24-08-2025

9610WMD802363250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) The mass and volume of a body are found to be (5 ± 0.05) kg and (1 ± 0.05)m3 respectively, then
the maximum possible percentage error in density:

(1) 3%
(2) 10%
(3) 6%
(4) 5%

2) If and percentage error in measurement of A,B and C are 0.1%, 0.2 % and 0.3%
respectively, then maximum percentage error in measurement of X will be

(1) –0.5 %
(2) 0.5 %
(3) 0.9 %
(4) 1.3 %

3) The main scale division of vernier calliper is equal to 1 mm. 19 division of main scale are equal in
length to 20 division of vernier scale. In measuring diameter the main scale read 35 divison and 4th
divison of vernier scale coinide with main scale. Find diameter

(1) 36.2 mm
(2) 34.2 mm
(3) 35.2 mm
(4) 37.2 mm

4) A screw guage has 50 divisions in its circular scale and pitch of the screw gauge is 0.5 m. Then
the least count of the screw gauge (in meter) is.

(1) 0.05
(2) 0.01
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.1

5) If force ; is dimensionally correct, the dimensions of [xy] are

(1) [M2L4T–4]
(2) [ML3T–4]
(3) [ML2T–2]
 0
(4) [M L3T–4]

6) Some physical constants are given in column I and their dimensional formulae are given in
column II. Match the correct pairs in the columns.

(1) A(R), B(S), C(Q), D(P)

(2) A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)
(3) A(R), B(Q), C(S), D(P)
(4) A(Q), B(R), C(P), D(S)

7) If the error in the measurement of area of a sphere is 2%, then the maximum error in calculation
of volume will be

(1) 2%
(2) 1%
(3) 4%
(4) 3%

8) A physical quantities given by the relation P3 = , if the percentage error are in P, Q, & S is
2%, 3% & 1%, than find out the % error in R

(1) 12%
(2) 13%
(3) 9%
(4) 8.6%

9) The dimensions of in the equation , where P is pressure, x is distance and t is time,

are:-

(1) [MT–2]
(2) [M2LT–3]
(3) [ML3T–1]
(4) [LT–3]

10) Which of the following functions of A and B is possibly correct if A and B possess different
dimensions?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A wave is represented by y = a sin(At – Bx + C) where A, B, C are constants. The dimensions of

A, B, C are

0 0 0
(1) T–1, L, M L L
0 0 0
(2) T–1, L–1, M L L
(3) T, L, M
(4) T–1, L–1, M–1

12) A charge Q is placed at each of two opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at each of
the other two corners. If resultant electric force on q is zero, then q/Q is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

–2
(4)

13) Two identical metal spheres charged with +12 μC and –8μC are kept at a certain distance in air.
They are brought into contact and then kept at the same [Link] ratio of the magnitude of
electrostatic force between them before and after their contact is :-

(1) 8 : 1
(2) 12 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 24 : 1

14) Three charges –q1, +q2 and –q3 are placed as shown in the figure. The x-component of the force
on –q1 is proportional to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD, as shown in the adjoining figure. The
electric field at the centre O is

(1) Zero
(2) Along the diagonal AC
(3) Along the diagonal BD
(4) Perpendicular to side AB

16) Two charges 4q and –9q are seperated by a distance 20 cm, then position of the third charge
where it is in equilibrium :

(1) 20 cm from 4q
(2) 20 cm from –9q
(3) 60 cm from –9q
(4) 8 cm from 4q

17) Two equal charges Q Placed at two corners of equilateral triangle and q is placed at center point
O. If the net electric field at A is zero, then find q.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Consider the following charged suspended ball system. If α < β then the statements which can

be true at equillibrium out of followings (a) Q1 > Q2 m1 < m2

(b) Q1 > Q2 m1 > m2
(c) Q1 < Q2 m1 = m2
(d) Q1 < Q2 m1 > m2

(1) Only d
(2) Only c
(3) (c, d)
(4) (b, d)

19) Particle B of charge Q and mass m is in equilibrium under weight and electrostatics force
applied by a fixed charged A, which is directly beneath the particle B as shown in figure. When

particle B is disturbed along vertical, the equilibrium is

(1) stable
(2) unstable
(3) neutral
(4) there can not be in equilibrium

20) Find E = + + + +....∞

(1)
kq

(2)
kq

(3)
kq

(4)
kq

21) Six charges are placed at the vertices of a regular hexagon as shown in the figure. The

horizontal component of the electric field will be at point O : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

22) For a ring having radius R of uniform linear charge density λ (As shown in figure) its intensity of

electric field at its centre equals to :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) Zero

23) Electric field of a charged ring (of radius R and charge Q) at its axis, very close to centre can be
approx equal to (x = distance from centre) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Correct graph between electric field and position (x) due to +ve charged ring is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25) Match the field lines given in Column I with the charge configuration due to which field lines
exist in Column II.

