HISTORY

Q1. Which architectural style is best described by c) He was honoured with the prestigious title 'Order of
the following features: ribbed vaults, pointed arches, the rising sun'.
flying buttresses, and stained-glass windows? d) He was independent India's first
Commander-in-Chief of Indian Army.
a) Mughal
b) Deccan Correct Answer - d) He was independent India's
c) Indo-Islamic first Commander-in-Chief of Indian Army.
d) Gothic

Correct Answer - d) Gothic Q7. Which confederation of Sultanates defeated the

Vijayanagara Empire in the Battle of Talikota?
Q2. Which Rajput ruler defeated Muhammad Ghori a) Rajput Confederacy
in the First Battle of Tarain? b) Mughal Empire
c) Bahmani Sultanate
a) Hem Chandra Vikramaditya
d) Deccan Sultanates
b) Rana Sanga
c) Bappa Rawal Correct Answer - d) Deccan Sultanates
d) Prithviraj Chauhan

Correct Answer - d) Prithviraj Chauhan Q8. Which temple, built by the Chandela dynasty in
the 10th–11th centuries, is known for its exquisite
Q3. Which Mughal Emperor issued the Deccan sculptures?
campaign against the Marathas and spent a) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple
significant time in the region? b) Brihadeeswarar Temple
c) Sun Temple, Modhera
a) Shah Jahan
d) Lingaraja Temple
b) Aurangzeb
c) Jahangir Correct Answer - a) Kandariya Mahadeva Temple
d) Akbar

Correct Answer - b) Aurangzeb Q9. Which Pratihara ruler successfully repelled Arab
invasions in North-Western India?
C H APTE R 1
Q4. Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire? a) Mihira Bhoja
a) Harshavardhana b) Nagabhata I
b) Chandragupta Maurya c) Rajyapala
c) Ashoka d) Vatsaraja
d) Bindusara Correct Answer - b) Nagabhata I
Correct Answer - b) Chandragupta Maurya
Q10. In the context of Mughal administration, who
Q5. Which of the following is considered the oldest were referred to as Shaikhzadas or Hindustanis?
known civilization of the Indian subcontinent? a) Central Asian nobles of Turkic origin serving the
a) Gupta Empire Mughals
b) Maurya Civilization b) Rajput converts elevated to noble ranks for loyalty
c) Indus Valley Civilization c) Persian-trained officers recruited from Safavid Iran
d) Vedic Civilization d) Indigenous Muslims who held administrative posts
under Mughal rule
Correct Answer - c) Indus Valley Civilization
Correct Answer - d) Indigenous Muslims who held
administrative posts under Mughal rule
Q6. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE
about Rash Behari Bose?
Q11. Which of the following correctly pairs a
a) He founded Indian Independence League in Tokyo
monument with its architectural style?
in 1942.
b) He was an important figure in the Ghadar Movement a) Khajuraho Temples – French
and in the formation of the Azad Hind Fauj. b) Qutub Minar – Indo-Islamic
c) India Gate – Rajput

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 d) Lotus Temple – Mughal Q16. The Battle of Samugarh was fought between
Aurangzeb and which Mughal prince?
Correct Answer - b) Qutub Minar – Indo-Islamic
a) Jahangir
b) Murad Baksh
Q12. Who among the following is related to the
c) Shah Jahan
Parakram Diwas?
d) Dara Shikoh
a) Subhash Bose
b) Azad Correct Answer - d) Dara Shikoh
c) Mahatma Gandhi
d) Bhagat Singh Q17. In which country, the first Commonwealth
Games held?
Correct Answer - a) Subhash Bose
a) France
b) Africa
Q13. Which Mauryan ruler is credited with the
c) India
establishment of the spy system in his empire?
d) Canada
a) Bindusara
b) Brihadratha Correct Answer - d) Canada
c) Ashoka
d) Chandragupta Maurya Q18. Which Chola ruler is credited with the
construction of irrigation systems to support
Correct Answer - d) Chandragupta Maurya
agriculture?
a) Raja Raja Chola I
Q14. Which Pala ruler is known for founding the
b) Rajendra Chola I
great Buddhist university at Vikramashila?
c) Kulottunga Chola I
a) Dharmapala d) Aditya Chola I
b) Mahipala
c) Gopala Correct Answer - b) Rajendra Chola I
d) Devapala
Q19. Which of the following methods was used by
Correct Answer - a) Dharmapala
the villagers during the Chipko Movement?
a) Violent protests
Q15. Which of the following best captures the
b) Hugging trees to prevent cutting
broader geopolitical shift triggered by the decisive
c) Filing lawsuits against companies
defeat of the Nawab of Carnatic’s forces in their
d) Burning forest areas
confrontation with European powers?
a) It revealed systemic vulnerabilities in native military Correct Answer - b) Hugging trees to prevent
structures, prompting European companies to cutting
transition from trade to political hegemony.
b) It disillusioned European companies, resulting in a Q20. Which Mughal emperor did Maharana Pratap
strategic withdrawal from inland military affairs. face in the Battle of Haldighati?
c) It consolidated indigenous authority, forcing
a) Akbar
European traders into commercial treaties under local
b) Babur
oversight.
c) Aurangzeb
d) It established a stable dual-administrative system
d) Jahangir
between Indian principalities and foreign chartered
companies. Correct Answer - a) Akbar

Correct Answer - a) It revealed systemic

vulnerabilities in native military structures, prompting Q21. Shobhana Ranade’s legacy as a Gandhian is
European companies to transition from trade to most closely aligned with which contemporary
political hegemony. governance initiative?
a) Startup India
b) National Education Policy 2020
c) Gaganyaan Mission

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 d) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan Correct Answer - c) He was awarded Padma
Vibhushan for his social service.
Correct Answer - d) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan

Q27. How did the administrative roles of rajas differ

Q22. Prime Minister Narendra Modi paid tribute to
from those of zamindars under the Mughal system?
Mahatma Jyotiba Phule on his birth anniversary.
Phule is best known for his contributions to which of a) Zamindars were subordinate tax officers under the
the following? rajas, appointed directly by the emperor.
b) Rajas and zamindars performed identical roles but
a) Agriculture and commerce
differed in their religious affiliations.
b) Industry and infrastructure
c) Rajas governed broader regions and held a higher
c) Military and diplomacy
status, while zamindars primarily managed land
d) Social Reform and Anti-Caste Movement
revenue collection.
Correct Answer - d) Social Reform and Anti-Caste d) Zamindars exercised complete political control,
Movement whereas rajas held only ceremonial titles.

Correct Answer - c) Rajas governed broader

Q23. Which Maratha ruler founded the Maratha regions and held a higher status, while zamindars
Empire in 1674, proclaiming himself Chhatrapati? primarily managed land revenue collection.
a) Sambhaji
b) Shahu Q28. Which of the following pairs is correctly
c) Shivaji matched?
d) Bajirao I
a) Mission Shakti - Startup grants for rural men
Correct Answer - c) Shivaji b) PM-AAGY - Railway safety in backward areas
c) Swadesh Darshan 2.0 - Theme-based tourism
Q24. Sattriya, one of the classical dances of India, circuits
was introduced by which saint? d) PM-JANMAN - Urban housing for tribals

a) Sankardev Correct Answer - c) Swadesh Darshan 2.0 -

b) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu Theme-based tourism circuits
c) Kabir
d) Tulsidas Q29. With whose participation did the Anushilan
Correct Answer - a) Sankardev group join forces when the Bengal Congress broke
up into two factions after the death of CR Das?
Q25. Who was the first woman to be the president of a) Ganesh Ghosh
the Indian National Congress? b) Surya Sen
c) JM Sengupta
a) Kasturba Gandhi
d) Subhash Bose
b) Kamala Nehru
c) Annie Besant Correct Answer - c) JM Sengupta
d) Sarojini Naidu

Correct Answer - c) Annie Besant Q30. What was the main occupation of the majority
of the Indian population during the period
immediately after independence (around 1947)?
Q26. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about
Tribhuvandas Patel? a) Agriculture
b) Information Technology
a) He was the founder of the Kaira Milk Union (Amul).
c) Manufacturing
b) Lok Sabha has passed a bill to setup Tribhuvan
d) Services
Sahkari University in Gujarat.
c) He was awarded Padma Vibhushan for his social Correct Answer - a) Agriculture
service.
d) He was awarded Ramon Magsaysay award for Q31. The Vesara style of temple architecture is a
community leadership.
combination of which two styles?

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 a) Gandhara and French Correct Answer - a) It follows the lunar calendar
b) Nagara and Gothic and marks the saint’s death.
c) Dravidian and Nagara
d) Mughal and Dravidian Q36. Which Chola ruler is credited with the
Correct Answer - c) Dravidian and Nagara extensive overseas expedition to Southeast Asia,
particularly against the Srivijaya Empire?
a) Rajendra I
Q32. Whom Hiuen Tsang called 'one of the four
b) Kulothunga I
lights of world', who's also called Indian Einstein?
c) Vijayalaya Chola
a) Charak d) Rajaraja I
b) Vasumitra
c) Ashvaghosha Correct Answer - d) Rajaraja I
d) Nagarjuna

Correct Answer - d) Nagarjuna Q37. Name the Mughal emperor known for
promoting Persian art and literature?
a) Humayun
Q33. Who was the leader that defeated
b) Shah Jahan
Krishnadevaraya of Vijayanagara in the Battle of
c) Akbar
Raichur?
d) Jahangir
a) Alauddin Khilji
b) Ahmed Shah Bahmani Correct Answer - a) Humayun
c) Ibrahim Lodi
d) Adil Shah of Bijapur Q38. Which Mughal emperor is known for his
Correct Answer - d) Adil Shah of Bijapur extensive autobiography, Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri?
a) Jahangir
b) Akbar
Q34. Assertion: British capital accumulation in the
c) Shah Jahan
18th century was reinvested in industrial
d) Aurangzeb
development.
Reason: The capital was largely controlled by Correct Answer - a) Jahangir
merchants and industrialists instead of the feudal
aristocracy. Q39. Which Mughal ruler shifted his capital from
Choose the correct option: Agra to Fatehpur Sikri?
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R a) Akbar
is not the correct explanation of A. b) Shah Jahan
b) A is false, but R is true. c) Aurangzeb
c) A is true, but R is false. d) Jahangir
d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R
is the correct explanation of A. Correct Answer - a) Akbar

Correct Answer - d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason

Q40. Which Chola king built the Brihadeeswarar
(R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Temple at Thanjavur?
a) Rajendra Chola I
Q35. Which of the following statements is correct
b) Rajadhiraja Chola
about Urs at Ajmer Sharif?
c) I Vijayalaya Chola
a) It follows the lunar calendar and marks the saint’s d) Raja Raja Chola I
death.
b) It is celebrated annually based on the solar
Correct Answer - d) Raja Raja Chola I
calendar.
c) It marks the birth anniversary of Khwaja Moinuddin Q41. Who among the following freedom fighters was
Chishti. associated with the slogan ‘Do or Die’?
d) It is held only once every five years during Ramzan. a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

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 d) Subhash Chandra Bose c) C. Rajagopalachari
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Correct Answer - a) Mahatma Gandhi
Correct Answer - c) C. Rajagopalachari
Q42. Who founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj in
1873? Q48. The first Anglo-Mysore War (1767–69) was
a) Jyotiba Phule fought between the British and whom?
b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy a) Hyder Ali
c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar b) Tipu Sultan
d) MG Ranade c) Marthanda Varma
d) Peshwa Madhavrao I
Correct Answer - a) Jyotiba Phule
Correct Answer - a) Hyder Ali
Q43. Which Governor-General introduced the
Subsidiary Alliance system? Q49. Assertion (A): The naming of "Good Friday" as
a) Lord Cornwallis a positive term is universally accepted among
b) Lord Wellesley Christian scholars and traditions.
c) Lord Hastings Reason (R): The day is termed "Good" to signify the
d) Lord Dalhousie positive theological meaning of Jesus's sacrificial
death.
Correct Answer - b) Lord Wellesley
Choose the correct option:
a) Both A and R are false
Q44. Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of
b) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
Jallianwala Bagh massacre (1919)? explanation of A
a) Lord Hardinge c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
b) Lord Chelmsford explanation of A
c) Lord Irwin d) A is false, but R is true
d) Lord Reading
Correct Answer - d) A is false, but R is true
Correct Answer - b) Lord Chelmsford
Q50. Given below are the two columns. Column A
Q45. Who composed the famous patriotic song consists of Events or terms and column B consist of
‘Vande Mataram’? correct descriptions. Match the column A with
a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee correct description in Column B
b) Rabindranath Tagore Column A Column B
c) Sarojini Naidu A. Anglo-Russian rivalry 1. Opened Sindh's rivers
d) Mahatma Gandhi and roads to British trade
B. Subsidiary Treaty 2. Forced on the Amirs of
Correct Answer - a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
1839 Sindh before annexation.
C. Sir Charles Napier 3. Had commercial value;
Q46. Who among the following was associated with attracted British interest.
the Home Rule Movement? D. River Sindh 4. Led military campaign to
a) Annie Besant annex Sindh; called it a
b) CR Das 'rascality.'
c) MG Ranade E. Treaty of 1832 5. Led Britain to expand
d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy influence in Afghanistan
Correct Answer - a) Annie Besant and Persia
a) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-1
Q47. Who was the first Governor-General of b) A-1, B-5, C-2, D-4, E-3
independent India? c) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1, E-5
d) A-4, B-1, C-5, D-2, E-3
a) Lord Mountbatten
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad Correct Answer - a) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-1

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 Q51. In the following questions, a statement of Q54. Which of the following statements is/are
Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason correct regarding the regional features of Gujarat's
(R). Select the correct option from the following medieval architecture?
Assertion (A): Rows of circular brick platforms at 1. Architectural forms in Gujarat often incorporated
Harappa were used for religious ceremonies. elements from local temple traditions.
Reason (R): These platforms were found to contain 2. Structures such as mosques and tombs in
wheat and barley grains. Gujarat featured ornamental carvings like toranas
a) Both A and R are false and bell motifs.
b) Both A and R are true, and R explains A 3. Gujarat's architectural style strictly avoided any
c) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A decorative influence from indigenous practices.
d) A is false, but R is true a) Only 1
b) 2 and 3 Only
Correct Answer - d) A is false, but R is true
c) All 1, 2, and 3 are correct
d) 1 and 2 Only
Q52. Read the following statements carefully and
choose the correct option: Correct Answer - d) 1 and 2 Only
Assertion (A): The jaherthan plays a central role in
the sacrificial rituals of Erok Sim. Q55. Given below are assertion and reason, read
Reason (R): The jaherthan is a sacred grove the statements and choose the correct
believed to be inhabited by spirits, including option.
Jaherera, the Lady of the Sacred Grove. Assertion: British capital accumulation in the 18th
a) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A. century was reinvested in industrial development.
b) Both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains Reason: The capital was largely controlled by
A. merchants and industrialists instead of the feudal
c) A is correct, but R is incorrect. aristocracy.
d) A is incorrect, but R is correct. a) A is true, but R is false.
Correct Answer - b) Both A and R are correct, and b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R
is not the correct explanation of A.
R correctly explains A.
c) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is
the correct explanation of A.
Q53. Consider the following statements about d) A is false, but R is true.
Udayagiri and Khandagiri caves:
1. These caves are near Bhubaneswar and were Correct Answer - c) Both Assertion (A) and Reason
meant for Jain monks. (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. All caves are shaped like flowers and
are carved from independent boulders. Q56. Consider the following statements comparing
3. Each cave has multiple shrines dedicated to the Simon Commission (1927) and the Nehru
different Buddhist deities. Report (1928):
Which of the above is/are correct? 1. The Simon Commission was boycotted by Indian
a) Only 1 political parties primarily due to its all-Indian
b) All 1, 2, and 3 are correct composition.
c) 1 and 2 Only 2. The Nehru Report proposed complete
d) 2 and 3 Only independence for India as its immediate objective.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Correct Answer - a) Only 1
a) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) Both 1 and 2

Correct Answer - a) Neither 1 nor 2

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 Q57. Match the following cave sites with their Q60. Given below are assertion and reason,
architectural characteristics: read the statements and choose the correct
Column A Column B option.
A. Udayagiri 1. Circular caitya with stüpa and Assertion: The Treaty of Paris (1763) limited
arch French settlements in India to trading posts
B. Guntapalle 2. Pillared veranda with cells at only.
the back Reason: The French could no longer station
C. Khandagiri 3. Animal-shaped single rock troops or fortify their factories after the treaty.
excavations
a) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
a) A-3, B-1, C-2 b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
b) A-1, B-2, C-3 true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
c) A-2, B-1, C-3 c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A-1, B-3, C-2 d) A is false, but R is true.
Correct Answer - d) A-1, B-3, C-2
Correct Answer - b) Both Assertion (A) and
Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct
Q58. Assertion(A): Sir Charles Napier justified the explanation of A.
annexation of Sindh on moral and legal
grounds.
Reason(R): He described it as a “useful humane
piece of rascality.”
Choose the correct option:
a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R
is the correct explanation of A.
b) A is true, but R is false.
c) A is false, but R is true.
d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R
is not the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer - c) A is false, but R is true.

