03-09-2025

7101CMD303021250014 MD

PHYSICS

1) The resonant frequency of the L-C circuit is f0 before insertion of the dielectric of εr = 4. After

inserting the dielectric, the resonant frequency will be :-

(1)

(2) 2f0

(3)

(4) None of these

2)

In series LCR circuit resonance occurs at frequency f = f0 , If at this moment amplitude of current is
I0 then calculate wattless current at the same moment -

(1) I0

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

3)

If i1 = 3 sin ωt and i2 = 4 cos ωt, then i3 is –

(1) 5 sin (ωt + 53º)

(2) 5 sin (ωt + 37º)
(3) 5 sin (ωt + 45º)
(4) 5 cos (ωt + 53º)
4) For given function V = A cos ωt + B sin ωt which one represent maximum voltage:-

(1)
(2) A2+B2

(3)

(4) A + B

5) In the circuit, as shown in the figure, if the value of rms current is 2.2 ampere, the power factor of
the box is:-

(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4)

6) A capacitor of capacitance 100 μF & a resistance of 100Ω is connected in series with AC supply of
220V, 50 Hz. The current leads the voltage by …… :-

(1)
tan–1

(2)
tan–1

(3)
tan–1

(4)
tan–1

7) If effective current in the given circuit is 2A, then what is the impedance of the circuit ?
(1) 100 Ω
(2) 50 Ω
(3) 75 Ω
(4) 150 Ω

8) In the figure shown hot wire voltmeter and hot wire ammeter are ideal. The reading of voltmeter

is

(1) V
(2) 5 V
(3) 10 V
(4) None of these

9) In a certain circuit E = 200 cos (314t) and I = sin (314t + π/4). Their vector representation is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The switch in the circuit pictured is in position a for a long time. At t = 0 the switch is moved
from a to b. The current through the inductor will reach its first maximum after moving the switch in

a time :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) The inductance of a choke coil is 0.1 H and resistance is 12 Ω. If it is connected to AC source of
frequency 60 Hz then power factor will be :-

(1) 0.32
(2) 0.30
(3) 0.28
(4) 0.24

12) Consider following series R-L-C circuit. The maximum voltage drop
across inductance is:-

(1) 50 volt
(2) 25 volt
(3) 12.5 volt
(4) 5 volt

13) A coil has a resistance 10 Ω and an inductance of 0.4 Henry. It is connected to an AC source of

6.5V, Hz. The average power consumed in the circuit, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) In an AC circuit, voltage V = V0sinωt and inductor L is connected across the circuit. Then the
instantaneous power will be :-

(1)
sinωt

(2)
sinωt

(3)
sin2ωt

(4)
sin2ωt
15) In the adjoining AC circuit the voltmeter whose reading will be zero at resonance is :

(1) V1
(2) V2
(3) V3
(4) V4

16) The graph given below is of the average power delivered to an LRC circuit versus frequency. The

quality factor of the circuit is :

(1) 5
(2) 2.4
(3) 2.8
(4) 1.2

17) A periodic voltage V varies with time t as shown in the figure. T is the time period. The r.m.s.

value of the voltage is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) V0

(4)

18) An alternating current of frequency 'f' is flowing in a circuit containing a resistance R and a
choke L in series. The impedance of this circuit is :
(1) R + 2πfL
(2)
(3)
(4)

19) Assertion :- The dc and ac both can be measured by a hot wire instrument.
Reason :- The hot wire instrument is based on the principle of heating effect of current.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

20) Assertion: In series LCR resonance circuit, the impedance is equal to the ohmic resistance.
Reason: At resonance, the inductive reactance exceeds the capacitive reactance.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

21) Electromagnetic wave of intensity 1400 W/m2 falls on metal surface on area 1.5 m2 is completely
absorbed by it. Find out force exerted by beam.

(1) 14 × 10–5 N
(2) 14 × 10–6 N
(3) 7 × 10–5 N
(4) 7 × 10–6 N

22) A plane electromagnetic wave travelling along the X-direction has a wavelength of 3 mm. The
variation in the electric field occurs in the Y-direction with an amplitude 66 Vm–1. The equations for
the electric and magnetic fields as a function of x and t may be :-

Ey = 33 cos π × 1011 ,
(1)
Bz = 2.2 × 10–7 cos π × 1011

Ey = 11 cos 2π × 1011 ,
(2)
Bz = 11 × 10–7 cos 2π × 1011

Ex = 33 cos π × 1011 ,
(3)
Bz = 11 × 10–7 cos π × 1011
 Ey = 66 cos 2π × 1011 ,
(4)
Bz = 2.2 × 10–7 cos 2π × 1011

23) The relation Between electric field E and magnetic field H in an electromagnetic wave is-

(1) E = H

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) For a plane electromagnetic wave propogating in x-direction, which one of the following
combination gives the correct possible directions for electric field (E) and magnetic field B
respectively ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

25) The amplitude of electric field in a plane electro magnetic wave in vaccum is 9 × 10–3 v/m. The
amplitude of magnetic field will be

(1) 3 × 10–11 T
(2) 3 × 105 T

(3)

(4)

26) Assertion : Electromagnetic waves interact with matter and set up oscillations.
Reason : Interaction is independent of the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.

(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

27) The infra-red spectrum lies between-

(1) radio wave and micro-wave region

(2) the micro-wave and visible region
(3) the visible and ultra violet region
(4) the ultra violet and the X-ray region

28) Which waves are suitable for Radar systems used in aircraft navigation ?

(1) Radio waves

(2) Micro waves
(3) Infrared rays
(4) Visible rays

29) Assertion :- Energy of an electromagnetic wave is not equally distributed among electric field
and magnetic field.
Reason :- The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field and electric field is equal to the velocity of light.

both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) both the assertion and reason are false

30) Displacement current is due to -

(1) Conduction of charge

(2) Variable electric field
(3) Variable magnetic field
(4) None of above

31) A parallel plate capacitor with circular plates of radius R is being charged as shown. At the
instant shown, the displacement current in the region between the plates enclosed between

radius R/2 and R is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3) 3i

(4)

32) Electric flux between plates of parallel plate capacitor varies as ϕ = 2t2 – 3t + 1. Then correct
graph for displacement current and time is as –
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’, is connected across an ac source of voltage V, given by V = V

sinωt
The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor, would then be given by :

(1) Id = V0 ωCcosωt

(2)

(3)

(4) Id = V0 ωCsinωt

34) For the arrangement shown in figure what is the distance between the first image formed at M1
and the second image formed at M2 ?

(1) 20 cm
(2) 24 cm
(3) 28 cm
(4) 32 cm

35) What is the value of α for which there are maximum 2 reflections only

(1) 35°
(2) 45°
(3) 55°
(4) 65°

36) Bob of a pendulum is left from position P, velocity of image on mirror M of bob at position Q

w.r.t. bob is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
37) A plane mirror is moving with velocity . A point object in front of the mirror moves
with a velocity . Here is along the normal to the plane mirror and facing towards the
object. The velocity of the image is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

38) If reflected ray is vertical then θ will be

(1) 30
(2) 35
(3) 45
(4) 40

39) An insect O starts moving from origin along y-axis with velocity 20 cm/sec. A plane mirror is
placed as shown in figure. The time interval for which he can see his own image in the plane mirror

is

(1) 20 sec
(2) 5 sec
(3) 7.5 sec
(4) 10 sec

40) Radius of curvature of concave mirror is 40 cm and the size of image is twice as that of object,
then the object distance is :-

(1) 60 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 30 cm

41) The focal length of a concave mirror is f. An object is placed at a distance x from the focus an
forms a real image. Therefore, the magnification (numerically) is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) The graph shows the variation of v with change in u for a mirror. Points plotted above the point
P on the curve are for values of v :-

(1) smaller than f

(2) smaller than 2f
(3) larger than 2f
(4) larger than f

43) A U-shaped wire is placed before a concave mirror having radius of curvature 20cm as shown in
fig. Find the total length of the image :-

(1) 2 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 20 cm

44) A plane mirror of length 8 cm is present near a wall in situation as shown in figure. Then the size
of spot formed on the wall is :-
(1) 8 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 16 cm
(4) None of these

45) Assertion : The minimum distance between a real object and its real image formed by a concave
mirror is 4f. Reason : Convex mirror form a virtual and inverted image for all positions of the real
object.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

CHEMISTRY

1)
A and B are:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

2)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Product B is ...........
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Decreasing order of Nucleophilic addition reaction is :

(1) 3>2>1>4
(2) 4>2>1>3
(3) 2>3>1>4
(4) 2>1>4>3

5) Which one of the following reactions would produce secondary alcohol

(1)

(2)

CH3CHO
(3)
(4)

6) [Z]
Product [Z] of given reaction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7)
Final product (B) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Ph3CH

(4)

8) The product of the reaction between diethyl cadmium and acetylchloride is -

(1) CH3COCH3
(2) C2H5COC2H5
(3) CH3CHO
(4) CH3COC2H5

9)

What is the major product of the following reaction:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10)

In which of the following reaction aldehyde will form?