Column-I Column-II

A pair of equal and

(A) p.
opposite charges

(B) q. A pair of positive charges

(C) r. A single positive charge

(D) s. A single negative charge

(1) A → s, B → q, C → r, D → q
(2) A → p, B → q, C → r, D → s
(3) A → s, B → r, C → q, D → p
(4) A → p, B → s, C → r, D → q

26) An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in between two charged plates as shown. The lines of
force look like:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

27) In a region of space the electric field is given by The electric flux through a
surface of area of 100 unit in XY-plane is :

(1) 800 unit

(2) 300 unit
(3) 400 unit
(4) 1500 unit

28) At the centre of a cubical box +Q charge is placed. The value of total flux that is coming out a
wall is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the radius is doubled, then
the outward electric flux will

(1) increase four times

(2) be reduced to half
(3) remain the same
(4) be doubled
30) Find flux from G.S. (Radius of sphere is R)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) In the figure, uniform electric field is present in vertical downward direction. Find flux passing

through the curved surface?

(1) EπR2
(2) - E π R2
(3) Zero
(4) 2 E π R2

32) As shown in fig. the electric field in a region is given by volt/m then the total electric
flux through the cube of side 'a' will be :-
(1) Zero
2
(2) 3 E0a
2
(3) E0a
(4) 3E0

33) The net field at P due to two thin infinite planes of surface charge densities σ and –σ at P is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 0

(4)

34) Two infinite wire are placed in parallel at separation a what will be electric field at mid point

between two wire.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Which of the following correctly represents the E–r curve for charged spherical shell :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected to each other by a wire. What is
the ratio of electric fields at the surfaces of the two spheres.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Electric field produces by a conducting sphere on its surface is 3 × 106 volt/metre. If diameter of
the sphere is 5 m then approximate charge present on the sphere is : [In coulombs]

(1) 2 × 10–2
(2) 2 × 10–3
(3) 2 × 10–4
(4) 2 × 10–5

38) Two large parallel planes charge uniformly with surface charge density σ and –σ are located as
shown in the figure. Which one of the following graphs shows the variation of electric field along a

line perpendicular to the planes as one moves from A to B ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Sphere is charged uniformly. If one moves from A to B along diameter AB, then electric field :-

(1) First increases then decreases

(2) First decreases then increases
(3) Remains same
(4) Zero

40) What is the value of Q so that electric potential at point P becomes zero :-

(1)
(2)
(3) q
(4) –q

41) The potential at a point due to a charge of 5 x 10-7 C located 10 cm away is

(1) 3.5 x 105 V

(2) 3.5 x 104 V
(3) 4.5 x 104 V
(4) 4.5 x 105 V
42) Electric potential at point P is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Three charges Q,(+q) and (+q) are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side as
shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the system is zero, then Q is equal to :-

(1)

(2) (– q)
(3) (+ q)
(4) Zero

44) A prism shaped imaginary structure is given. A point charge is kept as given in figure. Calculate

electric flux passing through the prism.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
45) If a cube of side 5 cm has a charge of 6 microcoulombs, then the surface charge density is :-

(1) 4 × 102 µC/m2

(2) 4 × 102 C/m2
(3) 4 × 103 µC/m2
(4) 4 × 103 C/m2

CHEMISTRY

1) One mole of CO2 contains

(1) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of C

(2) 6.02 × 1023 atoms of O
23
(3) 18.1 × 10 molecules of CO2
(4) 3 g atoms of CO2

2) Which of the following has the smaller number of molecules?