Q59. Assertion (A): The Santhal festival of Erok Sim

marks the end of the agricultural season.
Reason (R): The Magh Sim festival expresses
gratitude for the harvest and prepares for a new
cycle.
Choose the correct option:
a) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
b) Both A and R are correct, and R correctly explains
A.
OFFICIAL
c) Both A and R are correct, but R does not explain A.
d) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

Correct Answer - a) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

TGPASS
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 POLITY
Q1. Which of the following is a subject under the Correct Answer - a) Permitting collection of
State List? biometric and biological data
a) Banking
b) Public Order Q6. Under which article can the President declare a
c) Defence National Emergency?
d) Education a) Article 360
Correct Answer - b) Public Order b) Article 356
c) Article 352
d) Article 365
Q2. How does Article 356 impact the federal
structure of India? Correct Answer - c) Article 352
a) It ensures judicial independence
b) It promotes decentralization Q7. Which of the following commissions is NOT a
c) It allows Centre to dismiss State governments statutory body in India?
d) It enforces cooperative federalism a) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
Correct Answer - c) It allows Centre to dismiss b) National Human Rights Commission
State governments c) National Commission for Farmers
d) National Commission for Women

Q3. The Vice-President of India is part of which Correct Answer - c) National Commission for
branch of the government? Farmers
a) Legislative only
b) Executive only Q8. Which schedule of the Constitution contains
c) Judicial only provisions for the disqualification of legislators under
d) Both Executive and Legislative the anti-defection law?
Correct Answer - d) Both Executive and Legislative a) Ninth Schedule
b) Eleventh Schedule
c) Tenth Schedule
Q4. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched
d) Eighth Schedule
with respect to the Schedules of the Indian
Constitution? Correct Answer - c) Tenth Schedule
a) Eleventh Schedule - Powers and responsibilities of
Panchayats Q9. Which principle of the Digital Personal Data
b) Twelfth Schedule - Election of President and Protection Act, 2023 ensures that entities collecting
Vice-President personal data must obtain explicit consent from
c) Tenth Schedule - Languages recognised by the individuals?
Constitution
a) Purpose Limitation
d) Ninth Schedule - Allocation of powers between
b) Storage Reduction Compliance
Union and States
c) Data Localization
Correct Answer - a) Eleventh Schedule - Powers d) Notice and Choice Framework
and responsibilities of Panchayats
Correct Answer - d) Notice and Choice Framework

Q5. Which of the following powers granted under the

Q10. Which of the following was a major effect of
Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022
the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
extends beyond the scope of its predecessor, the
a) It abolished the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Identification of Prisoners Act, 1920?
b) It increased the tenure of the Lok Sabha and
a) Permitting collection of biometric and biological data introduced Fundamental Duties
b) Restricting identification procedures only to convicts c) It introduced Fundamental Rights for citizens.
c) Limiting law enforcement access to stored data d) It reduced the term of the Lok Sabha to four years
d) Allowing only fingerprints for crime investigation
Correct Answer - b) It increased the tenure of the
Lok Sabha and introduced Fundamental Duties

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 Q11. Which constitutional amendment is known as Reason (R): It aims to reduce case pendency.
the "Mini Constitution"? a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
a) 52nd Amendment explanation of A
b) 44th Amendment b) A is false, but R is true
c) 42nd Amendment c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
d) 24th Amendment explanation of A
d) A is true, but R is false
Correct Answer - c) 42nd Amendment
Correct Answer - a) Both A and R are true, and R
is the correct explanation of A
Q12. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct regarding the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
(BNS)? Q17. What was the role of the University Grants
Commission (UGC), established in 1956?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only a) To regulate trade agreements
c) 2 and 3 only b) To promote agricultural development
d) 1, 2, and 3 all are correct c) To manage industrial policies
d) To oversee and fund higher education institutions in
Correct Answer - b) 1 and 3 only
India

Correct Answer - d) To oversee and fund higher

Q13. Which of these is not a feature of Indian
education institutions in India
federalism?
a) Independent Judiciary
Q18. Which level of the Panchayati Raj system
b) Written Constitution
c) Dual Citizenship operates at the village level?
d) Division of Powers a) Panchayat Samiti
b) Zila Parishad
Correct Answer - c) Dual Citizenship
c) Gram Panchayat
d) Gram Sabha
Q14. Which of the following statements based on
Correct Answer - c) Gram Panchayat
the Union List entries is/are correct?
a) Only 1, 3, and 4
Q19. Which body is responsible for resolving
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 4 disputes related to the election of the President of
d) All four statements 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct India?
a) Election Commission
Correct Answer - a) Only 1, 3, and 4
b) Supreme Court
c) Lok Sabha
Q15. Read the statements given below: d) Rajya Sabha
1) The Constitution divides legislative subjects into 3
Correct Answer - b) Supreme Court
lists;
2) 'Protection of wild animals and birds' shifted to
Concurrent list; Q20. What is the role of the Foreigners’ Tribunal in
3) Only Parliament can make laws on Concurrent the NRC process?
List. Which is correct? a) To conduct the Census
a) Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct b) To issue voter ID cards
b) All three statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) To deport illegal immigrants
c) Only Statement 2 is correct d) To verify citizenship claims of individuals excluded
d) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct from the NRC

Correct Answer - d) Only Statements 1 and 2 are Correct Answer - d) To verify citizenship claims of
correct individuals excluded from the NRC

Q16. Assertion (A): The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha

Sanhita, 2023, promotes e-filing and virtual trials.

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 Q21. Which of the following North-Eastern states
has areas governed under the Sixth Schedule? Q26. What is the role of National Parks under the
a) Tripura Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
b) Manipur a) To promote tourism
c) Nagaland b) To protect wildlife and their habitats
d) Arunachal Pradesh c) To regulate trade
Correct Answer - a) Tripura d) To oversee elections

Correct Answer - b) To protect wildlife and their

Q22. What is the punishment for abetment of an habitats
offense under the POCSO Act?
a) Same punishment as the offense Q27. If a soldier fires on a mob by order of his
b) Half the punishment prescribed superior officer, in conformity with the law. Has he
c) No punishment committed an offence?
d) Community service a) Yes, because he could have disobeyed
Correct Answer - a) Same punishment as the b) Yes, because violence is punishable
offense c) No, because he followed public orders
d) No, because he believed in good faith he was bound
by law
Q23. Which of the following bodies has the power to
create new All-India Services? Correct Answer - d) No, because he believed in
a) President of India by order good faith he was bound by law
b) Union Cabinet
c) Prime Minister with CMs' consent Q28. Who headed the Credentials Committee in the
d) Parliament with Rajya Sabha special majority Constituent Assembly?
Correct Answer - d) Parliament with Rajya Sabha a) Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar
special majority b) T.T. Krishnamachari
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) K.M. Munshi
Q24. Which is correctly matched with their
leadership role in the Constituent Assembly? Correct Answer - a) Alladi Krishnaswamy Aiyar
a) G.V. Mavalankar – Chairman of the Committee on
Functions of Constituent Assembly Q29. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha as
b) Dr. Ambedkar – Head of the Committee on stipulated by the Constitution is:
Functions a) 530 members
c) N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar – Chairman of Order of b) 552 members
Business Committee c) 550 members
d) K.M. Munshi – Leader of Fundamental Rights d) 545 members
Committee
Correct Answer - b) 552 members
Correct Answer - a) G.V. Mavalankar – Chairman
of the Committee on Functions of Constituent
Q30. Which Article provides for the appointment of
Assembly
Governors in India?
a) Article 170
Q25. According to the Constitution of India, what is
b) Article 154
the quorum required to constitute a meeting of either
c) Article 155
House of Parliament?
d) Article 168
a) One-third of total members
b) Fifty in LS & 25 in RS Correct Answer - c) Article 155
c) One-tenth of total members
d) One-fourth of total members Q31. Identify the following constitutional attributes
with their democratic values: Fundamental Duties,
Correct Answer - c) One-tenth of total members
Equal voting rights, Local self-government,

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 Religious freedom. Correct Answer - b) Affidavits before court officer
a) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
b) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv Q37. Statements:
c) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii 1) Land & agriculture fall under State List
d) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i 2) Marriage & adoption under Concurrent List.
Correct Answer - c) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii Which is correct?
a) Only Statement I
Q32. What is the role of the Speaker in case of a b) Only Statement II
c) Both statements I and II
tied vote in the Lok Sabha?
d) Neither statement I nor II
a) Decides based on personal preference
b) Votes to break the tie Correct Answer - c) Both statements I and II
c) Does not participate
d) Refers the decision to the President Q38. How did the Medical Termination of Pregnancy
Correct Answer - b) Votes to break the tie (Amendment) Act, 2021 extend the legal abortion
framework in India?

Q33. Which constitutional features in India are a) Increased gestational limit to 24 weeks for special
linked to the Australian Constitution? cases
b) Restricted abortion access to married women
a) Freedom of trade and commerce
c) Allowed termination solely by doctors' discretion
b) Joint sitting of the two Houses
d) Made abortion legal up to 30 weeks
c) Federal structure with strong Centre
d) Advisory jurisdiction of SC Correct Answer - a) Increased gestational limit to
24 weeks for special cases
Correct Answer - b) Joint sitting of the two Houses

Q39. The new criminal laws aim to replace

Q34. Under which ministry does the National
British-era laws with a focus on:
Productivity Council operate?
a) Political advantages
a) Ministry of Education
b) Religious governance
b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
c) Corporate laws
c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
d) Justice delivery and citizen rights
d) Ministry of Agriculture
Correct Answer - d) Justice delivery and citizen
Correct Answer - b) Ministry of Commerce and
rights
Industry

Q40. Under Chapter V of the Bharatiya Sakshya

Q35. Which Article of the Constitution deals with the
Adhiniyam, 2023, which qualifies as primary
extent of executive power of the Union?
evidence?
a) Article 78
a) A counterpart document executed by a party
b) Article 75
b) A photocopy of the document
c) Article 52
c) A handwritten summary
d) Article 73
d) A typed copy of the original
Correct Answer - d) Article 73
Correct Answer - a) A counterpart document
executed by a party
Q36. As per Chapter I of the Bharatiya Sakshya
Adhiniyam, 2023, which of the following is not
Q41. Which body has the power to amend Union
applicable under the Act?
and State power distribution under the Constitution?
a) Hearings before a District Magistrate
a) Supreme Court
b) Affidavits before court officer
b) Lok Sabha
c) Trials before Military Court
c) State Legislature
d) Proceedings before Civil Judge Court
d) Parliament

Correct Answer - d) Parliament

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 a) 44th Amendment
Q42. All-India Services are common to Union & b) 42nd Amendment
states; Controlled by state governments only. Which c) 86th Amendment
is true? d) 97th Amendment
a) Both 1 and 2 Correct Answer - c) 86th Amendment
b) Only 2
c) Neither 1 nor 2
Q48. According to Section 21 of BNSS 2023, which
d) Only 1
is correct regarding trial of offences under Sections
Correct Answer - d) Only 1 64–71 of BNS?
a) By DSP & above
Q43. Who among the following is the final interpreter b) Only in High Court under male judge
of the Indian Constitution? c) Exclusively by Executive Magistrates
a) President d) Preferably by woman presiding judge
b) Prime Minister Correct Answer - d) Preferably by woman presiding
c) Supreme Court judge
d) Parliament

Correct Answer - c) Supreme Court Q49. Which entities are eligible to register under the
FCRA?
Q44. Which of the following accurately describes the a) Political parties
statutory responsibilities of the Lokpal? b) Government departments
a) Report to President & Parliament c) Only private companies
b) Operates under PMO d) Section 8 companies, trusts, and societies
c) Reports to Election Commission Correct Answer - d) Section 8 companies, trusts,
d) Constitutional body making final judgments and societies
Correct Answer - a) Report to President &
Parliament Q50. Who was the Chairman of the 'Advisory
Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and
Q45. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, what is Tribal and Excluded Areas'?
the punishment for mob lynching? a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
a) House arrest b) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Fine only c) K.M. Munshi
c) Life imprisonment or death penalty d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d) No punishment Correct Answer - a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Correct Answer - c) Life imprisonment or death
penalty Q51. Emoluments, allowances, and privileges of
constitutional officeholders are governed under
Q46. Which statement is correct in the context of which Schedule?
constitutional interpretation? a) Fifth Schedule
a) Basic structure is defined under Art. 368 b) Seventh Schedule
b) Judiciary follows only text c) Eleventh Schedule
c) Basic structure doctrine by SC to protect d) Second Schedule
Constitution Correct Answer - d) Second Schedule
d) Parliament can repeal judicial principles

Correct Answer - c) Basic structure doctrine by SC Q52. What is the maximum time limit for completing
to protect Constitution the trial of a case under the POCSO Act?
a) 6 months
Q47. Which Constitutional Amendment made the b) 3 years
Right to Education a Fundamental Right? c) 2 years