(a) Stephen's reduction
R–C N+SnCl2+HCl
(b) Etard reaction

(c) Gattermain's formylation

+CO+HCl

(d) Ph–CH=N–CH3
(1) Only a & b
(2) Only a & c
(3) Only a, c & d
(4) All of these

11) Which of the following will give white crystalline product with NaHSO3 :-

(1) Acetophenone
(2) Benzophenone
(3) Acetone
(4) Pentan-3-one

12) Match the column

Column-I (Aldol
Column-II (Products)
Reaction)
2CH3CHO
(a) (p) CH3C(OH)CH3.CH2COCH3

2CH3COCH3
(b) (q) CH3CH(OH)CH2CHO

2HCHO
(c) (r) C6H5CH2OH+HCOONa

C6H5CHO+HCHO
(d) (s) CH3OH + HCOONa

(1) 1 → r; 2 → s; 3 → q; 4 → p
(2) 1 → q; 2 → p; 3 → s; 4 → r
(3) 1 → q; 2 → s; 3 → r; 4 → p
(4) 1 → r; 2 → p; 3 → s; 4 → p

13) What is incorrect about acetaldehyde :

(A) It is very easily oxidised
(B) It forms 1-hydroxy propane nitrile with HCN
(C) It can be obtained by hydration of acetylene
(D) It gives cannizaro reaction

(1) A, B and C
(2) A & B
(3) B & D
(4) A & C

14) Regarding acetone from the following statement

(A) It restores the pink colour of Schiff's reagent
(B) DNP test
(C) It is very easily oxidised to acetic acid
(D) It forms 2,3-dimethylbutan-2,3-diol on treatment with magnesium amalgum and water.

(1) A, B and C are correct

(2) A & B are correct
(3) B & D are correct
(4) A & C are correct

15) Pair of compounds, which cannot be distinguished by iodoform test is

(1) and
(2) and
(3) and
(4) and

16) Which of the following will give aldol condensation?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Match List I with List II

List-I List-II
(Test) (Observation)

Yellow orange or
A Br2 water test I orange red
precipitate formed

Ceric ammonium Reddish orange

B II
nitrate test colour disappears

Ferric chloride Red colour

C III
test appears

Blue, Green,
D 2,4-DNP test IV Violet or Red
colour appear
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

18) The incorrect method to synthesize benzaldehyde is:

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

19) C6H5CH3 A B
The functional group present in B and name of the reaction would be–

(1) –CHO, Gattermann aldehyde synthesis

(2) –CHO, Etard reaction
(3) –COCH3, Friedel Crafts reaction
(4) –CHO, Oxo reaction

20) X Y
Y is :-

(1)

(2) Ph3C–OH

(3)

(4) Me3C–OH

21) The compound 'A' undergoes following reaction:-

hen the structure of A will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH2=CH–OCH3

22) Which cannot be prepared by Rosenmund reduction ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Total number of intramolecular aldol condensation products formed:

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

24) Identify product Z in the following reaction sequence CH2=CH–CH2–Br Y

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Identify the product Y in the following reaction sequence :

(1) Pentane
(2) Cyclobutane
(3) Cyclopentane
(4) Cyclopentanone

26) 2,4-DNP test is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

27) Which of the following compounds give racemic mixture on reaction with CH3MgBr ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In the given reaction (X) and (Y) will

respectively be:

(1) CH3–CH2–CHO and CH3–CH2–CHO

(2) CH3–CHO and CH3–CH2–CHO
(3) CH3–CHO and CH3–CHO

(4)

29) CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO Products, Which one is not obtained during this reaction :

(1) Pent-2-enal
(2) 2-Methylbut-2-enal
(3) But-2-enal
(4) 3-Methylpent-2-enal

30) Assertion : Aldehyde is more reactive than ketone for nucleophilic addition reaction.
Reason : Two alkyl groups reduce the electrophilicity of the carbonyl carbon of ketone more
effectively than in aldehyde.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

31) Assertion :- Aromatic aldehyde & formaldehyde undergo Cannizzaro reaction.

Reason :- Aromatic aldehyde are almost as reactive as formaldehyde.

(1) Assertion & reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion
(2) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement
(4) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement

32) Match :

Column-I Column-II

(i) (a) H2/Pd BaSO4

(ii) (b) Zn/dust

(iii) (c) NaOH CaO/Δ

(iv) CH3–COCl CH3–CHO (d) NaBH4

(1) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-a

(2) (i)-a, (ii)-b, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
(3) (i)-d, (ii)-c, (iii)-a, (iv)-b
(4) (i)-a, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-d

33)

The product (D) of the following reaction is :-

CH3Cl A B C D
(1) CH3CH2NH2
(2) CH3CN
(3) CH3CH2CONH2
(4) CH3CONH2

34) In esterification which of the following is the best combination for maximum rate of reaction.

(1) CH3–OH, (CH3)3C–COOH

(2) (CH3)3C–OH, HCOOH
(3) CH3–OH, H–COOH
(4) (CH3)3C–OH, (CH3)3C–COOH

35)

In the reaction
CH3–CH=CH2+H2O + (O)

x + HCOOH, x is
(1) CH3CH2–COOH
(2) CH3COOH
(3) CH3–CH2CHO
(4) CH3–CH2–OH

36) P, in the reaction product 'P' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) When ethylbenzene is reacted with alkaline or acidic major product formed is
(1) 2-phenylethanol
(2) 2-phenylethanoic acid
(3) Benzoic acid
(4) Benzaldehyde

38) Consider the following reaction sequence

product (C) is a/an

(1) Ketone
(2) Ketal
(3) Acetal
(4) Ester

39) Which of the following is a stronger acid than benzoic acid?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) For the sequence of reaction :

Which is NOT correct :-

(1) (A) on reaction with (CrO3.H2SO4) Jones reagent gives (D)

(2) (B) is benzyl bromide
(3) (C) on reaction with Sn/HCl followed by hydrolysis gives aldehyde.
(4) (A) gives red colour with cerric ammonium nitrate.

41) Which of the following reaction is correct :-

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a, c, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b
(4) a, b, c, d

42) A, Product A is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3 CH2–OH

(4)

43) Statement-I :- (CH3)3CCOOH does not give HVZ reaction.

Statement-II :- In HVZ reaction α-Halocarboxylic acids are obtained.

(1) Both statement-I & II are correct

(2) Both statement-I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct & II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect & II is correct

44)

Match the Column-I and Column-II for acidity of carboxylic acid.

(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

45) Match the columns.

Column-I Column-II
(Conversion) (Reagents)

(a) Hexan-1-ol to
hexanal (i)

(ii) CrO3 in the

(b) Cyclohexanol to
presence of acetic
cyclohexanone
anhydride

(c) p-fluorotoluene to iii. K2Cr2O7 in acidic

p-fluorobenzaldehyde medium

(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii

(2) a – ii, b – iii, c – i
(3) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
(4) a – ii, b – i, c – iii

BIOLOGY

1)

In DNA segment of six helical turn, 22 bp are linked by two hydrogen bonds. How many cytosine
bases would be present :-

(1) 22
(2) 38
(3) 44
(4) 76
2)

Consider the following structure of B-DNA and Choose the correct statement with respect to K, L, M
and N :

(1) The component of "M" is sugar and phosphate which forms steps of ds DNA
(2) The "N" is helix length, which is 3.4 nm in length
(3) The component of "L" is N bases which is never be a 5 methyl uracil
(4) The "K" is the diameter of DNA which remain almost constant throughout the DNA

3) Topoisomerase, DNA dependent RNA polymerase, Endonuclease, Primase, Ligase, SSB protein.
How many enzymes in the above list break phosphodiester bonds?

