula C) amino pent-4-ene
D) Alkynes consist of one double bond in D) 4-ethylpent-4-en-2-amine
their molecule.
15. IUPAC name of the following compound
11. The IUPAC name of the following compound
is
( CH3 )2 CH − CH 2 − CH = CH − CH = CH − CH − CH3 is
C CH CH3
C2H5
C2H5
A) 1, 1, 7, 7- tetramethyl-2,5-octadiene.
A) 3-cyclopropyl-3-ethyl prop-2-ene
B) 2,8- dimethyl-3,6-decadiene
B) 1-cyclopropyl-1-ethyl propane
C) 1,5- disopropyl-1,4- hexadiene
C) 3-Cyclopropyl pent-2-ene
D) 2, 8- dimethyl-4,6- decadiene
D) (1-ethyl-1-propenoyl) cyclopropane
12. CH2=CH– is called
16. Correct IUPAC name of
A) allyl
B) ethenyl
C) phenyl
D) amyl
13. Give the IUPAC name of
Me A) 3-propyl pent-1-yne
Me Me
B) 4-ethylhept-2-yne
Me C) 4-propyl hept-2-yne
Me
D) 4-ethynyl heptane
Me Me 17. The IUPAC name of the following structure
(CH3)CCC(CH3)CH(CH3) is
A) 2,2- dimethyl-3-propyl-4-isopropyl
heptane A) 3-methyl-4-hexyn-2-ene

B) 4-Isopropyl-5-t-butyl octane B) 3-methyl hex-2-en-4-yne

C) 4-t-butyl-5-isopropyl octane C) 4-methyl-4-hexene-4-yne

D) 2-methyl-3-propyl-4-isopropyl heptane D) all are correct

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

21. The IUPAC name of which of the following

18. The IUPAC name of ( CH 3 )3 C − CH =
CH 2
compounds is not correct?
is IUPAC
Compound
name
A) 2,2- Dimethyl but-3-ene
Cyclohexa-
A) COOH
B) 2,2-Dimethyl pent-4-ene noic acid

COOH
C) 3,3-Dimethyl but-1-ene 1,2,4-ben-
B) zenetricar-
HOOC COOH
D) Hex-1-ene boxylic acid
4-methylcy-
19. Assertion : The IUPAC name of clohexane
C) H3C COOH
CH 3 − CH = CH − C ≡ CH is pent-3-en-1- carboxylic
acid
yne and not pent-2-en-4-yne.
4-bromo-
D) Br COOH
Reason : Lowest loctant rule for multiple benzoic acid
bond is preferred.
22. The IUPAC name of the compound
A) Assertion is not correct but Reason is O
correct
C2H5 C
B) Both assertion and reason are correct O is
and reason is the correct explanation of CH3 C
assertion
O
C) Both assertion and reason are correct A) propionic acetic anhydride
but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion B) ethanoic propanoic anhydride
C) aceto ethanoate
D) Assertion is correct, but reason is not
correct D) none of the above
23. The correct IUPAC name of the compound,
(C2H5)2NCH2CHCOOH
20. The IUPAC name of is O
Cl
CH3 CH2 C CH C H
A) 2-chloro-4-N-ethyl pentanoic acid
O CN
B) 2-chloro-3-(N, N-diethylamino)propanoic
A) 2-cyano-3-oxopentanal
acid
B) 2-Formyl-3-oxopentanenitrile
C) 2-chloro-2-oxodiethyl amine C) 2-cyanopentane-1,3-dione

D) 2-chloro-2-carboxy-N-ethyl ethane D) 1,3-Dioxo-2-cyanopentane

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

28. The IUPAC name of the following compound

Cl is:
24. The IUPAC name of is: OH

O
A) 2-ethyl-3-methylbutanoylchloride
B) 2,3-dimethylpentanoylchloride
CN
C) 3,4-dimethylpentanoylchloride
Br
D) 1-chloro-1-oxo-2,3-dimethylpentane
A) 4-bromo-3-cyanophenol
O B) 2-bromo-5-hydroxybenzonitrile
25. The IUPAC name of C NH C6H5 C) 2-cyano-4-hydroxybromobenzene
D) 6-bromo-3-hydroxybenzonitrile
is:
A) N-cyclohexylbenzamide 29. The IUPAC name of the compound
B) N-cyclohexyl-N-phenylmethylamide is:
C) N-phenyl-N-cyclohexylmethanamide
D) N-phenyl cyclohexanecarboxamide
Cl CH2 CH3
26. Write IUPAC name of the following compound C C
CH3
I
CO NH
A) trans-2-chloro-3-iodopent-2-ene
SO3H
B) cis-2-chloro-3-iodopent-2-ene
NO2
C) trans-3-iodo-4-chloropent-3-ene
1) 4-(benzene carboxamide)-6-nitrobenzene
sulphonic acid D) cis-3-iodo-4-chloropent-3-ene
2) 4-(benzyl amino)-6-nitrobenzene sulphonic OH
acid
3) 4-(benzoyl amino)-2-nitrobenzene
sulphonic acid 30. NH2
4) 4-(benzamide)-6-nitrobenzene sulphonic
acid O2N
27. The IUPAC name of the following compounds CHO
is :
O CH3 A ) 5 - A m i n o - 4 - ( h y d r o x y m e t h y l )­– 2 -
nitrobenzaldehyde
CH3 C CH2 C CN
B) 4-Amino-2-Formyl-5-(hydroxymethyl )
CH3 nitrobenzene

A) 4-cyano-4-methyl-2-oxopentane C) 3-Amino-4-(hydroxymethyl)-5-
B) 2-cyano-2-methyl-4-oxopentane aminobenzaldehyde
C) 2,2-dimethyl-4-oxopentanenitrile
D) 2-Nitro-4-(hydroxymethyl)-5-
D) 4-cyano-4-methyl-2-pentanone aminobenzaldehyde.

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

31. The IUPAC name of the compound 34. One among the following is correct IUPAC
name of the compound
O
O H
H C is: N CHO
CH3 CH2

A) N-formylamino ethane

B) N-ethyl formylamine
A) 5- formyl hex-en-3-one
C) N-Ethyl methanamide
B) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al
C) 3-keto-2-methyl hex-5-enal d) Ethylamino methanal
D) 3-keto-2-methyl hex-4-enal 35. Which of the following has isopropyl group?
32. What is the correct IUPAC name of the
A) 2,2,3,3- Tetramethylpentane
compound shown below?
Cl B) 2,2-Dimethylpentane

C) 2,2,3- Trimethyl pentane

Br D) 2-methylpentane

A)5-bromo-2-chloro-1-cyclobutyl-6- 36. Which compound is 2,2,3-trimethylhexane?

cyclohexyl-1,6-dimethyl-3-hexyne CH3
B)5-bromo-2-chloro-1-cyclobutyl-6-
cyclohexyl-1-methyl-3-heptane CH3 C CH CH2 CH3
1)
C)3-bromo-6-chloro-7-cyclobutyl-2-
cyclohexyl-4-octyne CH3 CH3
D) 6-Bromo-3-chloro-2-cyclobutyl-7-
cyclohexyl-4-octyne CH3 CH3
33. IUPAC name of
B) CH3 C CH2 CH CH3
O
CH3 CH3

CH3
CH3
CHO C)CH3 CH CH2 CH2 C CH3

A) 5, 6-dimethyl-4-oxo cyclohex-2-ene-1- CH3 CH3

carbaldehyde
B)2,3-dimethyl-4-oxocyclohex-5-ene-1- CH3 CH3
carbaldehyde
C)4-formyl-2,3-dimethylcyclohex-2-en-1-one D) CH3 C CH CH2 CH2 CH3
D)4-formyl-5,6-dimethylcyclohex-2-en-1-one
CH3

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

CH3 40. The correct IUPAC name of the compound

CH3
CH CH2 CH2 CH
is:
37.
CH3
CH3
C2H5 CH3 CH2 C CH CH CH2 CH3
CH3 CH2 CH CH2 CH2 CH2 CH3
The IUPAC name of the above compound
will be:
A) 5,6- Dimethyl-3-methyl dec-4-ene
A) 1-ethyl-4-(5-methylhexyl)cyclohex-1-ene
B) 1-ethyl-4(1,4-dimethylpentyl) cyclohex- B) 5,6-Dimethyl-8-methyl dec-6-ene
1-ene
C) 2,4,5-Triethyl-3-non-ene
C)1-ethyl-4-dimethylpentyl)-2-
ethylcyclohex-1-ene D) 6-Butyl-5-ethyl-3-methyl oct-4-ene
D) 4-(1,4-dimethylpentyl)-1-ethylcyclohex-
MULTIPLE CORRECT QUESTIONS
1-ene
41. Which of the following names are not correct
38. Select the correct IUPAC name of the
for the given compound?
following compound:
CH2 CH CH2

CHO CHO CHO

A) 3-Formylpentane-1,5-dial

B) 1,2-epoxy-2-methylbutane
A) 3-ethyl-1,5-dimethylcyclopentane
C) 2-Formylbutane-1,4-dial
B) 1-ethyl-3,4-dimethylcyclopentane
D) Propane-1,2,3- tricarbaldehyde
C) 4-ethyl-1,2-dimethylcyclopentane 42. Which of the following are the names of cyclic
ether?
D) 2-ethyl-4,5-dimethylcyclopentane
A) Oxirane
O
B) Epoxyalkane
39. CH3 CH C CH OCH2 CH3 C)Alkene oxide

OCH3 CH3 D) Carbinol

43. The compound C6 H 5 − CH = CH − COOH

The IUPAC name of this compound is:
may be called as:
A) 2-ethoxy-4-methoxypentan-3-one
A) succinic acid
B) 2-methoxy-4-ethoxypentan-3-one
B) 3-phenylprop-2-en-1-oic acid
C) 2-ethoxy-3-methoxypentan-3-one
C) mandelic acid
D) none of the above D) cinnamic acid

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

44. Which of the following names are correct for INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS
the compound?

COOH 46. How many types of functional group can be

present in an amine with the formula C3H9N?
HOOC − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH − CH 2 − CH 2 − COOH
47. In the following, yne is at position______
A) Pentane-1,3,5-tricarboxylic acid

B) 4-Carboxy heptane-1,7-dioic acid

48. Minimum number of carbon atoms in neo
C) Heptane-1,4,7-trioic acid system is_________
49. Find out number of benzylic hydrogen in
D) All are correct

45. The compound CH3 CH2 C CH2 may

CH3
50. What would be the sum of position of
be named as: two chlorine atoms according to IUPAC
nomenclature in the following compound?
A) 2-ethyl-2-methyloxirane
O
B) 1,2-epoxy-2-methylbutane Cl
C) 1,2-oxapentane
O Cl
D) 2-methyl-2-butoxide

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY

1. D 16. C 31. A 46. B 61. B

2. C 17. C 32. B 47. B 62. D
3. A 18. A 33. C 48. D 63. B
4. D 19. B 34. B 49. A 64. C
5. A 20. B 35. B 50. A 65. A,B,C,D
6. D 21. B 36. C 51. B 66. C
7. C 22. B 37. A 52. A 67. B
8. A 23. A 38. C 53. C 68. C
9. B 24. B 39. A 54. C 69. A
10. B 25. D 40. C 55. D 70. B
11. C 26. A 41. B 56. B 71. 5
12. A 27. D 42. A 57. D 72. 8
13. A 28. D 43. B 58. B 73. 6
14. B 29. A 44. C 59. C 74. 3
15. B 30. A 45. D 60. A 75. 4

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. B 11. D 21. A 31. D 41. B,C

2. C 12. B 22. B 32. C 42. A,B,C

3. D 13. C 23. B 33. A 43. B,D

4. B 14. D 24. B 34. C 44. A,B

5. A 15. C 25. D 35. D 45. A,B

6. B 16. C 26. C 36. D 46. 3

7. B 17. B 27. C 37. D 47. 4

8. A 18. C 28. B 38. C 48. 5

9. C 19. B 29. A 39. A 49. 5

10. D 20. B 30. A 40 A 50. 9

150
 Chapter ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
10 SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES
PART-II (REACTION MECHANISM)

QUESTIONS 5. Which of the following pairs of compounds

are not isomers
ISOMERISM
1. How many structural isomers are possible
for the compound with M.F. C6H14
A)
A) 4 B) 5

C) 6 D) 7
B)
2. Pent-1-yne and 3-methylbut-1-yne are

A) Chain isomers

B) Position isomers
C)
C) Functional isomers

D) Metamers

3. o-cresol and p-cresol are

D)
A) Chain isomers

B) Functional group isomers

C) Metamers

D) Position isomers 6. Vinyl alcohol and acetaldehyde are

4. 2-butyne and 1,3-butadiene are

A) Geometrical isomers
A) Position isomers
B) Tautomers
B) chain isomers
C) Chain isomers
C) functional isomers

D) tautomers D) Position isomers

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

7. In which of the following compounds 10. Keto-enol tautomerism is not possible

maximum enolisation takesplace for

A) CH3-CH2-CHO
A) B)
B) C6H5-CH2-CHO

C) C6H5CHO

D) (CH3)2-CHCHO
C) D)
11. Which of the following pairs of compounds
are positional isomers?

8. Total number of structural isomers possible A) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 CHO and
for C4H6 is/are O
A) 4
CH3 CH2 CH2 C CH3
B) 5
C) 9
D) 7
CH2
9. Which of the following statement is correct? B) CH3 CH2 C CH3 and

O
(i) and are chain
isomers
Cl
CH3 CH CH2 CHO
(ii) and
Cl Cl CH3
Cl

are position isomers C) CH3 CH2 CH2 C CH3 and

O OH
O

CH3 CH2 C CH2 CH3

(iii) and are tautomers
O

(iv) Benzyl alcohol and o-cresol are function-

al isomers
D) CH3 CH2 C CH2 CH3 and
A) (i) & (iv)
B) (ii) & (iv) O
C) (ii) & (iii) CH3
CH CH2 CHO
D) all are correct CH3

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

12. Which is not the position isomer of following 16. The C–C bond length in benzene is
compound?
A) 1.54 A0 B) 1.34 A0

C) 1.20 A0 D) 1.39 A0
CH2Cl
17. Resonance is not observed in

CH2
CH3
A) B)
Cl A)
CH2Cl

B) CH2 CH CH2
C) CH3 D) CH3
C) CH2 CH NH3
Cl Cl
O
ELECTRON DISPLACEMENT EFFECTS

13. Maximum number of carbon atoms arranged D)

linearly in the molecule
CH 3 − C ≡ C − CH =
CH 2 is 18. Which of the following compound shows

A) 2 B) 3 resonance

C) 4 D) 5 A)

14. The number of 120 angles present in

B)
benzene is

A) 6 B) 12 C)

C) 9 D) 18 D)

O
15. The C – Cl bond length is shortest in
19. Which among the following compounds is
A) CH2 CH Cl most stable

A) Ethene
B) CH3 – Cl
B) 1-butene
C) C6H5 – CH2 – Cl
C) cis-2-butene

D) CH2 = CH – CH2 – Cl D) 2, 3-dimethyl but-2-ene

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

20. Alkyl groups are (ortho/para) directing be- 24. Which of the following acids has the lowest
cause of value of acidic strength

A) Inductive effect CH3 CH COOH

A)
B) Electromeric effect
F
C) Resonance
CH2 CH2 COOH
D) Hyperconjugation B)

21. The C–C single bond length in propene is F

less than 1.54 A0. This shrinkage is due to CH2 COOH
C) CH2
A) Resonance
Br
B) hyper conjugation
D) CH3 CH COOH
C) Inductive effect

D) Electromeric effect Br

22. Arrange the following alkenes in the decreas- 25. Most acidic compound is
ing order of stability
A) CH3 COOH
CH
= 3CH CH 2 CH 3 − CH=
2 − CH CH 2
( I) ( II )
B) HO–CH2–COOH
( CH3=
)2 CH − CH CH 2 ( CH=
3 )3 C − CH CH 2
( III ) ( IV )
C) CN–CH2COOH

A) I > II > III > IV B) I > III > II > IV D) O2N – CH2 – COOH
C) I > IV > III > IV D) IV > III > II > I 26. Most basic amine is
23. Which among the following statements are
true with respect to electronic displacements A) CF3 NH2
in an organic molecule.
B) CH3 NH2
1) Inductive effect operates through π bonds
C) CH3 CH2 NH2
2) Resonance effect operates through σ
bonds
D) CF3 CH2 NH2
3) Iductive effect operates through σ bond
27. Which of the following exhibit electromeric
4) Resonance effect operates through π bond effect

5) Resonance and inductive effect operates A) Alkanes

through σ bond
B) aldehydes
A) 3 & 4 B) 1 & 2
C) alkyl halides
C) 2 & 4 D) 1 & 3
D) alkyl amines

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

28. Number of π electrons in conjugation for 31. In the anion HCOO–, the two carbon-oxygen
these compounds bonds are found to be of equal length. What
is the reason for it?