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 d) 1 year Q58. What major reform does Bharatiya Sakshya
Adhiniyam bring?
Correct Answer - d) 1 year
a) Digitization of evidence
b) New fundamental rights
Q53. Which discretionary power allows a Governor
c) Abolishment of SC
to reserve a bill for the consideration of the
d) Removal of all existing laws
President?
a) Send report for President’s Rule Correct Answer - a) Digitization of evidence
b) Reserve a bill
c) Grant pardon Q59. Kishor Makwana's appointment as Chairman
d) Summon/prorogue/dissolve assembly of NCSC is significant in which context?
Correct Answer - b) Reserve a bill a) Agricultural economic reforms
b) Political consolidation
c) Caste census leadership
Q54. Which High Court has jurisdiction over more
d) Social justice & SC policy implementation
than one state?
a) Kerala High Court Correct Answer - d) Social justice & SC policy
b) Guwahati High Court implementation
c) Delhi High Court
d) Patna High Court Q60. Arrange Fundamental Rights in order: 1.
Remedies, 2. Freedom, 3. Exploitation, 4. Equality.
Correct Answer - b) Guwahati High Court
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 3-2-1-4
Q55. Which list allows both Centre and State to
c) 4-1-3-2
legislate on the same subject?
d) 4-2-3-1
a) Reserved List
b) Union List Correct Answer - d) 4-2-3-1
c) Concurrent List
d) State List Q61. Which scheme is correctly matched with
ministry?
Correct Answer - c) Concurrent List
a) PM-JANMAN – Ministry of Rural Development
b) Samarth Scheme – Ministry of Textiles
Q56. Which is correct?
c) Mission Shakti – Ministry of Home Affairs
1) Concurrent List laws: Union law overrides state
d) PM MITRA – Ministry of Agriculture
law in conflict
2) State law prevails if reserved & assented by Correct Answer - b) Samarth Scheme – Ministry of
President. Textiles
a) Only 2
b) Only 1 Q62. Which of the following is true in relation to
c) Both 1 and 2 enforcement of President’s Rule?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Governor’s recommendation can dismiss State govt
Correct Answer - c) Both 1 and 2 b) Extended indefinitely with PM consent
c) SC permission needed
d) Without Parliament approval
Q57. Which statement is most accurate about UCC
implementation challenges? Correct Answer - a) Governor’s recommendation
a) UCC by referendum can dismiss State govt
b) Law Commission (2018) recommended UCC
c) SC declared UCC mandatory Q63. Why is Indian Constitution called
d) UCC implemented in Goa & Uttarakhand 'quasi-federal' or 'unitary in spirit'?
Correct Answer - d) UCC implemented in Goa & a) Equal representation in Rajya Sabha
Uttarakhand b) Written constitution
c) Strong centralizing powers

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 d) Independent judiciary Q69. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the
Parliament to amend the Constitution?
Correct Answer - c) Strong centralizing powers
a) Article 356
b) Article 368
Q64. The concept of DPSP in the Constitution has
c) Article 370
been borrowed from which country?
d) Article 371
a) Ireland
b) USA Correct Answer - b) Article 368
c) UK
d) Canada Q70. Which type of majority is required to amend
the federal provisions of the Constitution?
Correct Answer - a) Ireland
a) Simple Majority
b) Absolute Majority
Q65. As per BNSS 2023, what best defines
c) Special Majority and consent of States
"electronic communication"?
d) Special Majority only
a) Any info transmitted using electronic devices
b) Only secure govt video calls Correct Answer - c) Special Majority and consent
c) Telephonic conversations recorded manually of States
d) Verbal messages in written documents
Q71. Who presides over the joint sitting of both
Correct Answer - a) Any info transmitted using
Houses of Parliament?
electronic devices
a) Prime Minister
b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Q66. Which best reflects the constitutional dilemma
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
in implementing UCC?
d) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
a) UCC allows gender-based personal laws
b) UCC gives states power Correct Answer - c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
c) UCC removes all religious laws
d) UCC aligns with Art. 44 but may infringe Art. 25 Q72. Which Article of the Constitution empowers the
Supreme Court to review its own judgments?
Correct Answer - d) UCC aligns with Art. 44 but
may infringe Art. 25 a) Article 132
b) Article 137
c) Article 226
Q67. The system of federalism in India divides
d) Article 368
power between:
a) Centre and States Correct Answer - b) Article 137
b) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
c) President and Governors Q73. Which Fundamental Right was deleted by the
d) Executive and Judiciary 44th Amendment Act, 1978?
Correct Answer - a) Centre and States a) Right to Property
b) Right to Education
c) Right to Equality
Q68. The Preamble declares India as a Sovereign,
d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic. Which
terms were added by 42nd Amendment, 1976? Correct Answer - a) Right to Property
a) Socialist, Secular
b) Sovereign, Democratic Q74. What is the maximum gap allowed between
c) Republic, Democratic two sessions of Parliament?
d) Justice, Liberty a) 3 months
Correct Answer - a) Socialist, Secular b) 6 months
c) 9 months
d) 12 months

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 Correct Answer - b) 6 months a) Maharashtra
b) Gujarat
Q75. Who is the guardian of the Fundamental c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Tamil Nadu
Rights in India?
a) Prime Minister Correct Answer - b) Gujarat
b) Parliament
c) Supreme Court Q81. Which act replaces the Code of Criminal
d) Comptroller and Auditor General Procedure, 1973?
Correct Answer - c) Supreme Court a) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
b) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
c) None of the above
Q76. Which of the following pairs of newly created
d) Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam
States/Union Territories after the States
Reorganisation Act, 1956 is correctly matched? Correct Answer - a) Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha
a) Jharkhand - 2001 Sanhita
b) Uttarakhand - 1998
c) Chhattisgarh - 2000 Q82. Initially, when the ‘Constitution of India’ was
d) Telangana - 2001 adopted on 26th November 1949, how many Articles
Correct Answer - c) Chhattisgarh - 2000 and Schedules did it originally contain?
a) 284 Articles and 8 Schedules
Q77. Arrange the following Fundamental Rights in b) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules
the order of their appearance in the Constitution: 1. c) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
d) 444 Articles and 12 Schedules
Right to Freedom 2. Right to Equality 3. Right to
Freedom of Religion 4. Right against Exploitation Correct Answer - c) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 2-1-4-3 Q83. The provision for ‘Oath or Affirmation’ by
c) 2-4-1-3 members of the legislature is mentioned in which
d) 4-2-1-3 Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Correct Answer - b) 2-1-4-3 a) Second Schedule
b) Fourth Schedule
Q78. What kind of approach does the Happiness c) Fifth Schedule
d) Third Schedule
Index encourage in governance?
a) Legalistic Correct Answer - d) Third Schedule
b) Citizen-centric
c) Resource-based
d) Militaristic

Correct Answer - b) Citizen-centric OFFICIAL

Q79. Who was the Home Minister in the first cabinet
of free India?
a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b) Rajagopalachari
c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Correct Answer - d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q80. Which Indian state does S. Jaishankar

represent in the Rajya Sabha?

TGPASS
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 GEOGRAPHY
Q1. Read the following statements: b) Ganga
Statement 1: The process of vertical heating of the c) Krishna
atmosphere is known as advection. d) Cauvery
Statement 2: The transfer of heat through Correct Answer - b) Ganga
horizontal movement of air is called convection.
Statement 3: 'Loo' winds in northern India during
Q7. What shape does a population pyramid take for
summer are caused by advection.
a rapidly growing population?
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) Inverted triangle shape
a) All three statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) Circular shape
b) Statements 2 and 3 are correct
c) Triangular shape
c) Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct
d) Rectangular shape
d) Only Statement 3 is correct
Correct Answer - c) Triangular shape
Correct Answer - d) Only Statement 3 is correct

Q8. Which of the following plateaus is located in the

Q2. Name the Indian port that is the largest exporter
northeastern part of India?
of iron ore?
a) Malwa Plateau
a) Paradip Port
b) Deccan Plateau
b) Chennai Port
c) Chota Nagpur Plateau
c) Visakhapatnam Port
d) Shillong Plateau
d) Marmagao Port
Correct Answer - d) Shillong Plateau
Correct Answer - d) Marmagao Port

Q9. Which of the following is a characteristic feature

Q3. Which Indian state has the highest proportion of
of the Western Coastal Plains?
its workforce population engaged in agriculture?
a) Mangrove forests
a) Rajasthan
b) High rainfall
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) Large deltas
c) Bihar
d) Lagoons and backwaters
d) Punjab
Correct Answer - d) Lagoons and backwaters
Correct Answer - b) Uttar Pradesh

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding

Q4. Which Union Territory has the highest
the Ghaghara River system:
population density as per Census 2011?
1. The Ghaghara originates from the
a) Chandigarh Mapchachungo glacier in the Himalayas.
b) Puducherry
2. It forms a deep gorge at Shishapani before
c) Lakshadweep
entering the plains.
d) Delhi
3. It merges with the Ganga at Allahabad after
Correct Answer - d) Delhi receiving the Sarda River.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Q5. Which of the following rivers forms a delta along a) Only 1 and 3
the Eastern Coastal Plains? b) Only 1 and 2
a) Narmada c) Only 2 and 3
b) Tapi d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) Mahi Correct Answer - b) Only 1 and 2
d) Godavari

Correct Answer - d) Godavari Q11. Which of the following statements best links a
current conservation initiative for the Great Indian
Q6. Which of these rivers does not originate in the Bustard with its geographical location?
Peninsular Plateau of India? a) National Avian Research Centre in Maharashtra
a) Godavari conducted habitat simulation for GIB.

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 b) Kalyan Sanctuary in Karnataka now houses the Q16. The Alaknanda River originates from which of
largest wild GIB population. the following?
c) India's first successful artificial insemination of GIB a) Satopanth Glacier
took place in the National Breeding Centre in
b) Zemu Glacier
Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
c) Milam Glacier
d) A GIB conservation breeding centre was set up in
d) Gangotri Glacier
Kutch, Gujarat for desert climate adaptation.
Correct Answer - a) Satopanth Glacier
Correct Answer - c) India's first successful artificial
insemination of GIB took place in the National
Q17. Which of the following is NOT a primary factor
Breeding Centre in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
affecting the variation of insolation on Earth?
a) Presence of water bodies in an area
Q12. Which of the following statements are correct?
b) Rotation of the Earth on its axis
(1) Birth rate measures the number of children born
c) Transparency of the atmosphere
per 1000 people annually.
d) Angle of inclination of the Sun’s rays
(2) Pull factors include opportunities that attract
people to new regions. Correct Answer - a) Presence of water bodies in an
(3)Death rate is always higher than birth rate. area
(4) Push factors can include civil unrest and lack of
jobs. Q18. The Western Coastal Plains are narrower
a) All of the above compared to the Eastern Coastal Plains because:
b) 2 and 3 only a) They receive less rainfall
c) 1, 2, and 4 only b) They are less populated
d) 1 and 3 only c) They are older in formation
Correct Answer - c) 1, 2, and 4 only d) They are bordered by the Western Ghats

Correct Answer - d) They are bordered by the

Q13. Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere is Western Ghats
primarily responsible for absorbing ultraviolet
radiation from the Sun? Q19. Name the state which is the largest producer
a) Thermosphere of lignite coal?
b) Stratosphere a) Maharashtra
c) Mesosphere b) Gujarat
d) Troposphere c) Rajasthan
Correct Answer - b) Stratosphere d) Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer - d) Tamil Nadu

Q14. Which is the largest island of India in terms of
area? Q20. Which of the following statements best
a) Rameswaram explains why certain regions exhibit high population
b) Great Nicobar Island density?
c) Sriharikota a) Regions offering fertile land, favorable climates,
d) Majuli abundant natural resources, and robust economic
Correct Answer - b) Great Nicobar Island opportunities are more likely to have high population
densities.
b) High population density is predominantly found in
Q15. Which Indian Union Territory has the most
areas with poor infrastructure and limited access to
Scheduled Castes?
essential services.
a) Delhi c) Regions with limited natural resources tend to have
b) Chandigarh Areas with scarce natural resources have higher
c) Ladakh population concentrations because of greater
d) Lakshadweep competition for few materials.
Correct Answer - a) Delhi

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 d) Areas characterized by mountainous terrain and arid c) Only 2 and 3
climates often support dense populations because of d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
their challenging living conditions.
Correct Answer - b) Only 1 and 3
Correct Answer - a) Regions offering fertile land,
favorable climates, abundant natural resources, and Q25. Read the following statements:
robust economic opportunities are more likely to Statement 1: The temperature in Troposphere
have high population densities. decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165 meters of
height.
Q21. If a person views the Earth from above the Statement 2: The temperature in mesosphere
North Pole, he will observe that the Earth rotates in: starts to decrease with the increase in altitude and
a) Anti-clockwise reaches up to –100°C at around 80 km.
b) No rotation Which of the following statements is/are correct?
c) Random spin a) Only Statement 1 is correct
d) Clockwise b) Only Statement 2 is correct
Correct Answer - a) Anti-clockwise c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
d) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect

Q22. Which Indian plateau is formed primarily by Correct Answer - b) Only Statement 2 is correct
volcanic activity?
a) Malwa Plateau Q26. The highest rainfall in India gets recorded in
b) Shillong Plateau the Khasi and Jaintia Hills. In which state will you
c) Chota Nagpur Plateau find these hills?
d) Deccan Plateau a) Meghalaya
Correct Answer - d) Deccan Plateau b) Nagaland
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Assam
Q23. Read the given below statements carefully and
choose the correct option: Correct Answer - a) Meghalaya
Assertion (A): The Chambal River is known for its
badland topography called the Chambal ravines. Q27. Name the major coal producing region located
Reason (R): The Chambal flows through a deep in Telangana state?
gorge and eroded terrain before joining the a) Singareni Coalfield
Yamuna. b) Raniganj Coalfield
a) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct c) Talcher Coalfield
explanation of A. d) Jharia Coalfield
b) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
Correct Answer - a) Singareni Coalfield
explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true. Q28. Which of the following statements is/are true
regarding India's rural and urban population trends
Correct Answer - b) Both A and R are true, and R from 1901 to 2011?
is the correct explanation of A. (1) The rural population has consistently increased
in absolute numbers.
Q24. Consider the following characteristics: 1. High (2) The percentage share of rural population in total
moisture-retaining capacity, often developing deep population has steadily declined.
cracks during dry hot weather. 2. Ideal for tea and (3) Urban population first exceeded 100 million in
apple cultivation due to high fertility and cold climate 1981.
preference. 3. Rich in lime, iron, magnesia, and a) Only 1 and 2
alumina, but poor in phosphoric contents. Which of b) All of the above
the above characteristics are primarily associated c) Only 1 and 3
with Black Soils? d) Only 2 and 3
a) Only 1
Correct Answer - b) All of the above
b) Only 1 and 3