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

4) Read the following statements (A-D) :-

(A) DNA is a acidic substance.
(B) The two chain of DNA have antiparallel polarity.
(C) 5-Methyl uracil is another chemical name of thymine.
(D) The two chains of B-DNA are coiled in a right handed fashion.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

5) Replication does not initiate randomly at any place in DNA. There is a definite region where the
replication originate such regions are called :-

(1) Replication fork

(2) Origin of replication
(3) Promoter site
(4) Pallindromic Sequence

6) A double stranded DNA with which of following sequence will have maximum and minimum Tm
(Melting Temperature) respectively :-
(A) ACTCGTATAC (B) CCGGATCCGT
(C) ATATGCCGCG (D) CCGGCGTCGC

(1) B & D
(2) A & B
(3) D & A
(4) All will have same Tm value

7)

Total amount of 'A and T' in DNA is 45%. Amount of guanine will be ?

(1) 22.5%
(2) 27.5%
(3) 45%
(4) 55%

8) E. coli bacteria were grown on heavy nitrogen medium for several generation and then transfered
to normal or light nitrogen source. What must be the number of pure heavy DNA molecules after
four generations on light nitrogen medium ?

(1) Zero
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Eight

9) What will be the number of phosphodiester bond and N-glycosidic bond in double strand circular
DNA of 100 base pair respectively

(1) 200–200
(2) 198–200
(3) 200–198
(4) 98–100

10) Assertion: DNA is an acidic substance present in nucleus.

Reason: DNA has phosphate group which is responsible for acidic nature and it is present in
chromosome in nucleus.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Select the incorret match

(1)
(2) Bacterio phage lambda - 48502 bp
(3) E. coli -
(4) Haploid human cell -

12) The ratio of in one strand of dsDNA is 0.8. The similar ratio in complementary strand is :

(1) 1.25
(2) 0.8
(3) 1
(4) 0.2

13) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) DNA polymerase catalyse polymerization only in one direction that is 3'→5'.
(2) During replication, deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serve dual purpose
(3) DNA replication is an anabolic process
(4) Any mistake during replication would result into mutation

14) Which of the following figure accurately describes the replication process if polarity of template
strand is given ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Back bone in structure of DNA molecule is made up of -

(1) Pentose Sugar and phosphate

(2) Hexose sugar and phosphate
(3) Purine and pyrimidine
(4) Ribose Sugar and phosphate

16) A completely radioactive double stranded DNA molecule undergoes two round of raplication in a
non radioactive medium. What will be the radioactive status of the four daughter molecules :-

(1) All four still contain radioactivity

(2) Radioactivity is lost from all four
(3) Out of four, three contain radioacitivity
(4) Half of the number contain no radioacitivity

17) [Link] has only 4.6 × 106 base pairs and completes the process of replication within 18 minutes;
then the average rate of polymerisation is approximately-

(1) 2000 base pairs/second

(2) 3000 base pairs/second
(3) 4000 base pairs/second
(4) 1000 base pairs/second

18) If the distance between two consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs
of a DNA double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 × 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is
approximately :

(1) 2.7 meters

(2) 2.0 meters
(3) 2.5 meters
(4) 2.2 meters

19) Thymidine contains :-

(a) Thymine (b) Ribose
(c) Deoxyribose (d) Purine base
(e) Pyrimidine base
Options

(1) a, b and e
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and e

20) Read the following four statements (A-D).

(A) Aldopentose sugar are found in nucleic acid in b-form.
(B) Cytosine has imidazole ring.
(C) Thymine is a heterocyclic compound.
(D) Nucleic acids are polymer of nucleotides. How many of the above statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

21) Assertion: S strain of Streptococcus produces smooth shiny colonies.

Reason: S strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

22) Assertion: For long DNA molecules, the two strands of DNA cannot be separated in its entire
length during the replication process.
Reason: DNA replication is a high energy-requiring process.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.

23) Assertion (A): DNA packaging in eukaryotes involves histones.

Reason (R): Histones are rich in basic amino acids like lysine and arginine.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

24) A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except :-

(1) It should be unstable structurally and chemically

(2) It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
(3) It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian characters'
(4) It should be able to generate its replica

25) Ten [Link] cells with 15N - dsDNA are incubated in medium containing 14N nucleotide. After 60
minutes, how many [Link] cells will have DNA totally free from 15N ?

(1) 40 cells
(2) 60 cells
(3) 80 cells
(4) 20 cells

26) In a DNA of length 2.2 metre then how many nucleosome can be formed?

(1) 3.3 × 109

(2) 3.3 × 106
(3) 3.3 × 104
(4) 3.3 × 107
27) Which of the following possess both 5'→3' polymerase as well as 3' → 5' exonuclease activity :-

(1) DNA polymerase I

(2) DNA polymerase II
(3) DNA polymerase III
(4) All the above

28) Which of the following technique used by Meselson & Stahl to proved that DNA replicates
semiconservatively :-

(1) Autoradiography
(2) Sucrose density gradient centrifgation
(3) CsCl density gradient centrifugation
(4) PCR

29) Which of the following bond is not associated with a deoxyribonucleotide ?

(1) Phospho diester bond

(2) Glycosidic bond
(3) Phosphoester bond
(4) More than one option are correct

30) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : RNA mutates at a slower rate.
Statement-II : Viruses having RNA genome and shorts life span mutate and evolve faster.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(3) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

31) Statement-I : The process of transformation can occur naturally in some bacteria.
Statement-II : Transformation involves the uptake of foreign DNA by a bacterial cell.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

32) Statement-I:- DNA as an basic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Friedrich
Meischer in 1969.
Statement -II:- X-ray diffraction technique was used to elucidate the double helix model of DNA.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

33) Statement-I :- The DNA polymerases on their own cannot initiate the process of replication.
Statement-II :- In prokaryotes the replication of DNA takes place at S-phase of the cell cycle.

(1) Both Statement I and II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct.

34) Read the following statement and choose the option which is true for them -
Statements I :- The unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material came from the experiments of
Watson and Crick.
Statement II :- RNA is the genetic material in QB bacteriophage

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both the statement are correct
(4) Both the statement are incorrect

35) Which of the following is not a feature of double helix model of DNA ?
(A) Two chains have parallel polarity.
(B) Distance between two strands are uniform.
(C) There are roughly 10 base pair in each turn of DNA.
(D) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond with guanine from opposite strand

(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) A and D
(4) B and C

36) How many statements are incorrect ?

(a) Biochemical nature of genetic material was not defined from Grififth’s experiment.
(b) Avery, Mac Leod and Mc carty worked to determine the biochemical nature of transforming
principle and concluded that DNA is the hereditary material but not all biologists were convinced.
(c) Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of Alfred Hershey
and Martha Chase [1952]
(d) Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin Mac Leod and Maclyn Mc Carty [1933 to 1944], the
genetic material was thought of be Lipid.