N A) Electronic orbitals of carbon atom are

hybridized
N H B) The C=O bond is weaker than the C-O
bond

& will be respectively C) The anion HCOO– has two identical res-
O onating structures

A) 8, 6, 6, 6 B) 6, 4, 6, 6 D) The anion is obtained by removal of a

proton from the acid molecule
C) 6, 6, 6, 6 D) 8, 4, 2, 3
29. Maximum hyperconjugation is observed in : 32. Addition of H+ to alkenes is an example of :
A) +I effect
A) CH CH2
B) -I effect
C) +E effect

B) CH D) -E effect
CH2
33. The inductive effect :

C) (CH3)3C - CH = CH2 A) decreases with increase of dis-

tance

D) CH3 B) increases with increase of distance

C) indicates the complete transfer of pair of
30. Which among the following compound exhibit electron from less electronegative atom to
hyperconjugation more electronegative atom in a molecule
OH
D) shows the transfer of lone pair of electrons
A)
INTERMEDIATES
34. The order of decreasing stability of the fol-
NH2
lowing cations is
B) + +
CH 3 − C H − CH 3 CH 3 − C H − O − CH 3
( I) ( II )
CHO +

C) CH 3 − C H 2
( III )

A) III > II > I

CH3 B) I > II > III
D) CH CH3
C) II > I > III
D) I > III > II

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

35. Which among the following is the second 38. Match the following :
most stable carbocation?
A) Carboca- P) 8 electrons in
tions valance shell
A) B) Carbanions Q) 7 electrons in
valance shell
C) Free radi- R) 6 electrons in
cals valance shell
B)
A) A-P, B-Q, C-R

CH2 B) A-R, B-Q, C-P

C)
C) A-P, B-R, C-Q

D) A-R, B-P, C-Q

39. Most stable carbocation is

CH CH3 + +
A) CH 3 − C H 2 B) C H 3
D)
CH3
CH3
36. Which of the following intermediate have
CH3 C + CH
complete octect of electrons around the C) D) CH3
central carbon atom? CH3

A) Carbocation B) Carbanion 40. Which of the following is most stable carbo-

nium ion ?
C) Free radical D) Carbene
A)
37. The most stable carbanion is

CH2CH2
A)
B)
(-)
CH2
B)
C)
(-)
C) CH3O CH2

(-) ⊕
D) O2N CH2 D) C H 3

156
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

41. The correct stability order for the following 44. Which one of the following substituents at
species is para-position is most effective in stabilizing
O
the phenoxide ion?
I) O II)
A) -CH3

B) -OCH3
III) O IV)
C) -COCH3
A) II > IV > I > III B) I > II > III > IV
D) -CH2OH
C) II > I > IV > III D) I > III > II > IV
45. Which of the following is the least stable
42. The increasing order of stability of the carbocation?
following free radicals is :
   
A) ( CH3 )2 C H < ( CH3 )3 C < ( C6 H5 )2 C H < ( C6 H5 )3 C A)
   
B) ( C6 H5 )3 C < ( C6 H5 )2 C H < ( CH3 )3 C < ( CH3 )2 C H
   
C) ( C6 H5 )2 C H < ( C6 H5 )3 C < ( CH3 )3 C < ( CH3 )2 C H
   
D) ( CH3 )2 C H < ( CH3 )3 C < ( C6 H5 )3 C < ( C6 H5 )2 C H B)

43. Which of the following carbocation under-

goes rearrangement

C)
A)

CH3 CH3
B) C CH CH3
CH3 D)

C)
TYPES OF REACTIONS

46. In nitrating mixture nitric acid acts as

CH3
A) Electrophile B) Nucleophile
D) CH3 C C CH3
CH3 CH3 C) Acid D) Base

157
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

CH3 49. Consider the following reaction

AlCl
47. + CH3– CH– CH2–Cl 
3
→ P. CH3
CH3–CH–CH=CH2+HBr→A :
‘P’ is
Major product A is
CH3
CH3
CH2 CH CH3
A) CH3 C CH2 CH3
A)
Br

CH3 CH3
C CH3 B) CH3 C CH2 CH2 Br
B) CH3 H

CH3
CH2 CH2 CH3
C) C) CH3 CH CH CH3
Br

CH3 CH3 CH CH2 CH3

D)
Br
CH CH2 CH3
D) 50. In the following reaction

O
48. Identify the compound X

C
N
anh.AlCl3
 ∆
→X H
O
conc. H 2SO4
→
conc. HNO3 “X”.
Cl
The structure of the major product “X” is
O
O2N
O
A) B) A) N
C NO2
B) C
N

H H

O
O
C
C) C D) O2N N
C) D) N
H

O H NO2
O

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

51. Which is wrong statement? 55. The most reactive of the following towards
nucleophilic addition is
A) SN2 mechanism proceeds through T.S
CHO CHO
B) SN 1 mechanism proceeds through
carbonium ion
A) B)
C) SN1 mechanism is a two step mechanism
NO2
Cl
D) SN1 mechanism is a single step mechanism

52. In SN1 mechanism intermediate ion is CHO CHO

A) Free radical
C) D)
B) Carbocation

C) Carbanion CH3 O CH3

D) None of these 56. Dichlorocarbene is generated by the action

of potassium t-butoxide on chloroform. This
53. SN2 reactivity is maximum in is an example of

A) α-elimination B) β-elimination
A) CH3Br
C) γ -elimination D) δ -elimination
B) CH3I
57. The main product of the reaction is
C) CH3–CH2–Br
CH3–CH–CH2–CH3+KOH (alc)

D) (CH3)3C–Cl Cl

54. Chlorination of toluene in presence of sun-

∆
 → major product is
light is an example of
A) CH2 – CH2 – CH = CH2
A) Free radical substitution
B) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
B) Electrophilic substitution
C) CH3 CH CH2 CH3
OH
C) Nucleophilic substitution
D) HO CH2 CH CH2 CH3
D) Nucleophilic addition Cl

159
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

58. In acid catalysed dehydration of alcohol 61. In which step of the following reaction, sp3
intermediate is carbon changes to sp2 carbon?
H
A) Carbocation
Step1
+ E+  → E
B) Carban ion

C) Free radical E
Step 2 H
D) Carbene  →

59. The decreasing order of reactivity towards A) Step 1

electrophilic substitution of the following
compounds is B) Step 2
C) Both 1 & 2
Cl
D) reverse reaction of step (2)
62. Markownikoff’s rule is applicable to which of
the following reactions
A) C2H4 + HBr
(1) (2)
B) C3H6 + Cl2
C) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 + HBr
NO2 CH3
D) C3H6 + HBr
63. The decreasing order of electron density on
the ring is
O
(3) (4)
C
H
1)
A) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 B) 4 > 1 > 3 > 2

C) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3 D) 4 > 2 > 1 > 3

NH C CH3
60. The function of AlCl3 in Friedel-Crafts reac-
2)
tion is O

A) to absorb water
H2N
3)
B) to absorb HCl

C) the produce electrophile

A) 3 > 2 > 1 B) 2 > 3 > 1
D) to produce nucleophile C) 1 > 3 > 2 D) 3 > 1 > 2

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

64. Which one of the nitrogen atoms in 67. Which of the following aromatic rings have
O greater electron density than

H2N NH C NH2 i s t h e m o s t
I II III H
nucleophilic? CH3 C CH3
A) III

B) I

C) II

D) All 3 nitrogen atoms are equally strong

nucleophilic centres H
O
65. The type of reaction NH2 C

− −
− OH − Cl
CHCl3  → C Cl3  → 
CCl 2
Dichlorocarbene A) B)

is :
CH3 C2H5
A) α -elimination

B) β -elimination C) D)

C) γ -elimination

D) addition-elimination
68. Which of the following statement are correct
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT

66. Which of the following statements are correct A) Polar protic solvent favours SN1 mecha-
for butadiene nism
1 2 3 4
C H2 = C H − C H = C H2
B) Reactivity of alkyl halide in E2 reaction is
A) The C1 – C2 and C3 – C4 bonds are larger in the order 30 > 20 > 10
than normal carbon-carbon double bond

B) The C1 - C2 and C3 – C4 bonds are shorter

than normal carbon-carbon double bond C) CH3 – gp is (ortho/para) directing and
activating due to +R effect
C) The C2 – C3 bond is shorter than normal
C–C single bond

D) The C2 – C3 bond is slightly larger than D) Rate of SN2 reaction in polar aprotic sol-
normal C=C bond vent are higher than in polar protic solvent

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

MATRIX MATCH TYPE QUESTIONS NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS

69.
71. How many position isomers are possible for
Column-I Column-II dichlorobenzene
A) P) Elimination

72. The number of structural isomers on

Br monochlorination of diphenyl methane is:

OH
73. Total number of aromatic carbonyl com-
pounds possible for the molecular formula
B) Br Q) Unimolec- C8H8O is
ular

74. Number of α − H present in the carbocation

OH

is ––––––––––
C) −
C2 H5 − O
CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − Cl  → R) Rearrange-
CH 3 − CH =
CH 2 ment
D) CH3 − Cl → CH3 − OH S) Bimolecular
75. Number of chiral carbon atom/s in the mol-
A) A→Q, R; B→Q,R; C→P, S; D→S ecule
B) A→P; B→Q; C→R; D→S
C) A→Q; B→P; C→S; D→R
D) A→S; B→R; C→Q; D→P
70. Matching the following
is ––––––––
Column-I Column-II

CH CH3
Stable due to SAMPLE QUESTIONS
A) P)
resonance
1. Acids and esters having the same number
of carbon atoms are:
Destabilised
B) CH3 Q) due to inductive
CH2
A) Functional isomers
O
effect B) Tautomers
Stabilised by hy- C) Metamers
C) (CH3)3C– R)
perconjugation D) Not isomers
Secondary 2. Which of the following kinds of isomerism
D) H C − C+ H − CH S) can nitroethane exhibit?
3 3 cation
A) A – P,R,S; B – P; C – Q; D – R,S A) Metamerism
B) A-P,Q; B-S; C-R;D-P,S B) Optical activity
C) A-Q,R;B-R; C-P;D-P,R C) Tautomerism
D) A-Q,S;B-Q;C-P;D-Q,S D) Position isomerism

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

3. How many gem dihalides are possible for 8. Assertion : Pent-1-ene and 2-methyl
C3H6Cl2? but-1-ene are position
A) 1 B) 2 isomers.
C) 3 D) 4 Reason : Position isomers have
4. Which of the following is not an isomer of the same molecular
butanal? formula but differ in the
A) 2-Butanone B) 2-Methyl propanal position of functional
C) 2-Butanol D) But-2-en-1-ol group.
5, The degree of unsaturation or index of hy- A) If both Assertion and Reason are true
drogen deficiency in the following is: and Reason is the correct explanation for
i) C6H14 ii) C4H6 Assertion.
iii) C6H6 B) If both Assertion and Reason are true
A) 0,2,4 B) 1,0,2 and Reason is not the true explanation for
C) 4,1,0 D) 2,0,4 Assertion.
6. The keto form of phenol contains:
C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false
A) 3π,13σ, 4 non − bonding electrons
D) If Assertion is false and Reason is true.
B) 3π,9σ, 4 non − bonding electrons 9. Which of the following resonance structures
is the most stable?
C) 3π,9σ, 2 non − bonding electrons OCH3 OCH3

D) 3π,8σ, 4 non − bonding electrons A) B)

7. Tautomerism is not exhibited by:

O O
A)
OCH3 OCH3

C) D)

B)
O O 10. Which of the following compounds has the
most basic nitrogen?
C) O
O
A) N B)
N
H H

O
D) O
N
C) N D)

H
O O

163
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

11. Arrange the following hydrogen in decreasing

order of bond energy: CH2

Ha Hb 13. Most stable resonating structure of

CH3

H 2 C = CH − CH − CH − C − CH 2 − Hd CH3
is:
Hc

A) B)
A) H d > H c > H b > H a

B) H a > H d > H b > H c

C) H a > H c > H b > H d

C) D)
D) H d > H b > H c > H a

12. Which of the following compound is not res-

onance stabilized? 14. Which of the following group has (+M) effect?
O
O
A) A) S OH
O
O

O
B)
S OH
B)

C) NH CH3

O C)

CH3
D)
D)
O

164
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

15. In which of the following alkene hyperconju- 19. Which of the following stability order is cor-
gation does not take place? rect?

O O
A) B) A) H C
2
<

C) D) CH CH

B) > O
16. Compare heat of hydrogenation of the fol-
lowing:

C) CH2
CH2
Cl >F
i) ii) iii)

A) i >ii>iii B) iii>ii >i

D)
C) ii >iii>i D) ii >i>iii > H2N CH2
17. The decreasing order of heat of hydrogena-
tion of the following is:
20. In which of the following compound steric
α inhibition of resonance effect will operate?
α
i) ii) NO2
α α α α α
A)
CH3 CH3

α α
α
iii) iv)
α
α α CH3
α
B) CH3 CH3
A) i>iii >ii>iv B) iii>i>ii>iv
C) iv>ii>iii>i D) iv>iii>ii>i
18. Which of the following is strongest base?
H H NO2

A) N N B)
N N
C)
N
CH3 CH3
H H H NO2
C) N D) N N CH3
D)

165
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

21. Which of the following is the most stable 24. Which of the following will give SN2 mecha-
arenium or benzenium ion? nism at a faster rate?
Me
Me A) MeO
NO2 Br
A) B)
H

H NO2 B) O2N
Br
Me Me

C) H3C
C) D) H Br

NO2 NO2
H
D)
22. Which of the following is anti-aromatic in
nature? Br

25. The decreasing basic order of the following

A) B) is:
i) F ii) Cl
iii) Br iv) I

C) D) A) i>ii>iii>iv B) iv>iii>ii>i
C) ii>i>iii>iv D) ii>i>iv>iii
26. The decreasing nucleophilic order of the
23. Whic of the following halides will be most following species in aqueous solution is:
reactive in SN2 reaction and SN1 reaction,
i) F ii) Cl
respectively?
Br iii) Br iv) I
I) Me
A) i>ii>iii>iv B) iv>iii>ii>i
C) ii>i>iii>iv D) ii>i>iv>iii
Br 27, The decreasing leaving group order of the
II) following is:
Me
Me
i) F ii) Cl
Me iii) Br iv) I
III) Me Me A) i>ii>iii>iv
Br
B) iv> iii >ii>i
A) I,II B) II, I C) ii>i>iii>iv
C) I, III D) III, I D) ii> i>iv>iii

166
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

28. The decreasing leaving group order of the

following compounds is:
NaOEt
i) CH3 ii) NH2 31. E2 Major product of the
Br
iii) OH iv) F

reaction is:
A) i>ii>iii>iv B) iv>iii>ii>i
CH3 CH3
C) ii>i>iii>iv D) ii>i>iv>iii
29. Rate of SN2 will be negligible in:
Cl A) B)

A)

CH3 CH3
Cl

B)
C) D)

Cl
32. Which of the following is least reactive to-
C) wards SN1 reaction.
Br
Br
A) B)
Cl

D)

Br
Br
30. Increasing the concentration of a nucleophile
in a typical SN2 reaction by a factor of 10 will C) D)
cause the reaction rate to:
A) Increase by a factor of 10
B) Increasing by a factor of 102
33. Rearrangement reactions are shown by:
C) Decrease by a factor of 10 A) Carbanion B) Free radical
D) Remain about the same C) Carbene D) Carbocation

167
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

34. Which statement is correct about the follow- 36. Assertion : Chlorination of allylic
ing reaction? hydrogen is difficult than
vinylic hydrogen.
Me
Reason : Allyl radical is stabilised
Me Br MeO Product by resonance
(major)
Me A) If both Assertion and Reason are true
and Reason is the correct explanation for
Assertion.
Me
A) Product is by elimination B) If both Assertion and Reason are true
and Reason is not the true explanation for
Me
Assertion.

reaction C) If Assertion is true, but Reason is false

Me D) If Assertion is false and Reason is true.

B) Product is Me OMe by substitution 37. In the following reaction, the major product
is
Me
CH3
reaction. I equivalent HBr
CH2
H2C
C) Both A and B

D) None
CH3
CH3
35. The decreasing order of dehydrohaloge- A) H C
2
nation of the following compounds by E1
Mechanism.: Br

I
I CH3
I) Me II)
Me B) H C
Me 3
Br

Me Me
I I CH3
III) IV ) Me
Me
Me C)
H 2C Br
A) I>II>III>IV

B) IV>III>I>II
CH3
C) II>I>III>IV D)
H 3C Br
D) IV>III>II>I

168
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

38. Statement I : 1-Butene on reaction with 40. CH 3 − CH = CH 2 + NOCl → P

HBr in the presence of a
peroxide produces 1-bro- Identify the adduct.
mobutane.
CH3 CH CH2
Statement II : It involves the formation
of a primary radical. A)
Cl
NO
A) Statement I is true; Statement II is true;
Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I. CH3 CH CH2
B)
B) Statement I is true; Statement II is true;
Cl
Statement II is not the correct explanation of NO
Statement I
C) Statement I is true; Statement II is false CH3 CH2 CH NO
D) Statement I is false; Statement II is true. C)
Cl
39. What is the major product expected from the
following reaction?
CH2 CH2 CH
CH3
D)
Cl
D Cl NO

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT

CH3
41. Which of the following carbocations is/are
A) H resonance stabilized?
Cl
D CH2
A) B)
CH3
D
B) Cl
H C) D)

D
42. Which of the following group(s) is/are o- and
C)
H p-directing?
CH3
A) –CN
Cl
B) –SO3H
D C) –NH2
Cl O
D) CH3 D)
O C R
H

169
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

43. Which of the following statements is/are 45. Among the following which is correct?
correct? A) Both cyclopentadienyl anion and benzene
are aromatic and have the same stability.
A) pKa1 of maleic acid is less than pKa1 of
B) Benzene is aromatic and more stable than
fumaric acid
cyclopentadienyl anion and it is nonaromatic.

B) pKa2 of maleic acid is greater than pKa2 of C) Both cyclopentadienyl anion and benzene
fumaric acid are aromatic , but benzene is more stable
than cyclopentadienyl anion.
C) Phthalic acid is a stronger acid than isoph- D) Cyclopentadienyl anion is more stable
thalic acid than benzene although both are aromatic.
NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
D) Isopthalic acid is a stronger acid than
terephthalic acid. 46. Total number of α − hydrogen in the given

following compound is:

44. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct?

A) Inductive effect is permanent displace-


ment of σ e s towards more EN element.

B) Mesomeric effect is delocalisation of LP


e s in conjugation.
47. No. of resonating structures are in the given
C) Hyperconjugation is simultaneous shift of
 figure:
σ and πes at 1,3-position without the move-

ment of H atom from its position.

D) Tautomerism is simultaneous shift of 48. The number of isomers of C6H14 is:


σ and π e s at 1,3-position with the move-
49. Degree of unsaturation in benzophenone
ment of H atom from its position. 50. Total number of cyclic ethers possible with
molecular formula C4H8O (structural isomers
only)

170
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY
ANSWER KEY
1. B 20. D 39. C 58. A
2. A 21. B 40. A 59. C
3. D 22. A 41. D 60. C
4. C 23. A 42. A 61. B
5. D 24. C 43. C 62. D
6. B 25. D 44. C 63. A
7. D 26. C 45. A 64. B
8. C 27. B 46. D 65. A
9. D 28. C 47. B 66. A,C,D
10. C 29. D 48. D 67. A,C,D
11. C 30. D 49. A 68. A,B,D
12. A 31. C 50. B 69. A
13. C 32. C 51. D 70. A
14. D 33. A 52. B 71. 3
15. A 34. C 53. B 72. 4
16. D 35. B 54. A 73. 5
17. C 36. B 55. A 74. 6
18. A 37. D 56. A 75. 3
19. D 38. D 57. B

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. A 11. D 21. B 31. B 41. A,B,D

2. C 12. C 22. B 32. C 42. C,D

3. B 13. B 23. C 33. D 43. A,B,C,D

4. C 14. C 24. B 34. A 44. A,B,C,D

5. A 15. D 25. A 35. B 45. C

6. A 16. B 26. B 36. D 46. 6

7. B 17. C 27. B 37. D 47. 7

8. C 18. B 28. B 38. C 48. 5

9. D 19. A 29. C 39. B 49. 9

10. A 20. A 30. A 40 A 50. 6

171
 Chapter ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
11 SOME BASIC PRINCIPLES
PART-III (PURIFICATION)

QUESTIONS 4. Stationary phase in paper chromatography

is
METHODS OF PURIFICATION OF ORGANIC A) Silica gel
COMPOUNDS
B) Organic solvent
1. Naphthalene can be purified by C) Water
A) Distillation D) Al2O3
5. Statement-I : A mixture of camphor and
B) Vacuum distillation
benzoic acid cannot be
C) Steam distillation separated by sublimation
Statement-II : Camphor on heating sub-
D) Sublimation limes but benzoic acid
does not
2. Identify the incorrect statements
A) Statement-I and II are correct
A) Simple distillation can help in separating
B) Statement-I is correct but not statement-
a mixture of propan-1-ol (B.P. 97°C) and
II is incorrect
propanone (Boiling point 56°C)
C) Both are incorrect
B) Sulphur present in an organic compound
D) Statement-II correct I incorrect
can be estimated quantitatively by Duma’s
method 6. An organic compound is separated from its
aqueous solution by
C) Liquids with a difference of more than
A) Distillation
20°C in their boiling points can be separated
by simple distillation B) Solvent extraction
C) Steam distillation
D) Thickness of adsorbent is approximately
0.2 mm in TLC D) Distillation under reduced pressure
7. Two volatile and miscible liquids can be
3. Latest technique for purification, isolation
separated by fractional distillation into pure
and separation of organic compound is
components under the conditions
A) Chromatography A) They have low boiling points

B) Steam distillation B) The difference in their boiling points in

large
C) Crystallisation C) The boiling points of the liquids are close
to each other
D) Vaccum distillation
D) They donot form azeotropic mixture

172
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

8. A bottle containing two immiscible liquids 12 The principle of column chromatography is

is given to you. They may be separated by
using a A) Capillary action

A) Fractionating column B) Gravitational foce

C) Differential adsorption of the substance

B) Separating funnel on the solid phase

C) Vaccum distillation D) Differential absorption of the substance

on the phase
D) Steam distillation
13. In steam distillation, the impurities should
9. In steam distillation the vapour pressure of
the volatile organic compound is A) not be steam volatile