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 Q29. Which of the following factors contributes to
Correct Answer - b) Phase III – steady decline in
the low child sex ratio in some economically
growth rate
developed Northern states of India?
1) Increased accessibility to prenatal sex-
determination methods Q34. Which of the following is an erosional landform
2) High levels of female literacy and empowerment created primarily by river action?
3) Societal preference for male children in a) Delta
inheritance and family support b) Meander
4) Strengthened enforcement of gender-equal c) Gorge
policies d) Alluvial fan

a) 2 and 3 Correct Answer - c) Gorge

b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3 Q35. Which of the following is a major port located
d) 1 and 4 in the Gulf of Kutch that is privately owned and
Correct Answer - c) 1 and 3 operated by the Adani Group?
a) Kandla
Q30. Name the state in which The Bhitarkanika b) Dahej
Mangroves are located? c) Hazira
d) Mundra Port
a) Odisha
b) Andhra Pradesh Correct Answer - d) Mundra Port
c) Tamil Nadu
d) West Bengal Q36. Assertion (A): Rural-to-urban migration is
Correct Answer - a) Odisha primarily driven by cultural differences rather than
economic factors.
Q31. Earth remote sensing satellites (EOS) are Reason (R): Cities attract migrants mainly due to
primarily designed to: higher wages, employment opportunities, and better
services.
a) Drill into Earth's crust for mineral samples
b) Monitor weather, land use, and environmental a) True, and R explains A
changes on Earth b) True, but R does not explain A
c) [blank] c) False, because economic pull factors are the main
d) [blank] drivers
d) False, because migration is random
Correct Answer - b) Monitor weather, land use, and
environmental changes on Earth Correct Answer - c) False, because economic pull
factors are the main drivers

Q32. Which of the following states has the lowest

population in India, according to the 2011 Census of Q37. Consider the following statements about the
India? evolution of India's major drainage systems:
1) The Indus and Ganga river systems have
a) Maharashtra
evolved through natural processes like river
b) Odisha
capture.
c) Punjab
2) The Ganga and Brahmaputra river systems are
d) Madhya Pradesh
part of the Himalayan drainage system.
Correct Answer - c) Punjab 3) The Brahmaputra river is part of the Western
drainage system of India.
Q33. Which of the following best describes the Which of the above statements is/are correct?
phase of India's population growth between 1951 a) Only 1
and 1981? b) Only 2
a) Phase I – stagnant growth c) Only 3
b) Phase III – steady decline in growth rate d) Only 1 and 2
c) Phase II – rapid growth due to high birth and death Correct Answer - d) Only 1 and 2
rates
d) Phase IV – declining growth rate after 2001

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 Q38. Which of the following defines “immigrants” Q43. Which state has the lowest population in India?
and “emigrants” correctly? a) Goa
a) Immigrants: People leaving a country; Emigrants: b) Sikkim
People entering a country c) Mizoram
b) Immigrants: People entering a country; Emigrants: d) Tripura
People leaving a country
Correct Answer - c) Mizoram
c) Immigrants: Citizens only; Emigrants: Foreigners
only
d) Immigrants: Refugees only; Emigrants: Tourists only Q44. Which of the following Union Territories/States
had no Scheduled Tribe population as per Census
Correct Answer - b) Immigrants: People entering a 2011?
country; Emigrants: People leaving a country
a) Chandigarh
b) Lakshadweep
Q39. The “Faint Young Sun” paradox refers to which c) Puducherry
of the following? d) Delhi
a) The early Sun was hotter, yet Earth was cold
Correct Answer - c) Puducherry
b) The early Sun was cooler, yet Venus was cold
c) The early Sun was dimmer, yet early Earth had
liquid water Q45. Which soil type is more suitable for the
d) The early Sun was dimmer, yet Mars had oceans cultivation of paddy due to its water retention
capability?
Correct Answer - c) The early Sun was dimmer, yet
a) Black soil
early Earth had liquid water
b) Alluvial soil
c) Red and Yellow soils
Q40. Read the following statements: d) Laterite soil
1) Diastrophism refers to the deformation of Earth's
crust due to internal forces. Correct Answer - c) Red and Yellow soils
2) Exogenic forces act on the Earth's surface and
include weathering and erosion. Q46. Which of the following is the primary reason for
Which of the statements is/are correct? the asymmetrical distribution of continents and
a) Only 1 oceans on Earth?
b) Only 2 a) Seafloor spreading and plate tectonics
c) Both 1 and 2 b) Random distribution of landmasses
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Gravitational pull of the Moon
d) Solar winds
Correct Answer - b) Only 2
Correct Answer - a) Seafloor spreading and plate
Q41. The Hirakud Dam is built on which river? tectonics

a) Mahanadi
b) Tapti Q47. According to the classification of modern
c) Godavari Indian languages, which linguistic family accounts
d) Narmada for the largest share of the Indian population?
a) Sino-Tibetan (Kirata)
Correct Answer - a) Mahanadi
b) Dravidian
c) Austric (Nishada)
Q42. Which of the following is correctly matched? d) Indo-European (Aryan)
a) Seshachalam Hills – Andhra Pradesh
Correct Answer - d) Indo-European (Aryan)
b) [blank]
c) [blank]
d) [blank] Q48. What is Karst topography primarily associated
with?
Correct Answer - a) Seshachalam Hills – Andhra
a) Groundwater action in limestone or dolomite regions
Pradesh
b) River meandering in alluvial plains

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 c) Glacial deposition in polar regions Q50. Which of the following agro-climatic and soil
d) Wind erosion in arid deserts conditions is most suitable for the cultivation of
wheat?
Correct Answer - a) Groundwater action in
limestone or dolomite regions a) Arid crop; temperature above 40°C; sandy loam soil
b) Subtropical crop; high humidity; laterite soil
c) Temperate crop; winter temp 10–15°C, summer
Q49. Which high-altitude observatory in India is 21–26°C; clay loam soil
known for hosting an optical-infrared telescope used d) Tropical crop; 30–35°C temperature; sandy soil
for space observation in Ladakh?
Correct Answer - c) Temperate crop; winter temp
a) Udaipur Solar Observatory
10–15°C, summer 21–26°C; clay loam soil
b) Hanle Indian Astronomical Observatory
c) Nainital Aryabhatta Observatory
d) Mount Abu Infrared Observatory Q51. Which planet has the longest day in the solar
system?
Correct Answer - b) Hanle Indian Astronomical
a) Venus
Observatory
b) Mars
c) Jupiter
Q52. The Jog Falls in Karnataka is formed from d) Earth
which river?
Correct Answer - a) Venus
a) Godavari
b) Kaveri
c) Sharavathi
d) Krishna

Correct Answer - c) Sharavathi

OFFER VALID ONLY IF YOU

TGPASS
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 ECONOMY
Q1. What was the role of the National Dairy
Correct Answer - a) To reduce trade barriers and
Development Board (NDDB) in the Technology
enhance economic cooperation
Mission on Oilseeds?
a) To promote milk production
Q6. Which scheme was launched to promote
b) To regulate trade policies
entrepreneurship among SC and ST communities?
c) To develop genetically modified crops
d) To manage oilseed procurement and processing a) Start-Up India
b) Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan
Correct Answer - d) To manage oilseed c) Stand-Up India
procurement and processing d) Make in India

Correct Answer - c) Stand-Up India

Q2. In which year were the major economic reforms
introduced in India?
Q7. Which institution was established in 1961 to
a) 1990
promote management education in India?
b) 1985
c) 2000 a) Indian Institute of Technology (IIT)
d) 1991 b) University Grants Commission (UGC)
c) National Productivity Council (NPC)
Correct Answer - d) 1991 d) Indian Institute of Management (IIM)

Correct Answer - d) Indian Institute of Management

Q3. Which of the following is a key reason for the
(IIM)
decline in the agricultural sector in India after 1991
economic reforms?
Q8. The Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility states
a) Rising minimum support prices for all crops
that as a consumer consumes more and more units
b) Greater protection through higher import duties
of a commodity:
c) Shift toward export-oriented cash crops and reduced
public investment a) Marginal utility derived from each additional unit
d) Increased investment in irrigation and rural decreases.
infrastructure b) Total utility increases at an increasing rate.
c) Total utility decreases.
Correct Answer - c) Shift toward export-oriented d) Marginal utility remains constant.
cash crops and reduced public investment
Correct Answer - a) Marginal utility derived from
each additional unit decreases.
Q4. What is a major difficulty in the data collection
process for the Happiness Index across different
countries? Q9. What is the term for the shift of workers from
agriculture to industry and services?
a) Recording trade statistics accurately
b) Lack of financial resources for advertising a) Industrialization
c) Language barriers in economic treaties b) Urbanization
d) Ensuring consistent and uniform survey methods c) Occupational diversification
globally d) Economic transition

Correct Answer - d) Ensuring consistent and Correct Answer - c) Occupational diversification

uniform survey methods globally
Q10. Which of the following is not a Maharatna
Q5. What is the primary goal of the BIMSTEC Free company as of 2024?
Trade Area (FTA)? a) Hindustan Copper Limited
a) To reduce trade barriers and enhance economic b) National Thermal Power Corporation Limited
cooperation c) Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited
b) To establish a common currency among BIMSTEC d) Steel Authority of India Limited
nations Correct Answer - a) Hindustan Copper Limited
c) To regulate trade policies globally
d) To promote cultural exchanges

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 Q11. What was the recommendation regarding entry
Correct Answer - d) Ministry of Agriculture
of foreign banks in India?
a) Allow foreign banks to operate freely
Q16. What is the primary purpose of the Insolvency
b) Restrict foreign banks to urban areas
and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016?
c) Ban foreign banks in India
d) Encourage foreign banks to expand operations in a) To regulate stock market investments
India b) To promote foreign direct investment
c) To simplify the process of resolving financial distress
Correct Answer - d) Encourage foreign banks to in businesses
expand operations in India d) To provide protection for startups from financial
harassment
Q12. The concept of "opportunity cost" in economics
Correct Answer - c) To simplify the process of
refers to:
resolving financial distress in businesses
a) The value of the next best alternative forgone when
a choice is made.
Q17. What does the term 'capital formation' refer to
b) The cost incurred in the past that cannot be
in macroeconomics?
recovered.
c) The cost of all alternatives that are not chosen. a) Growth in production capacity through investment
d) The monetary cost of the most expensive b) Decrease in foreign direct investment
alternative. c) Expansion of consumer credit
d) Increase in financial savings
Correct Answer - a) The value of the next best
alternative forgone when a choice is made. Correct Answer - a) Growth in production capacity
through investment

Q13. Which Indian state was the first to benefit from

the Green Revolution? Q18. Arrange the following RBI Governors in the
correct chronological order of their tenure (from
a) Haryana
earliest to latest):
b) Uttar Pradesh
1. Dr. [Link] 2. Dr. [Link] 3. Dr. Urjit R.
c) Rajasthan
Patel 4. Shri Sanjay Malhotra
d) Punjab
a) 1, 3, 2, 4
Correct Answer - d) Punjab
b) 2, 3, 1, 4
c) 2, 1, 3, 4
Q14. Which of the following statements is/are d) 1, 2, 3, 4
correct?
Correct Answer - d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Statement I: A bank's main liability is the deposits it
holds.
Statement II: Open Market Operations involve Q19. How did Second Generation Reforms impact
buying and selling government bonds. foreign investment in India?
Statement III: The Bank Rate is the rate at which a) It reduced foreign investment
RBI lends to commercial banks. b) It had no impact on foreign investment
a) Only Statement III is correct c) It restricted foreign companies from entering India
b) I, II and III all three statements are correct d) It increased foreign investment by improving the
c) Only Statements I and II are correct investment climate
d) Only Statements II and III are correct Correct Answer - d) It increased foreign investment
Correct Answer - b) I, II and III all three statements by improving the investment climate
are correct
Q20. The regulatory framework adopted by India
Q15. Which government body was responsible for between 1947 and 1990, often referred to as the
implementing the Technology Mission on Oilseeds? 'License Raj,' aimed to direct economic activity.
While it had certain intended benefits, what was a
a) Ministry of Defense
significant unintended negative consequence often
b) Ministry of Commerce
c) Ministry of Education
d) Ministry of Agriculture

[Link] [Link] [Link] [Link]

associated with this system? regulate financial stability?
a) The creation of barriers to entry for new businesses a) Board for Financial Supervision (BFS)
potentially stifling innovation and leading to b) NABARD
inefficiencies. c) Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)
b) A significant reduction in corruption and bureaucratic d) MSME Credit Bureau
delays in obtaining necessary approvals for economic
Correct Answer - a) Board for Financial
activities.
Supervision (BFS)
c) A rapid increase in the quality and global
competitiveness of Indian-made goods due to stringent
quality control measures. Q25. The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 aimed
d) The fostering of a highly competitive market at:
environment with numerous players in each industry. a) Privatizing industries
Correct Answer - a) The creation of barriers to b) Developing rural areas
c) Opening up foreign trade
entry for new businesses potentially stifling
d) Promoting public sector
innovation and leading to inefficiencies.
Correct Answer - d) Promoting public sector
Q21. The PM-MITRA scheme is focused on which of
the following objectives? Q26. According to Keynesian theory, during
a) Expanding petroleum retail chains recession, what should the government ideally do?
b) Enhancing textile exports and setting up large textile a) Increase interest rates
parks b) Increase spending and cut taxes
c) Creating rail-based infrastructure hubs c) Promote imports
d) Providing smart classrooms in rural schools d) Reduce spending
Correct Answer - b) Enhancing textile exports and Correct Answer - b) Increase spending and cut
setting up large textile parks taxes

Q22. What is one of the major benefits of providing Q27. What was the primary impact of the 'License
Geographical Indication (GI) tags to local products Raj' system on industrial growth in India before
made by rural artisans? 1991?
a) It increases dependency on imported goods a) It created entry barriers, hindered expansion, and
b) It helps preserve traditional knowledge and boosts fostered inefficiency.
rural incomes b) It led to efficient resource allocation and increased
c) It removes the need for skill development in rural competition.
areas c) It ensured balanced regional development and
d) It allows unrestricted copying of the product by other prevented monopolies.
regions d) It promoted rapid industrial diversification and
innovation.
Correct Answer - b) It helps preserve traditional
knowledge and boosts rural incomes Correct Answer - a) It created entry barriers,
hindered expansion, and fostered inefficiency.
Q23. Which of the following is NOT a direct outcome
of using the Happiness Index? Q28. Which of the following best describes the
a) Monitoring population growth primary objective of a government's fiscal policy?
b) Creating education policies a) To control the money supply and interest rates.
c) Improving healthcare services b) To promote international trade and maintain a
d) Enhancing social services favorable balance of payments.
c) To influence aggregate demand and economic
Correct Answer - a) Monitoring population growth
activity through government spending and taxation.
d) To regulate the stock market and financial
Q24. What significant institutional development institutions.
emerged from banking reforms after 1991 to

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 Correct Answer - c) To influence aggregate a) Limited wants and unlimited resources
demand and economic activity through government b) Unlimited wants and unlimited resources
spending and taxation. c) Limited resources and unlimited wants
d) Equal wants and equal resources
Q29. In which decade did India experience a Correct Answer - c) Limited resources and
negative growth rate in population? unlimited wants
a) 1901–1911
b) 1931–1941 Q34. What does a lower GPI score indicate?
c) 2001–2011
a) Higher level of peace
d) 1911–1921
b) Greater military strength
Correct Answer - d) 1911–1921 c) Higher risk of war
d) Better environmental practices
Q30. The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) Correct Answer - a) Higher level of peace
focuses on:
a) Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts Q35. Consider the following statements:
b) Improving governance in urban areas Statement I: The Industrial Policy Resolution of
c) Developing industrial clusters in backward regions 1956 aimed to promote private sector dominance
d) Providing subsidies to small-scale industries in all key industries.
Correct Answer - a) Enhancing development in Statement II: The Industrial Policy Resolution
underdeveloped districts 1956 classified industries into three categories:
fully government-owned, mixed sector with
government lead, and private sector.
Q31. Read the below statements:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Statement I: The Sixth Five-Year Plan aimed at
income growth and modernization of technology a) Both statements I and II are incorrect
through various schemes. b) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
c) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
Statement II: The Third Five-Year Plan failed due to
d) Both statements I and II are correct
various factors such as wars, rupee devaluation and
food crisis. Correct Answer - b) Statement I is incorrect,
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Statement II is correct
a) Both statements I and II are incorrect
b) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect Q36. What is the role of the finance minister under
c) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct the FRBM Act?
d) Both statements I and II are correct
a) To regulate the stock market
Correct Answer - d) Both statements I and II are b) To oversee disinvestment strategies
correct c) To manage foreign trade policies
d) To present fiscal policy statements to Parliament
Q32. What was the recommendation of the Correct Answer - d) To present fiscal policy
Narasimham Committee-II regarding public sector statements to Parliament
banks?
a) Reduce lending by public sector banks Q37. Which of the following statements best
b) Increase government ownership in public sector captures the essence of Malthus' theory as outlined
banks in the passage?
c) Merge and consolidate public sector banks
a) The natural imbalance between food supply and
d) Privatize all public sector banks
population growth leads to unavoidable hardships
Correct Answer - c) Merge and consolidate public unless population is controlled.
sector banks b) Voluntary checks on population are more effective
than natural calamities in curbing overpopulation.
c) Population grows in arithmetic progression, while
Q33. Which of the following best reflects the scarcity
food production grows geometrically.
problem in economics?