(1) a, b & c
(2) Only ‘d’ is incorrect
(3) b & c
(4) b, c & d

37) DNA packaging in eukaryotes is carried out with the help of lysine and arginine rich basic
proteins called histone. The unit of compaction is nucleosome. Which option is correct about
nucleosome?
(1) Core of nucleosome consists of 2 copies of each H2A, H2B, H3 and H1
(2) In a typical nucleosome 200 bp are found
(3) Linker DNA is attached to H4 histone protein
The nucleosome in chromatin are seen as beads on string structure when viewed under light
(4)
microscope

38) Which of the following option is correct with respect to DNA replication-
(a) During DNA replicaton in the cell only DNA polymerase enzyme complete the process of
replication.
(b) Any mistake during replication would result into mutation.
(c) The average rate of polymerisation has to be approximately 2000 bp per second.
(d) On template with 3' → 5' polarity the discontinuous strand is formed
Option

(1) (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (b) and (c)

39) Find out correct statement regarding nucleotide structure :-

(1) removal of the 5'-phosphate group from guanylic acid yields guanine
(2) removal of 5'-phosphate group from adenylic acid yields adenine
(3) removal of 5'-phosphate group from deoxy thymidylic acid yields uracil
(4) removal of the 5'-phosphate group from cytidylic acid yields cytidine

40) Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements -
(a) Euchromatin stains light.
(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally inactive.
(c) Histone octamer contains eight molecules of histone proteins.
(d) Packaging of chromatin at higher level requires additional set of proteins that referred to as
histones.
(e) In human diploid cell 6.6 × 109 nucleosomes are present.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below-

(1) (a), (c), (d) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) only
(3) (a), (c), (e) only
(4) (b), (e) only

41) Select the incorrect statement from the following :

(1) DNA replication does not require any energy

(2) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates act as substrate in DNA replication
(3) Four types of deoxyribonucleotides are required during DNA replication
(4) Unwinding of DNA helix requires enzyme
42) Find the incorrect statement:
(A) The RNA primer is synthesized by primase and later removed by DNA polymerase I.
(B) Okazaki fragments are synthesized continuously on the leading strand.
(C) DNA ligase seals the nicks between Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
(D) Topoisomerase prevents supercoiling of DNA ahead of the replication fork.

(1) B only
(2) A and C
(3) D only
(4) B and D

43) Avery, Macleod and McCarty worked to determine the biochemical nature of transforming
principle in Griffith's experiment. The process of transformation is not affected by which of the
following enzymes ?
(A) DNAse (B) RNAase
(C) Lipase (D) Proteases

(1) A,C,D
(2) A,B,D
(3) D,A,C
(4) B,D,C

44) If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is CATGGACATGAG, what would be the sequence
of bases on complementary strand ?

(1) GUACCUGUACUC
(2) GTACCTGTACTC
(3) CATGGACATGAG
(4) GAGTAGACGATA

45) The figure below shows DNA double helix. Which one of the following option gives the correct
data for the DNA ?

P1 P2 P3 L1 L2 D

(1) 3' 5' 3' 34Å 3.4Å 10Å

(2) 3' 5' 3' 3.4Å 34Å 10Å

(3) 3' 5' 3' 34Å 3.4Å 20Å

(4) 3' 5' 3' 3.4Å 34Å 20Å

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

46) Assertion (A): Vaccines provide immediate protection from disease.

Reason (R): Vaccines stimulate the immune system to produce memory cells, which provide long-
term immunity.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

47) At which stage of HIV infection does one usually show symptoms of AIDS?

(1) When the infecting retroviruses enter host cells.

(2) When viral DNA is produced by reverse transcriptase.
(3) When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of these cells.
(4) Within 15 days of sexual contact with an infected person.
48) Match the column-I with column-II.

(1) (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-iv, (d)-ii

(2) (a)-i, (b)-iii, (c)-iv, (d)-ii
(3) (a)-i, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-iv
(4) (a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-i, (d)-iv

49) Which of the following statements are not incorrect ?

(a) Smack is chemically diacetyl morphine which is obtained by acetylation of heroin.
(b) Morphine is obtained from the latex of poppy plant (Papaver somniferum).
(c) Drugs having their effects on cardiovascular system of body are being abused by some sports
persons.
(d) Crack interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine.

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d only
(3) b, c, d only
(4) c, d only

50) Read the following statements (A - D):

(A) The use of alcohol during adolescence may also have long term effects, it could lead to heavy
drinking habit in adulthood.
(B) In adolescence, drug abuse may lead to severe facial and body acne in both male and female.
(C) Parenting that combines with high levels of nurturance and consistent discipline, has been
associated with lowered risk of alcohol/drugs/tobacco abuse.
(D) The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages nervous system and liver.
How many of the above statement are true?

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

51) Select the correct match w.r.t. type of antibody and its function listed.
 Provides passive immunity to
(1) IgA
foetus

Provides active immunity to

(2) IgG
foetus

Can cross placenta to provide

(3) IgE
immunity to foetus

Number rises dramatically on

(4) IgG subsequent exposure to same antigen,
in secondary response
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) Which one of the following feature is not related to Klinefelter's syndrome ?

(1) 44 + XXY genotype

(2) 45 + XO genotype
(3) 44 + XXXY genotype
(4) Both 1 and 3

53) Match the following :-

(A) OPV (i) Rubella
(B) TAB (ii) Tuberculosis
(C) BCG (iii) Typhoid
(D) MMR (iv) Polio

(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv

(2) A–ii, B–iii, C–iv, D–i
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i

54) Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to :

A. A mass of proliferating cell

B. Rapid growth of cells

C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue

D. Those confined to original location

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A, B, D only
(2) B, C, D only
(3) A, B only
(4) A, B, C only
55)

The following table shows certain diseases, their causative organisms and symptoms. Choose the
option which correctly fills the gaps in the table :-

Causative
Name of disease Symptoms
organism

Ascariasis Ascaris ______(A)

Appearance of
dry, scaly
______(B) Trichophyton lesions on
various parts of
body

Nasal
congestion and
______(C) Rhino virus discharge, sore
throat,
cough, headache

Inflammation of
Filariasis ______(D)
lower limbs
A – Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anaemia and blockage of intestinal passage
(1)
C – Pneumonia
B – Ringworm
(2)
D – Wuchereria
A – High fever, stomach pain, constipation headache and loss of appetite
(3)
C – Common cold
B – Athlete's foot
(4)
D – Dracunculus

56) The figure given below shows mode of pathogenesis of HIV virus. Identify steps A, B, C, D and E

labelled in it.

A-New viral DNA introduced into cell, B-Viral RNA produced, C-Viral DNA incorporated into
(1)
host genome, D-New viral DNA, E-New viruses produced
A-Viral DNA incorporated into host genome, B-Viral DNA, C-New viral RNA introduced, D-Viral
(2)
RNA produced, E-New viruses produced
 A-Viral RNA introduced, B-Viral DNA,
(3) C-Viral DNA incorporated into host genome, D-New viral RNA produced, E-New viruses
produced
A-Viral DNA introduced, B-Viral RNA, C-Viral RNA incorporated into host genome, D-New viral
(4)
DNA produced, E-New viruses produced

57) Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

(1) Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.

(2) Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules.
(3) Each antibody has two light and two heavy chain.
(4) The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.

58)

Given below are two statements:

Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all

Statement I :
blood cells, including lymphocytes, are produced.

Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro

Statement II : environments for the development and maturation of
T-lymphocytes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

59)

Health includes :

(1) Complete physical well being

(2) Complete mental well being
(3) Complete social well being
(4) All of the above

60)

In the given list ELISA test can be used for the detection of how many conditions ?
Hepatitis-B, HIV infection, Thyroid disorder, Rubella virus infection, STD

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

61)

Out of these how many statements are correct ?

(a) Entamoeba histolytica causes amoebiasis
(b) The Ascaris worm causes inflammation of the lymphoid organs.
(c) Appearance of dry, scaly lesions are symptoms of amoebiasis
(d) Dysentery, plague, diptheria are some of the bacterial diseases in human

(1) a, b only
(2) a,c,d only
(3) a,d only
(4) a, b, c, d

62)

Which is wrong statement regarding vaccine?

(1) HERD Immunity could be provided by oral polio vaccine

(2) Vaccine is used for prophylaxis
(3) BCG vaccine is a 2nd generation vaccine
(4) Vaccine should not be given to Immuno deficient host

63) Given below is the flow diagram of a certain type of lymphocyte. Identify the labelled A, B, C and
select the right option about them :-

A B C
1. Killer T-cell Helper T-cell B-cell
Helper T-
2. Lymphotoxin Killer T-cell
cell
Cytotoxic
3. B-cell Helper T-cell
T-cell
4. CD4-cell CD8-cell B-cell

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
64)
Select the correct combination for virus A & B respectively

(1) Arbovirus, Ortho myxo virus

(2) Arbovirus, Toga virus
(3) Corona Virus, Toga virus
(4) Arbovirus, Para myxo virus

65) (a) Lethal lymphocytes

(b) Agranular lymphocytes
(c) Cellular barrier
(d) Present in brain
(e) Number increases during AIDS and cancer
(f) Cause apoptosis
Incorrect about NK cells is / are :-

(1) b, c and e
(2) b, d and e
(3) d and f
(4) All are correct statements

66) Select the correct options to fill up the blanks.