B) heat sensitive
A) Equal to atmospheric pressure
C) Low boiling point
B) Less than atmospheric pressure
D) None of the above
C) More than atmospheric pressure
14. Which of the following is steam volatile?
D) None of these
A) Nitrobenzene

10 Aniline has high boiling point, high vapour B) Aniline

pressure at 100°C and is insoluble in water.
Aniline is therefore, separated by C) Both A and B

A) Steam distillation D) Neither A and B

15. Methanol and acetone can be separated by

B) Simple distillation
A) fractional distillation
C) Distillation at low pressure
B) distillation
D) Sublimation
C) steam distillation
11 The best solvent for the crystallization of
organic solid is in which D) vacuum distillation

16 Glycerol is purified by
A) Organic compound is highly soluble
A) steam distillation
B) Compound is soluble on warming
B) vacuum distillation
C) Compound is soluble at 90°
C) sublimation
D) Compound is insoluble
D) simple distillation

173
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

17 Anthracene is purified by INTEGER TYPE

A) filtration 22. How many of the following are purified by
sublimation?
B) distillation
Naphthalene, benzoic acid, Camphor,
C) steam distillation hexachloroethane, anthracene
D) sublimation
QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS OF ORGANIC
18. The function of fractionating column is COMPOUNDS

A) to separate the two components 23. Correct pair of compounds which gives
blue colouration /precipitate and white ppt
B) to provide greater cooling surface to the respectively: when their Lassaigne’s test is
vapours separately done is
C) to kept the vapour pressure constant
A) NH2NH2HCl and ClCH2COOH
D) to avoid mixing of the vapours of two
B) NH2CSNH2 and PhCH2Cl
components.
C) NH2CH2COOH and NH2CONH2
19. Petroleum refining involves

A) vacuum distillation H Me
N COOH
B) fractional distillation
Cl
C) steam distillation
D) and
D) passing over activated charcoal

20. A substance has boiling point 563k but it

24. In the Lassaigne’s test, organic compound
starts decomposing near this temperature.
is fused with metallic sodium in order to
Which type of distillation process is suitable
for its purification? A) Increase the reactivity of organic
A) Distillation compound

B) Fractional distillation B) Decrease the melting point of organic

compound
C) Steam distillation
C) Convert the elements of the compound
D) Distillation under reduced pressure. to ionic form

MORE THAN ONE CORRECT D) Increase the solubility of the organic

compound
21. The purity of an organic compound is
determined by its 25. AgNO3 solution is added to the sodium
fusion extract prepared with excess of
A) M.P. sodium of chlorosulphanilic acid. The
precipitate formed is
B) B.P.
A) AgCl only B) AgCN only
C) Crystalline state
C) Ag2S only D) All of these
D) Colour

174
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

26. Lassaigne’s test for halogen will be negative 30. Identify the incorrect statement
in case of
A) Lassaigne’s test can be used to detect
Cl Cl
nitrogen in hydrazine

B) During fusion with sodium metal, nitrogen

A) B) and carbon of an organic compound
combine to form sodium cyanide
Cl C) Nitrogen cannot be estimated in
F nitrobenzene by Kjeldahl’s method
F
D) Essential oils are purified by steam
distillation
C) D)
31. The reaction of nitroprusside anion with
sulphide ions gives purple colouration due
Cl
to the formation of
27. The formula of the blood red coloured
compound, formed when sodium fusion A) a tetranionic complex of iron (II)
extract of a compound containing both N coordinating to one NOS– ion
and S is treated with FeCl3
A) Fe(CNS)3 B) the dianionic complex of iron (II)
coordinating to one NCS– ion
B) Fe(CNS)2
C) The trianionic complex of iron (III)
C) Fe(CNO)3
coordinating to one NOS– ion
D) Fe(CNSO)
D) The tetranionic complex of iron (III)
28. Sodium fusion extract is heated with conc.
coordinating to one NCS– ion
HNO3 before adding AgNO3 while detecting
halogens to
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
A) Convert X2 into HX
32. Select the organic compunds, which will
B) Make the solution acidic
give red colour in Lassaigne’s test?
C) Release X2 from the compound
A) NaCN
D) Destroy any NaCN or Na2S formed due
to the presence of N and S as they interfere O
with the test
29. In which of the following compounds, B) H2N C NH2
nitrogen cannot be tested by Lassaigne’s
test? S
A) C6H5NHNH2
C) NH2 C NH2
B) NH2NH2
C) NH2CONH2
D) H2N
SO3Na+
D) Ph–CONH2

175
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS 37. 40 ml nitrogen gas was collected at 300 K

temperature and 715 mm pressure while
33. Amonst the following, the total number of estimating nitrogen by Dumas method from
compound which give Lassaigne’s test for 0.2 gm organic compound. Calculate the
nitrogen percentage proportion of nitrogen in organic
compound. (aqueous tension of water of
NH2
300 K = 15 mm)
A) 17.5%
I)
B) 20.95%
C) 33.5%
II) H2N–CH2–COOH
D) 42%
III) NH2NH2
38. 0.36 gm BaSO4 is obtained from 0.26 gm
IV) H2N–OH
organic compound. Find the percentage of
V) Ph–N=N–Ph sulphur in organic compound
VI) NH2–CO–NH2 A) 19% B) 26%
VII) CH2N2
C) 9.9% D) 31%
NO2 39. A sample of 0.50 g of an organic compound
was treated according to Kjeldahl’s method.
VIII) The ammonia evolved was absorbed in
50 ml of 0.5 M H2SO4. The residual acid
required 60 ml of 0.5 M solution of NaOH for
QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen
34. Carbon and hydrogen are estimated by in the compound is
A) Liebigs method A) 36% B) 56%
B) Lassaignes test C) 40% D) 28%
C) Duma’s method 40. 0.2 gram Mg2P2O7 is obtained during
D) Kjeldahl’s method estimation of 0.5 g organic compound
by Carius method. Then calculate the
35. Estimation of which element is possible by percentage of phosphorous
Carius method?
A) 13.96%
A) Halogen
B) Sulphur B) 15.75%
C) Phosphorous C) 11.17%
D) All of these D) 23%
36. In Dumas method nitrometer contains 41. If the percentage of nitrogen in an organic
A) KOH solution compound is 12.5, the volume of N2 gas at
STP, that may be obtained from 0.56 g of
B) Water the compound by Duma’s method is
C) HCl A) 112 ml B) 56 ml
D) dil.H2SO4 C) 11.2 ml D) 22.4 ml

176
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

42. 20 ml H2SO4 was required to neutralise, 47. 0.5 g of an organic substance containing
ammonia produced by Kjeldahlisation of phosphorous was heated with conc.
0.6 g urea. The normality of H2SO4 was HNO3 in the Carius tube. The phosphoric
acid thus formed was precipitated with
A) 1 B) 0.5 magnesia mixture (MgNH4PO4) which on
C) 0.25 D) 1.25 ignition gave a residue of 1g of magnesium
pyrophosphate (Mg2P2O7). The percentage
43. 198 mg CO2 and 101.4 mg H2O is obtained of phosphorous in the organic compound is
by complete combustion of 246 mg organic
compound. Calculate percentage of C and A) 55.85%
H in this compound B) 29.72%
A) 45.8 and 21.9 C) 19.18%
B) 21.9 and 43
D) 20.5%
C) 21.95 and 4.58
48. 0.2 gram Mg2P2O7 is obtained during
D) 4.58 and 24.6 estimation of 0.5 g organic compound
by Carius method. Then calculate the
44. 0.156 g of an organic compound on heating percentage of phosphorous
with excess of fuming nitric acid and silver
nitrate produced 0.235 g of silver iodide. A) 13.96%
The percentage of iodine is
B) 15.75%
A) 29.5 B) 81.41
C) 11.17%
C) 75.2 D) 52.6
D) 23%
45. In Carius method of estimation of halogens,
250 mg of an organic compound gave 141 49. In Liebig’s method for the estimation of C
mg of AgBr. The percentage of bromine in and H, if the compound also contain both
the compound is halogens and S, which of the following is
kept near the exit of the combustion tube?
A) 24 B) 26
A) Silver wire
C) 48 D) 60
B) PbCrO4
46. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of
organic compound was digested by C) Both A and B
Kjeldahl’s method and the evolved ammonia D) Cu gauge
M
was absorbed in 60 ml of sulphuric
10 50. An organic compound containing sulphur
is estimated by Carius method in which
acid. The unreacted acid required 20 ml of
fuming HNO3 is used to convert S into
M
sodium hydroxide for complete 2−
10 A) SO3
neutralisation. The percentage of nitrogen 2−
in the compound is B) SO 4

A) 3% B) 5% C) SO3

C) 6% D) 10% D) SO2

177
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

51. In Dumas method for the estimation of 55. Empirical formula of a compound is CH2O
nitrogen in an organic compound, nitrogen and its molecular mass is 90. The molecular
is determined in the form of formula of the compound is

A) Gaseous nitrogen A) C3H6O3

B) C2H4O2
B) Sodium cyanide
C) C6H12O6
C) Ammonium sulphate
D) CH2O
D) Gaseous ammonia
56. For the estimation of nitrogen, 1.4 g of
52. In Kjeldahl’s method, function of K2SO4 is an organic compound was digested by
Kjeldahl’s method and the evolved ammonia
A) B.P. elevator was absorbed in 60 ml of M/10 sulphuric
acid. The unreacted acid required 20 ml
B) Catalyst of M/10 sodium hydroxide for complete
neutralization. The percentage of nitrogen
in the compound is
C) Freezing point depressator
A) 5%
D) None of these
B) 6%
53. An organic compound contains 40% C,
6.66% H and rest oxygen. Its vapour density C) 10%
is 30. Molecular formulae of the compound
is D) 3%

57. 0.0833 mole of a carbohydrate of empirical

A) CH2O formula CH2O contains 1g of hydrogen. The
molecular formula of the carbohydrate is
B) C2H4O2
A) C5H10O5
C) C2H6O2
B) C3H4O3
D) C2H6O
C) C12H22O11
54. 0.12 g of an organic compound containing D) C6H12O6
phosphorous gave 0.22 g of Mg2P2O7 by
the usual analysis.. The percentage of MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
phosphorous in the compound is found to 58. Catalyst used in Kjeldahl’s method for
be estimation of nitrogen is

A) 51.2% A) Cu

B) 48.3% B) Mg

C) Hg
C) 54.28%
D) CusO4
D) 60%

178
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

59. The empirical formula of a compound is INTEGER TYPE QUESTION

CH2. To which of the hydrocarbon series
does it be long? 63. Amongst the following Kjeldahl’s method
can’t be used for
A) Alkanes B) Alkenes I) Ph–NO2

C) Alkynes D) Cycloalkanes II) Ph–N = N–Ph

III) Ph–NHCOPh
60. Phosphorous can be estimated by the
following methods
IV)
A) Carius method
N
B) Kjeldahis method
V)
C) Molybdate method
N
D) Duma’s method
VI) VI) Ph–NH2
61. Which of the following statements is/are
VII) Acetone
wrong?
VII) Urea
A) Sulphur is estimated by Carius method
as BaSO4 64. The molecular mass of an alkyne is 68. The
number of carbon atoms per molecule of
B) Nitrobenzene evolves ammonia gas on this hydrocarbon is
acid treatment in kjeldahl’s method.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
C) Kjeldahl’s method is used for all nitrogen- 1. Two liquids isohexane and 3-methylpen-
containing organic compounds tane has boiling point 60ºC and 63ºC.
They can be separated by:
D) Phosphorous is estimated by Carius
method as Mg(NH4)PO4 A) Simple distillation and isohexane comes
out first
62. Which of the following statements is/are
B) Simple distillation and 3-methylpentane
correct?
comes out first
A) Leibig’s method is used for the C) Fractional distillation and isohexane
quantitative estimation of both C and H comes out first

B) Duma’s method is used for the D)Fractional distillation and 3-methylpentane

quantitative estimation of N in all nitrogen comes out first
containing organic compound 2. Separation of two substances by fractional
crystallisation depends upon their
C) In Liebig’s combustion method, ordinary differences in:
CuO is used
A) densities B) volatility
D) The gas estimated in Duma’s method is
nitrogen. C) solubility D) crystalline shape

179
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

3. Aniline is separated from aniline-water 8. Paper chromatography is an example of :

mixture by:
A) column chromatography
A) fractional crystallisation
B) adsorption chromatography
B) sublimation
C) partition chromatography
C) solvent extraction
D) thin layer chromatography
D) steam distillation
9. A mixture of naphthalene and benzoic acid
4. Glycerol is purified by can be separated by:

A) steam distillation A) Fractional distillation

B) vacuum distillation B) sublimation

C) sublimation C) crystallisation

D) simple distillation D) simple distillation

5. Two immiscible liquids are separated by: 10. Which is useful for the separating benzoic
acid from methyl benzoate?
A) separating funnel
A) Aq.NaHCO3 B) [Link]
B) fractional distillation
C) Aq.NaHSO3 D) Dil. H2SO4
C) chromatography
11. A mixture of camphor and benzoic acid can
D) sublimation be easily separated by:

6. A liquid compound ‘X’ can be purified by A) Sublimation

steam distillation only if it is:
B) fractional distillation
A) steam volatile, miscible with water C) chemical method
B) steam volatile, immiscible with water D) extraction with solvents
C) not steam volatile, immiscible with water 12. Which of the following does not contain
fused benzene rings?
D) not steam volatile, immiscible with water
A) Naphthalene B) Anthracene
7. Two volatile and miscible liquids can be
separated by fractional distillation into pure C) Diphenyl D) Phenanthrene
components under the conditions when:
13. In simple distillation of liquids, it involves
A) they have low boiling points simultaneously:
B) the difference in their boiling points is A) vaporisation and condensation
large
B) heating and sublimation
C) the boiling points of the liquids are close
to each other C)Vaporisation and sublimation

D) they form azeotropic mixture D) boiling and filtration

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

14. Distillation under reduced pressure is used 19. In Carius method of estimation of halogen,
to purify liquids which: 0.172 g of an organic compound showed
presence of 0.08 g of bromine. Which
A) are highly volatile of these is the correct structure of the
B) have high boiling points compound?

C) are explosives A) H3C–Br B) H3C–CH2Br

D) decomposes below their boiling points
NH2 NH2
15. Which one of the following reagents is useful
Br
for separating aniline from nitrobenzene?
A) Aq.NaHCO3 B) Aq.NaHSO3 C) D)

C) [Link] D) Dilute H2SO4

Br Br
16. A mixture of phenol and benzoic acid will
completely dissolve in an aqueous solution
of : 20. Which of the substance is purified by
sublimation?
A) HCl B) NaCl
C) NaHCO3 D) NaOH A) Naphthalene

17. Silica gel is used for keeping away the B) Benzoic acid
moisture because it:
A) adsorbs water molecule C) Camphor

B) absorbs water molecule D) All of these

C) reacts with water
21. A mixture of oil and water is separated by:
D) none of the above
18. Match List I with List II A) filtration

B) Using separating funnel

List I List II
Element Reagent used/ Prod-
C) sublimation
Detected uct formed
A) Nitrogen I) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
D) fractional distillation
B) Sulphur II) AgNO3
C) Phospho- III) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 22. Glycerol from spent-lye can be purified by:
rus
D) Halogen IV) (NH4)2MoO4 A) simple distillation
A) A- III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
B) fractional distillation
B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D- III
C) A- II, B- I, C-IV, D- III C) vacuum distillation

D) A-IV, B- II, C-I, D-III D) steam distillation

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

23. Match List I with List II 27. In Lassaigne’s test, the organic compound
is fused with sodium metal as to:
List I List -II
Mixture (Purification Pro-
A) hydrolyse the compound
cess)
A) Chloroform I) Steam distil-
and Aniline lation B) form a sodium derivative
B) Benzoic acid II) Sublimation
and Naph- C) convert nitrogen, sulphur or halogens if
thalene present into soluble ionic sodium compound.
C) Water and III) Distillation
Aniline D) burn the compound
D) Naphthalene IV) Crystallation
and Sodium 28. Nitrogen containing organic compound
chloride when fused with sodium metal forms:

A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

A) NaNO2 B) NaCN
B) A-III, B--I, C-IV, D- II
C) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I C) NaNH2 D) NaNC

D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

29. The sodium extract of an organic compound
24. Separation of organic compounds by on treatment with FeSO4 solution, FeCl3
column chromatography is due to: and HCl gives a red solution. The organic
compound contains:
A) selective absorption
B) selective adsorption A) both nitrogen and sulphur
C) both absorption and adsorption
B) nitrogen only
D) solubilities
25. The technique of gas liquid chromatography C) sulphur only
is suitable for compounds which are:
A) soluble in water D) halogen
B) highly volatile
30. The prussian blue colour obtained during
C) Vaporise without decomposition the test of nitrogen by Lassaigne’s test is
D) liquids due to the formation of:

26. Carbon and hydrogen are estimated in

organic compounds by: A) Fe 4  Fe ( CN )6  3

A) Kjeldahl’s method
B) Na 3  Fe ( CN )6 
B) Duma’s method
C) Liebig’s method C) Fe ( CN )3
D) Carius method
D) Na 4  Fr ( CN )5 NOS

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

31. In Lassaigne’s test for the detection of 38. The Kjeldahl’s method for nitrogen
halogens, the sodium fusion extract is first estimation fails for which of the following
boiled with concentrated nitric acid. This is: reaction product?
A) to remove silver halides
NO2
B) to decompose Na2S and NaCN, if present
C) to dissolve Ag2S I)
Sn/HCl
D) to dissolve AgCN, if formed
32. Duma’s method involves the determination
of nitrogen content in the organic compound
in the form of : CN
A) NH3 B) N2
C) NaCN D) (NH4)2SO4 II)
LiAlH4
33. An organic compound which produces a
bluish green coloured flame on heating in
presence of copper is:
A) benzaldehyde B) benzoic acid CH2CN
C) aniline D) chlorobenzene
34. 0.30g of an organic compound containing III)
C, H and O on combustion yields 0.44 g CO2 i) SnCl2 + HCl
and 0.18 g H2O. If one mol of compound ii) H2O
weighs 60, then molecular formula of the
compound is: NH2
A) C3H8O B) CH2O
C) C6H6O D) C2H4O2 IV)
NaNO2 + HCl
35. In Carius method of estimation of halogens,
250 mg of an organic compound gave 141
mg of AgBr. The percentage of bromine in
the compound is: A) I and IV
(at. mass Ag= 108; Br=80)
B) III and IV
A) 48 B) 60
C) 24 D) 36 C) II and III
36. Complete combustion of 1.80 g of an oxygen D) I, III and IV
containing comound (CxHyOz) gave 2.64 g
39. The violet colour obtained during the test
of CO2 and 1.08 g of H2O. The percentage
of sulphur Lassaigne’s test is due to the
of oxygen in the given compound is:
formation of:
A) 50.33
B)53.33
A) Na2[Fe(CN)5S
C) 51.63
D) 63.53
37. 1.5 g of an oxygen containing organic B) Na2[Fe(CN)5 NO
compound gave 2.2 g CO2 by Aluise method.
Percentage of oxygen in the compound is C) Na2[Fe(CN)6]
A) 55.33 B) 53.33
C) 56.33 D) 25.33 D) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

40. In the estimation of sulphur in an organic 43. The empirical formula of a compound is
compound, fuming nitric acid is used to CH2. To which of the hydrocarbon series
convert sulphur into: does it belong?