(1) 11.2 L of O2 at NTP

(2) 8.0 g of O2
(3) 0.1 mole of O2
4
(4) 2.24 × 10 mL of O2

3) Two elements X (atomic weight = 75) and Y (atomic weight = 16) combine to give a compound
having 75.8% of X. The empirical formula of the compound is

(1) XY
(2) X2Y
(3) XY2
(4) X2Y3

4) If 1.5 moles of oxygen combine with Al to form Al2O3, the mass of Al in g (Atomic mass of Al = 27)
used in the reaction is

(1) 2.7
(2) 54
(3) 40.5
(4) 81

5) If 30 ml of H2 and 20 mL of O2 react to form water, what is left at the end of the reaction ?

(1) 10 ml of H2
(2) 5 ml of H2
(3) 10 ml of O2
(4) 5 ml of O2

6) For a reaction A + 2B → C, the amount of C formed by starting the reaction with 5 moles of A and
8 moles of B is

(1) 5 moles
(2) 8 moles
(3) 16 moles
(4) 4 moles

7) In a flask, the weight ratio of CH4(g) and SO2(g) at 298 K is 1 : 2. The ratio of the number of
molecules of SO2(g) and CH4(g) is

(1) 1 : 4
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

8) What is the mass percent of carbon in carbon dioxide?

(1) 0.034%
(2) 27.27%
(3) 3.4%
(4) 28.7%

9) If 6 × 1020 molecules are removed from 220 mg of CO2, then the number of moles of CO2 left are

(1) 4 × 10–3
(2) 1.66 × 10–3
(3) 4.54 × 10–3
(4) 1.66 × 10–2

10) Calculate the mass of graphite that must be burnt to produce 13.2 g of CO2.

(1) 3.6 g
(2) 7.2 g
(3) 1.8 g
(4) 9 g

11) Match the column

Column-I (No. moles) Column-II (Amount)

(A) 0.1 mole (p) 4480 mL of CO2 at STP
(B) 0.2 mole (q) 0.1 g atom of iron
(C) 0.25 mole (r) 1.5 × 1023 molecules of oxygen gas
(D) 0.5 mole (s) 9 mL of water
(t) 200 mg of hydrogen gas
(1) (A – s, t; B – r; C – p; D – q)
(2) (A – p, t; B – q; C – r; D – s)
(3) (A – q, t; B – p; C – r; D – s)
(4) (A – r, t; B – p; C – q; D – t)

12) 446 g of PbO, 46 g of NO2 and 16 g of O2 are allowed to react according to the equation :-

PbO + 2NO2 + O2 → Pb(NO3)2

The amount of Pb(NO3)2 that can be produced is (At. wt. of Pb = 207) :-

(1) 331 g
(2) 662 g
(3) 165.5 g
(4) None of these

13) A sample of organic compound on complete combustion gives 88 g CO2 and 36 g of H2O. The
molecular formula of the compound may be :-

(1) C4H6
(2) CH4
(3) C2H4
(4) C2H6

14) At 25°C for complete combustion of 5 mol propane (C3H8). The required volume of O2 at STP will
be.

(1) 560 L
(2) 560 mL
(3) 360 L
(4) 360 mL

15) Calculate the number of atom present in one drop of water having mass 1.8 g.

(1) 0.3 NA
(2) 0.2 NA
(3) 0.1 NA
(4) 0.01 NA

16) Which of the following sets of ions represent a collective of isoelectronic species ?

(1) K+, Cl–, Mg2+, Sc3+

(2) Na+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl–
(3) K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl–
(4) Na+, Mg2+, Al3+, Cl–

17) The correct increasing order of radii of the following series is

K+, Cl–, S2–, Ca2+

(1) S2– < Cl– < K+ < Ca2+

(2) Ca2+ < S2– < Cl– < K+
(3) Ca2+ < K+ < Cl– < S2–
(4) S2– < Cl– < K+ < Ca2+

18) The element with highest electronegativity will belong to

(1) period 2, group 17

(2) period 3, group 17
(3) period 2, group 16
(4) period 2, group 15

19) Which represents alkali metal based on (IE)1 and (IE)2 values ?
(IE)1 (IE)2

(1) X 100 110

(2) Y 100 110
(3) Z 195 500
(4) M 200 250

20) Which has maximum IE ?

(1) Mg
(2) Mg+
(3) Mg2+
(4) Equal

21) Which pair represents incorrect first I.E. ?