(i) With repeated use of drugs, the tolerance level of receptors present in our body ____ .
(ii) Smoking produces ____ and reduces the concentration of ____ in blood.
(iii) Cannabinoid receptors are present in the ___.
(iv) Morphine is a very effective ____ and ___.
(v) Opioids are extracted from the ____ of poppy plant, Papaver somniferum.

(1) (i) decreases, (ii) sedative pain killer, (iii) brain, (iv) hallucinogen, depressant, (v) latex
(2) (i) increases, (ii) CO, haembound oxygen, (iii) brain, (iv) sedative, painkiller, (v) latex
(3) (i) decreases, (ii) CO, haembound oxygen, (iii) brain, (iv) sedative painkiller, (v) latex
(4) (i) increases, (ii) CO, haembound oxygen, (iii) latex, (iv) sedative, painkiller, (v) resin

67)

How many interchain disulfide bonds are present in IgA :-

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 16

68) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).

Some human organs like liver, kidney fails to

Assertion (A) : function normally and transplantation is the only
remedy to enable the patient to live a normal life.

Tissue matching and blood group matching are

Assertion (A) : essential before undertaking any transplant and
patient has to take immunosuppresant thereafter.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is True but (R) is False
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True.

69) The figure below shows steps of phagocytosis select the option giving correct identification.

(1) C - Shows diapedesis movement of RBC from dilated vessel

(2) A - Shows vasoconstriction due to effect of histamine
(3) D - Shows chemotactic movement of bacteria to WBC
(4) B - Shows adhesion of monocyte due to decreased rate of blood flow

70) Consider the following statements and select the false statement :-

In primary lymphoid organs immature lymphocytes differentiates in antigen sensitive

(1)
lymphocyte
(2) After maturation lymphocyte migrate to secondary lymphoid organs
(3) Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for interaction of lymphocyte with the antigen
(4) Maturation of lymphocytes occur in secondary lymphoid organs

71)

Correct identification of A, B, C and D is :

(1) A = Partope of antigen, B = Epitope of antibody, C = Light chain, D = Heavy chain.
(2) A = Epitope of antigen, B = Paratope of antigen, C = Light chain, D = Heavy chain.
(3) A = Epitope of antigen, B = Paratope of antibody, C = Light chain, D = Heavy chain.
(4) A = Epitope of antibody, B = Paratope of antibody, C = Heavy chain, D = Light chain.

72) Which of the following options gives the correct categorisation of barriers of Innate immunity :-

Physical Physiological Cellular

(1) [Link] Saliva PMNL neutrophils

(2) Skin Tear W.B.C

T-killer
(3) Mucous Interferon
cells

(4) Fever Phagocytit cells Leukocyte

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Fill in the blanks in the different columns of the table given below ?

Casual organism
Disease Medium of Transfer
and part it inputs

Droplets from sneezing of

(i) Common cold A
infected person

Trichophyton, Using towels of infected

(ii) B
Skin, Nails and Scalp individuals

Droplets/ aerosols released

(iii) Pneumonia C
by infected person

Wuchereria,
(iv) Filariasis D
Lymphatic vessels
A. Rhinovirus, Nose and respiratory passage but not lungs
B. Ringworms
(1)
C. Haemophilus influenzae, Alveoli of lungs
D. Contaminated food and water
 A. Coryza virus, Alveoli of lungs
B. Ringworms
(2)
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Nose and respiratory passage
D. Culex mosquito
A. Rhinovirus, Nose and respiratory passage but not lungs B. Ascariasis
(3) C. Haemophilus influenzae, Lungs
D. Culex mosquito
A. Rhinovirus, Nose and respiratory passage but not lungs
(4) B. Ringworms
C. Haemophilus influenzae, Alveoli of lungs D. Female Culex mosquito

74) Given figure is of immune responce shown by an organism Identify the correct match.

(1) A = Primary immune response based on memory of immune system

(2) A = Secondary immune response based on memory of immune system
(3) B = Secondary immune response based on Memory of Immune system
(4) B = Primary Immune response

75) Which of the following is incorrect matching:

Drug Source Function

Stimulates
Adrenal
(1) Nicotine Tobacco gland to
release
adrenaline

Inflorescence
(2) Ganja Hallucination
of Cannabis

Latex of
Sedative and
(3) Papaver
pain killler
somniferum

Interferes
with the
(4) Cocaine Erythroxylum
transport of
dopamine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
76) Identify the likely parts of human immuno deficiency virus shown below

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77)
In the above diagrame what is A, B and C respectively ?

A B C

1 Liver Ethyl alcohol Acetaldehyde

2 Ethyl alcohol Acetaldehyde Liver

3 Ethyl alcohol Liver Acetaldehyde

4 Liver Acetaldehyde Ethyl alcohol

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Identify the true statements :-

(A) Sarcoma is a type of cancer in which bone and brain can be involved
(B) Cancer in epithelial tissue of internal organs and glands is referred as carcinoma
(C) The tumour of haematopoietic cells is called Adenocarcinoma
(D) Cancer cells does not shows the property of contact inhibition

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) B & D
(4) A & C

79) Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source

and use:

Molecules Source Use

Erythroxylum Accelerates the transport

(1) (a) Cocaine
coca of dopamine

Depressant and slows

(2) (b) Heroin Cannabis sativa
down body functions.

Atropa
(3) (b) Cannabin oid Produce s hallucinations
belladona

Papaver
(4) (a) Morphine Sedative and pain killer
somniferum
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

80) Identify the correct option :-

Disease Symptoms Caused by

- increase in
Salmonella
(1) Typhoid appetite - Chill
typhi
and high fever
 - cough and
Pneumonia headache - in
and severe cases
(2) Streptococcus
common the lips may
cold turn gray to
bluish in color
- slowly
developing
Wuchereria
(3) Filariasis chronic
malayi
inflammation
of the organs
Progressive
decrease in
(4) AIDS the number of Bacterium
helper T-
lymphocytes
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

(A) ___(A)___was a typhoid carrier who continued to spread typhoid for several years.
(B) ___(B)___ is responsible for the disease pneumonia in humans.
(C) ___(C)___ is one of the most common infectious diseases in man.
(D) Pathogens that enter the ___(D)___ must know a way of surviving in the stomach at low pH.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Mary Mallon Salmonella typhi Common cold Gut
(2) Mary Mallon Haemophilus influenzae Common cold Respiratory tract
(3) Mary Mallon Haemophilus influenzae Ringworms Gut
(4) Mary Mallon Influenzae virus Ringworms Gut
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

82) Tobacco smoke, X-rays, Gamma rays, Onco virus, Sharp teeth or object, Magnetic field
How many of the following given above can cause cancer ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Six

83)

Match the column A with B :

 Column A Column B

Acid in stomach, Tear,

(A) Physical barrier (i)
Saliva Sweat

(B) Physiological barrier (ii) Interferon

Macrophage, N.K. cells,

(C) Cellular barrier (iii)
PMNL neutrophils

(D) Cytokine barrier (iv) Skin and mucous coating

(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv
(2) A–iv, B–i, C–iii, D–ii
(3) A–iv, B–i, C–ii, D–iii
(4) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv

84) Identify the likely A, B, C, D in the following life cycle.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

85) Read the following statements and choose the True (T) and False (F) about then from given
options-
(A) Virus infected cells secrete proteins called antigen
(B) Each antibody molecule has two longer light chains and two small heavy chains.
(C) The principle of vaccination is based on the property of memory of the immune system.
(D) Both innate and acquired immunity are pathogen specific.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 T T T F

2 F T T F

3 F F T F

4 F T F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) __A__ stimulates __B__ to release __C__ and __D__ into blood circulation :

(1) A-Nicotine, B-Pineal, C-Melatonin, D-MSH

(2) A-Tar, B-Adrenal, C-Adrenaline, D-Nor-adrenaline
(3) A-Nicotine, B-Adrenal, C-Adrenaline, D-Nor-adrenaline
(4) A-Nicotine, B-Pituitary, C-GH, D-MSH

87) Match List I with List II :

List I List II

A. Cocaine I. Effective sedative in surgery

B. Heroin II. Cannabis sativa

C. Morphine III. Erythroxylum

D. Marijuana IV. Papaver somniferum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
(2) A _ II, B - I, C - III, D - IV
(3) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II
(4) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II

88) Which of the following sexual transmitting disease is curable if detected earlier ?