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d) Agricultural production can grow faster than Q42. How did India's trade policy reforms post-1991
population with technological advancement. impact the import of capital goods?
Correct Answer - a) The natural imbalance a) Linked capital imports only to foreign companies
between food supply and population growth leads to b) Reduced tariffs and removed licensing
unavoidable hardships unless population is c) Imposed import quotas on machinery
controlled. d) Banned all capital imports

Correct Answer - b) Reduced tariffs and removed

Q38. In a two-sector economy, households provide licensing
factors of production to firms and receive income. If
households save part of this income, what is Q43. Which of the following is a benefit of
affected? measuring happiness in a country?
a) The circular flow becomes a leakage a) Tracking crime rates
b) Firm profits increase automatically b) Improving economic statistics only
c) It leads to inflation c) Understanding citizens’ mental and emotional
d) Production output remains constant well-being
Correct Answer - a) The circular flow becomes a d) Predicting election results
leakage Correct Answer - c) Understanding citizens’ mental
and emotional well-being
Q39. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The objective of 'Growth with Social Q44. What is used to measure the health dimension
Justice &Equality' was introduced in the 10th Five- in HDI?
Year Plan.
a) Life expectancy at birth
Statement II: The first Five-Year Plan was based
b) Infant mortality rate
on the 'Harrod-Domar model'. c) Access to clean water
Which of the above statements is/are correct? d) Nutritional status
a) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct
Correct Answer - a) Life expectancy at birth
b) Both statements I and II are correct
c) Both statements I and II are incorrect
d) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect Q45. Which of the following sectors contributes the
most to India's GDP?
Correct Answer - a) Statement I is incorrect,
a) Agriculture
Statement II is correct
b) Manufacturing
c) Services
Q40. What role did the WTO membership (1995) d) Mining
play in India’s post-reform globalization strategy?
Correct Answer - c) Services
a) Strengthened balance of payments
b) Deepened India’s integration into global trade
c) Abolished domestic subsidies completely Q46. During the period of 1947-1990, India's trade
d) Encouraged protective tariffs policy was largely characterized by:
a) An inward-looking strategy emphasizing import
Correct Answer - b) Deepened India’s integration
substitution and protection of domestic industries.
into global trade
b) A policy of free trade with minimal government
intervention in international transactions.
Q41. Which curve is typically U-shaped due to the c) A liberal import policy aimed at providing consumers
law of variable proportions? with a wide range of goods.
a) Average Fixed Cost Curve d) An aggressive export-oriented strategy focused on
b) Average Variable Cost Curve global competitiveness.
c) Total Fixed Cost Curve
Correct Answer - a) An inward-looking strategy
d) Marginal Revenue Curve
emphasizing import substitution and protection of
Correct Answer - b) Average Variable Cost Curve domestic industries.

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 Q51. According to John Maynard Keynes, what is
Q47. What does the 'invisible hand' concept, as the most effective tool for reviving an economy
proposed by Adam Smith, primarily signify? during a depression?

a) Control of monopolies a) Increasing public savings

b) Government control in markets b) Reducing private investment
c) Market equilibrium achieved via self-interest c) Expanding government expenditure
d) International trade regulation d) Raising income tax on corporations

Correct Answer - c) Market equilibrium achieved Correct Answer - c) Expanding government

via self-interest expenditure

Q48. Consider the land reforms implemented in Q52. What is a key focus area of the PM Gati Shakti
India between 1947 and 1990. What was one of the National Master Plan?
main objectives of these reforms? a) Multi-modal connectivity
a) To consolidate large landholdings in the hands of a b) Rural electrification
few individuals. c) Agricultural subsidies
b) To encourage the widespread adoption of d) Urban development
mechanized farming techniques. Correct Answer - a) Multi-modal connectivity
c) To reduce the concentration of land ownership and
protect the interests of small farmers.
Q53. What was the main purpose behind the
d) To promote the cultivation of cash crops for export.
enactment of the FRBM (Fiscal Responsibility and
Correct Answer - c) To reduce the concentration of Budget Management) Act?
land ownership and protect the interests of small a) To Regulate private sector investments
farmers. b) To increase fiscal deficit
c) To reduce government borrowing
Q49. Which key reform in 1991 specifically d) To promote foreign trade
addressed the inefficiency of public sector
Correct Answer - c) To reduce government
enterprises and promoted competition in industrial
borrowing
production?
a) Privatization of profit-making PSUs
Q54. Which indicator in EODB (Ease of doing
b) Fiscal Responsibility Act
business) measures the time and cost to resolve
c) Complex Industrial Licensing process
commercial disputes?
d) Public Distribution System Reform
a) Dealing with construction permits
Correct Answer - a) Privatization of profit-making b) Enforcing contracts
PSUs c) Trading across borders
d) Getting electricity
Q50. Which of the following is true about the
Correct Answer - b) Enforcing contracts
Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme?
1. It promotes scrapping of old vehicles to reduce
emissions. Q55. The Industrial Policy Resolution 1956 played a
2. The 'Ministry of Road Transport and Highways' is significant role in shaping India’s industrial
the nodal agency. development strategy. What was a key feature of
3. The scheme incentivizes buyers of fuel-efficient this resolution?
new vehicles only in urban areas. a) It strongly advocated for the dominance of the
private sector in all industrial activities.
a) Only 1 and 3 are correct
b) It promoted a completely open and competitive
b) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
industrial environment with minimal government
c) Only 1 and 2 are correct
intervention.
d) Only 2 and 3 are correct
c) It categorized industries into three schedules, with
Correct Answer - c) Only 1 and 2 are correct the public sector leading in strategic and heavy
industries.

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 d) It emphasized the development of small-scale and system after 1991?
cottage industries while discouraging large-scale a) Introduction of prudential norms and CRAR
enterprises. b) Limiting foreign entry into retail banking
Correct Answer - c) It categorized industries into c) Full deregulation of credit markets
three schedules, with the public sector leading in d) Nationalization of cooperative banks
strategic and heavy industries. Correct Answer - a) Introduction of prudential
norms and CRAR
Q56. If a country improves in the GGGR due to a
policy mandating equal female representation on Q61. The regulatory framework adopted by India
company boards, which GGGR dimension would be between 1947 and 1990, often referred to as the
most directly impacted? "License Raj", aimed to direct economic activity.
a) Educational Attainment What was a significant unintended negative
b) Health and Survival consequence often associated with this system?
c) Political Empowerment a) A rapid increase in the quality and global
d) Economic Participation and Opportunity competitiveness of Indian-made goods due to stringent
Correct Answer - d) Economic Participation and quality control measures.
Opportunity b) The fostering of a highly competitive market
environment with numerous players in each industry.
c) The creation of barriers to entry for new businesses
Q57. Which of the following statements are correct
potentially stifling innovation and leading to
about the PM MITRA Scheme?
inefficiencies.
1. It aims to establish integrated large-scale textile
d) A significant reduction in corruption and bureaucratic
parks.
delays in obtaining necessary approvals for economic
2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Textiles. activities.
3. The scheme promotes synergy among textile
value chain segments. Correct Answer - c) The creation of barriers to
entry for new businesses potentially stifling
a) Only 1 and 3 are correct
innovation and leading to inefficiencies.
b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
c) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d) Only 1 and 2 are correct Q62. Identify the correct interpretation of Gross
National Product (GNP).
Correct Answer - c) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
a) Income of foreigners in India
b) Income earned by Indians at home and abroad
Q58. What is the aim of Ayushman Bharat scheme?
c) Income earned by Indians only within India
a) Clean drinking water for all d) Income earned by residents and non-residents
b) Health insurance for the poor within India
c) Free education to children
Correct Answer - b) Income earned by Indians at
d) Housing for the poor
home and abroad
Correct Answer - b) Health insurance for the poor
Q63. In the context of India's trade policies between
Q59. A factory purchases machinery worth Rs.50 1947 and 1990, what was a common characteristic
lakh. At the end of the year, depreciation is Rs.5 of the approach towards imports?
lakh. What is the Net Investment made by the firm?
a) Promoting imports as a way to boost domestic
a) Rs.45 lakh competition.
b) Rs.55 lakh b) Primarily focusing on the import of luxury goods and
c) Rs.5 lakh consumer durables.
d) Rs.50 lakh c) Following a strategy of import substitution to protect
Correct Answer - a) Rs.45 lakh domestic industries.
d) Encouraging unrestricted import of all goods.

Q60. Which policy reform targeted improving

competitiveness and efficiency of the banking

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 Correct Answer - c) Following a strategy of import regional development, and controlling strategic
substitution to protect domestic industries. industries.

Q64. What is the primary mission behind India's Q68. In what way did fiscal discipline reforms affect
involvement in the International North-South center-state financial relations post-1991?
Transport Corridor (INSTC)? a) Reduced tax sharing
a) To promote clean maritime security b) States had to adhere to fiscal targets
b) To bypass China's CPEC route via Taiwan c) Increased state autonomy in tax policy
c) To improve connectivity with Eurasia via multimodal d) Centralized control over agriculture pricing
routes
Correct Answer - b) States had to adhere to fiscal
d) To facilitate transit trade through the Arctic
targets
Correct Answer - c) To improve connectivity with
Eurasia via multimodal routes Q69. Which of the following schemes provides
annual income support to farmers directly into their
Q65. Which of the following is a key responsibility of bank accounts?
IRDAI? a) PM Fasal Bima Yojana
a) Protecting the interests of insurance policyholders b) PM-KISAN
b) Regulating the stock market c) MGNREGA
c) Managing disinvestment in public sector enterprises d) PM Jan Dhan Yojana
d) Promoting foreign trade
Correct Answer - b) PM-KISAN
Correct Answer - a) Protecting the interests of
insurance policyholders Q70. Statement I: Trade policy reform in India
involved removing quantitative restrictions on
Q66. What trend is reflected by increasing share of imports and exports.
urban people in non-manual tertiary occupations? Statement II: Trade policy reform increased import
a) Spatial literacy inequality licensing to support domestic manufacturers.
b) Gendered education access Choose the correct option:
c) Emerging service economy a) Both statements I and II are correct
d) De-industrialization b) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Correct Answer - c) Emerging service economy c) Only Statement II is correct
d) Only Statement I is correct

Q67. Consider the emphasis placed on the public Correct Answer - d) Only Statement I is correct
sector in India's industrial development strategy
between 1947 and 1990. What was a key rationale Q71. Which of the following reflects the ‘what to
behind giving the public sector a dominant role produce’ decision in economics?
during this period? a) Choosing between capital and consumer goods
a) There was a lack of demand for industrial goods in b) Increasing taxes to raise government revenue
the domestic market, necessitating government c) Deciding on distribution of output
intervention. d) Choosing method of production
b) Public sector industries were inherently more
Correct Answer - a) Choosing between capital and
efficient than private sector ones.
consumer goods
c) The private sector had sufficient capital and
technological expertise to drive industrialization in all
key sectors. Q72. Which economic consequence of migration is
d) The public sector was seen as a tool for achieving generally considered a challenge for the destination
social goals, promoting balanced regional regions in India, particularly concerning unskilled
development, and controlling strategic industries. rural migrants?

Correct Answer - d) The public sector was seen as a) Increased per capita income due to the inflow of
a tool for achieving social goals, promoting balanced highly skilled labor

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 Q74. Which of the following was a major criticism of
b) Reduction in pressure on land resources and the industrial policy followed in India during
unemployment rates 1950-1990?
c) Exploitation of migrant labor and the growth of
a) Too much emphasis on exports.
informal sector employment
b) Creation of a protected market leading to
d) Balanced regional development across states
inefficiency and lack of innovation.
Correct Answer - c) Exploitation of migrant labor c) Excessive competition among domestic industries.
and the growth of informal sector employment d) Neglect of the public sector.

Correct Answer - b) Creation of a protected market

Q73. Which of the following is the central objective leading to inefficiency and lack of innovation.
of Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 scheme?
a) Strengthening early childhood care and nutrition Q75. What does ‘repo rate’ refer to in India's
delivery systems monetary policy?
b) Food security through MSP
a) Rate of foreign exchange transactions
c) Urban health surveillance
b) Rate at which the government borrows from banks
d) Providing skill-based employment
c) Rate at which consumers take loans
Correct Answer - a) Strengthening early childhood d) Rate at which commercial banks borrow from the
care and nutrition delivery systems RBI

Correct Answer - d) Rate at which commercial

banks borrow from the RBI

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 SCIENCE

Q1. Which property of sound determines its Q6. Which of the following phenomena occurs when
loudness? a wave passes through a narrow slit?
a) Wavelength a) Refraction
b) Pitch b) Reflection
c) Amplitude c) Absorption
d) Frequency d) Diffraction

Correct Answer - c) Amplitude Correct Answer - d) Diffraction

Q2. A conductor rod moving with a velocity v Q7. Two resistors named R1 and R2, are connected
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B. If the in parallel. If R1 < R2, what can be inferred about
length of the rod perpendicular to both v and B is L, the current flowing through them, given the same
the induced EMF across its ends is given by: potential difference across both?
a) BL²v a) Current through R1 is less than through R2.
b) BLv b) Current through R1 is equal to current through R2.
c) Bv/L c) Current through R1 is greater than through R2.
d) B/vL d) The current ratio depends on the supply voltage.