(1) Be > B
(2) N > O
(3) Li > Na
(4) He > He+

22) Nitrogen is found to have higher value of ionisation energy because

(1) it has half-filled p-orbitals

(2) it has chemically inert
(3) its shielding effect overcomes the nucleon charge
(4) All of the above are correct
23) First, second and third IE values are 100 eV, 150 eV and 1500 eV, Element can be

(1) Be
(2) B
(3) F
(4) Na

24) Among halogens, the correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain (electron gain
enthalpy) is

(1) F > Cl > Br > I

(2) F < Cl < Br < I
(3) F < Cl > Br > I
(4) F < Cl > Br < I

25) Which of the following is the correct order of size of the given species ?

(1) I > I– > I+

(2) I+ > I– > I
(3) I > I+ > I–
(4) I– > I > I+

26) Assertion (A) :- Generally, ionisation enthalpy increases from left to right in a period.
Reason (R) :- When successive electrons are added to the orbitals in the same principle quantum
level, the shielding effect of inner core of electrons does not increase very much to compensate for
the increased attraction of the electron to the nucleus.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

27) Match the atomic number in Column I with its IUPAC nomenclature in Column II.

Column-I Column-II

A 105 1 Uuh

B 107 2 Uun

C 109 3 Uns

D 110 4 Unp

E 116 5 Une
(1) A→4, B→3, C→5, D→2, E→1
(2) A→3, B→4, C→5, D→2, E→1
(3) A→4, B→5, C→3, D→2, E→1
(4) A→4, B→3, C→2, D→5, E→1
28) Ionisation energy of the element X(g) is I and the electron affinity of X+(g) is E then

(1) I = E
(2) I = –E
(3) IE = I
(4) IE = –I

29) Which is correct order of size of O–, O2–, F– and F

(1) O2– > O– > F– > F

(2) O– > O2– > F– > F
(3) O2– > F– > F– > O–
(4) O2– > F– > O– > F

30) The newly discovered element with atomic number 117 would be placed in

(1) alkali metals

(2) alkaline earth metals
(3) halogens
(4) noble gases

31) Anything that influences the valence electrons will affect the chemistry of the element. Which
one of the following factors does not affect the valence shell?

(1) Valence principal quantum number (n)

(2) Nuclear charge (Z)
(3) Nuclear mass
(4) Number of core electrons

32) The first element of a group in many ways differs from the other heavier members of the group.
This is due to

(1) the small size

(2) the high electronegativity and high ionisation potential
(3) the unavailability of d-orbitals
(4) All of the above

33) For the process,

X(g) + e– → X–(g) ; ΔH = x and
X–(g) → X(g) + e– ; ΔH = y
Select the correct alternate

(1) Ionisation energy of X–(g) is y

(2) Electron affinity of X(g) is x
(3) Electron affinity of X(g) is –y
(4) All of the above are correct statements
34) Magic number are

(1) principal quantum number

(2) azimuthal quantum number
(3) magnetic quantum number
(4) 2, 8, 18, 32

35) The electron affinity of halogens are F = 322, Cl = 349, Br = 324, I = 295 kJ mol–1. The higher
value of Cl as compared to that of F due to

(1) weaker electron-electron repulsion in Cl

(2) higher atomic radius of F
(3) smaller electronegativity of F
(4) more vacant p-subshell in Cl

36) Which of the following species has tetrahedral shape ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
+
(4) H3O

37) All the following molecules are linear except one

(1) SO2
(2) CO2
(3) HCN
(4) NO

38) Electronegativity value of

W = 1.0 X = 2.0 Y = 2.5 Z = 3.5
Based on the given values, which bond is least polar ?

(1) WX
(2) WZ
(3) XY
(4) XZ

39) The strength of bonds by overlapping of atomic orbitals are in order

(1) s-s > s-p > p-p

(2) s-s < p-p < s-p
(3) s-p < s-s < p-p
(4) p-p < s-s < s-p

40) Assertion (A) :- Sodium chloride formed by the action of chlorine gas on sodium metal is a
stable compound.
Reason (R) :- This is because sodium and chloride ions acquire octet in sodium chloride formation.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

41) Following graph shows variation of ionisation energy (IE) with atomic number in second period
(Li-Ne).