(1) Hepatitis-B
(2) Genital herpes
(3) HIV
(4) Genital warts

89) Human immune system consists of lymphoid organs, tissues, cells and molecules like antibodies.
Choose the wrong pair from the given below immune system constituents.

Primary lymphoid organ, lobed organ, present

(A) Thymus
near heart.

Secondary lymphoid organ, present in small

(B) Peyer's patches
intestine

(C) Spleen Primary lymphoid organ, large bean shaped

Secondary lymphoid organ, provide site for

(D) Appendix
interaction of lymphocytes with antigen.

Solid structure at different point of lymphatic

(E) Lymph node
system, serves to trap the antigen.
(1) D and E
(2) C and D
(3) B and E
(4) Only C

90) Choose the correct statements regarding the structure given in the below diagram.

(A) The given structure is of a glycoprotein molecule.

(B) The molecule can be represented as H2L2 molecule
(C) The given molecule comprises major part of our innate immunity.
(D) The molecule is synthesized by T-lymphocytes in our body.
(E) The response generated by this molecule is called as humoral immune response.

(1) A, B, C, D and E
(2) A, B, C and E
(3) A, B, D and E
(4) A, B and E
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 1 1 1 2 3 2 1 3 2 3 1 3 4 4 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 3 3 1 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 1 3 4 1 1 4 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 3 4 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 1 4 2 4 2 4 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 4 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 1 3 4 3 2 4 1 3 1 4 3 2 2 3 4 2 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 1 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 3 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 4 1 4 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 1 1 2 4 4 3 1 3 1 4 3 2 3 2 2 4 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 4 2 1 4 3 1 3 4 4 2 4 4 2 3 1 2 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 4 2 2 2 2 2 4 4 3 2 4 3 3 4 3 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 2 3 3 3 3 4 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) f =
C become 4C.

2)

At resonance freq. current & voltage will be in same phase so ϕ = 0

wattless current = I0 sinϕ = I0 sin 0° = 0

3) Concept :
Super position of wave.

Formula :
i3 = 3ω sinωt + 4 cosωt

then from trigonometry

identity θ = tan–1
I3 = Imax sin(ωt + θ)

Visual Aid :

We can say : i2 is 90° ahead of i1 by phase, and i3 will be θ angle of i1 by phase.

Final Answer : (1) 5 sin (ωt + 53º)

4) 1. Question Explained
Express the given function V = A cos ωt + B sin ωt as a singe sinusoidal team.

2. Concept
Based on the trigonometric transformation formula.

3. Formula used.
cos (ωt - ϕ) = cos wt cos ϕ + sin ωt sin ϕ
4. Calculation:
v = A cos (ωt) + B sin (ωt)

V=
V= [cos ϕ cos (ωt) + sin ϕ sin (ωt)]
V= cos (ωt - ϕ)
∴ VB = (vmax)

Correct answer is option (1).

5) Concept :
Power factor cos ϕ

Formula :
Power factor:

cosϕ =
where Z is the impedance:

Z=

Calculation :
Given:

Impedance,

= 100Ω
Given R = 100Ω,

cosϕ =

Final Answer : (1)

6) Concept: Phase angle

As we known in R -C circus current leads by voltage;
The phase angle is

tanϕ =

tan ϕ =

tanϕ =
phase angle ϕ = tan–1

7)

Apply
obtain Vrms
than apply Vrms = 12
where I = 2A

8)

Z=

=
=

i= = 1A
Reading of voltmeter = i(XL – XC)
= 1(7 – 2)
=5V

9) Explanation : In a certain E = 200 Cas (314t) and I = Sin (314 t + ). the vector
representation is.

Concept : vector representation of E & I.

Mathematical Calculation :

• Current(I) leads potential (E) by

(1)
• only 1 option represent the correct diagram.
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

Estimated Time : 30 sec

Level : Medium

10)

11)
⇒ cos ϕ = 0.30

12)

13) XL = ωL = 0.4 × 2π × = 24Ω

Z= = 26Ω

Vavg =

14)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks for the expression of the instantaneous power
delivered to an inductor connected in an AC circuit where the voltage varies sinusoidally as
. We need to derive how power changes with time in this setup.

Underlying Concept: The core concept involves the behavior of inductors in AC circuits.
Voltage across an inductor is proportional to the rate of change of current, . The
current lags the voltage by 90 degrees in an inductive circuit. Instantaneous power is the
product of instantaneous voltage and current, which oscillates and can sometimes be negative,
indicating energy stored or returned by the inductor.

Relevant Formulas: Given: , and for an inductor, .

Variables: - : peak voltage amplitude - : angular frequency - : inductance - : current - :
time

Key derived formula for power:

Step-by-Step Calculation: 1. Start from and .

2. Equate: leads to .

3. Integrate to find : Assuming , .

4. Instantaneous power:

5. Use the identity to get:

Tips and Tricks: Use the relationship between voltage and current in inductors early to avoid
confusion. Keep in mind the phase difference between voltage and current in inductors when
analyzing power.

Common Mistakes: 1. Forgetting to include the negative sign when integrating. 2.

Neglecting the constant of integration initial condition. 3. Using incorrect trigonometric
identities when simplifying the product of sine and cosine. 4. Confusing instantaneous power
with average power in AC circuits.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that do not include the factor are
incorrect because the product of and always involves this double angle identity.
Also, signs matter because instantaneous power oscillates between positive and negative
values reflecting energy flow; wrong sign choices are inconsistent with this behavior.

15) At resonance net voltage across L and C is zero.

16)

17) Root mean square value

<V> = = =

18) , XL = wL and w = 2πf

∴

19) Concept :
Based on Hot Wire Instrument and Heating Effect of Current.
Formula :
• Joule's law of heating: H = I2Rt
• Both AC and DC produce the same heating effect When passing through the hot Wire,
allowing the instrument to measure both currents.
Explanation :
• Hot wire instruments measure current by the expansion of the wire due to heating.
• Since both AC and DC produce heating, they can measure both types of currents.
• Hence, both assertion and reason are true, and the reason correctly explains the assertion.
Final Answer: (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation
of Assertion.

20) Explanation:
We have to choose correct option about given assertion reason.

Concept :
This question is based on Resonance condition in L-C-R circuit.

Solution:
Assertion → In series L-C-R resonance circuit the impedance in equal to the ohmic resistance.

Z(impedance) =
at resonance xL = xC so z = R
it means assertion is correct.

Reason :→ At resonance the inductive reactance exceeds the capacitive reactance.

Reason is wrong because at resonance xL = xC .

Final Answer:
Option (3)

21) F = = = 7 × 10–6 N

22) The equation of electric field occurring in

Y-direction Ey = 66 cos 2π × 1011

Therefore, for the magnetic field in Z-direction

= 22 × 10–8 cos 2π × 1011

= 2.2 × 10–7 cos 2π × 1011

23)

24) → Should be along +x

and
25)

C=

⇒
= 3 × 10–11 T

26) Electrormagnetic waves interact with matter via their electric and magnetic field which in
oscillation of charges resent in all matter. The detailed interaction and so the mechanism of
absorption, scattering, etc. depend of the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave, and the
nature of the atoms and molecules in the medium.

27)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking which region of the electromagnetic spectrum
the infrared (infra-red) waves are located between. It provides several options involving
different parts of the spectrum, and you need to identify the correct range where infrared
waves fall.

Underlying Concept: The electromagnetic spectrum is a continuous range of electromagnetic

waves arranged by wavelength or frequency. From long wavelengths and low frequencies to
short wavelengths and high frequencies, the order is usually radio waves, microwaves,
infrared, visible light, ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays. Infrared radiation lies between
microwaves and visible light.