A) SO2
A) Alkanes

B) H2S
B) Alkenes
C) H2SO3
C) Alkynes
D) H2SO4

D) Cycloalkanes
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT

41. Select the organic compounds, which will 44. An organic compound contains about 52%
give red colour in Lassaigne’s test? carbon. It could be:

A) NaCNS
A) ethanol

O
B) B) dimethyl ether
NH2 C NH2
S
C) acetic acid
C)
NH2 C NH2
D) phenol
+
D) H2N SO3Na
45. Which of the organic compounds will give
42. The desiccants used for absorbing water white precipitate with AgNO3?
during Liebig’s method for estimation of
carbon and hydrogen are:
A) C6 H 5 NH 3 Cl
+ −

A) CaCl2

B) NaCl
B) Na2SO4

C) MgSO4.7H2O C) C6H5Cl

D) Mg(ClO4)2
D) 2,6,6- Trinitrochlorobenzene

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

INTEGER TYPE QUESTION 48. Amongst the following compounds,

Kjeldahl’s method can be used for:
46. Amongst the following, the total number of
compounds which give Beilstein test: i) C6H5NH2 ii) CH3CN

iii) C6H5NO2 iv) C6H5NHCOC6H5

i) CH3Cl ii) C2H5Br

v) NH2CONH2 vi)
iii) CH3F iv) Urea N

v) Thiourea vi) Pyridine

vii) viii)
N
vii) Aniline viii) Quinoline N

H
ix) CH3I x) Benzamide
49. Amongst the following, the total number of
compounds which give Lassaigne’s test for
47. Amongst the following, the total number nitrogen?
of compounds which are expected to give
blood red colouration when FeCl3 is added i) CH3CN
to their respective Lassaigne’s extract is:
ii) NH2–NH2
i) Thiourea
iii) NH2OH

ii) Benzene sulphoric acid iv) C6H5NH2

v) C6H5NO2
iii) Sulphanilic acid
O
vi)
iv) Diphenyl sulphide NH2 C NH2

vii) C6 H 5 − N = N − C6 H 5
v) Benzanilide

viii) H 2 N − CH 2 − COOH
vi) Semicarbazide
50. In an estimation of bromine by Carius
method, 1.6 g of an organic compound
vii) Urea gave 1.88 g of AgBr. The mass percentage
of bromine in the compound is.................

viii) p-Toluidine (Atomic mass, Ag= 108, Br=80 gmol–1)

185
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY

1 D 16 B 31 A 46 D 61 C,D
2 B 17 D 32 C,D 47 A 62 A,B,D
3 A 18 B 33 4 48 C 63 5
4 C 19 B 34 A 49 C 64 5
5 B 20 D 35 D 50 B
6 B 21 A,B 36 A 51 A
7 C 22 5 37 B 52 B
8 B 23 D 38 A 53 B
9 B 24 C 39 B 54 A
10 A 25 D 40 C 55 A
11 B 26 D 41 B 56 C
12 C 27 A 42 A 57 D
13 A 28 D 43 C 58 C,D
14 C 29 D 44 B 59 B,D
15 A 30 A 45 A 60 A,C

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. C 11. C 21. B 31. B 41. C,D

2. C 12. C 22. C 32. B 42. A,D

3. D 13. A 23. D 33. D 43. B,D

4. B 14. D 24. B 34. D 44. A,B

5. A 15. C 25. C 35. C 45. A,D

6. B 16. D 26. C 36. B 46. 7

7. C 17. A 27. C 37. B 47. 2

8. C 18. A 28. B 38. B 48. 4

9. C 19. C 29. A 39. D 49. 5

10. A 20. D 30. A 40 D 50. 50

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 Chapter
HYDROCARBON
12

QUESTIONS 5. Which of the following does not give an

alkane
ALKANES A) Reaction of CH3I with Na in
i) Preparation of alkanes ether
B) Reaction of sodium acetate with sodalime
1. In Wurtz reaction, the reagent used is
C) Electrolysis of concentrated sodium
A) Na acetate solution
D) Reaction of ethyl chloride with [Link]
B) Na/liquid NH3
6. Dry distillation of sodium propanoate with
C) Na/dry ether sodalime gives
D) Na/dry alcohol A) Propane
B) Propene
2. To prepare a pure sample of n-hexane
using sodium metal as one reactant, the C) Ethane
other reactant will be D) Ethene
7. The reaction
A) n-propyl bromide
Ni
CH
= 2 CH 2 + H 2 
250 −300° C
→ CH 3 − CH 3 is
B) Ethyl bromide and n-butyl bromide
C) Ethyl chloride and n-butyl chloride called
A) Wurtz’s reaction
D) Methyl bromide and n-pentyl chloride
B) Kolbe’s reaction
3. A reaction between methyl magnesium C) Sabatier and Senderen’s reaction
bromide and ethyl alcohol gives
D) Carbylamine reaction
A) Methane B) Ethane 8. Match the columns
C) Propane D) Butane Column-I Column-II

4. In the preparation of alkanes a concentrated A) CH2=CH2→CH3-CH3 p) H2, Zn, H+

aqueous solution of sodium or potassium B) CH3Cl→CH4 q) NaOH, CaO
salts of saturated carboxylic acid are
subjected to C) CH3Br→CH3CH3 r) H2, Pt/Pd

A) Hydrolysis D) CH3COONa→CH4 s) Na, dry ether

A) A→r; B→p; C→s; D→q
B) Oxidation
B) A→p; B→s; C→r; D→q
C) Hydrogenation C) A→s; B→q; C→p; D→r
D) Electrolysis D) A→q; B→p; C→s; D→r

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ii) Physical properties 14. A liquid hydrocarbon of higher molar

mass can be converted to gaseous
9. Which represents an alkane hydrocarbon of lower molar mass by
A) Cracking
A) C5H8
B) Hydrolysis
B) C8H6
C) Oxidation
C) C9H10
D) Distillation under reduced pressure
D) C7H16
15. Normal butane convert into isobutane by
10. The decreasing order of boiling points is
using
A) n-pentane > iso-pentane > neo-pentane
A) LiAlH4
B) iso-pentane > n-pentane > neo-pentane
B) Anhydrous AlCl3/HCl
C) neo-pentane > iso-pentane > n-pentane
C) NaBH4
D) n-pentane > neo-pentane > iso-pentane
D) Zn/HCl
11. The most volatile compound is
16. Match the columns
A) 2, 2-Dimethyl propane

B) 2-Methyl butane Column-I Column-II

C) isobutane Cu /523K /100 atm

A) CH4+ O2  → p) HCHO

D) n-pentane B) CH4 + O2
Mo 2 O3
 → q) (CH3)3COH

12. Which of the following is not formed by the ( CH3COO )2 Mn r) CH3OH

C) C2H6 + O2  →
reaction of Cl2 and CH4 in sunlight ∆

KMnO
A) CHCl3 D) (CH3)3CH  4
Oxidation
→ s) CH3COOH

B) CH3Cl
A) A→s; B→p; C→r; D→s
C) CH3CH3
B) A→q; B→p; C→s; D→r
D) CH3CH2CH3
C) A→r; B→p; C→s; D→q
13. Carbon black, which is used in making
printer’s ink, is obtained by D) A→p; B→q; C→r; D→s

INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS

A) Pyrolysis of alkane

B) Isomerization of alkane 17.

Cl2
→ (A) Find the
hv

C) Complete combustion of alkane

number of monochloro derivatives formed
D) Incomplete combustion of alkane (excluding stereoisomers) in the above
reaction

188
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

18. Find the total number of trichloro derivatives 23. Which of the following compounds represent
of the compound (excluding acrylonitrile

A) Vinyl cyanide
stereoisomers)
B) Cyanoethene
19. Find the total [Link] alkynes that on catalytic C) Prop-2-ene nitrile
reduction gives 3-Ethyl-4-methylheptane.
D) All of them
ALKENES
i) Preparation of alkene 24. Which of the following is formed as the
major product when Butan-1-ol is heated
20. Ethylene may be obtained by with conc.H2SO4?
dehydration of which of the following
with concentrated H2SO4 at
A) B)
160–170°C

A) C2H5OH
C) D)
B) CH3OH
ii) Physical and chemical properties of
C) CH3CH2CH2OH alkenes

D) (CH3)2CHCH2OH 25. Ethylene reacts with bromine to form

A) Br–CH2–CH3
21. A gas formed by the action of alcoholic
KOH on ethyl iodide, decolourises alkaline B) CH3–CBr3
KMnO4. The gas is
C) Br–CH2–CH2Br
A) C2H6
D) CHBr3
B) CH4 26. Alkene usually show which type of reaction
C) C2H2 A) Addition

D) C2H4 B) Substitution

C) Elimination
22. When 3,3-Dimethyl-2-butanol is heated
with H2SO4 the major product obtained is D) Redox

A) cis and trans isomers of 2, 3-Dimethyl-2- 27. The propene reacts with HBr to form
butene
A) Ethane
B) 3,3-Dimethyl-1-butene B) Hexane

C) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene C) 1-bromo-propane

D) 2,3-Dimethyl-1-butene D) 2-bromo propane

189
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

H 3C 33. In which of the following, addition of HBr

CH3 does not take place against Markovnikoff’s
28. C C 1) X

2)Zn − H 2 O
→ rule or Anti-Markownikoff addition of HBr is
CH3 not observed for
H 3C
A) Propene B) But-1-ene
CH3 CH3
C O+O C C) But-2-ene D) Pent-2-ene
CH3 CH2 . X is
CH3 34. CH2 CH

X in the above reaction is

+ HCl X
A) HNO3 B) O2

C) O3 D) KMnO4

29. The disappearance of the characteristic CH2 CH CH3

purple colour of KMnO4 in its reaction with
an alkene is the test for unsaturation. It is A) Cl
known as

A) Markovnikov’s test B) Baeyer’s test

C) Wurtz’s test D) Grignard test CH2 CH2 CH2 Cl

30. The most stable intermediate during the B)

addition of HCl to propene in the presence
of peroxide is

A) CH3 CHCH2Cl B) CH3CHCH3

Cl
C) CH3CH2CH2 D) CH3CH2CH2
CH CH2 CH3
KMnO 4
31. CH
= 2 CH 2  → X Product ‘X’ in C)
KOH/H 2 O
above reactionCold
is

A) Ethylene glycol B) Glucose

C) Ethanol D) All of these

CH2 CH CH2
32. Ozonolysis of which one of the following will
give two molecules of acetaldehyde D) Cl

A) 1-Butene B) 2-Butene

C) 1-Pentene D) 2-Pentene

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

35. Cis-But-2-ene in treated with Br2/CCl4. The 37. Which one of the following organic
product is compounds decolourises an alkaline
KMnO4 solution
A) Meso form of 2,3-Dibromobutane A) CS2
B) C3H6
B) Racemic form of 2,3-Dibromobutane
C) C3H8
C) 1,4-Dibromobutane D) C6H6(Benzene)
38. Decolourisation of alkaline KMnO4 is used
D) Racemic-2-Bromobutane as a test for
A)Aromatic hydrocarbons
36. The product of following reaction is
B) Olefinic hydrocarbons
CH3 C) Saturated hydrocarbons
D) Cycloalkanes
CH3 C CH CH2 
(i) Hg(OAc)2 ; H 2 O
→
(ii) NaBH 4 39. The order of increasing reactivity towards
HCl of the following compounds will be
CH3
1) CH2 = CH2
CH3 2) (CH3)2C = CH2
3) CH3CH = CHCH3
A)CH3 C CH CH3 A) 1 < 2 < 3
B) 1 < 3 < 2
CH3 OH
C) 3 < 2 < 1
D) 2 < 1 < 3
CH3
40. For the reaction CH 3 =
− CH CH 2 + HOCl 
→A
B) CH3 C CH2 CH2OH
the product A is
CH3 A) CH 3 − CHCl − CH 2 OH

OH CH3 CH2 Cl
CH3 CH
B)
C) CH3 C CH CH3
OH
CH3
C) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − COCl

CH3 Cl

D)HOCH2 C CH2 CH3 D) CH3 C CH3

CH3 OH

191
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

45. The reaction of C6H5CH = CHCH3 with HBr

41. Isobutene + HBr →
Peroxide product is
produces
A) Tertiary butyl bromide
A) C6H5CHCH2CH3
B) Isobutyl bromide
C) Tertiary butyl alcohol
Br

D) Isobutyl alcohol B) C6H5CH2CHCH3

42. A hydrocarbon of formula C6H10 absorbs
only one molecule of H2 upon catalytic Br
hydrogenation. Upon ozonolysis, the
hydrocarbon yields
C) C6 H 5CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Br
H H

CH2 CH2 CH2 C O

O C CH2 CH CHCH3
The hydrocarbon is
A) Cyclohexane D)
B) Benzene
C) Cyclohexene ALKYNES
D) Cyclobutane i) Preparation of alkyne
43. The compound that will react most readily
with gaseous bromine has the formula 46. A metallic carbide on treatment with water
gives a colourless gas which burns readily
A) C3H6 B) C2H2 in air and which gives a precipitate with
ammoniacal silver nitrate solution. Gas
C) C4H10 D) C2H4 evolved is
44. In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts
in accordance with the Markownikoff’s A) Methane
rule, to give a product 1-chloro-1- B) Ethane
methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is
CH3 C) Acetylene
CH2
D) Ethylene

A) B) 47. Acetylene can be obtained by the reaction

electrolysis
A) HCOOK  →

CH3 B) CHI3 + 6Ag + CHI3 

∆
→
Conc.H SO
C) CH 3CH 2 OH → 2
443° C
4

C) A and B D)
D) Be 2 C + H 2 O 
→

192
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ii) Physical and Chemical properties 53. Which is the most suitable reagent among
the following to distinguish compound (iii)
48. Which of the following represents the given from rest of the compounds
mode of hybridisation sp2 – sp2 – sp – sp
from left to right i) CH 3 − C ≡ C − CH 3
A) H 2 C= CH − C ≡ CH
ii) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 3
B) HC ≡ C − C ≡ CH
iii) CH 3 − CH 2 − C ≡ CH
C) H 2 C= C= C= CH 2
iv) CH 3 − CH =
CH 2
CH2 A) Bromine in carbon tetrachloride
D) CH2
B) Bromine in acetic acid
49. Which of the following gases is used for
welding C) Alkaline KMnO4
A) Methane B) Ethane
D) Ammoniacal silver nitrate solution
C) Acetylene D) Ethene
54. Which one is the correct order of acidity?
50. The correct order towards bond length is
A) CH ≡ CH > CH 3 − C ≡ CH > CH 2 = CH 2 > CH 3 − CH 3
A) C − C < C = C < C ≡ C
B) CH ≡ CH > CH 2 = CH 2 > CH3 − C ≡ CH > CH3 − CH3
B) C ≡ C < C = C < C − C

C) C = C < C ≡ C < C − C C) CH3 − CH3 > CH 2 = CH 2 > CH3 − C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH

D) C = C < C − C < C ≡ C D) CH 2 = CH 2 > CH3 − CH3 > CH3 − C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH

51. The product formed when acetylene is

55. Assertion (A) : Acetylene is more acidic
passed through red hot tube is
than ethylene.
A) Benzene B) Cyclohexane
C) Neoprene D) Ethane Reason (R) : Acetylene has sp
52. Acetylenic hydrogens are acidic because hybridised carbon with
more s-character.
A) Sigma electron density of C–H bond in
acetylene is nearer to carbon, which has
50% s-character A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
B) Acetylene has only one hydrogen on
each carbon
B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
C) Acetylene contains least number not the correct explanation of (A).
of hydrogens among the possible
hydrocarbons having two carbons
C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
D) Acetylene belongs to the class to alkynes
with molecular formula CnH2n–2 D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.

193
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

iii) Physical and chemical properties

AROMATIC HYDROCARBON
59. The function of anhydrous AlCl3, in the
i) Aromaticity Friedel-Craft’s reaction is to
A) Absorb water
56. Which is aromatic
B) Absorb HCl
C) To produce electrophile
A) D) To produce nucleophile
60. Benzene reacts with CH3COCl in the
presence of AlCl3 to give
B)
A) C6H5Cl B) C6H5COCl
C) C6H5CH3 D) C6H5COCH3
61. The product formed when toluene is heated
in light with Cl2 and in absence of halogen
C) carrier is
A) Benzotrichloride
B) Gammexene
C) Chlorobenzene
D) D) O-chlorotoluene
62. Which is most reactive towards electrophilic
ii) Preporation of aromatic hydrocarbons reagent?
CH3
57. When sodium benzoate is heated with soda
lime, we get
OH
A)
A) Toluene

B) Ethylene CH3

C) Benzene
B) CH2OH
D) Aniline

58. The reaction, CH3

C6 H 5 Br + 2Na + C2 H 5 Br 
→ C6 H 5C2 H 5 + 2NaBr C) NHCOCH3
is known as

A) Friedel-Crafts reaction

B) Wurtz reaction CH3

C) Sandmeyer’s reaction OCH3

D)
D)Wurtz-Fittig reaction

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

63. The reaction least likely to occur is 65. What product formed when the following
NO2 compound is treated with Br2 in the presence
H SO
A) + HNO3 
2 4
→ of FeBr3?

CH3
SO3H
Heat
B) + H 2SO 4  →
CH3

Cl CH3
UV
C) + Cl2 → Br
A)

Br CH3
Fe
D) + Br2 →
CH3

64. Given B)
H 3C CH3
Br CH3

i) CH3
CH3 Br
C)
H3C CH2
ii) CH3

CH3
CH3 Br
D)
CH2 CH2
iii) Br CH3

66. Which of the following compounds will not

CH2 undergo Friedel-Craft’s rection easily?

A) Cumene

The enthalpy of hydrogenation of these B) Xylene

compounds will be in the order as
A) I > II > III B) III > II > I C) Nitrobenzene

D) Toluene
C) II > III > I D) II > I > III

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

67. The order of decreasing reactivity towards 69. Assertion (A) : Nitration of nitrobenzene
an electrophilic reagent, for the following:- gives mainly
m-dinitrobenzene
i) Benzene
Reason (R) : –NO2 group is electron
ii) Toluene donating group

iii) Chlorobenzene A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
iv) Phenol B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A).
would be
C) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
A) i > ii > iii > i B) ii > iv > i > iii
D) Both (A) and (R) are not correct.
C) iv > iii > ii > i D) iv > ii > i > iii
70. The correct statement regarding the
68. Match the columns comparison of staggered and eclipsed
conformations of ethane is
A) The eclipsed conformation of ethane is
Column-I Column-II
more stable than staggered conformation,
Cl p) Cl2, uv, 500 K because eclipsed conformation has no
A) torsional strain
B) The eclipsed conformation of ethane is
CH2Cl q) anhy.AlCl3/Cl2 more stable than staggered conformation
B) even through the eclipsed conformation
has torsional strain
C) The staggered conformation of ethane
Cl r) CH2Cl2,
Cl Cl is more stable than eclipsed conformation,
anhy.AlCl3 because staggered conformation has least
C) Cl Cl torsional strain
Cl
D) The staggered conformation of ethane
is less stable than eclipsed conformation,
because staggered conformation has
Cl s) Excess Cl2,
torsional strain
Cl Cl
anhy.AlCl3
D) MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
Cl Cl
Cl 71. Which of the following on treatment with
warm, dil H2SO4 in presence of HgSO4 will
give butan-2-one?
A) A→s; B→r; C→q; D→p A) But-1-yne

B) A→q; B→r; C→s; D→p B) But-1-ene

C) But-2-yne
C) A→r; B→p; C→q; D→s
D) Pent-1-yne
D) A→q; B→p; C→s; D→r

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

72. Which of the following molecules, in pure 75. Which of the following reaction are expected
form are unstable at room temperature? to give

A)
CH3

CH3 C CH CH2 in yields of more

CH3
B)
than 50%?