Correct Answer - b) BLv Correct Answer - c) Current through R1 is greater

than through R2.
Q3. Which force governs the motion of planets,
stars, and galaxies? Q8. Which of the following systems can be affected
a) Nuclear force by a solar storm?
b) Gravitational force 1. GPS signal accuracy
c) Magnetic force 2. Power transmission systems
d) Electromagnetic force 3. Submarine communication cables
4. Pipeline infrastructure
Correct Answer - b) Gravitational force
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
Q4. What are the streams of charged particles
c) 3 and 4 only
ejected by the Sun into space called? d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 all of these
a) Sunspots
Correct Answer - d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 all of these
b) Solar wind
c) Solar flares
d) Coronal loops Q9. According to the Law of Periods, the square of a
planet's time period is proportional to:
Correct Answer - b) Solar wind
a) The square of its distance from the sun
b) The cube of the semi-major axis of its orbit
Q5. At what orientation does a rotating coil in a
c) The square root of its orbital radius
uniform magnetic field generate the maximum d) The product of its mass and orbital speed
induced EMF?
Correct Answer - b) The cube of the semi-major
a) When the coil's plane is at 45° to the magnetic field
axis of its orbit
lines
b) When the magnetic flux through the coil is maximum
c) When the coil's plane is perpendicular (90°) to the Q10. Which of Rutherford's observations led to
magnetic field lines conclusion of nucleus?
d) When the coil's plane is parallel to the magnetic field a) Electrons were found to orbit the nucleus in specific
lines energy levels.
Correct Answer - d) When the coil's plane is b) A very small fraction of α-particles rebounded
parallel to the magnetic field lines almost backwards.
c) Most α-particles followed a straight path through the
gold foil.
d) A small fraction of α-particles were deflected by
small angles.

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 Correct Answer - b) A very small fraction of does it appear and exit?
α-particles rebounded almost backwards. a) Right to Left
b) Always visible
Q11. Consider the following statements: 1. A solar c) Never visible
eclipse- The Moon casts a shadow on Earth when it d) Left to Right
comes between the Sun and Earth. 2. A lunar Correct Answer - a) Right to Left
eclipse- During the new moon phase, the Moon
passes through the Earth's shadow. Which of the
Q16. Read the following statements carefully:
statements given above is/are correct?
Statement I: A pressure cooker operates by
a) Both 1 and 2 decreasing the pressure inside, which lowers the
b) 1 only
boiling point of water.
c) 2 only
Statement II: Food cooks faster in a pressure
d) Neither 1 nor 2
cooker because the higher pressure allows water to
Correct Answer - b) 1 only boil at a temperature above 100 °C.
Statement III: The superheated steam within the
Q12. Consider the following statements: cooker increases the rate of heat transfer to the
1. Ramjets operate efficiently at hypersonic speeds. food, leading to faster cooking.
2. Dual Mode Ramjets can work in both subsonic Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
and supersonic modes. a) Only II and III are correct
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? b) All I, II, and III are correct
a) 2 only c) Only I and II are correct
b) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Only I and III are correct
c) Both 1 and 2 Correct Answer - a) Only II and III are correct
d) 1 only

Correct Answer - a) 2 only Q17. What evidence supports the Big Bang theory
of universe origin?
Q13. Why does a skilled cricketer move his hands a) Sunspot cycles
backwards while catching a fast-moving ball? b) Redshift of galaxies
a) To apply a greater opposing force on the ball for a c) Solar wind
quick stop. d) Volcanic eruptions on Earth
b) To reduce the force by increasing the time over Correct Answer - b) Redshift of galaxies
which momentum changes.
c) To increase the speed of the ball during impact.
Q18. Which of the following is the correct sequence
d) To decrease the weight of the ball using gravity.
in the life cycle of a star like the Sun?
Correct Answer - b) To reduce the force by a) Protostar → White Dwarf → Red Giant → Main
increasing the time over which momentum changes. Sequence
b) Nebula → Red Giant → Main Sequence → White
Q14. An electric kettle is rated 2.2 kW, 220 V. If the Dwarf
cost of electricity is Rs.4 per unit (kWh), what is the c) Main Sequence → Red Giant → White Dwarf
cost of boiling water for 30 minutes? d) Red Giant → Protostar → White Dwarf
a) Rs.1.1 Correct Answer - c) Main Sequence → Red Giant
b) Rs.2.2 → White Dwarf
c) Rs.8.8
d) Rs.4.4
Q19. A conductor of length L and resistance R is cut
Correct Answer - d) Rs.4.4 into two equal halves. These two halves are then
connected in parallel. Find the equivalent resistance
Q15. When focusing on a tree while on an of this parallel combination?
anti-clockwise merry-go-round, from which side a) R / 4
b) R

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 c) R / 2 d) Angular momentum and mechanical energy
d) R / 8
Correct Answer - d) Angular momentum and
Correct Answer - a) R / 4 mechanical energy

Q20. What is the boiling point of water at sea level? Q25. Which type of galaxy has no regular shape and
a) 208.4°F is rich in gas and dust?
b) 217.4°F a) Elliptical Galaxy
c) 212°F b) Lenticular Galaxies
d) 203°F c) Irregular Galaxy
d) Spiral Galaxy
Correct Answer - c) 212°F
Correct Answer - c) Irregular Galaxy
Q21. According to Bohr's model, what is the
significance of an electron transition from a higher Q26. According to Lenz’s Law, what determines the
energy orbit to a lower energy orbit? direction of an induced current in a conductor?
a) The electron's angular momentum becomes a) It continuously reduces the applied magnetic flux.
quantized. b) It always enhances the existing magnetic field.
b) The electron gains energy. c) It flows to oppose the variation in magnetic flux
c) A photon of energy equal to the energy difference causing it.
between the orbits is absorbed. d) It is proportional to the strength of the magnetic field.
d) A photon of energy equal to the energy difference
Correct Answer - c) It flows to oppose the variation
between the orbits is emitted.
in magnetic flux causing it.
Correct Answer - d) A photon of energy equal to
the energy difference between the orbits is emitted. Q27. Assertion (A): Sound waves travel faster in
steel than in air at the same temperature.
Q22. A heating element of a heater is made of a Reason (R): The particles in solids (like steel) are
material with high resistivity and high melting point. more closely packed and experience stronger
Which of the following material properties is most intermolecular forces compared to particles in gases
crucial for its function as a heating element? (like air), allowing vibrations to be transmitted more
a) High modulus of elasticity efficiently and rapidly.
b) High thermal conductivity a) A is false but R is true.
c) Low specific heat capacity b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
d) High resistivity explanation of A.
Correct Answer - d) High resistivity c) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
d) A is true but R is false.
Q23. Which solar phenomenon is responsible for
disturbances in Earth's magnetic field? Correct Answer - b) Both A and R are true and R is
the correct explanation of A.
a) Sunspots
b) Solar flares
c) Chromosphere heating Q28. Which of the following simple household
d) Photospheric cooling methods can detect the presence of chalk powder in
adulterated wheat flour?
Correct Answer - b) Solar flares
a) Mixing with vinegar to observe fizzing reaction
b) Adding iodine solution to observe color change
Q24. Which of the following quantities remains
c) Heating over flame to detect odor
conserved when an object moves under the
d) Soaking in alcohol to dissolve the chalk
gravitational pull of another object?
Correct Answer - a) Mixing with vinegar to observe
a) Only linear momentum
fizzing reaction
b) Potential energy and linear momentum
c) Kinetic energy and linear momentum

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 Q29. Metanil yellow, a non-permitted dye, is often b) Radial symmetry and presence of tentacles
used to adulterate turmeric. Which chemical test can c) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton
confirm its presence? d) Presence of cnidoblasts for defense
a) Adding vinegar and looking for bubbles Correct Answer - a) Water canal system and
b) Alcohol and hydrochloric acid test yielding pink color choanocytes
c) Boiling in water and observing sediment
d) Mixing with saltwater and checking for layers
Q34. High honey yield and gentle behaviour in bees
Correct Answer - b) Alcohol and hydrochloric acid for commercial beekeeping can be achieved through
test yielding pink color one of the following methods:
a) Using wild bee species with aggressive defence
Q30. Which of the following is not a correct traits
statement regarding vacuoles? b) Frequently relocating hives to prevent bees from
settling
a) Vacuoles are generally larger in animal cells than in
plant cells. c) Avoiding bee farms and relying solely on natural
honey collection
b) Animal cells usually contain smaller vacuoles
d) Introducing Italian bees that collect more honey and
compared to plant cells
c) In some plant cells, the central vacuole can take up remain in hives longer
most of the cell's volume Correct Answer - d) Introducing Italian bees that
d) Vacuoles serve as storage sacs for both solids and collect more honey and remain in hives longer
liquids

Correct Answer - a) Vacuoles are generally larger Q35. Which of the following correctly represents the
in animal cells than in plant cells. chronological order of human development during
gestation?
Q31. What is the scientific term for white blood a) Embryo → Zygote → Fetus
cells? b) Fetus → Embryo → Zygote
a) Erythrocytes c) Zygote → Embryo → Fetus
b) Leucocytes d) Zygote → Fetus → Embryo
c) Thrombocytes Correct Answer - c) Zygote → Embryo → Fetus
d) Platelets

Correct Answer - b) Leucocytes Q36. Which of the following best describes the main
purpose of developing Genetically Modified
Q32. The cell uses internal compartmentalization to Organisms (GMOs) in agriculture?
manage its complexity. Which of the following best a) To reduce the cost of manual weeding and irrigation
reflects this idea? only
a) Organelles in eukaryotic cells float freely without any b) To improve crop yield, pest resistance, and
specific role. nutritional quality
b) Prokaryotic cells use multiple membranes to isolate c) To eliminate the need for fertilizers and pesticides
cell activities. entirely
c) Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles d) To grow crops only in artificial laboratory
that separate different functions environments
d) All cellular functions occur in the same space Correct Answer - b) To improve crop yield, pest
without any separation. resistance, and nutritional quality
Correct Answer - c) Eukaryotic cells have
membrane-bound organelles that separate different Q37. Identify the correct pairing between a plant
functions hormone and its primary physiological function:
a) Gibberellin - Stimulating cell division in roots
Q33. Which of the following is a unique b) Ethylene - Ripening of fruits
characteristic of sponges (Phylum Porifera)? c) Cytokinin - Initiating abscission of leaves
a) Water canal system and choanocytes d) Auxin - Promoting seed dormancy

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 Correct Answer - b) Ethylene - Ripening of fruits Q42. Which type of placentation is characterized by
the ovules developing on the inner wall of the ovary
Q38. Statement 1: Karnataka has the highest or on peripheral part, as seen in mustard and
elephant population among Southern States. argemone?
Statement 2: A high number of juvenile elephant a) Parietal
deaths in Karnataka are due to Elephant b) Free central
Endotheliotropic Herpesvirus (EEHV). c) Basal
d) Axile
a) Only Statement 1 is correct
b) Only Statement 2 is correct Correct Answer - a) Parietal
c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
d) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is correct
Q43. A forest ecosystem experiences a prolonged
Correct Answer - c) Both Statements 1 and 2 are drought. Which trophic level would likely experience
correct the most immediate and severe impact on its
biomass?
Q39. In the lac operon model, what is the primary a) Secondary consumers
role of the allolactose molecule? b) Tertiary consumers
a) It functions as an inducer, binding to the repressor c) Primary consumers
protein and inactivating it. d) Producers
b) It acts as a corepressor, binding with the repressor Correct Answer - d) Producers
protein.
c) It binds to the promoter to initiate transcription.
Q44. Which of the following statements about the
d) It directly codes for the enzymes involved in lactose
G0 (G zero phase) of the cell cycle is most
metabolism.
accurate?
Correct Answer - a) It functions as an inducer, a) DNA synthesis occurs rapidly in cells present in the
binding to the repressor protein and inactivating it. G0 phase.
b) It is the phase where cell division is initiated in
Q40. Which of the following is a characteristic cancerous cells.
feature of meristematic tissues in plants? c) It is a temporary quiescent stage where cells exit the
a) Large vacuoles and thick cell walls cell cycle.
b) Absence of nucleus and presence of lignified walls d) Cells in G0 actively prepare for DNA replication.
c) Actively dividing cells with dense cytoplasm and Correct Answer - c) It is a temporary quiescent
prominent nuclei stage where cells exit the cell cycle.
d) Dead cells that provide mechanical support

Correct Answer - c) Actively dividing cells with Q45. Statement 1: India's first initiative to track
dense cytoplasm and prominent nuclei Fishing Cats through radio-collars has been
introduced at Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary.
Q41. Which specific environmental condition found Statement 2: Fishing Cats are primarily found in
in waterlogged soils of rice paddies and wetlands coastal wetlands and mangrove ecosystems.
directly facilitates the significant microbial production a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct
of methane, a potent greenhouse gas? b) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is correct
a) Frequent soil tilling c) Only Statement 1 is correct
b) High levels of dissolved oxygen d) Only Statement 2 is correct
c) Low soil temperatures Correct Answer - a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are
d) Anaerobic (oxygen-depleted) conditions correct
Correct Answer - d) Anaerobic (oxygen-depleted)
conditions Q46. Which of the following best describes the goal
of stem cell therapy in modern medicine?
a) To provide genetic immunity against viruses

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 b) To prevent blood clotting in arteries
c) To replace or regenerate damaged tissues or organs
d) To stimulate hormonal glands

Correct Answer - c) To replace or regenerate

damaged tissues or organs

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 STATIC GK
Q1. Which city is home to the cricket ground, b) Jhumpa Lahiri
Wankhede Stadium? c) Arundhati Roy
a) Chennai d) Chetan Bhagat
b) Mumbai Correct Answer - b) Jhumpa Lahiri
c) Kolkata
d) Delhi
Q7. What does the term "checkmate" refer to in
Correct Answer - b) Mumbai chess?
a) End of game
Q2. What is the name of the writer of Tomb of Sand, b) Invalid move
the first Hindi book to be awarded the International c) A draw
Booker Prize? d) A win
a) Geetanjali Shree Correct Answer - a) End of game
b) Arundhati Roy
c) Kiran Desai
Q8. Which of the following pairs is correctly
d) Jhumpa Lahiri
matched?
Correct Answer - a) Geetanjali Shree a) Plasmolysis – Gain of water by plant cell
b) Cell wall – Composed mainly of protein
Q3. Which of the following is recognized as a c) Cellulose – Provides structural strength to plant cells
classical dance of India? d) Plasma membrane – Located outside the cell wall
a) Bharatnatyam Correct Answer - c) Cellulose – Provides structural
b) Garba strength to plant cells
c) Lavani
d) Bhangra
Q9. Assertion (A): Seasonal agricultural practices,
Correct Answer - a) Bharatnatyam such as stubble burning, have no significant impact
on AQI levels in India.
Q4. In which state is the folk music tradition of "Zikir" Reason (R): Stubble burning is a controlled practice
popular? that doesn't release substantial pollutants into the
atmosphere.
a) Assam
b) Gujarat a) A is true, but R is false.
c) Odhisha b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
d) Rajasthan explanation of A.
c) A is false, but R is true.
Correct Answer - a) Assam d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Q5. Which countries are members of BIMSTEC?
Correct Answer - c) A is false, but R is true.
a) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri
Lanka, Thailand
Q10. Kathak is a classical dance form that
b) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Maldives, Sri
developed in which region of India?
Lanka, Thailand
c) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri a) Southern India
Lanka, Thailand b) Northern India
d) Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, c) Eastern India
Nepal, Pakistan, Sri Lanka d) Western India