Tips and Tricks: Remember the commonly used mnemonic 'Raging Martians Invaded Venus
Using X-ray Guns' to recall the order: Radio, Microwave, Infrared, Visible, Ultraviolet, X-Ray,
Gamma rays.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the position of infrared with ultraviolet or radio waves, or
mixing up the orders of regions in the electromagnetic spectrum.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options placing infrared between radio waves and
microwaves or ultraviolet and X-rays are incorrect because infrared has wavelengths shorter
than microwaves but longer than visible light. Infrared is not between visible and ultraviolet
either, as that region corresponds to visible light itself.

28) Question Explain:

The question asks which type of waves are suitable for radar systems used in aircraft
navigation. We need to identify the type of electromagnetic waves commonly used in radar
applications.
Concept:
Radar systems in aircraft navigation rely on electromagnetic waves that are capable of
traveling long distances. with sufficient resolution. and are less affected by weather
conditions.
 Formula Used:
Radar waves work by emitting electromagnetic waves, and measuring the time taken for the
waves to return after reflecting off an object (like a plane, mountain, etc.). These waves are
usually in the microwave region because of their ability to penetrate through the atmosphere
and provide accurate distance measurements.
Calculation:
Radar systems in aircraft primarily use microwaves because:

A. They have wavelengths that are short enough to provide high resolution but long enough ta
travel significant distances.
B. Microwaves are not easily scattered by the atmosphere, making them ideal for radar use.

Conclusion:
The correct answer is Option 2: Microwaves. They are the most suitable for radar systems used in
aircraft navigation.

29)

Explaining the question :

Check correctness of statements on energy distribution and amplitude ratio in EM waves.
Concept : Energy is equally distributed in EM waves. Correct amplitude ratio:

Solution

A. Assertion: False (Energy equally distributed)

B. Reason: False (B0/ E0 = c is incorrect)

Final answer : Hence, option (4) is correct.

30) Displacement current produced due to change in electric field.

31)

In πR2 displacement current = i

In – displacement current will be

32)

ϕ = 2t2 – 3t + 1
displacement current = id

=ε
0
id = ε0(4t - 3)
graph will be straight line will positive slope and negative y-intercept.

33)

id = iC =

V0ωC cosωt

34)
∴ distance = 4 + 14 + 10 = 28 cm

35)

36) At position Q veloicty of bob is so Ansis velocity of image wr to bob is

37)

VI = 2vm – v0 = 2 × 4 – 3 = 5
Only i component changes and the rest remains same so
5i + 4j + 5k

38)

39)

distance = 2 × (3 – 1) = 4m = 400 cm
t= = = 20 sec

40)
m = – 2, f = – 20cm ⇒ u = – 30 cm

41) u = – (f+x); f=–f ; v=?

using ;

42)

where u = v; so u = 2f = v

43) For part MN,

Object is at “C”. Therefore its image is formed at C only, same size and inverted.
For image of ST,
u = –30cm
f = –10cm

For length of image of ST,

m=

Length of image of NT,

Length of wire in image =

44) Here, PA is the size of spot formed on the wall. From the similar triangle

PS’Q and MS’N

 PQ = (2) MN = 2 × 8 = 16 cm

45) Explanation :
In assertion to find the minimum distance between real object and its real image. In Reason
find nature configuration of image.

Concept :
Image formation in spherical mirror.

Solution :
For concave mirror when object kept
at u = -2f

v = -2f
distance b/w object and its age = 0 (assertion false)
For convex mirror

For real object u =

Final image
v = +f
m < 1 virtual so reason false

Final Answer :
Option (4)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Solution 2

47)

Solution 1
48)

Solution 1

49)

Solution 4

50)

51) Explaination: Find out the product (Z) in give multistep reaction starting with
cyclohexanol.
Concept: Oxidation, NAR, Reduction.
Solution:

Final Answer: Option (4)

52)

Solution - 2

53) Explaination: Find out the product of the reaction between diethyl cadmium and acetyl
chloride.
Concept: Preparation of carbonyl compounds.
Solution:

Final Answer: Option (4)

54)

Explaining the Question :- The question asks for the major product of the given reaction.

Concept:- This question is based on Nucleophilic addition reaction Addition of RDH

Solution :-

Final Answer :- 3

55)

All of these

56) Explaination: Identify the compound which will give white crystalline product with
NaHSO3.
Concept: NAR of carbonyl compound.
Solution:
The reaction of carbonyl compounds with NaHSO3 is steric sensitive since attacking
nucleophile is bulky so only following carbonyl compounds give white ppt with NaHSO3.
(A) All aldehydes
(B) Aliphatic methyl Ketone.
So we will check all options.
(1) Acetophenone

Not give reaction

(2) Benzophenone

Not give reaction

(3) Acetone
Give white ppt.
(4) Pentan-3-one

Not give reaction

Final Answer: Option (3)

57) a → CH3CH(OH)CH2CHO
b→ CH3C(OH)CH3.CH2COCH3
c → CH3OH + HCOONa
d→ C6H5CH2OH+HCOONa

58)

59) (A) Acetone No reaction

(B)

(C)
Ketone difficult to oxidised to acid

(D)
60)
Both will give iodoform test.
So, cannot be distinguish from each other .

61) Explaination: Question asks that which of the following will give aldol condensation
reaction ?
Concept: Aldol condensation reaction
Solution: Carbonyl compounds having α – H give aldol condensation reaction in presence of
dil. Alkali.

(1) No. α–H

Not give reaction

(2) No. α–H

Not give reaction

(3) No. α–H

Not give reaction

(4) Have α–H

Give reaction.

Therefore will give aldol condensation reaction.

Final Answer: Option (4)

62) (A) Br2 water test is test of unsaturation in which reddish orange colour of bromine water
disappears.
(B) Alcohols given Red colour with ceric ammonium nitrate.
(C) Phenol gives Violet colour with natural ferric chloride.
(D) Aldehyde & Ketone give Yellow/Orange/Red Colour compounds with 2, 4-DNP i.e., 2,4-
Dinitrophenyl hydrazine.
63)

64) The compound ‘B’ is benzaldehyde and the reaction.

65)

Solution 3

66)

Solution 1

67)

Solution - 2

68) Explanation: We have to find total no. of intramolecular aldol Condensation product

formed

69)

Solution 1

70)
71) Explaination: Identify the compounds which will give 2,4-DNP Test.
Concept: NAR of carbonyl compound.
Solution: 2,4-DNStest is the identification test of carbonyl compounds.
Carbonyl compounds when react with 2,4-DNP then yellow, orange colour ppt is formed.
We will check all the options.

(1)

(2)

(3)
All the three compounds are carbonyl compound. So these are give 2,4-DNP test.
Final Answer: Option (4)

72)

Solution Answer Three (3)

73)

Solution 2

74) Explain question : Identify which product is not formed during the aldol condensation
between CH₃CHO and CH₃CH₂CHO under basic conditions.
Concept : This question is based on Aldol condensation, enolate chemistry, cross-
condensation
Solution : Under basic conditions (OH⁻, Δ), both aldehydes can form enolates and act as
electrophiles, leading to multiple condensation products:
1. CH₃CHO + CH₃CHO → CH₃CH=CHCHO (But-2-enal)
2. CH₃CH₂CHO + CH₃CH₂CHO → CH₃CH₂CH=C(CH₃)CHO (2-Methyl-pent-2-enal)
3. CH₃CH₂CHO + CH₃CHO (enolate) → CH₃CH₂CH=CHCHO (Pent-2-enal)
4. 3. CH₃CH₂CHO(enolate) + CH₃CHO → CH₃CH=C(CH₃)CHO (2-Methyl-but-2-enal)
However, 3-Methylpent-2-enal requires a methyl substitution at the 3-position of a pentanal
backbone, which cannot be formed from the given reactants. Therefore, it is not obtained in
this reaction.
Final Answer : Option 4

75)

Solution 1
76)

Solution 3 ( Assertion and reason both are wrong statements)

77) 1. Asking About: Reagents required for the conversion.

2. Concept: Reduction, sodaline decarboxylation.
3. Formula:

(1) CH3– CHO CH3–CH2–OH......Reduction of aldehyde

(2) ...... Solaline decarboxylation

(3) ..... Deoxygenation (Reduction)

(4) ...... Rosennund Reduction.