O CH3
(CH3)3CO K+
C)
A) CH3 C CH CH3

CH3 Br

D) CH3
H2SO4
B) CH3 C CH CH3

73. Which of the following undergo electrophilic CH3

OH
substitution reactions faster than benzene?

CH3
A) Phenol
Zn
C) CH3 C CH CH2Br
B) Aniline Acetone
CH3 Br
C) Chlorobenzene
D) None of the above

D) Anisole
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

74. Alkanes can be obtained from carboxylic

1. In which case the product formed is in
acids by
accordance of anti Markownikoff’s rule?

A) LiAlH4 A) CH 3 − =
HCl/Peroxide
CH CH 2  →

B) Decarboxylation B) CH 3 − CH
HBr
= CH − CH 3 →
Peroxide

C) ( CH=
3 )2 C
NOCl
C) Kolbe’s electrolysis CH 2  →

D) ( CH 3 )=
HBr/Peroxide
D) Clemmensen’s reduction 2
C CH 2  →

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

2. In which of the following cases, the correct 5. Match List- I with List- II abd select the
product is not written? correct answer from the codes given below
the lists:

Cl Br
A) BrCl
List-I List- II
CH 3 =
− CH CH 2  → CH 3 − CH − CH 2 (Reaction) (Product)
CH 3 − CH =
CH 2
B) ( CH3 )= Cl
CH CH 2  → ( CH 3 )2 CH ( OH ) CH 2 Cl
2 A) i)BH3 − THF
→
1) n-propylamine
2 H O 2 II)HCOOH

CH 3 − CH =
CH 2
B) 2) n-propylbromide
( CH3 )3 C − =
I)BH3 − THF
Hydroboration →
CH CH 2  → II)AgNO3

C)
( CH3 )3 C − CH 2CH 2OH C)
CH 3 − CH =
CH 2
i)BH3 − THF

ii) NH 4 Cl,HOH
→ 3) n-hexane

D) CCl3CH = CH 2 →
HCl
CCl3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − Cl CH 3 − CH =
CH 2
D) i)BH3 − THF
→
4) n-propane
ii)Br2

3. cis-2-Butene on reaction with Baeyer’s

A B C D
reagent gives:
A) 1 2 3 4
B) 2 1 4 3
A) meso-geminal diol
C) 3 4 2 1
D) 4 3 1 2
B) racemic-vicinal diol
6. Total number of gaseous product obtained
during Kolbe’s electrolysis of sodium
C) meso-vicinal diol
propanoate is

A) 2 B)1
D) none of these
C) 3 D) 4
4. A hydrocarbon has the formula C3H4. To 7. Alkyne(A) on catalytic hydration gives only
find out whether it contains two double one ketone while alkyne(B) gives only
bond or a triple bond, the following test is aldehyde. (A) and (B) may be:
preferred.
A) but-1-yne, acetylene

A) passed through ammoniacal AgNO3 B) oct-3-yne, propyne

C) pent-2-yne, but-1-yne
B) treated with Fehling’s solution
D) but-1-yne, propyne

8. Intermediate in hydration of alkene is:

C) treated with Baeyer’s reagent
A) free radical B) carbene
D) treated with Br2 water C) carbonium ion D) carbanion

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

KMnO4 13. The relative stability of the compounds,

'A'
H2SO4, (major product)
9. CH3
CH3
KMnO4 'B' I)
CH3 C C CH3
H2O, 273 K (major product)

For above chemical reactions identify the

correct statement from the following: CH3
II)
A) Compound ‘A’ is diol and compound ‘B’ CH3 C CH CH3
is dicarboxylic acid

B) Compound ‘A’ is dicarboxylic acid and

compound ‘B’ is diol H 3C H
III) C C
C) Compound ‘A’ and compound ‘B’ are
dicarboxylic acid. H CH3

D) Both compound ‘A’ and compound ‘B’

are diols. H3C CH3
IV) C C
10. In the given reaction,
H H
Na / NH3 ( liq )
CH 3 − C ≡ C − CH 3 
→X
V) CH 3 − CH =
CH 2
Compound (X) will be:
VI) H 2 C = CH 2
A) butane
is of the order
B) trans-2-butene

C) cis-2-butene A) I>II>III>IV>V>VI

D) 1-butene B) VI>V>IV>III>II>I

11. A compound C4H8 decolourizes a KMnO4 C) I>III>V>II>IV>VI

solution. How many structures are possible
for this compound? D) II >I>IV>III>V>VI
A)3 B) 4
14. H 2 C= CH − C ≡ CH on reaction with one
C) 2 D) 5
mole DBr gives:
12. Which of the following will be most acidic?
A) H2C=CH–C–Br=CHD
A) B)
B) CH 2 ( Br ) − CH − DC ≡ CH

C) DCH 2 − CHBr − CH ≡ CH
C) D)
D) H 2 C = CH − CD = CHBr

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

Me 17. In the following reaction, the major product

15. H2+ Lindlar's is:
(A)
catalyst
CH3 HBr
CH2 ?
The product (A) is : (1 equvalent)
H2C

Me CH3
CH3
A) A)
H2C
Br
Me
B) CH3
B)
H3C Br
H H
CH3
C) C)
Me
Br

CH3
H Me D)
H3C Br
D) H 18. The major product in the following reaction
is:
16. 3-Methylpent-2-ene on reaction with I
HBr in presence of peroxide forms an
t-butoxide ion
addition product. The number of possible ?
stereoisomers for the product is: Heat

Ot- Bu
A) six

A) B)
B) zero

C) two
C) D)
D) four

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

19. What is the major product by HI on reaction 21. CH3 CH CH CH2 HBr 'A'
with
CH3
H 3C CH ‘A’ (predominantly) is:
C CH2 CH3 CH CH CH3
H3C
CH3 A)
Br CH3

CH3
CH3 CH CH CH3
A) H C C CH CH3 B)
3
CH3 Br
I CH3
CH3 CH CH2 CH2Br
CH3 CH CH CH2 CH3 C)
B)
CH3
CH3 I
CH3
Br
C)
H 3C C CH CH2I
D) CH3 C CH2CH3
CH3 H
CH3

CH3 22. One mole of an unsaturated hydrocarbon

on ozonolysis gives one mole each of
D) H C C CH CH2I
3 CH3CHO, HCHO and OHC –CHO. The
hydrocarbon is:
CH3 H
A) CH 3CH 2 − C ≡ C − CH 3
20. In the following reaction, the product ‘R’ is: B) HC ≡ C − CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
C) CH 3 − CH = CH − CH = CH 2
H2O hot iron CH3Cl
CaC2 
→ P → Q → R tube AlCl3 D) H 2 C = CH − CH 2 − CH = CH 2
23. In presence of peroxide, hydrogen chloride
A) benzene and hydrogen iodide do not give anti-
Markownikoff’f addition to alkenes because:
B) ethylbenzene A) both are highly ionic
B) one is oxidising and other is reducing
C) toluene C) one of the steps is endothermic in both
the cases
D) n-propyl benzene D) all the steps are exothermic in both the
cases

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

24. Addition of bromine to buta-1,3-diene gives: 26. Predict the product of the reaction of
1-pentyne and excess of HCl in the
presenece of hydrogen peroxide.
A) 1,2- addition product only

B) 1, 4- addition product only A) 1,1-dichloropentane

C) both 1,2 and 1,4- addition products B) 1,2 dichloropentane

D) no reaction
C)2,2-dichloropentane
25. In the following reaction,
D) 2-chloro-1-pentane
CH3

H2O/H+
H3C C CH CH2 (A) + (B)
27. Identify the product of the following reaction.
Major product Minor product
CH3

H
The major product is:
Excess HBr
CH3
A)
H3C C CH CH3
Br
CH3 OH A)

CH3 Br

H 3C C CH CH3 B)
B)

OH CH3

CH3 Br Br

C) CH2 C CH2 CH3 C)

OH CH3

CH3 Br

H 3C C CH2 CH2 D)
Br
D)
CH3 OH

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

28. Which alkyne will give 3-ethylhexane on 31. H − ≡ −H i)O3

ii)H 2 O/ Zn
Zn /CH3COOH
→(A)  → ( B)
catalytic hydrogenation?
compound (B)

O O
A) A) B) Me–COOH
H H
OH OAC
C) D) Me
B) HO OAC
32. When propyne is treated with aqueous
H2SO4 in the presence of HgSO4, the major
product is:

A) Propanal
C)
B) Propyl hydrogen sulphate
D) All of these
C) Acetone
29. Which of the following alkyne on treatment
with H2 (2 mole)/Pt gives an optically D) Propanol
inactive compound?
33. The number of structural and configurational
A) 3-Methyl-1-pentyne isomers of a bromo compound, C5H9Br,
formed by the addition of HBr to 2-pentyne
respectively, is:
B) 4-Methyl-1-hexyne
A) 1 and 2 B) 2 and 4
C) 3-Methyl-1-heptyne
C) 4 and 2 D) 2 and 1
D) None of the above
34. The synthesis of 3-octyne is achieved by
adding a bromoalkane into a mixture of
30. Which of the following is propargyl group? sodium amide and alkyne. The bromoalkane
and alkyne, respectively, are
A) −CH 2 − C ≡ CH
A) BrCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2CH 3 and CH 3CH 2C ≡ CH

B) −C ≡ C − Me
B) BrCH 2 CH 2 CH 3 and CH 3CH 2 CH 2 C ≡ CH

C) −C ≡ CH C) BrCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 and CH 3C ≡ CH

D) −C ≡ C − CH 2 − CH 3 D) BrCH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 and CH 3CH 2 C ≡ CH

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

35. CH 3CH 2 Cl + LiAlH 4 → CH 3CH 3 . The

reduction process follows

40. Degree of unsaturation in is
A) SN1 mechanism
B) SN2 mechanism
C) E2 mechanism
A) 2 B) 3
D) E1 mechanism
C) 4 D) 5
36. C5H11Cl by wurtz reaction forms 2,2,5,5
tetramethyl hexane as the main product. MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
Hence C5H11Cl is
41. Following conversion can be carried out by
A) 1-chloro-2,2-dimethylpropane [X]
B) 1-chloro-2-methylpropane O
C) Both A and B X ‘X’ can be

D) None of the above

37. Identify acid /Base in the following A) NH 2 − NH 2 / C2 H 5ONa
Br B) Zn/Hg/Conc. HCl
CH3MgBr + D2O CH3D + Mg
C) LiAlH4
OD
D) Red P/HI
List-I List- II 42. Select the correct statements
A) Acid Acid A) Electrons are transferred to alkynes
more readily than to alkenes.
B) Base Base
B) Alkynes have greater reactivity towards
C) Acid Base nucleophiles than alkenes
D) Base acid C) cis alkene is more stable than trans
38. Following conformation of n-Butane is alkenes
called D) During Kolbe’s electrolytic reaction, the
resulting solution becomes alkaline.
43. Which among the following are anti
aromatic?
+
A) B)

A) eclipsed B) Gauche
C) antistaggered D) Fully eclipsed
39. During the combustion of ethane, the hybrid
state of carbon changes from
C) D)
A) sp3 to sp B) sp2 to sp3
C) sp to sp3 4) sp2 to sp2

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

44. Deactivating groups among the following NUMERICAL TYPE

A) –OH B) –NO2
C) –Cl D) –CN 46. How many moles of ethane can be liberates
45. Carcinogenic compounds among the when one mole of compound A is treated
following are with excess of C2H5MgI.

A) CH3
OH
CH C
CH=CH2
(A) COOH

47. 1.35 g of But-2-yne is decolourised by x g of

Br2 water X is _______
B)

48, In the following synthesis how many π -

bonds are formed

CH3
Cr2O3 . Al2O3

C) 873 K

CH3 49. Number of moles of oxygen required

for complete combustion of one mole of
pentane is ________
CH3

50. In the following reaction, how many types of

carbon containing compounds are formed?
D)

current
CH3 CH 3CH 2 COOK ( aq )  →

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY

1. C 16. C 31. A 46. C 61. A

2. A 17. 6 32. B 47. B 62. A
3. A 18. 4 33. C 48. A 63. C
4. D 19. 3 34. C 49. C 64. B
5. D 20. A 35. B 50. B 65. C
6. C 21. D 36. A 51. A 66. C
7. C 22. C 37. B 52. A 67. D
8. A 23. D 38. B 53. D 68. B
9. D 24. C 39. B 54. A 69. C
10. A 25. C 40. B 55. A 70. C
11. C 26. A 41. B 56. C 71. A, C
12. D 27. D 42. C 57. C 72. B, C
13. D 28. C 43. A 58. D 73. A, B, D
14. A 29. B 44. C 59. C 74. B, C
15. B 30. B 45. A 60. D 75. A,C

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. D 11. B 21. D 31. C 41. A,B,D

2. C 12. B 22. C 32. C 42. A,B,D

3. C 13. A 23. C 33. B 43. B,C,D

4. A 14. A 24. C 34. D 44. B,C,D

5. D 15. C 25. B 35. B 45. A,B,C,D

6. C 16. D 26. C 36. A 46. 3

7. A 17. D 27. C 37. D 47. 8

8. C 18. B 28. D 38. B 48. 3

9. B 19. A 29. A 39. A 49. 8

10. B 20. C 30. A 40 C 50. 2

206
 Chapter
HYDROGEN
13

QUESTIONS 5. Dihydrogen has

A) Two isotopes and no isomers

1. The oxidation states exhibited by hydrogen
in its various compounds is/are B) Three isotopes and two nuclear isomers
A) -1 only B) +2 only C) Three isotopes and two optical isomers
C) +1 and –1 D) +1 only D) Two isotopes and two geometrical
isomer
2. Which is incorrect for hydrogen?
6. Ortho and Para hydrogen differ in
A) It is a dense white gas
A) Atomic number
B) H–H bond dissociation enthalpy is the
highest for a single bond between atoms of B) Atomic mass
any element
C) Spin of protons
C) It can act as an oxidising agent as well
as a reducing agent D) Number of neutrons

D) It accomplishes reactions by losing, 7. Isomers of hydrogen have

gaining and sharing of electrons
A) Identical chemical properties but different
3. Hydrogen has three isotopes namely physical properties
Protium, Deuterium and Tritium. Which is
the incorrect statement? B) Identical physical and chemical
properties
A) Isotopes differ from one another in
respect of presence of neutrons C) Identical physical properties but different
chemical properties
B) All except protium has neutrons
D) Different physical and chemical
C) Ratio of their atomic masses is 1 : 2 : 3 properties

D) Ratio of their abundance is 1 : 2 : 3 8. Spin isomerism is shown by

4. Determine the total number of neutrons in A) Dichloro benzene

three isotopes of hydrogen
B) Hydrogen
A) 1 B) 2
C) Dibasic acid
C) 3 D) 4 D) n-butane

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

9. Nascent Hydrogen is obtained by 13. Which of the following properties shows

that hydrogen resemble alkali metals?
A) Subjecting molecular hydrogen to a
silent electric discharge A) It shows metallic character like alkali
metals
B) Displacing hydrogen from an acid when
treated with active metals B) It is diatomic like alkali metals

C) Its ionization energy is same as that of

C) Heating of water at high temperature
alkali metals
D) None of the above D) When hydrogen halides and alkali metal
halides are electrolised, hydrogen and
10. Hydrogen is the first element in the modern alkali metals are liberated at cathode
periodic table. This is because
14. Which of the following statements is most
A) It is the lightest element applicable for hydrogen?

B) It is a gas A) It can act as reducing agent only

C) It is the most abundant element in the B) It can act as oxidising agent only
universe
C) It can act as both oxidizing agent and
D) Its atomic number is one reducing agent

11. The first ionization energy for in kJ mol–1 D) It can neither act as both oxidizing agent
H, Li, F, Na has one of the following values and reducing agent
1681, 520, 1312, 495. Which of these
15. Reaction of hydrogen with an active metal
values corresponds to that of hydrogen?
shows that it is
A) 1681 B) 1312 A) A gas
C) 520 D) 495 B) An oxidising agent

12. The best explanation for not placing C) A reducing agent

hydrogen in the group of alkali metals or
halogens is D) A combustible gas

A) Hydrogen can form compounds with all 16. Which of the following reaction is not
other elements possible?

B) Hydrogen is much lighter element than A) 2H 2 + O 2 

→ 2H 2 O + Heat
alkali metals or halogens
B) 2Na + H 2 
→ 2NaH
C) The ionisation enthalpy of hydrogen is
too high for group of alkali metals but too C) Cu + 2HCl 
→ CuCl2 + H 2 (g)
low for halogen
D)=
H 2 C CH 2 + H 2 
→ H 3C − CH 3
D) Hydrogen is existing as a diatomic
molecule
( u sin g Ni as catalyst )

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

17. The gas used in the hydrogenation of oils in 22. Hydrogen can be prepared by mixing steam
the presence of Ni as catalyst is and water gas at 673 K in the presence of
Fe2O3 and Cr2O3. This process is called
A) Methane
A) Hall’s process
B) Ethane

C) Ozone B) Serpeck’s process

D) Hydrogen C) Bosch’s process

18. Hydrogen is prepared from H2O by adding D) Parke’s process

A) Ca, which acts as reducing agent
23. Which among the following is not an
B) Al, which acts as oxidising agent industrial preparation method of hydrogen
gas?
C) Ag, which acts as reducing agent
A) Electrolysis of acidified water
D) Au, which acts a oxidizing agent
B) Electrolysis of warm aqueous solution of
19. When same amount of zinc is treated
Barium hydroxide
separately with excess of sulphuric acid
and excess of sodium hydroxide solution,
C) Coal gasification followed by water gas
the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolved is
shift reaction
A) 1 : 1 B)1 : 2
D) Dissolving ionic hydrides in water
C) 2 : 1 D) 9 : 4
24. Which among the following is not a use of
20. All the given methods can produce hydrogen hydrogen?
gas in the laboratory, except
A) Synthesis of Ammonia
A) Reaciton of granulated Zinc with dilute
hydrochloric acid
B) Manufacture of vanaspati fat
B) Reaciton of aluminium with aqueous
alkali C) Reduction of heavy metal oxides to
metals
C) Reaction of copper with dilute H2SO4
D) Exchange reactions
D) Reaction of sodium with cold water

21. The products obtained in coal gasification 25. Which among the following pairs does not
are represent hydrides

A) CO2, H2 and H2O A) NaH and CaH2

B) CO and H2 B) C6H12O6 and CH3COOH

C) CO2 and H2 C) B2H6 and CH4

D) H2 and H2O
D) LaH2.87 and TiH1.5 - 1.8

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

26. Ionic hydrides react with water to give 31. The hydride ion, H– is a stronger base
than its hydroxide ion OH– ion. Which of
A) Hydronium ions the following reactions will occur if sodium
hydride (NaH) is dissolved in water?
B) Acidic solutions
A) H (aq) + H 2 O 
→ H 3O(aq)
− +
C) Protons

D) Basic solutions B) H (aq) + H 2 O(  ) 

−
→ OH −( aq ) + H 2(g)
27. Which is correct for molecular hydrides
C) H (aq) + H 2 O(  ) 
→ No reaction
−

A) Produced by s-block
D) None of these
B) Produced by p-block
32. Among CaH2, NH3, NaH and B2H6, which
C) Produced by d-block
are covalent hydrides?
D) Produced by f-block
A) NH3 and B2H6
28. A carbon hydride of general formula CnH2n+2
is expected to be B) NaH and CaH2

A) A Lewis acid C) NaH and NH3

B) A Lewis base
D) CaH2 and B2H6
C) An electron precise hydride
33. Hydride gap in periodic table constitutes
D) An electron rich hydride
A) Groups 3 to 5
29. In which of the following compounds does
hydrogen have an oxidation state of –1
B) Groups 13 to 17
A) PH3
C) Group 7, 8 and 9
B) NH3
D) Group 1 and 2
C) HCl