Correct Answer - c) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Correct Answer - b) Northern India

Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand
Q11. What is the radius of the centre circle in a
Q6. Which Indian-American author wrote The football field?
Namesake, later adapted into a film? a) 5.5 m
a) Kiran Desai b) 10.5 m
c) 11 m

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 d) 9.15 m Q17. PM Narendra Modi paid tribute to Thiru K.
Kamaraj on his birth anniversary. He is remembered
Correct Answer - d) 9.15 m
for his contributions to which of the following areas?
a) Trade liberalization and digital governance
Q12. Which classical dance form originated in
b) Freedom struggle and social welfare governance
Andhra Pradesh and incorporates both singing and
c) Industrialization and foreign policy
dancing?
d) Literature and environmental reforms
a) Manipuri
b) Kathakali Correct Answer - b) Freedom struggle and social
c) Mohiniyattam welfare governance
d) Kuchipudi
Q18. Evaluate the following about Carnatic
Correct Answer - d) Kuchipudi
instruments:
Statement 1: The Mridangam is a melodic
Q13. Ganesh Chaturthi, celebrated widely in
percussion instrument used to outline the raga.
Maharashtra, is associated with:
Statement 2: Nadaswaram is a double-reed
a) The descent of Ganga instrument traditionally played in temples and
b) The marriage of Shiva and Parvati weddings.
c) The birth of Lord Ganesha
a) Only 1
d) The return of Krishna to Mathura
b) Only 2
Correct Answer - c) The birth of Lord Ganesha c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Q14. Name the organization that made the Golden Correct Answer - b) Only 2
Quadrilateral Project connecting major cities of India
feasible?
Q19. Which classical dance form is associated with
a) National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) the state of Kerala?
b) Indian Railways
a) Kathak
c) Ministry of Urban Development
b) Kuchipudi
d) Border Roads Organization (BRO)
c) Kathakali
Correct Answer - a) National Highways Authority of d) Sattriya
India (NHAI)
Correct Answer - c) Kathakali

Q15. Which of the following is a prominent form of

Q20. Who was the first Indian to receive the Nobel
Hindustani classical vocal music?
Prize in Literature for Geetanjali?
a) Kathak
a) Salman Rushdie
b) Dhrupad
b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) Bharatnatyam
c) Arundhati Roy
d) Kuchipudi
d) R. K. Narayan
Correct Answer - b) Dhrupad
Correct Answer - b) Rabindranath Tagore

Q16. What was the first published poetry collection

Q21. What is the radius of the striking or shooting
by Vinod Kumar Shukla?
circle in hockey?
a) Lagbhag Jai Hind
a) 16.78 meters
b) Kavita se Lambi Kavita
b) 13.2 meters
c) Aakash Dharti Ko Khatakta Hai
c) 14.63 meters
d) Woh Aadmi Chala Gaya
d) 6.475 meters
Correct Answer - a) Lagbhag Jai Hind
Correct Answer - c) 14.63 meters

Q22. Which of the following is true about the Gudi

Padwa festival? 1. It marks the beginning of the

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 Hindu New Year. c) Arundhati Roy
2. The term Gudi refers to a d) Mo Yan
sacred scripture. Correct Answer - c) Arundhati Roy
3. Traditionally, celebrations begin with sweets.
a) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct Q28. Consider the following statements regarding
b) 2 and 3 only
Carnatic compositions:
c) 1 and 3 only
Statement 1: Varnam is performed at the end of a
d) Only 1
concert.
Correct Answer - d) Only 1 Statement 2: Alapana is improvisation without
rhythm.
Q23. Which dance form is traditionally associated a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
with the culture of Punjab? b) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
a) Kuchipudi c) Only 2
b) Yakshagana d) Only 1
c) Bhangra Correct Answer - c) Only 2
d) Mohiniyattam

Correct Answer - c) Bhangra Q29. Which classical dance form uses storytelling
through hand gestures (mudras) and facial
Q24. Consider the following statements about the expressions (abhinaya)?
Trinity of Carnatic Music: a) Bihu
1. Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Shyama b) Koli
Shastri lived during the 17th century. c) Garba
2. The trinity elevated the kriti form to its highest d) Bharatnatyam
expression. Correct Answer - d) Bharatnatyam
a) Both 1 and 2 are correct
b) Only 2
Q30. Which of the following pairs is correctly
c) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
matched?
d) Only 1
a) Microeconomics – Inflation rate
Correct Answer - b) Only 2 b) Macroeconomics – Price of tea
c) Macroeconomics – National Income
Q25. Bihu is a folk music and dance form associated d) Microeconomics – GDP
with which Indian state? Correct Answer - c) Macroeconomics – National
a) Kerala Income
b) Gujarat
c) Assam
Q31. What is the standard width of a hockey field?
d) Punjab
a) 50 meters
Correct Answer - c) Assam b) 54.5 meters
c) 55 meters
Q26. Bihu, the festival of Assam, is celebrated to d) 57 meters
mark: Correct Answer - c) 55 meters
a) The winter solstice
b) The new harvest
Q32. In Kho-Kho, how many players are in a team,
c) The victory of good over evil
and how many are on the field during a game?
d) The end of the monsoon
a) 9 players in a team, 9 on the field
Correct Answer - b) The new harvest b) 12 players in a team, 9 on the field
c) 12 players in a team, 12 on the field
Q27. Who is the author of 'The God of Small d) 9 players in a team, 12 on the field
Things'? Correct Answer - b) 12 players in a team, 9 on the
a) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie field
b) Neil Gaiman

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 a) Bharatnatyam
Q33. Statement 1: Kriti is a highly structured b) Kathak
musical composition in Carnatic tradition. c) Odissi
Statement 2: Tillana often concludes a Carnatic d) Sattriya
recital and emphasizes rhythmic syllables. Correct Answer - d) Sattriya
a) A) Both 1 and 2 are correct
b) B) Only 1
Q39. Which of the following festivals is celebrated
c) C) Only 2
by the tribal communities of Nagaland and
d) D) Neither 1 nor 2
showcases traditional dance and music?
Correct Answer - a) A) Both 1 and 2 are correct a) Ugadi
b) Hornbill Festival
Q34. Odissi classical dance originated in which c) Teej
Indian state? d) Onam
a) Gujarat Correct Answer - b) Hornbill Festival
b) Odhisha
c) Bihar
Q40. The first known rules of Kabaddi were framed
d) Assam
in which Indian state?
Correct Answer - b) Odhisha a) Tamil Nadu
b) Uttar Pradesh
Q35. Which of the following authors did NOT receive c) Punjab
the Nobel Prize in Literature? d) Maharashtra
a) Orhan Pamuk Correct Answer - d) Maharashtra
b) Haruki Murakami
c) Alice Munro
d) Kazuo Ishiguro

Correct Answer - b) Haruki Murakami

Q36. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly

matched?
a) Swadesh Darshan - Ministry of Culture
b) PM MITRA - Ministry of Textiles
c) Beti Bachao Beti Padhao - Ministry of Women &
Child Development
d) PM JANMAN - Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Correct Answer - a) Swadesh Darshan - Ministry of

Culture

Q37. Which instrument is commonly used in

Carnatic classical music?
a) Dhol
b) Mridangam
c) Santoor
d) Shehnai

Correct Answer - b) Mridangam

Q38. Identify the dance style recognized for its

spiritual devotion and connection to the Vaishnavite
movement.

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 CURRENT AFFAIRS

Q1. Consider the below statements regarding the a) To congratulate him on Poland's football
Aditya-L1 mission and its payloads: achievements
1. The SUIT payload on Aditya-L1 is designed to b) To appreciate his efforts in promoting Kabaddi in
image the solar disk in the near-ultraviolet (UV) Europe
spectrum to study the temperature and chemical c) To sign a trade agreement between India and
composition of the Sun's photosphere and Poland
chromosphere. d) To discuss military cooperation through sports
2. The SoLEXS instrument is a high-resolution X- Correct Answer - b) To appreciate his efforts in
ray spectrometer used to study solar flares and promoting Kabaddi in Europe
active regions in soft X-ray wavelengths. Which of
the above statements is/are correct?
Q6. Which of the following is the specific port facility
a) Both 1 and 2 within Chabahar Port that India is primarily
b) Neither 1 nor 2 developing and operating?
c) 2 only
a) Jask Port
d) 1 only
b) Shahid Beheshti Port
Correct Answer - a) Both 1 and 2 c) Shahid Kalantari Port
d) Bandar Abbas Port
Q2. The primary objective of the LUPEX Mission, a Correct Answer - b) Shahid Beheshti Port
collaboration between ISRO and JAXA, is to:
a) Study the Martian atmosphere and soil composition Q7. Consider the following statements:
b) Deploy a communication satellite in lunar orbit 1. Madhabi Puri Buch became the first woman to
c) Investigate the quantity and quality of water on the head SEBI in March 2022.
Moon and explore its dark side 2. Tuhin Kanta Pandey has been appointed as the
d) Observe solar flares and coronal mass ejections new SEBI Chief for three years from February 28,
Correct Answer - c) Investigate the quantity and 2025.
quality of water on the Moon and explore its dark 3. Saudi Arabia has awarded PM Narendra Modi the
side Order of Mubarak Al-Kabeer.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Q3. Who was appointed as the CEO (Chief a) 1 and 3 only
Executive Officer) of NITI Aayog in February 2023? b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 all are correct
a) Dr. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
d) 1 and 2 only
b) Amitabh Kant
c) Dr. Vivek Joshi Correct Answer - d) 1 and 2 only
d) BVR Subrahmanyam

Correct Answer - d) BVR Subrahmanyam Q8. Which of the following statements are correct
1. ULPIN assigns a unique ID to every land parcel in
Q4. Which platform is used for submitting ideas India.
under the INSPIRE MANAK Scheme? 2. ULPIN is a 14-digit identification number.
3. ULPIN helps track land ownership and resolve
a) Science and Technology Portal
disputes.
b) INSPIRE Portal
4. ULPIN is only for urban areas and not rural land.
c) National Innovation Portal
d) Digital India Portal a) 1, 2, and 3 only
b) 1, 2, and 4 only
Correct Answer - b) INSPIRE Portal c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 3, and 4 only
Q5. Which of the following is the main reason that
Correct Answer - a) 1, 2, and 3 only
Prime Minister Narendra Modi met Mr. Michal
Spiczko, President of the Kabaddi Federation of
Poland? Q9. How many key variables are used in the World
Happiness Report to explain happiness levels?
a) 6

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 b) 4 Q14. What was the key scientific objective of
c) 10 Chandrayaan-3?
d) 8 a) To demonstrate a safe lunar landing and rover
Correct Answer - a) 6 operation
b) To study Mars' atmosphere
c) To measure gravitational waves
Q10. Which Indian space mission marked the
d) To orbit the Moon
successful launch of 104 satellites in a single
mission? Correct Answer - a) To demonstrate a safe lunar
a) Astrosat landing and rover operation
b) GSLV Mk III
c) Chandrayaan-2 Q15. Who became Indian Navy's first woman fighter
d) PSLV-C37 pilot streamer on 3 July 2025?
Correct Answer - d) PSLV-C37 a) Bina Kumari
b) Vidya Singh
c) Neha Sharma
Q11. The term "deuce" is associated with which
d) Aastha Poonia
sport?
a) Football Correct Answer - d) Aastha Poonia
b) Basketball
c) Tennis Q16. What is the purpose of the two-day Hands-on
d) Hockey Training Workshop on the e-SAKSHI Portal held in
Correct Answer - c) Tennis June 2024?
a) To demonstrate biometric tracking of MPLAD assets
b) To train officials on the revised fund flow procedure
Q12. Assertion (A): India's participation in the
under MPLAD Scheme
Asian Winter Games 2025 will be unique, as it will
c) To launch a new e-commerce platform for district
be the first time the government has provided full
development
financial support.
d) To train MPs in drafting local development plans
Reason (R): The government's objective is to
enhance India's presence and performance in Correct Answer - b) To train officials on the revised
winter sports by ensuring fair and meritocratic fund flow procedure under MPLAD Scheme
athlete selection.
a) A is true, but R is false. Q17. In which year did UNESCO recognize Durga
b) A is false, but R is true. Puja as an Intangible Cultural Heritage?
c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct a) 2023
explanation of A. b) 2015
d) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct c) 2019
explanation of A. d) 2021
Correct Answer - d) Both A and R are true, and R Correct Answer - d) 2021
is the correct explanation of A.
Q18. Which AQI range corresponds to “Unhealthy
Q13. The Nehru Cup, a prominent international for Sensitive Groups”?
football tournament in India, was last held in which
a) 101–150
year?
b) 151–203
a) 2007 c) 0–50
b) 2012 d) 51–100
c) 2015
Correct Answer - a) 101–150
d) 2018

Correct Answer - b) 2012

Q19. India's primary interest in developing
Chabahar Port is to:

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 a) Establish a direct naval base for military operations d) Space Application Centre (SAC), Indian Institute of
in the Persian Gulf. Remote Sensing, Space Applications Centre, National
b) Gain direct access to Afghanistan and Central Asia, Remote Sensing Centre
bypassing Pakistan.
Correct Answer - d) Space Application Centre
c) Develop a new tourism hub for its citizens.
(SAC), Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, Space
d) Export agricultural products exclusively to Iran.
Applications Centre, National Remote Sensing
Correct Answer - b) Gain direct access to Centre
Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan.
Q24. Where was the National Shooting
Q20. The Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) Championship 2024 held?
focuses on: a) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
a) Developing industrial clusters in backward regions b) Mumbai, Maharashtra
b) Providing subsidies to small-scale industries c) Panaji, Goa
c) Improving governance in urban areas d) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
d) Enhancing development in underdeveloped districts
Correct Answer - d) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
Correct Answer - d) Enhancing development in
underdeveloped districts Q25. Which of the following best describes the main
objective of the Indo-French Megha-Tropiques
Q21. What is the name of India's first reusable satellite mission?
hybrid rocket launched by a Tamil Nadu-based a) Understanding convective systems and the water
startup? cycle in tropical regions
a) AGNI-V b) Studying polar ice melt and its impact on global sea
b) RAKSHA-1 levels
c) VAYU-1 c) Mapping mineral resources in the Himalayan region
d) RHUMI-1 d) Monitoring ozone depletion over the equator

Correct Answer - d) RHUMI-1 Correct Answer - a) Understanding convective

systems and the water cycle in tropical regions
Q22. Which major reform was introduced in the
National Education Policy (NEP), 2020? Q26. The 'Golden Boot' is awarded in which sport?
a) Replacement of the 10+2 system with a 5+3+3+4 a) Cricket
structure b) Baseball
b) Elimination of private schools c) Hockey
c) Compulsory Sanskrit education d) Football
d) Mandatory board exams for all grades
Correct Answer - d) Football
Correct Answer - a) Replacement of the 10+2
system with a 5+3+3+4 structure Q27. Which country withdrew from the NPT in 2003
and later developed nuclear weapons?
Q23. Which ISRO centers participate in International a) Israel
Geosphere-Biosphere programme? b) North Korea
a) ISRO Headquarters, Space Applications Centre, c) Syria
National Remote Sensing Centre, Vikram Sarabhai d) Iran
Space Centre
Correct Answer - b) North Korea
b) Space Physics Laboratory, National Remote
Sensing Centre, Indian Institute of Remote Sensing,
Physical Research Laboratory Q28. Which pair is correctly matched with India's
c) Physical Research Laboratory, Space Applications geopolitical interest?
Centre, Indian Institute of Remote Sensing, ISRO a) Ashgabat Agreement - Partnership with BIMSTEC
Satellite Centre b) Kaladan Project - Links to Iran
c) Ladakh Corridor - Access to Africa

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 d) SAGAR Policy - Maritime ties in the Indian Ocean d) A is false, but R is true.