78)

Solution - 4 ( CH3CONH2)

79)

rate of R–OH is

80)

Solution 2 (CH3COOH)

81)

Solution - 2

82)

Solution 3 (Benzoic acid)

83)

Solution 4 ( Ester )

84)
 Solution - 2

85) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 370

86)

Solution - 4 (a, b, c, d)

87) NCERT Pg. # 373

88)

Solution - 1 (Both statement-I & II are correct )

89)

Highest the acidity lowest the pKa value.

90)

Solution - 3 (a – i, b – iii, c – ii)

BIOLOGY

91)

Solution - 2

92)

Solution - 4 (The "K" is the diameter of DNA which remain almost constant throughout the
DNA)

93)

Solution - 3 (Two)

94) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 149,151

95) NCERT XII, Pg. # 107

96)
Solution - 3 D & A

97)

Explanation: In DNA,A = T and G = C. If A + T = 45%, then G + C = 100% – 45% = 55%.

Since G=C, Guanine (G) constitutes half of this amount: 55%/ 2 = 27.5%.

98) NCERT XII Pg.# 105 (E)

99) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 121

100) Ncert Pg No. 80

101) Ncert Pg No. 80

102) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 97

103)

Solution - 1 (DNA polymerase catalyse polymerization only in one direction that is 3'→5'.)

104)

Solution - 1

105) NCERT Pg. No. 81

106)

Solution - 4 (Half of the number contain no radioacitivity)

107) Total base pairs in E. coli = 4.6 ×106 base pairs

Time for replication = 18 minutes = 1080 seconds
In E. coli, replication occurs from two replication forks that move in opposite directions.
Thus, the total number of base pairs replicated is divided between the two forks.
Correct Calculation:
The total base pairs replicated by both replication forks is 4.6 × 106 base pairs, but each
fork replicates half of this.
So, each replication fork replicates:

base pairs
Now, we calculate the rate for each replication fork:

Rate of polymerization (for one fork) = base pairs/second

Rounding this to the closest option, we get approximately 2000 base pairs/second.

108) SOLUTION:-
Length of DNA = (Number of base pairs)×(Distance between two consecutive base pairs)
Length of DNA = 6.6 ×109 bp × 0.34 × 10-9 m = 2.24meters
length of the DNA is approximately 2.2 meters.

109) NCERT XII Pg # 106

110)

Solution - 2 (Three)

111)

Solution - 3 (Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.)

112)

Solution - 3 (Both Assertion and Reason are correct, and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.)

113) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 83

114)

Solution - 1 (It should be unstable structurally and chemically )

115)

Solution - 2 (60 cells)

116) NCERT-XII-Page No. # 99 (E), 109 (H)

117)

Solution - 4 (All the above)

118) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 105

119)

Solution - 1 (Phospho diester bond)

120) NCERT-XII Pg#103

121) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 84

122) NCERT Pg. # 81, 90

123) NCERT, Pg # 91(E), 100(H)

124) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 85

125)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 81

126) NCERT-XII Page No. : 100

127)

Solution - 2 (In a typical nucleosome 200 bp are found)

128)

Solution - (b) and (c)

129)

Solution - 4 (removal of the 5'-phosphate group from cytidylic acid yields cytidine)

130) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 83, 84

131)

Solution - 1 (DNA replication does not require any energy)

132) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 90

133)

Solution - 4 (B,D,C )

134)
Solution - 2 (GTACCTGTACTC)

135)

Solution - 1

136)

Solution - 4 ((A) is false but (R) is true)

137)

Solution - When HIV replicates rapidly in helper T-lymphocytes and damages large number of
these cells.

138)

(a) Allergy — IgE

(b) Passive immunity — IgA
(c) Vaccines — Recombinant DNA technology
(d) Auto-immune diseases — Rheumatoid arthritis

139)

NCERT XII Pg. # 158, 159 (E)

140)

Solution - 4

141) Explanation:
IgG is the most abundant antibody in the blood and plays a crucial role in the body's immune
response. After the first exposure to an antigen, the body produces IgM initially, and on
subsequent exposure, IgG levels increase significantly in what is called the "secondary
immune response." This makes IgG a key player in long-term immunity and memory.

The correct match with respect to the type of antibody and its function is: (4) IgG:
Number rises dramatically on subsequent exposure to antigen in secondary response

142)

Solution - 2

143) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 152, Para-8.2.4

144) Solution - A, B, C only

145) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 149

146)

Explain Question : The figure shows the mode of action of the AIDS virus. Identify steps A–E.
Concept : This question is based on AIDS.
Explanation : In retroviruses (like HIV), the genetic material is RNA, which is reverse-
transcribed into DNA inside the host cell.
Steps:

A. Viral RNA enters the host cell (A).

B. Reverse transcriptase forms viral DNA (B).

C. Viral DNA gets incorporated into the host genome (C).

D. Host machinery produces new viral RNA (D).

E. Viral particles assemble and new viruses are produced (E).

Final answer : 3

147)

Solution - 1 (Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.)

148)

Solution - Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

149)

Solution - 4 All of the above

150)

Solution - 3

151)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 147-149(E), 158-161(H)

152)

Solution - 3 (BCG vaccine is a 2nd generation vaccine)

153)

Solution - 4

154)

Solution - 2 (Arbovirus, Toga virus)

155)

Solution - 2 (b, d and e)

156)

Solution - 2 ((i) increases, (ii) CO, haembound oxygen, (iii) brain, (iv) sedative, painkiller, (v)
latex)

157)

Solution - 2

158)

Solution - Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

159)

Solution - 4 (B - Shows adhesion of monocyte due to decreased rate of blood flow)

160)

Solution - 4 (Maturation of lymphocytes occur in secondary lymphoid organs)

161)

This is a question about the anatomy of an antibody and its interaction with an antigen. Let's
break down the labels and the concepts:
• Antigen: A substance that triggers an immune response. In the image, the circle with a
bumpy surface represents the antigen.
• A (Red portion on the antigen): Epitope - This is the specific part of the antigen that the
antibody recognizes and binds to. It's also known as the antigenic determinant.
• B (Part of the antibody binding to the antigen): Paratope - This is the part of the antibody
 that binds to the antigen. It's located on the antibody's Fab (fragment antigen-binding) region.
Think of it like the "lock" on the antibody that fits the "key" (epitope) on the antigen.
• C (Short portion of the antibody): Light Chain - Antibodies are composed of two types of
chains: heavy chains and light chains. The light chain is the smaller of the two and contributes
to the overall structure and antigen-binding ability of the antibody.
• D (Long portion of the antibody): Heavy Chain - The heavy chain is the larger of the two
chains in an antibody. It determines the antibody's class (e.g., lgM, lgG, lgA, lgD, lgE) and also
contributes to antigen binding.
Therefore, the correct answer is Option 3:
A = Epitope of antigen
B = Paratope of antibody
C = Light chain
D = Heavy chain

162)

(2) Skin Tear W.B.C

163) A. Rhinovirus, Nose and respiratory passage but not lungs

B. Ringworms
C. Haemophilus influenzae, Alveoli of lungs D. Female Culex mosquito

164) Explanation :
Option 3: B = Secondary immune response based on Memory of immune system: The curve 'B'
clearly shows the characteristics of a secondary immune response - a faster and stronger
antibody production upon re-exposure to the same antigen, which is indeed based on the
memory cells generated during the primary response. So, this option is correct.

Therefore, the correct match is: 3. B = Secondary immune response based on Memory
of immune system

165) NCERT (XII) E Pg. # 150

166)
 167)

3 Ethyl alcohol Liver Acetaldehyde

168)

(B) Cancer in epithelial tissue of internal organs and glands is referred as carcinoma
(D) Cancer cells does not shows the property of contact inhibition

169)

(4) (a) Morphine Papaver somniferum Sedative and pain killer

170) Explanation :

A. Symptoms : Slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs.

B. Caused by Wuchereria malayi.
C. This is correct; Wuchereria malayi causes filariasis, and it leads chronic inflammation.

Thus, the correct option is: 3.

171) NCERT, Pg. # 130,131,133

172) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 141

173)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 134, 135

174)
Solution - 3

175) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 134 to 136

176) NCERT, Pg. # 144

177) Solution - A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

178) NCERT Pg. # 63

179)

NCERT-XII (E) Pg#137,138

180)

NCERT-XII (E) Pg#135, fig. 7.4