D) CaH2 34. Which among the following metal does not

react with cold water but evolves H2 with
30. The set of elements which could form stable steam?
covalent, hydrogen bonded hydrides are
A) Na
A) Nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine
B) K
B) Lithium, sodium and potassium
C) Pt
C) Sulphur, selenium and tellurium

D) Chlorine, bromine and iodine D) Fe

210
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

35. Water exhibits unusual properties in its 39. Ice floats on water, because
condensed phases. This is because
A) it has lower density than water
A) It has a bent molecular structure
B) in crystal structure, ice has empty
B) There is extensive intermolecular spaces
hydrogen bonding
C) Both of the above
C) There is extensive intramolecular
hydrogen bonding D) None of the above

D) It has dielectric constant 78.39 40. If two ice cubes are pressed over each
other, they will unite to form a single cube.
Which of the following forces is responsible
36. Water is oxidised to oxygen by
for holding them together?
A) ClO2
A) Hydrogen bonding
B) KMnO4 B) Van der Waals forces

C) H2O2 C) Covalent attraction

D) Fluorine D) Ionic interaction

37. Ice is lighter than water at its melting point 41. Identify the false statement
because
A) Water contracts on heating from 273 K
A) Ice forms mostly heavy water on first to 277 K
melting
B) Petrol fire cannot be extinguished by
B) On melting of ice, H2O molecules shrink water
in size
C) At normal atmospheric pressure, ice
C) Ice crystals have hollow hexagonal crystallizes in the hexagonal form and at
arrangement of water molecules very low temeprature, it crystallizes in cubic
form
D) H2O molecules are more closely packed
in solid phase D) Water makes intramolecular hydrogen
bonding
38. Water has bond angle and dipole moment
42. Which of the following relates to the
respectively as
chemical behaviour of water?
A) 109.5°, 1.84 D A) Stable nature

B) 107.5°, 1.56 D B) Oxidising and reducing nature

C) 104.5°, 1.84 D C) Acid base character

D) 102.5°, 1.56 D D) All of these

211
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

43. Order of reactivity of K, Mg, Au and Zn with 48. Which of the following compounds can be
water is used for the removal of temporary hardness
of water?
A) K > Zn > Mg > Au
A) CaCO3 B) CaCl2
B) K > Mg > Zn > Au
C) Ca(OH)2 D) Ca(HCO3) 2
C) K > Au > Mg > Zn
49. Heavy water is obtained by
D) Au > Zn > K > Mg
A) Combination of hydrogen and heavier
44. A variety of water which contains soluble of isotope of oxygen
Ca and Mg is known as
B) Electrolysis of water containing heavy
hydrogen dissolved in it
A) Heavy water
C) Repeated electrolysis of 3% aqueous
B) Soft water solution of NaOH
C) Hard water D) None of these

D) Deionised water 50. Choose the incorrect statement

45. Hard water is not fit for washing clothes A) Ordinary water is electrolyzed more
because rapidly than D2O

A) It contains Na2SO4 and KCl B) Reaction between H2 and Cl2 is much

faster than D2 and Cl2
B) It gives precipitate
C) D2O freezes at lower temperature than
H 2O
C) It contains impurities
D) Bond dissociation energy for D2 is
D) It is acidic in nature greater than H2
46. Demineralised water is that 51. Some statements about heavy water are
given below
A) Which is free from cations only
i) Heavy water is used as a moderator in
B) Which is free from anions only nuclear reactors

C) Which is free from both cations and ii) Heavy water is more associated than
anions ordinary water

D) None of these iii) Heavy water is more effective solvent

than ordinary water
47. Calgon is
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) Na6P3O18 B) Na6P6O18 A) i and ii B) i, ii and iii

C) Na5P6O18 D) Mg5P6O18 C) ii and iii D) i and iii

212
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

52. An oxide which gives H2O2 on treatment 57. Find the incorrect statement
with dilute acid is
A) When H2O2 solution is poured in to a
A) PbO2 B) Na2O2 skin wound to clean it, it bubbles furiously

C) MnO2 D) TiO2 B) On decomposition of H2O2, nascent

hydrogen is released
53. The dihedral angle in gaseous H2O2 is
C) Commercially, H2O2 can be prepared by
A) 180° oxidation of 2-alkylanthraquinol

B) 90°
D) In pure form, H2O2 exist as a pale blue
liquid
C) 111.5°

D) 109°-28/ 58. H2O2 can act as an oxidising agent as well

as a reducing agent because
54. Hydrogen peroxide is used as
A) Oxygen is in –1 oxidation state
A) An oxidant only
B) It is an ionic compound
B) A reductant only
C) It has both polar and non-polar covalent
C) An acid only bonds

D) An oxidant, reductant and as an acid D) It has an oxygen atom, which is co-

ordinately bonded to a water molecule
55. Decomposition of H2O2 is retarded by
59. A sample of H2O2 is labelled as 10 V. Its
A) Acetanilide strength is

B) MnO2
A) 30 g/L
C) Zn
B) 20 g/L
D) Colloidal Ni
C) 3 g/L
56. H2O2 cannot be concentrated easily
because D) 2 g/L

A) It’s highly volatile in nature INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS

B) It will not dissolve in water

60. Number of lattice water molecules in
hydrated barium chloride molecule is .........
C) It decomposes at its boiling point
61. Number of allotropic forms of hydrogen
D) It has very high boiling point
molecule is ............

213
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

62. Number of hydrogen bonded water SAMPLE QUESTIONS

molecules in MgSO4.7H2O is ..................
1. Ionic hydrides are usually
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
A) Good electrically conductors when solid
63. Non stoichiometric hydrides are
B) Easily reduced

C) Good reducing agents

A) Solid solutions
D) Liquid at room temperature
B) Formed by dissolving various amounts 2. When some amount of zinc is treated
of hydrogen separately with excess of sulphuric acid
and excess of sodium hydroxide solution
C) Brittle and finely powdered metal the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolved is
hydrides can be prepared A) 1:1 B) 1:2

C) 2:1 4) 9:4
D) Good conductors only in molten form
3. Which of the following reactions increases
production of dihydrogen from synthesis
64. Which of the following elements, when
gas.
combined with hydrogen given products
where hydrogen has negative oxidation A) CH 4 ( g ) + H 2 O ( g ) 
1270K
→ CO ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g )
Ni
state?
B) C ( s ) + H 2 O ( g ) 
→ CO ( g ) + H 2 ( g )
1270K

A) Li C) CO ( g ) + H 2 O ( g ) 
673K
→ CO 2 ( g ) + H 2 ( g )
Catalyst

1270K
D) C 2 H 6 + 2H 2 O  → 2CO + 5H 2
B) S8 Ni

4. Elements of which of the following group (s)

of periodic table do not form hydrides.
C) N2
A) Groups 7,8,9 B) Group 13
D) Be C) Groups 15,16,17 D) Group 14

5. Why do calcium ions make water hard but

65. Electron rich hydrides are sodium ions do not

A) Calcium forms insoluble compounds

A) NaH with stearate ions present in soap

B) Sodium forms insoluble compounds with

B) NH3
stearate ions present in soap

C) Calcium forms soluble compounds with

C) B2H6
stearate ions present in soap

D) Both calcium and sodium forms insoluble

D) H2O
compounds with stearate ions present in

214
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

soap. 10. Which of the following statement is not

6. Synthetic detergents are more effective in correct regarding hydrogen atom
hard water than soaps because A) It resembles halogens in some properties

A) They are highly soluble in water B) It resembles alkali metals in some

properties
B) Their Ca++ and Mg++ salts are water C) It can be placed in 17th group of periodic
soluble table.
C) Their Ca++ and Mg++ salts are insoluble D) It can not be placed in first group of
in water. periodic table.

D) None of these NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS

7. Which of the following compounds is used

for water softening 11. The volume of oxygen (in mL) liberated
from 15 mL of 20 volume H2O2 is
A) Co3(PO4)2 12. The strength in volumes of a solution
B) Na3PO4 containing 30.36 g/litre of H2O2 is
13. The H–O–O bond angle in H2O2 is
C)Na6P6O18
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
D) Na2HPO4
14. Which of the following statements about
8. Which is false about H2O2 hydrogen is incorrect.
A) Hydrogen has three isotopes of which
A) Act as both oxidising and reducing agent tritium is the most common.
B) Two OH bonds lies in the same plane B) Hydrogen never acts as cation in ionic
salts
C) Pale blue liquid
C) Hydronium ion, H3O+ exists freely in
D) Can be oxidised by ozone solution.
D) Dihydrogen does not act as a reducing
9. H2O2 is manufactured these days
agent.
A) By the action of H2O2 on BaO2 15. The method used to remove permanent
hardness of water is
B) By the action of H2SO4 on Na2O2
A) Synthetic resins method
C) By electrolysis of 50% H2SO4 B) Calgon’s method
D) By burning hydrogen in excess of oxygen C) Clark’s method
D) Ion-exchange method

215
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY

1 C 14 C 27 B 40 A 53 C
2 A 15 B 28 C 41 D 54 D
3 D 16 C 29 D 42 D 55 A
4 C 17 D 30 A 43 B 56 C
5 B 18 A 31 B 44 C 57 B
6 C 19 A 32 A 45 B 58 A
7 A 20 C 33 C 46 C 59 A
8 B 21 B 34 D 47 B 60 2
9 B 22 C 35 B 48 C 61 2
10 D 23 D 36 D 49 C 62 1
11 B 24 D 37 C 50 C 63 A, B, C
12 C 25 B 38 C 51 A 64 A, D
13 D 26 D 39 A 52 B 65 B, D

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. C 11. 300

2. A 12. 10

3. C 13. 97

4. A 14. A,D

5. A 15. A,B,D

6. B

7. C

8. B

9. C

10. D

216
 Chapter
STATES OF MATTER
14

QUESTIONS 4. 3.2 g of oxygen (At. wt = 16) and 0.2 g of

hydrogen (At. wt. = 1) are placed in a 1-12
GAS LAWS AND IDEAL GAS EQUATION L flask at 0°C. The total pressure of the gas
mixture will be
1. A sample of a given mass of gas at a
constant temperature occupies 95 cm3 A) 1 atm B) 4 atm
under a pressure of 9.962 × 104 Nm–2. At the
same temperature its volume at a pressure C) 3 atm D) 2 atm
of 10.13 × 104 Nm–2 is
5. The density of methane at 2.0 atmosphere
A) 190 cm3 B) 93 cm3 pressure at 27°C is

A) 0.13 gL–1 B) 0.26 gL–1

C) 46.5 cm3 D) 47.5 cm3
C) 1.30 gL–1 D) 26.0 gL–1
2. The correct value of the gas constant R is
close to 6. The pressure of 2 mols of ideal gas at 546
K having volume 44.8 L is
A) 0.082 litre atm K–1 mol–1
A) 2 atm B) 3 atm
B) 0.082 litre atm–1 K mol
C) 4 atm D) 1 atm

C) 0.082 litre-atm K 7. The volume of 2.8 g of carbon monoxide at

27°C and 0.821 atm pressure is
D) 0.082 litre atm–1 K mol–1
(R = 0.0821 [Link] mol–1 K–1)
3. The density of a gas at 27°C and 1 atm is
d. Pressure remaining constant, at which of A) 30 L B) 3 L
the following temperatures will its density
become 0.75 d? C) 0.3 L D) 1.5 L

A) 20°C 8. At 25°C and 730 mm pressure, 380 mL of

dry oxygen was collected. If the tempera-
B) 30°C ture is constant, what volume will the oxy-
gen occupy at 760 mm pressure?
C) 400 K
A) 365 mL B) 449 mL

D) 300 K C) 569 mL D) 621 mL

217
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

9. Two moles of an ideal gas at 546 K 14. What will happen to volumes of a bubble
has volume 44.8 litre, its pressure of air found under water in a lake where
is temperature is 15°C and the pressure is 1.5
atm, if the bubble rises to the surface where
A) 4 atm B) 3 atm the temeprature is 25°C and the pressure is
1.0 atm?
C) 2 atm D) 1 atm
A) its volume will become greater by a fac-
10. Use of hot air balloons in sports and meteo- tor of 2.5
rological observations in an application of
B) its volume will become greater by a fac-
A) Boyle’s law
tor of 1.6
B) Newtonic law
C) its volume will become greater by a fac-
C) Kelvin’s law tor of 1.1

D) Charle’s law D) its volume will become smaller by a fac-

tor
11. The mass of 11.2 L of ammonia gas at STP
is 15. Two glass bulbs A and B are connected by
A) 8.5 g a very small tube having a stop-cock. Bulb
A has a volume of 100 cm3 and contained
B) 85 g the gas while bulb B was empty. On open-
ing the stop-clock, the pressure fell down to
C) 17 g 40%. The volume of the bulb B must be

D) 1.7 g
A) 75 cm3
12. The pressure and temperature of 4 dm3 of
carbon dioxide gas are doubled. Then the B) 125 cm3
volume of carbon dioxide gas would be
C) 150 cm3
A) 2 dm3

B) 3 dm3 D) 250 cm3

C) 4 dm3 16. How much should the pressure be in-

creased in order to decrease the volume of
D) 8 dm3
a gas by 5% at a constant temperature?
13. 4.4 g of CO2 contains how many litre of CO2
at STP? A) 5%

A) 2.4 litre
B) 5.26%
B) 2.24 litre
C) 10%
C) 44 litre
D) 4.26%
D) 22.4 litre

218
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

17. An LPG cylinder contains 15 kg of butane 21. The density of O2(g) is maximum at:
gas at 27°C and 10 atmospheric pressure.
It was leaking and its pressure fell down to A) STP
8 atmospheric pressure after one day. The
gas leaked is B) 273 K and 2 atm

A) 1 kg B) 2 kg C) 546 K and 1 atm

C) 3 kg D) 4 kg D) 546 K and 2 atm

18. If 20 cm3 gas at 1 atm is expanded to 50 22. The pressure of sodium vapour in a 1.0 L
cm3 at constant T, then what is the final container is 10 torr at 10000C. How many
pressure? atoms are in the container?

1 A) 9.7×1017 B) 7.6×1019
A) 20 ×
50
C) 4.2×1017 D) 9.7×1019
1
B) 50 × 23. At S.T.P the density of nitrogen monoxide
200
is-
1
C) 1× × 50
20 A) 3.0 gL-1

D) 50 × 20 B) 30 gL-1|

19. “Equal volumes of all gases at the same C) 1.34 gL-1

temperature and pressure contain equal
number of molecules.” This statement is a D) 2.68 gL-1
direct consequence of :

A) Avogadro’s law DALTON’S LAW OF PARTIAL PRESSURE

AND DIFFUSION OF GAS
B) Charle’s law
24. If rate of diffusion of A is 5 times that of B,
C) Ideal gas equation what will be the density ratio of A and B?

D) Strong attractive forces A) 1/25 B) 1/5

20. In the equation of state of an ideal gas C) 25 D) 5

PV=nRT, the value of the universal gas
constant which is not correct is: 25. 50 mL of hydrogen diffuses through a small
hole from vessel in 20 minutes time. Time
A) 8.314 JK-1mol-1 taken for 40 mL of oxygen to diffuse out un-
der similar conditions will be
B) 0.0821 atm Lmol-1 K-1
A) 12 min B) 64 min
C) 0.8314 L mol-1 K-1
C) 8 min D) 32 min
D) 2 cal mol-1 K-1

219
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

26. The densities of two gases are in the ratio 32. A mixture contains 64 g of oxygen and 60
of 1 : 16. The ratio of their rates of diffusion g of neon at a total pressure of 10 Bar. The
is partial pressure in bar of dioxygen and neon
are respectively (atomic masses O = 16, Ne
A) 16 : 1 B) 4 : 1 = 20)

C) 1 : 4 D) 1 : 16 A) 4 and 6

27. In a flask of volume V litre, 0.2 mol oxygen, B) 6 and 4

0.4 mol nitrogen, 0.1 mole of NH3 and 0.3
mol of He are enclosed at 27°C. If the to- C) 5 and 5
tal pressure exerted by these non reacting
gases is one atmosphere, the partial pres-
sure exerted by nitrogen is D) 8 and 2

A) 1 atm B) 0.1 atm 33. Equal masses of methane and hydrogen

are mixed in an empty container at 25°C,
C) 0.2 atm D) 0.4 atm The fraction of the total pressure exerted by
hydrogen is
28. If the four tubes of a car are filled to the
same pressure with N2, O2, H2 and He sep- A) 1/2 B) 8/9
arately, then which one will be filled first? C) 1/9 D) 16/17

A) N2 B) O2 34. A cylinder is filled with a gaseous mixture

containing equal masses of CO and N2. The
C) H2 D) He partial pressure ratio is

29. Hydrogen diffuses six times faster than gas

A) PN2 = PCO
A. The molar mass of gas A is

A) 72 B) 6 B) PCO= 0.875 PN2

C) 24 D) 36
C) PCO = 2PN2
30. The rate of diffusion of methane is twice
that of X. The molecular mass of X is D) PCO = 1/2N2

A) 16 B) 32 35. If 4g of oxygen diffuse through a very nar-

row hole, how much hydrogen would have
C) 80 D) 64 diffused under indentical conditions?
31. 56 g of nitrogen and 96 g of oxygen are
mixed isothermally and at a total pressure A) 16g
of 10 atm. The partial pressure of oxygen
and nitrogen (in atm) are respectively B) 1g

A) 4, 6 B) 5, 5 C) 1/4g

C) 2, 8 D) 8, 2
D) 64g

220
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

MOLECULAR VELOCITIES AND KINETIC 40. The average velocity of an ideal gas mole-
THEROY OF GAS cule at 27°C is 0.3 m/sec. The average ve-
locity at 927°C will be
36. The molecular velocitieis of two gases
at same temperature are u1 and u2, their
A) 0.6 m/sec B) 0.3 m/sec
masses are m1 and m2 respectively. Which
of the following expression is correct?
C) 0.9 m/sec D) 3.0 m/sec
m 2 m1
A) = 41. At constant volume for a fixed number of
u1 u 22 moles of a gas, the pressure of the gas in-
creases with the rise in temperature due to
B) m1u1 = m2u2
A) increase in average molecular speed
m m
C) 1 = 2
u1 u 2 B) increase in rate of collisions amongst
molecules
2 2
D) m1u1 = m 2 u 2 C) increase in molecular attraction

37. At what temperature will the rms velocity of D) decrease in mean free path
SO2 be the same as that of O2 at 303 K?
42. The average velocity of gas molecules is
A) 403 K B) 303 K equal to-
C) 606 K D) 273 K
1

38. The kinetic energy of two moles of N2 at

 8RT  2  3RT 
A)   B)  
27°C is (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)  Mw   Mw 

A) 5491.6 J

B) 6491.6 J 1
 8RT  2  8RT 
C)   D)  
C) 7491.6 J  πM w   πM w 
D) 8882.4 J 43. At what temperature will the average speed
of CH4 molecules have the same values as
39. According to the kinetic theory of gases, in O2 has at 300K
an ideal gas, between two successive colli-
sions, a gas molecules travels A) 1200K
A) in a circular path
B) 150 K
B) in a wavy path
C) 600 K
C) in a straight line path
D) 300K
D) with an accelerated velocity

221
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

44. The ratio between the root mean square ve- 48. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is
locity of H2 at 50 K and that of O2 at 800 K
is:
A) 0 B) 1

A) 4 B) 2
C) 2 D) 4
C) 1 D) 1/4
49. In van der Waal’s equation of state of the
gas law, the constant ‘b’ is measure of
45. The root mean sqaure velocity of an ideal
gas at constant pressure varies with density
(d) as: A) intermolecular repulsions

A) d2 B) d B) intermolecular collisions per unit volume

C) d D) 1/ d C) volume occupied by the molecules

46. Which one of the following represents the D) intermolecular attraction

kinetic gas equation?