Correct Answer - d) SAGAR Policy - Maritime ties Correct Answer - b) Both A and R are true, and R
in the Indian Ocean is the correct explanation of A.

Q29. Who was invited as the chief guest for India's Q34. Which year was the first World Happiness
76th Republic Day celebrations on January 26, Report published?
2025? a) 2012
a) Joko Widodo b) 2016
b) Ferdinand Marcos Jr. c) 2010
c) Anwar Ibrahim d) 2005
d) Prabowo Subianto
Correct Answer - a) 2012
Correct Answer - d) Prabowo Subianto
Q35. How can NISAR provide valuable information
Q30. What was the objective of the Swachh Bharat for understanding the relationship between fluid
Abhiyan? injection and earthquake?
a) Achieving universal sanitation coverage a) By tracking changes in ground surface elevation
b) Promoting digital payments associated with pumping and injection
c) Providing rural housing b) By measuring seismic activity in real time
d) Creating jobs in the rural sector c) By monitoring water table levels
d) By analyzing satellite imagery of earthquake
Correct Answer - a) Achieving universal sanitation
damage
coverage
Correct Answer - a) By tracking changes in ground
Q31. SpaDeX mission is related to ______. surface elevation associated with pumping and
injection
a) Artificial intelligence
b) Space docking
c) Space farming Q36. Which government scheme aims to phase out
d) Planetary geology unfit and polluting vehicles from India’s roads to
reduce emissions and boost automotive industry
Correct Answer - b) Space docking
recycling?
a) Smart City Mission
Q32. Which recent mission by ISRO aims to study b) Voluntary Vehicle Fleet Modernisation Programme
the Sun from the Lagrange point L1? c) National Electric Mobility Mission Plan
a) Aditya-L1 d) Pradhan Mantri Gramin Sadak Yojana
b) Chandrayaan-3
Correct Answer - b) Voluntary Vehicle Fleet
c) Shukrayaan-1
Modernisation Programme
d) Mangalyaan

Correct Answer - a) Aditya-L1

Q37. Which of the following initiatives was launched
by the BRICS countries?
Q33. Choose the correct options:
a) The North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
Assertion (A): AFI has incorporated WADA's 2014 b) The New Development Bank (NDB)
anti-doping rules into its constitution. c) The World Trade Organization (WTO)
Reason(R): Any updates to WADA rules are d) The International Monetary Fund (IMF)
automatically binding on all athletes and affiliated
units in AFI. Correct Answer - b) The New Development Bank
(NDB)
a) A is true, but R is false.
b) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A. Q38. In May 2024, India signed a long-term
c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct agreement for the operation of Chabahar Port. What
explanation of A. is the duration of this agreement?

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 a) 20 years b) To monitor US naval operations
b) 10 years c) To build naval bases in Iran
c) 99 years d) To import natural gas from Saudi Arabia
d) 5 years
Correct Answer - a) To reach Afghanistan and
Correct Answer - b) 10 years Central Asia bypassing Pakistan

Q39. What makes Dr. Avesh Kumar Tyagi's Q44. Which of the following statements regarding
contributions in Atomic Energy distinct from the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) is correct?
conventional research output, as per his Vigyan Shri a) It is managed entirely by the European Space
citation? Agency.
a) Strategic innovation in both materials and process b) It aims to explore cosmic magnetism and dark
R&D; matter.
b) Discovery of a new radioactive element c) It focuses solely on detecting visible light.
c) Advances in isotopic separation only d) It will consist of a single telescope in India.
d) Development of radiation therapy devices
Correct Answer - b) It aims to explore cosmic
Correct Answer - a) Strategic innovation in both magnetism and dark matter.
materials and process R&D;
Q45. What does a high rank in the Henley Passport
Q40. The 3-point line in basketball is drawn at what Index indicate?
distance from the basket in international a) High economic power
competitions? b) Strong military alliances provided to citizens
a) 6.25 meters c) Greater visa-free or visa-on-arrival access for
b) 7.25 meters citizens
c) 5.75 meters d) Political neutrality
d) 6.75 meters
Correct Answer - c) Greater visa-free or
Correct Answer - d) 6.75 meters visa-on-arrival access for citizens

Q41. What is the main focus of the Beti Bachao Beti Q46. The India-Middle East-Europe Economic
Padhao (BBBP) scheme launched in 2015? Corridor (IMEC) is often viewed as a strategic
a) Housing for women counter-initiative to which other major global
b) Financial inclusion for widows connectivity projects?
c) Girl child survival & education a) Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)
d) Promoting rural entrepreneurship b) Asia-Africa Growth Corridor (AAGC)
c) Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)
Correct Answer - c) Girl child survival & education
d) North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA)

Q42. In collaboration with which country is ISRO Correct Answer - c) Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)
developing the Trishna satellite for high-resolution
thermal infrared imaging of Earth? Q47. Where was the Khelo India University Games
a) Israel 2024 held?
b) USA a) Mumbai, Maharashtra
c) France b) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
d) UAE c) Guwahati, Assam
d) Panaji, Goa
Correct Answer - c) France
Correct Answer - c) Guwahati, Assam
Q43. What strategic rationale drives India's
investment in Iran's Chabahar Port? Q48. Which of the following correctly describes
a) To reach Afghanistan and Central Asia bypassing Mission Shakti?
Pakistan 1. It is an integrated women empowerment
programme launched in 2022.

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2. It is run by the Ministry of Women and Child d) Goa
Development.
Correct Answer - c) Maharashtra
3. The scheme includes Samarthya and Sambal
sub-schemes.
Q54. What is the name of the satellite launched by
a) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
ISRO's GSLV-F09 that was a gift to SAARC
b) Only 1 and 3 are correct
nations?
c) Only 2 and 3 are correct
d) Only 1 and 2 are correct a) GSAT-9
b) GSAT-19
Correct Answer - a) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct c) INSAT-3DR
d) IRNSS-1G
Q49. How often is the World Happiness Report
Correct Answer - a) GSAT-9
released?
a) Quarterly
Q55. Which of the below statements is/are correct?
b) Annually
Statement 1: India supports connectivity through
c) Triennially
the North-South Transport Corridor.
d) Biennially
Statement 2: The corridor strengthens India's trade
Correct Answer - b) Annually with the Pacific Islands.
a) Only Statement 2 is correct
Q50. What does the term 'Duckworth-Lewis Method' b) Only Statement 1 is correct
relate to in cricket? c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
a) Fielding restrictions d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
b) Player ranking system Correct Answer - b) Only Statement 1 is correct
c) Bowling speed calculation
d) Calculating revised target in rain-affected matches
Q56. How many total medals did India win at the
Correct Answer - d) Calculating revised target in International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF)
rain-affected matches Rifle/Pistol World Cup 2023 held in Bhopal?
a) 6
Q51. Which Indian woman was the pioneer in b) 5
winning a silver medal at the Olympic Games? c) 7
a) Saina Nehwal d) 8
b) Karnam Malleswari Correct Answer - d) 8
c) Mary Kom
d) P.V. Sindhu
Q57. What is the purpose of the 'Beti Bachao Beti
Correct Answer - d) P.V. Sindhu Padhao' scheme?
a) Saving and educating the girl child
Q52. In which year did Toni Morrison become the b) Women's health insurance
first African-American woman to win the Nobel Prize c) Employment for women
in Literature? d) Financial support for girl's marriage
a) 1991 Correct Answer - a) Saving and educating the girl
b) 1995 child
c) 1993
d) 1987
Q58. Who was announced on 26 June 2025 as first
Correct Answer - c) 1993 Indian astronaut for Titans Space mission?
a) Rakesh Sharma
Q53. Where was the National Cadets Judo b) Sunita Williams
Championships 2024-25 held? c) Jahnavi Dangeti
a) Odisha d) Minal Patel
b) Delhi
c) Maharashtra

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 Correct Answer - c) Jahnavi Dangeti Q64. What advanced technology is being tested in
ISRO’s new 'Next Generation Launch Vehicle'
Q59. Which ISRO initiative, launched with the vision (NGLV) project to replace PSLV and GSLV?
of “Catch them young”, aims to introduce school a) Reusable booster stage with semi-cryogenic engine
students to space science and technology? b) Quantum entanglement-based control
a) Vidyarthi Vigyan Manthan c) Ramjet propulsion
b) YUVIKA – Young Scientist Programme d) Multiple orbital drop pods
c) SPARK Internship Programme Correct Answer - a) Reusable booster stage with
d) NISHTHA Space Module semi-cryogenic engine
Correct Answer - b) YUVIKA – Young Scientist
Programme Q65. Where was the 72nd Senior National Volleyball
Championship 2024 held?
Q60. Where was the 86th Senior National Table a) Bangalore, Karnataka
Tennis Championships 2025 held? b) Bhubaneswar, Odisha
a) Panaji, Goa c) Guwahati, Assam
b) Surat, Gujarat d) Mumbai, Maharashtra
c) Mumbai, Maharashtra Correct Answer - c) Guwahati, Assam
d) Bhubaneswar, Odisha

Correct Answer - b) Surat, Gujarat Q66. What is the score of India in Corruption
Perception Index published by Transparency
Q61. The IMEC is envisaged as a multi-modal International?
corridor. Which of the following modes of transport a) 38
are its primary components? b) 48
a) Air, Rail, and Sea c) 150
b) Road and Pipeline only d) 300
c) Maritime and Rail only Correct Answer - a) 38
d) Air and Road only

Correct Answer - c) Maritime and Rail only Q67. In the Climate Change Performance Index
2025, why did India retain a top-10 spot unlike
Q62. India's support for which of the following several developed economies?
missions aligns most closely with IMEC's purpose? a) High renewable energy share and low per capita
a) African Union's Blue Charter mission emissions
b) Non-Aligned Movement’s Neutrality Declaration b) Lack of net-zero policy
c) International Solar Alliance energy initiative c) Aggressive fossil fuel expansion
d) One Sun One World One Grid initiative d) High energy consumption per capita

Correct Answer - d) One Sun One World One Grid Correct Answer - a) High renewable energy share
initiative and low per capita emissions

Q63. What is the main objective of ISRO’s Q68. Who will fly to ISS under Axiom-4 mission in
SCATSAT-1 satellite? June 2025?

a) Monitoring earthquake zones a) Gagandeep Singh

b) Measuring atmospheric ozone depletion b) Sunita Williams
c) Weather forecasting and cyclone prediction c) Shubhanshu Shukla
d) Mapping forest cover across India d) Prasanth Nair

Correct Answer - c) Weather forecasting and Correct Answer - c) Shubhanshu Shukla

cyclone prediction
Q69. Which Indian sporting award is given for
outstanding performance in sports coaching?

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 a) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award Q74. Which region has become the new epicenter of
b) Dronacharya Award global terrorism, according to the GTI (Global
c) Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puruskar Terrorism Index) 2024?
d) Arjuna Award
a) Southeast Asia
Correct Answer - b) Dronacharya Award b) Central Sahel region of sub-Saharan Africa
c) Central Asia
d) Middle East and North Africa
Q70. How many players from one team are allowed
on the basketball court during play? Correct Answer - b) Central Sahel region of
a) 4 sub-Saharan Africa
b) 5
c) 6 Q75. What is one of the major future impacts of
d) 7 ISRO's Aditya-L1 mission that studies the Sun's
Correct Answer - d) 7 chromosphere and corona?
a) Mapping of asteroids beyond Neptune
Q71. Which analytical inference best explains why b) Enhanced rainfall prediction in monsoon regions
c) Improved space weather forecasting to protect
Prof. Govindarajan Padmanabhan received the
satellites and power systems
Vigyan Ratna award in Biological Sciences?
d) Development of underwater navigation systems
a) For isolating SARS-CoV-2 protein markers
b) For discovering DNA replication enzymes Correct Answer - c) Improved space weather
c) For elucidating malaria parasite metabolism and forecasting to protect satellites and power systems
boosting biotech start-ups
d) For promoting chemical synthesis in pharma Q76. Which type of vehicle is commonly used in
Correct Answer - c) For elucidating malaria zero-emission public transport systems?
parasite metabolism and boosting biotech start-ups a) Diesel buses
b) Electric buses
c) Petrol cars
Q72. Statement 1: The Aditya-L1 mission was
d) Hybrid vehicles
launched to replace the INSAT series of weather
satellites. Correct Answer - b) Electric buses
Statement 2: Aditya-L1 successfully entered a Halo
Orbit around the Lagrange Point 1 (L1) to observe Q77. Where was the Khelo India Youth Games 2024
solar activity. held?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Goa
a) 2 only b) Tamil Nadu
b) Both 1 and 2 c) Odisha
c) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Maharashtra
d) 1 only
Correct Answer - b) Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer - a) 2 only

Q78. Which of the following correctly pairs the

Q73. In 2025, ISRO announced the construction of initiative with its primary objective from India's
the "Bharatiya Antariksh Station" project. What is the viewpoint?
first module scheduled to be tested under this
a) Chabahar Port - Access Central Asia via Iran
initiative?
b) BIMSTEC - Land connectivity to Europe
a) Cryogenic Fuel Storage Hub c) QUAD - Strengthening oil diplomacy in Gulf
b) Robotic Refueling Unit d) IMEC - Maritime security in South China Sea
c) Autonomous AI-operated lab
d) Orbital Habitation Module Correct Answer - a) Chabahar Port - Access
Central Asia via Iran
Correct Answer - d) Orbital Habitation Module

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Q79. What is a unique feature of the AstroSat Q81. Which of the following accurately describes
mission operated by ISRO? The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida, winner of the
2022 Booker Prize?
a) Simultaneous multi-wavelength observations
1. The novel is set during the civil war in Sri Lanka
b) Optical observations only
and explores the afterlife of a photojournalist.
c) X-ray observations only
2. It is a non-fictional account of archaeological
d) Single-wavelength observations
excavations in the Gandhara region.
Correct Answer - a) Simultaneous 3. The author, Shehan Karunatilaka, uses satire and
multi-wavelength observations ghosts to comment on violence, memory, and
political trauma.
Q80. Assertion (A): The standard distance a) 2 and 3 only
between the penalty spot and the goal line on a b) 1 and 3 only
football field is 11 meters. c) 1 and 2 only
Reason (R): This distance allows the goalkeeper a d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
fair reaction time while challenging the accuracy and
Correct Answer - b) 1 and 3 only
confidence of the penalty taker.
Evaluate them and choose the appropriate answer:
a) A is false, but R is true.
b) A is true, but R is false.
c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A.
d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.

Correct Answer - c) Both A and R are true, and R is

the correct explanation of A.

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