50. The compressibility factor for a real gas at

A) PV = nRT high pressure is

 a 
B)  P +  (V − b) =
RT A) 1
 V2 
1 B) 1 + Pb/RT
C) PV = mNu 2
3
C) 1–Pb/RT
r M w2
D) 1 =
r2 M w1 D) 1 + RT/Pb

51. The values of van der Waal’s constant

REAL GAS-VAN DER WAAL’S EQUATION ‘a’ for the gases O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are
1.360, 1.390, 4.170 and 2.253 L atm mol–2
47. An ideal gas cannot be liquified because respectively. The gas which can most esily
be liquefied is
A) Its critical temperature is always above
0°C A) O2

B) Its molecules are relatively small in size B) N2

C) It solidifies before becoming a liquid

C) NH3

D) forces operative between its molecules

are negligible D) CH4

222
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

52. Vander Waal’s equation of state is obeyed LIQUID STATE

by real gases. For n moles of a real gas, the
expression will be- 55. Choose the incorrect statement in the fol-
lowing

 P na  V  A) Surface tension is the force acting per

A)  + 2  =RT
 n V  n − b  unit length perpendicular to the line drawn
on the surface of the liquid
 a 
B)  P + 2  ( V − b ) =
nRT B) Surface tension of a liquid increases with
 V 
the increase in temperature

 na  C) The SI unit of the surface tension in Jm–2

C)  P + 2  ( nV − b ) =
nRT
 V 
D) Viscosity is a measure of resistance for
the flow of liquid
 n 2a 
D)  P + 2  ( V − nb ) =
nRT
 V  56. Liquids are similar to gases because

53 A gas behaves like an ideal gas at: A) both possess the property of flowing and
take the volume of the containers

A) high pressure and low temperature

B) both diffuse and take the shape of the
containers
B) low pressure and high temperature
C) both are readily compressible and dif-
fuse
C) high pressure and high temperature
D) both are capable of infinite expansion
D) low pressure and low temperature
57. Which one of the following is correct about
surface tension and viscosity ( η) ?
54. The critical temperature of a substance is:
A) Both increase with tempera-
ture
A) The temperature above which the sub-
stance undergoes decomposition
B) Both decrease with temperature

B) The temperature above which a sub- C) Surface tension increases whereas η

stance can exist only in gaseous state
decreases with temperature

C) Boiling point of the substance

D) Surface tension decreases whereas η

D) All are wrong increases with temperature

223
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

58. Which of the following statements is cor- 61. When the temperature is raised, the viscos-
rect. If the intermolecular forces in liquid A, ity of the liquid decreases. This is because
B and C in the order A < B < C? of

A) B evaporates more readily than A A) decreased volume of the solution

B) B evaporates less readily than C B) increase in temperature increases the

average kinetic energy of molecules which
overcome the attractive force between
C) A and B evaporate at the same rate them

D) A evaporates more readily than C C) decreased covalent and hydrogen bond

forces
59. Which of the following statements is true re-
garding viscosity? D) increased attraction between the mole-
cules
A) Hydrogen bonding and van der Waal’s
forces cause high viscosity 62. In the phenomenon of surface tension

B) It increases with rise in temperature A) surface molecules experience net up-

ward force
C) It results in easy flow of layers of liquid
over one another B) bulk molecules experience net down-
ward force
D) All of these
C) bulk molecule do not experience any
force
60. The standard boiling point of a liquid is
slightly lower than the normal boiling point
because D) maximum number of liquid molecules
are present on the surface
A) 1 bar pressure is slightly less than 1 atm
pressure 63. Which of the following does not decrease
with rise temperature?
B) 1 bar pressure is slightly more than 1
atm pressure A) Density

C) standard liquids boil faster than normal B) Surface tension

liquids
C) Vapour pressure
D) normal liquids boil faster than standard
liquids D) Viscosity

224
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

64. Drops of a liquid are perfectly spherical un- 69. Real gases do not obey ideal gas equation,
der which of the following conditions?
A) At low temperature
A) Gravity free environment
B) At low pressure
B) Flat surface

C) Under the influence of gravity C) At high pressures

D) In north pole D) At high tmperature

65. Water boils at low temperature on the hills 70. If a gas expands at constant temperature
than at the level because
A) The pressure decreases
A) at high altitudes atmospheric pressure is
low
B) The kinetic energy of the molecules re-
B) at high altitudes atmospheric pressure is mains the same
high
C) The kinetic energy of the molecules de-
C) at sea level atmospheric pressure is low creases

D) none of the above D) The number of molecules of the gas in-

creases
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
66. According to Boyle’s law
71. A 400 K, the root mean square (rms) speed
A) (dP/dV)T = -K/V 2 of a gas X (molecular mass = 40) is equal
to the most probable speed of gas Y at 60K.
B) (dP/dV)T = K/V The molecular mass of Y is

C) (dV/dP)T = –K/P2 72. To an evacuated vessel with movable pis-

ton under pressure of 1 atm, 0.1 mole of He
D) (dV/dP)T = -K/P and 1.0 mol of unknown compound (vapour
pressure 0.68 atm. at 0°C) are introduced.
67. Charle’s law may be repressed as
Considering the ideal gas behaviour, the to-
A) (dV/dT)P = K tal volume (in litre) of the gases at 0°C is
close to
B) (dV/dT)P = KT
73. A flask has 10 gas molecules, out of which
C) (dV/dT)P = -K/T2 four molecules are moving at 7 ms–1 and the
remaining ones are moving at the speed of
D) V = KT x ms–1. If rms of the gas is 5 ms–1, the value
of x is ..........
68. Which of the following gases are heavier
than air?
74. If temperature of a gas is increased from
A) Argon B) Fluorine 27° C to 927°C, the root mean square
speed will become ......... time.
C) Neon D) Moist air

225
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

SAMPLE QUESTIONS 4. To a given container having a pore of defi-

nite size, gas A ([Link]= 81) is filled till the
final pressure become 10 atm. It was seen
1. A gas cylinder containing cooking gas can that in 50 minutes 10 g of A was effused out.
withstand a pressure of 14.9 atm. The Now the container was completely evacuat-
pressure gauge of cylinder indicates 12 atm ed and filled with gas B([Link].=100) till the
at 27oC. Due to sudden fire in building the final pressure becomes 20 [Link] 75 min-
temperature starts rising. The temperature utes how many gram of B will be effused
at which the cylinder will explode is out?

A) 42.5ºC B) 67.8ºC
100
A) g
C) 99.5ºC D) 25.7ºC 6

2. I, II and III are three isotherms respective- 100

ly at T1, T2 and T3 as shown in the graph. B) g
Temperature will be in order 3

200
C) g
3

250
D) g
3

A) T1= T2= T3 5. See Figure 1:

B) T1<T2<T3

C) T1>T2>T3

D) T1>T2=T3

3. A 0.5 dm3 flask contains gas A and 1 dm3 The valves of X and Y are opened simulta-
flask contains gas B at the same tempera- neously. The white fumes of NH4Cl will first
ture. If density of A=3 g/dm3 and that of form at:
B=1.5 g/dm3 and the molar mass of A=1/2
of B, the ratio of pressure exerted by gases
is: A)A

PA PA
A) =2 B) =1
PB PB B) B

P P C) C
C) A = 4 D) A = 3
PB PB
D) A,B & C simultaneously

226
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

6. For two gases P and Q with molecular 8. For non-zero value of force of attraction be-
weights MP and MQ it is observed that at a tween gas molecules gas equation will be
certain temperature T the mean velocity of
P is equal to the root mean square velocity n 2a
of Q. Thus the root mean square velocity of PV nRT −
A) =
V
P and Q will be equal if
PV nRT + nbP
B) =

A) P is lowered to a temperature T2 and C) PV = nRT

T2<T and Q is maintained at temperature T.
nRT
D) P =
V−b
B) P is at a temperature T and Q at a tem- 9. Compressibility factor for H2 behaving as
perature T2 where T>T2 real gas is:

 a 
C) both P and Q are raised to higher tem- A) 1 B) 1 − 
 RTV 
perature
 Pb  RTV
C) 1 +  D)
 RT  (1 − a )
D) both P and Q are placed at lower tem-
perature. 10. The correct order of normal boiling points of
O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 for whom the values of
van der Waals constant ‘a’ are 1.360, 1.390,
7. If C1, C2, C3 ....... represented the speeds 4.170 and 2.253 L2 atm mol–2 respectively,
of n1, n2, n3, ....... molecules, then the root is:
mean square speed is
A) O2<N2<NH3<CH4

1 B) O2<N2<CH4<NH3
 n C2 + n 2 C22 + n 3C32 + ......  2
A)  1 1 
 n1 + n 2 + n 3 + ......  C) NH3<CH4<N2<O2

1 D) NH3<CH4<O2<N2

B)
(n C1
2
1 + n 2 C22 + n 3C32 + ......) 2

n1 + n 2 + n 3 + ...... 11. Which of the given sets of temperature

and pressure will cause a gas to exhibit
the greatest deviation from ideal gas be-
1 1 1

C)
(n C )
1
2
1
2

+
(n C )
2
2
2
2

+
(n C )
3
2
3
2 haviour?

n1 n2 n3 A) 100ºC and 4 atm

1 B) 100ºC and 2 atm

 ( n1C1 + n 2 C2 + n 3C3 + .....)2  2

D)   C) –100ºC and 4 atm

 ( n1 + n 2 + n 3 ......) 
D) 0ºC and 2 atm

227
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

14. Statement I : At very low pressure, the

12. The correct order of temperature for a real
real gases behaves like
gas is
ideal gases
Statement II : At very low pressure,
Boyle temp. Critical temp. Inversion temp.
both the correction fac-
(I) (II) (III) tors can be neglected.
A)III > I > II B)I > II > III
A) Both Statement I and statement II are
C) II > I > III D)I > III > II true.
13. Assertion : At low pressure van der
Waals’ equation is re- B) Both statement I and statement II are
duced to false
 a 
 P + V 2  V =
RT
C) Statement I is true but statement II is
false
Reason : The compressibility factor
D) Statement I is false but statement II is
corresponding to low
true.
pressure is given by :
RTV
1− 15. A bubble of air is underwater at temperature
a 15oC and the pressure 1.5 bar. If the bubble
rises to the surface where the temperature
A)Both Assertion and Reason are correct is 25oC and the pressure is 1.0 bar. What
but Reason is not the correct explanation of will happen to the volume of the bubble?
Assertion.
A) Volume will become smaller by a factor
B) Assertion is correct but Reason is not of 0.70
correct.
B) Volume will become greater by a factor
C) Assertion is not correct but Reason is of 1.1
correct
C) Volume will become greater by a factor
D) Both Assertion and Reason are correct of 1.6
and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion. D) Volume will become greater by a factor
of 2.5.

228
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY
1. B 16. B 31. A 46. C 61. B
2. A 17. C 32. A 47. D 62. C
3. C 18. A 33. B 48. B 63. C
4. B 19. A 34. A 49. C 64. A
5. C 20. C 35. B 50. B 65. A
6. A 21. B 36. D 51. C 66. A, C
7. B 22. B 37. C 52. D 67. A, D
8. A 23. C 38. C 53. B 68. A, B
9. C 24. A 39. C 54. B 69. A, C
10. D 25. B 40. A 55. B 70. A, B
11. A 26. B 41. A 56. B 71. 4
12. C 27. D 42. C 57. B 72. 7
13. B 28. C 43. B 58. D 73. 3
14. B 29. A 44. C 59. A 74. 2
15. C 30. D 45. D 60. A

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. C 11. C

2. C 12. A

3. C 13. B

4. B 14. A

5. C 15. C

6. A

7. A

8. A

9. C

10. B

229
 Chapter
THE s-BLOCK ELEMENTS
15

QUESTIONS 5. The compound NaOH is colourless

crystalline solid (caustic soda). The caustic
1. Alkali metal used in photoelectric cell is property is due to

A) Na B) Li A) Hygroscopic nature

C) Cs D) All of these B) Deliquescent nature

2. Which is incorrect regarding alkali metals C) Subliming nature

A) ns1 outer EC, with low IE and most D) Photosensitive nature

electropositive
6. Which is not true regarding chemical
B) Hydration enthalpy - Li > Na > K > Rb
+ + + + properties of group 1 alkali metals
> Cs+
A) They react with water, least reactive is Li
C) They provide colour to oxidising flame
B) They don’t form ionic hydrides
D) Reducing property Na > K > Rb > Cs > Li
C) React vigorously with halogens except Li
3. When alkali metals are exposed to air get
tarnished due to D) Dissolve in liquid ammonia, to give
blue coloured solutions, colour changes to
A) Formation of oxides bronze on increasing the concentrations.

B) Formation of hydroxides 7. The incorrect statement about oxides and

hydroxides of alkali metals is
C) Formation of carbonate
A) Stability of oxides and peroxides
D) All these increases down the group due to large
cations and anions
4. Lithium is normally kept in
B) They are hydrolysed by water
A) Kerosene
C) Oxides and peroxides have colour and
B) Ethanol superoxides are colourless and exhibit
diamagnetism
C) Paraffin wax
D) Hydroxides are crystalline solids and
D) Liquid NH3 strong bases

230
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

8. Which of the following compound is oxone 13. Which of the following is not a reason for
anomalous nature of Li
A) Na2O2
A) Small size of Li atom and high IE
B) Na2O

C) NaBO2 B) It mainly form covalent compound

D) NaO2 C) It has high polarising power, so covalent

9. Which of the following is carnallite D) It is least reactive and hard

A) KCl.MgCl2 . 2H2O 14. Which is not the diagonal relation between

Li and Mg
B) KCl. MgCl2.6H2O

C) K2O. Al2O3. 6H2O A) They form nitrides

D) Na2B4O7.10H2O B) Their carbonates are thermally unstable

10. Which of the following is Glauber’s salt C) They could not form solid bicarbonates

A) Na2SO4.10H2O
D) They are not hard and possess least
M.P.
B) Na2SO4

C) Na2B4O7.10H2O 15. Which of the following is incorrect statement

D) NaNO3 A) LiClO4 is soluble in water

11. Which of the following is stable nitride B) Li extracted by electrolysis of LiCl

A) Li3N
C) Li+ has greater mobility than Na+ in
B) Na3N aqueous medium

C) NaN3 D) Li2CO3 is least stable carbonate in group 1

D) K3N 16. Na2CO3.10H2O (washing soda) can be

prepared by solvay process, but K2CO3
12. Which of the following compounds (Pearl Ash) can’t be prepared because
liberate NH3 gas when treated with excess
water A) KHCO3 formed is soluble in medium
A) Li3N B) K2CO3 is more soluble than Na2CO3
B) Mg3N2
C) KHCO3 is not formed during the process
by using KCl
C) CaCN2

D) All of these D) KHCO3 is insoluble compared to NaHCO3

231
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

17. The antiseptic powder known as sidelitz 21. Which of the following compound known as
powder, has the composition fusion mixture

A) Na2CO3 + NaHCO3 A) Na2CO3 + K2CO3

B) NaHCO3 + Rochelle salt B) Na2O2 + K2O2

C) NaHCO3 + H2SO4 (dil) C) NaHCO3 + Na2CO3

D) NaHCO3 and KHCO3

D) Na2CO3 + K2CO3
22. The pair of substances that will not give
18. Which of the following is Engel salt paramagnetic species is
which is used in toilet soaps and in hard
glass A) Na in excess NH3

A) K2CO3 B) K in excess O2

B) KHCO3 C) Cu + dil.HNO3

C) K2SO4 D) O2 and 2-ethyl anthraquinol

D) KH tartarate 23. Correct statement for CsI3

19. Which of the following is soluble in water A) It is covalent

and organic solvent pyridine or ethanol
B) Contain Cs+ and I3 ions
−

A) LiCl
C) Contain Cs3+ and 3I ions
−

B) NaCl
D) Contain Cs+, I and I 2
−

C) KCl
24. In the following reaction
D) CsI

20. KO2 is an yellow solid and paramagnetic

used in breathing apparatus by Deep sea
divers and mine workers due to

A) It absorb CO2 and liberate O2 Reaction will be fast and most favourable
when M is
B) It react with H2O in exhaled air liberating
O2 A) Na

B) Li
C) It has tendency to dissolve in
ethanol C) Rb

D) Both A and B D) K

232
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

25. Li has small size and high hydration enthalpy 29. Which of the following formed on adding I2
so LiCl exist as LiCl.xH2O. The value of ‘x is to aqueous solution of KI

A) 2 A) KIO4

B) 4 B) KIO

C) 5 C) KI3

D) 6
D) KIO3

26. Which is the most powerful reducing agent

and used as electrode in batteries and cells 30. A colourless salt give violet colour to the
used in electric cars Bunsen flame and turn moist litmus paper
blue. It is
A) Li
A) Na2CO3
B) Na
B) KNO3
C) K
C) K2CO3
D) Cs
D) Cu(OH)2
27. Microcosmic salt is used as analytical
chemistry for detection of transition metal 31. Brine is chemically
oxides. It is
A) [Link] of NaCl
A) Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O

B) conc. solution of Na2SO4

B) Na(NH3)HPO4.4H2O

C) NaK. tartarate C) conc. solution of Na2CO3

D) Na(NH3)PO4.6H2O D) conc. solution of soda alum

28. Which of the following has yellow colour 32. Soda lime used for decarboxylation reaction
and paramagnetic for the preparation of hydrocarbons (alkane)
from monocarboxylic acids. It is a mixture of
A) KO2
A) Na2CO3 + CaO
B) K2O2
B) NaOH + CaO
C) Na2O2
C) NaOH + NaHCO3

D) Na2O D) NaH + Na2CO3

233
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

33. The order of stability of alkali metal hydride 38. The products formed by electrolysis of
is concentrated aqueous solution of NaCl
are
A) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH > CsH

B) LiH < NaH < KH < RbH < CsH A) Na and Cl2

C) NaH > LiH > CsH > KH > RbH B) H2 and O2

D) KH > NaH > RbH > CsH > LiH
C) NaOH, H2 & Cl2
34. Crude NaCl become wet on keeping in air
due to presence of
D) NaOH, Cl2 & O2
A) CaCl2 and MgCl2
GROUP -2
B) MgCO3

C) It melts in air 39. Group-2 elements except Be

are called alkaline earth metals
D) NaCl is hygroscopic because
35. Which of the following is most basic oxide
A) Be is rare, its compounds are amphoteric.
A) Na2O But compounds of others are basic

B) MgO
B) Be has high IE value
C) As2O3
C) Be compounds are more basic than
D) Al2O3 others
36. Pearl Ash and Caustic potash are
D) Be compounds are acidic
A) K2CO3 and KOH
40. Order of hydration enthalpy of group-2
B) KOH and K2CO3
elements are in the order in aqueous
C) Na2CO3 and KOH solution

D) Na2CO3 and NaOH 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+

A) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba
37. Which is prepared in industry by electrolysis
of aqueous NaCl 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
B) Ba > Sr > Ca > Mg > Be
A) Na2CO3
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
B) NaHCO3 C) Mg > Ca > Be > Ba > Sr

C) NaOH 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
D) Ca > Mg > Be > Sr > Ba
D) NaOCl

234
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

41. Which is false with respect to group-2 45. Which of the following will not give colour to
compounds the flame

A) Solubility of hydroxides increases down A) BeCl2 and MgCl2

the group
B) CaCl2 and MgCl2
B) ΔHf0 of oxides are very low and order
of stability of carbonate BaCO3 < SrCO3 < C) CaCl2 and BaCl2
CaCO3 < MgCO3 < BeCO3
D) SrCl2 and BaCl2
C) BeF2 ionic soluble in water
46. Carbide of group-2 on hydrolysis give
D) BeSO4 soluble in water but BaSO4 propyne is
insoluble in H2O

42. Beryllium shows a diagonal relationship A) BeC2

with aluminium. Which of the following
similarity is incorrect? B) Be2C

A) They are not readily attacked by acids C) CaC2

B) They react with alkali liberating H2

D) Mg2C3
C) They form hydrated ions, strong tendency
to form fluoro complexes 47. The suspension of slaked lime in water is
known as
D) They form linear complexes
A) Lime water
43. Correct order of increasing covalent
character is
B) Quick lime
A) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
C) Milk of lime
B) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl
D) Baryta water
C) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl
48. Which is incorrect regarding compounds of
D) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
Be
44. Which statement is incorrect
A) Be exhibit co-ordination number six A) It is rendered passive in HNO3

B) Be-chloride and Al-chlorides have bridge B) It can form Be2C

bonded structure in vapour phase
C) Salt of Be - (BeF2) will not hydrolyse
C) Be2C and Al4C3 on hydrolysis give CH4

D) CaC2 and MgC2 on hydrolysis give C2H2 D) BeH2 is electorn deficient and exist as
solid -polymer

235
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

49. On heating which of the following releases 53. Number of H2O molecules in Gypsum,
CO2 easily plaster of paris and Epsom salt are

A) 2, 0.5, 7
A) K2CO3
B) 7, 2, 1
B) Na2CO3
C) 7. 0.5, 2
C) MgCO3
D) 3, 4, 2

D) CaCO3 54. Epsom salt has the formula

50. Group-2 nitrates on heating decompose to A) MgSO4.7H2O

give
B) MgSO4.H2O

A) M(NO2)2 and O2 C) MgCl2.6H2O

B) MO, N2 and O2 D) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O

55. Ca can be obtained by electrolysis of

C) MO, NO2 and O2
A) CaCl2 and CaF2
D) MO and NO2
B) Ca(OH)2

51. A metal X on heating in N2 give Y. Y on C) CaSO4

treating with H2O give a colourless gas,
when this gas passed through CuSO4 D) CaF2
solution give deep blue colour. So Y is
56. When Mg heated with steam the products
are
A) Mg(NO3)2
A) Mg(OH)2
B) Mg3N2
B) Mg(OH)2 and H2
C) NaN3
C) MgO and O2
D) MgO
D) MgO and O3

52. The compound MgO(Magnesia) is a/an 57. Which of the following compounds
decompose on heating similar to LiNO3
A) Acidic oxide
A) Ba(NO3)2
B) Basic oxide
B)Sr(NO3)2

C) Neutral oxide C) Mg(NO3)2

D) Amphoteric oxide D) All

236
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

58. The function of sodium pump is a biological 62. Which of the following is correct order
process operating in cells of animals. Which
of the following ion is also a constituent of
A) NaF > NaCl > NaBr > NaI (melting point)
this pump

A) Ca2+ B)CsOH>RbOH>KOH>NaOH (basic

character)
B) Mg2+
C) Li2CO3 > Na2CO3 > K2CO3 > Rb2CO3
C) K+ (solubility)

D) Fe2+
D) LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH (basic
59. Which of the following has high hydration character)
enthalpy than lattice enthalpy
63. Be and Al resemble in
A) CaSO4
A) They become passive in con.HNO3
B) BeSO4

C) BaSO4 B) Their chlorides have Cl– bridged chloride

structure in vapour phase
D) SrSO4
C) Their oxides and hydroxides are
60. Reagents used for the manufature of amphoteric
cement are
D) Their chlorides are Lewis acids
A) Lime stone, Clay and Gypsum
NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS
B) Limestone, MgCO3 and Gypsum
64. [Link] moles of H2O present in washing soda
C) Lime stone, Fe2O3 and CaSO4 and soda ash is ................... & ..............
respectively.
D) Limestone, Al2O3 and Ca(NO3)2
65. LiCl is a deliquescent solid, it can absorb
MORE THAN ONE CORRECT moisture and exist as LiCl. xH2O. The value
of x is .........
61. Which of the following are correct statements

A) LiClO4 is soluble in water 66. Group-2 chlorides are deliquescent solids

SrCl2 . xH2O and CaCl2 .yH2O. The value of
x and y are .................... and ...............
B) Fused LiCl electrolysed to get Li

C) Least stable carbonate is Li2CO3 67. When Gypsum converted to plaster of paris
[Link] moles of H2O removed is ................
D) LiCl used to control humidity

237
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

MATRIX MATCH TYPE SAMPLE QUESTIONS

68. Match the following 1. Alkali metals are not characterised by:

A) good conductor of heat and electricity

Column-I Column-II
B) high oxidation potentials
A) Mg 1) Slaked lime+Sand + H2O

B) Mg-Al alloy 2) Flash bulb C) high melting points

C) MgCO3 3) In Grignard reagent D) solubility in liquid ammonia

D) Mortar 4) Tooth paste
2. Alkali metals react with water vigorously to
5) Air craft industry form hydroxides and dihydrogen. Which of
the following alkali metals reacts with water
A) A→2,3; B→5; C→4; D→1 least vigorously?

A) Li B) Na
B) A→2,4; B→3; C→1; D→5
C) K D) Cs

C) A→2,5; B→5; C→1; D→3,4 3. The metallic luster exhibited by sodium is

explained by
D) A→2,3; B→4,5; C→5; D→1 A) Diffusion of sodium ions

B) Oscillations of loose electrons

69. Match the following
C) Excitation of free protons
Column-I Column-II D) Existence of body centered cubic lattice
A) Soda ash 1) NaHCO3
4. Among LiCl, RbCl, BeCl2, MgCl2 the
compounds with greatest and least ionic
B) Caustic soda 2) NaOH
characters respectively are:
C) Quick lime 3) CaO A) LiCl, RbCl B) RbCl, BeCl2
4) Na2CO3
D) Baking soda C) RbCl, MgCl2 D) MgCl2, BeCl2

5. Certain characteristics lithium differ from

those of other alkali metals, the main reason
A) A→4; B→2; C→3; D→1 for this is

A) Small size of Li atom and Li+ ion

B) A→1,2; B→2; C→4; D→3
B) Extremely high electropositivity of Li
C) A→2; B→4; C→1,2; D→3
C) Greater hardness of Li

D) A→4; B→3; C→1,2; D→2 D) Hydration of Li+ ion

238
 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

6. The most electropositive amongst the 10. Which of the following compounds is a
alkaline earth metals is : peroxide?

A) Be B) Mg A) KO2 B) BaO2

C) Ca D) Ba C) MnO2 D) NO2

7. When magnesium burns in air compounds MORE THAN ONE CORRECT

of magnesium formed are magnesium 11. Which of the following are correct
oxide and statements?
A) Mg(NO2)2 A) Hydration enthalpy of alkali metal ion
decreases with increase in the ionic size.
B) Mg(NO3)2
B) Density of K is less than that of Na
C) Mg3N2
C) Alkali metals and their salt impart
D) MgCO3
characteristic colour to the oxidising flame.
8. The solubilities of carbonates of magnesium
D) Cs and K are used in photo electric cells.
group decreases down due to decrease in:
12. Which of the following statements are
A) inter ionic attractions
incorrect?
B) entropy of solution formation
A) Alkali metals are highly reactive
C) lattice energy
B) Alkali metals are normally kept in
D) hydration energy of cation kerosene oil

9. The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is C) All the alkali metal hydrides are covalent
solids with low melting points
A) Be(OH)2, Al(OH)3
D) The alkali metals are weak reducing
B) Al(OH)3, LiOH agents.

C) B(OH)3, Be(OH)2 NUMERICAL TYPE QUESTIONS

13. LiCl exist as hydrated salt LiCl. x H2O. The
D) Be(OH)2, Mg(OH)2
value of x is:

239
CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY
1. C 16. A 31. A 46. D 61. A, B, C, D
2. D 17. B 32. B 47. C 62. A, B
3. D 18. A 33. A 48. C 63. A, B, C, D
4. C 19. A 34. A 49. C 64. 10 & 0
5. B 20. D 35. A 50. C 65. 2
6. B 21. A 36. A 51. B 66. x = 6, y = 6
7. C 22. D 37. C 52. B 67. 1.5 moles
8. A 23. B 38. C 53. A 68. A
9. B 24. C 39. A 54. A 69. A
10. A 25. A 40. A 55. A
11. A 26. A 41. B 56. B
12. D 27. A 42. D 57. D
13. D 28. A 43. A 58. C
14. D 29 C 44. A 59. B
15. C 30. C 45. A 60. A

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. C 11. A,B,C,D

2. A 12. C,D

3. B 13. 2

4. B

5. A

6. D

7. C

8. D

9. A

10. B

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 Chapter
ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
16

QUESTIONS 4. Which of the following statements are the

harmful effects of nitrogen oxide?
1. Which of the following gas is not a green
house gas? I) It retards the rate of photosynthesis

A) CO II) It causes respiratory disease in children

B) O3 III) It is toxic to living tissues

C) CH4 Choose the correct statements

D) H2O vapour A) Both I and II

2. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry B) Both II and III

and sunny climate. One of the following is not
amongst the components of photochemical C) I, II and III
smog, identify it.
D) Both I and III
A) NO2
5. Which of the following are the major
B) O3
particulate pollutants?
C) SO2
I) Dust
D) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
II) Mist
3. Which of the following statements is wrong?
III) Smoke
A) Ozone is not responsible for green house
effect. IV) Smog

B) Ozone can oxidise sulphur dioxide Choose the correct statements

present in the atmosphere to sulphur
trioxide. A) I and IV

C) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer B) Both III and IV

present in stratosphere.
C) II, III and IV
D) Ozone is produced in upper stratosphere
by the action of UV rays on oxygen.
D) I, II, III and IV

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

6. The pollutants which come directly in the air 10. The process of Eutrophication is due to
from sources are called primary pollutants.
Primary pollutants are sometimes A) Increase in concentration of insecticide
converted into secondary pollutants. Which in water
of the following belongs to secondary air
pollutants? B) Increase in concentration of fluoride ion
in water
A) CO
C) The reduction in concentration of the
dissolved oxygen in water due to phosphate
B) Hydrocarbon
pollution in water.
C) Peroxyacetyl nitrate D) Attack of a younger leaves of a plant by
peroxyacylnitrate
D) NO
11. Which of the following statements about
7. Ozone depletion occurs in sewage treatment is false :

A) Stratosphere A) In primary treatment large sized particles

are filtered and residual water is subjected
B) Ionosphere to sedimentation.

B) Secondary treatment involves aerobic

C) Mesosphere
digestion of organic waste
D) Troposphere C) In tertiary treatment the waste water is
treated with lime to remove phosphate
8. Which is incorrectly matched pair
D) Coagulation can be carried out by
passing ozone through waste water
A) Tolarable unit of pH 5.5 - 9.5
12. News paper contains a toxic material like :
in drinking water
B) Maximum concentration 0.005 ppm A) Cadmium
of Cd in drinking water
C) Methemoglobinemia B) Lead
− NO − 3
D) Minamata disease –F– C) Manganese

9. The tolerable limit of fluoride in drinking D) Mercury

water (in ppm) is
13. One of the metal used as a catalyst in
automobiles catalytic converter is :
A) 1ppm
A) Palladium
B) 2 ppm
B) Copper
C) 4.5 ppm
C) Radium
D) 6 ppm
D) Iron

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

14. Lung diseases are about four times more 18. The PAN in environmental chemistry
in urban areas as compared to rural areas.
This is due to the presence of which of the A) Peroxy acryl nitrate
following in atmosphere : B) Peroxy acetyl nitrate

A) CO2 C) Peroxy acetyl nitride

B) NO2 D) Phenyl amide nitrate

19. Addition of phosphate fertilizers into water

C) O2 leads to

D) N2 A) Increased growth of decomposers

B) Reduced algal growth

15. London smog is formed in :
C) Increased fish growth
A) Summer during daytime
D) Neutrient enrichment (eutrophication)
B) Summer during early morning
20. Presistent particles such as DDT pass
into food chain and increase in amount
C) Winter during early morning
per unit weight of organisms due to their
accumulation in fat. This phenomenon is
D) Winter during day time called

16. Negative soil pollution refers to : A) Biodegradation

A) Reduction in soil productivity due to over B) Biomagnification

use and soil erosion C) Biosynthesis

B) Reduction in soil productivity due to D) Decomposition

dumping of industrial waste
21. Photochemical smog is related to pollution
of
C) Conversion of fertile land into barren
land by dumping ash, sludge etc A) Air

D) Conversion of barren land into fertile B) Water

land by dumping ash, sludge etc
C) Soil
17. The plan aims at clearing the air in the towns D) All the above
of Agra, Firozabad, Mathura and Bharatpur
22. Excessive sulphate ions in drinking water
A) Mahal Suraksha causes

A) Blue baby syndrome

B) Taj Commssion
B) Brown mottling on teeth
C) Movement protection plant
C) laxative effect
D) Taj Trapezium
D) Kidney failure

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

23. Carbon dioxide content in atmosphere is 27. As a part of green protocol Cl2 gas used for
bleaching paper is replaced with
A) 0.0034%
A) CO2
B) 0.034 %
B) Tetrachloroethene
C) 0.34%
C) H2O2
D) 3.4%
D) Methyl isocyanide

24. The level of atmosphere upto the height of

28. Acid deposition in soils can be controlled by
10 km from sea level is called
adding

A) Stratosphere A) CaCl2

B) Ionosphere B) CaSO4

C) Thermosphere C) Ca(OH)2

D) Troposphere D) CaF

25. BOD is connected with 29. Positive soil pollution is :

A) Organic matter A) Reduction in soil productivity due to

erosion and over use
B) Microbes
B) Reduction in soil productivity due to
addition of pesticides, fertilizers, and
C) Microbes and organic matter
industrial waste

D) None of these C) Converting fertile land into barren land

by dumping ash, garbage, etc.
26. Which is incorrect regarding Acid rain?
D) Reduction in soil productivity due to over
A) rain water has normal pH of 5.6 which drainage
when decreased is more acidic
30. Classical smog occurs in places of
B) it is caused by the presence of oxides of
sulphur & nitrogen in the atmosphere A) Excess concentration of NO2

C) it is toxic to vegetation & aquatic life B) Low temperature

D) mist, smoke, fumes and dust are non - C) High temperature

Viable particulates
D) Excess concentration of ammonia

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

31. Match suitably and choose the correct

INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS
answer.
33. The maximum prescribed concentration of
Cd in drinking water (in mg/dm3) ___×10-3
List-I List-II
34. Total number of green house gases from
i) Viable particulate a) Workers in the following
Texile industry
a) methane
ii) Nonviable particulate b) Bacteria,
fungi etc b) ozone
iii) Black lung disease c) smoke, dust
etc c) water vapour
iv) White lung disease d) workers in
d) nitrous oxide
coal mines
v) Beryllosis e) BeSO4, e) CFC
BeCl2, etc
f) CO2
A) (i) - c, (ii) - a, b, (iii) - d, (iv) - a, (v) - b g) NO2

B) (i) - a, (ii) - c, d, (iii) - b, (iv) - d, (v) - e h) HNO3

C) (i) - b, (ii) - c, e, (iii) - d, (iv) - a, (v) - e 35. Total number of nitrogen atom present in
peroxy acyl nitrate
D) (i) - a, (ii) - d, e, (iii) - b, (iv) - c, (v) - a
36. The maximum limit of nitrate in drinking wa-
32. Match the following ter is (in ppm)

37. The pH of normal rain water is

Column-I Column-II 38. Total number of fluorine atom present in

(pollutant of (Threshold fluorapatite is
air/water) limit)
A) CO in air P) 50 ppm 39. How many of the following is/are the prod-
ucts of photochemical smog
B) CO2 in air Q) 40 ppm
i) PAN
C) Flurides in water R) 5000 ppm
D) Nitrates in water S) less than 1ppm ii) Acrolein
E) BOD in pure water T) 1 ppm
iii) Formaldehyde

A) A→P; B→R; C→Q; D→S; E→T iv) Benzene

B) A→Q; B→R; C→T; D→P; E→S v) NO2

C) A→S; B→Q; C→R; D→T; E→P vi) CFC

40. In cold water, dissolved oxygen (DO) can

D) A→T; B→R; C→P; D→S; E→Q reach up to ................. ppm

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CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

SAMPLE QUESTIONS 9. Eutrophication is caused by

A) Acid rain
1. Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of
A) Chlorine B) Nitrates and phosphates
B) Sulphur dioxide C) Sulphates and carbonates
C) Oxygen D) CO2 and CO
D) Hydrogen
2. Which of the following is most poisonous 10. Biochemical Oxygen Demand, (BOD) is
a measure of organic material present in
A) CO B) CO2
water. BOD value less than 5 ppm indicates
C) C D) SO2 a water sample to be
3. Gases referred to as “green house gases”
are A) Rich in dissolved oxygen
A) CO2, O2, NO2, NH3 B) Poor in dissolved oxygen
B) Chlorofluoro carbon, CO2, NH3, N2 C) Highly polluted
C) CH4, N2, CO2, NH3
D) Not suitable for aquatic life
D) Chlorofluoro carbon, CO2, CH4, NO2
4. Which of the following statements is not MORE THAN ONE CORRECT
true about classical smog
11. Which of the following statements about
A) Its main components are produced
photochemical smog is correct
by the action of sunlight on emission of
automobiles and factories A) It has high concentration of oxidising
B) Produced in cold and humid climate agents
C)It contains compounds of reducing nature B) It has low concentration of oxidising
D)It contains smoke, fog and sulphur agent
dioxide
C) It can be controlled by controlling the
5. Which of the following is a secondary release of NO2, hydrocarbons, ozone etc
pollutant
A) SO2 B) CO D) Plantation of some plants like pinus
helps in controlling photochemical smog
C) O3 D) NO2
6. Which of the following is normally not an 12. Which of the following statement is incor-
atmospheric pollutant rect
A) Carbon monoxide B) Carbon dioxide A) Ozone hole is a hole formed in strato-
C) Sulphur dioxide D) Hydrocarbons sphere from which ozone oozes out
7. Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because B) Ozone hole is a hole formed in tropo-
A) It reacts with O2 sphere from which ozone oozes out
B) It inhibits glycolysis
C) Ozone hole is thinning of ozone layer of
C) Reacts with haemoglobin
stratosphere at some place
D) Makes nervous system inactive
8. In B.O.D. test, oxygen plays an important D) Ozone hole means vanishing of ozone
role to layer around the earth completely
A) Destroy inorganic matter NUMERICAL TYPE
B) Destroy pollution
13. Maximum prescribed concentration of Cu in
C) Destroy waste organic matter
drinking water is ________ppm.
D) None of these

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 CLASS (XI) [JW 2027 - CHEMISTRY]

ANSWER KEY

1 A 11 D 21 A 31 C

2 C 12 B 22 C 32 B

3 A 13 A 23 B 33 5

4 C 14 B 24 D 34 5

5 D 15 C 25 C 35 1

6 C 16 A 26 D 36 50

7 A 17 D 27 C 37 5.6

8 D 18 B 28 C 38 2

9 A 19 D 29 B 39 4

10 C 20 B 30 B 40 10 ppm

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

1. B 11. A,C,D

2. A 12. A,B,D

3. D 13. 5.6

4. A

5. C

6. B

7. C

8. C

9. B

10. A

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