Value of ionisation energy (IE) of Na (11) with be

(1) above Ne
(2) below Ne but above O
(3) below Li
(4) between N and O

42) Fluorine has the highest electronegativity among the ns2np5 group on the Pauling scale, but the
electron affinity of fluorine is less than that of the chlorine because

(1) the atomic number of fluorine is less than that of chlorine

(2) fluorine being the first member of the family behaves in an unusual manner.
(3) Chlorine has small size comparison to fluorine
small size, high electron density and an increased electron repulsion makes addition of an
(4)
electron fluorine less favourable than that in the case of chlorine

43) Match the following oxides with their nature.

Column-I Column-II

A H2O 1 Basic

B Na2O 2 Amphoteric

C ZnO 3 Acidic

D SO3 4 Neutral
(1) A→4, B→1, C→2, D→3
(2) A→1, B→4, C→2, D→3
(3) A→4, B→2, C→1, D→3
(4) A→4, B→1, C→3, D→2

44) The water molecule has a ……….. (X) ……….. geometry because its central atom has ……….. (Y)
……….. bonds and ……….. (Z) ……….. lone pair of electrons.
X Y Z

(1) bent 2 2
(2) linear 2 2
(3) pyramidal 3 1
(4) tetrahedral 4 0

45) The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of N in , and respectively are

(1) sp, sp2, sp3

(2) sp, sp3, sp2
(3) sp2, sp, sp3
(4) sp2, sp3, sp

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following correctly matches the respiratory disorder with its cause or feature?

(1) Asthma – Alveolar wall damage due to smoking

(2) Emphysema – Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles
(3) Occupational lung disease – Fibrosis due to long-term dust exposure
(4) Asthma – Decrease in respiratory surface due to fibrosis

2) Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume:

(i) Inspiratory reserve volume
(ii) Residual volume
(iii) Expiratory reserve volume
(iv) Inspiratory capacity

(1) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

(2) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(4) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

3) Read the following statements w.r.t. mechanism of breathing.

(a) Expiration occurs due to contraction of external as well as internal intercostal muscles.
(b) Inspiration is initiated by contraction of diaphragm and relaxation of external intercostal
muscles.
(c) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary pressure.
(d) Due to contraction of diaphragm, volume of thoracic cavity increases in dorso ventral axis.
(e) Due to relaxation of external intercostal muscle volume of thoracic cavity decreases in antero
posterior axis.
How many statements are incorrect ?

(1) Two
(2) Four
(3) One
(4) Three

4) Statement I - During the transportation of gases about 20-25 percent of CO2 is carried by
Hemoglobin as carbaminohemoglobin.
Statement II – Carbaminohemoglobin is transported through plasma.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.

5) Curve X in the graph represents right shift of oxygen dissociation curve. What can be the possible
reason –

+
(1) Low pCO2, High H , Low O2
+
(2) High pO2, Low H , High temperature
(3) Low pO2, High temperature, Low pH
(4) High pCO2, low pO2, low temperature

6) After taking a deep breath, the volume of air that can be forcefully exhaled is known as:

(1) Expiratory reserve volume

(2) Vital capacity
(3) Functional residual capacity
(4) Total lung capacity

7) The alveoli are structurally best described as:

(1) Thick-walled and non-vascular

(2) Thin-walled and vascular
(3) Thin-walled and non-vascular
(4) Thick-walled and vascular

8) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the human respiratory tract?
(A) The epiglottis covers the glottis during breathing to allow free passage of air
(B) The trachea divides into two primary bronchi at the level of the 5th thoracic vertebra.
(C) All bronchioles, including terminal bronchioles, are supported by incomplete cartilaginous rings.
(D) The alveoli are thin, vascularised structures that serve as the primary site for gaseous exchange.

(1) Only B and D

(2) Only A and C
(3) Only A, B and D
(4) Only B, C and D

9) Which of the following represents the correct sequential steps involved in respiration?
(A) Diffusion of gases across alveolar membrane
(B) Transport of gases by blood
(C) Breathing or pulmonary ventilation
(D) Utilisation of O₂ by cells and release of CO₂
(E) Diffusion of O₂ and CO₂ between blood and tissues
Choose the correct sequence:

(1) A → C → B → E → D
(2) C → A → B → E → D
(3) C → B → A → E → D
(4) C → A → E → B → D

10) Assertion (A): Inspiration occurs due to pressure difference between atmosphere and lungs.
Reason (R): A negative pressure inside the lungs relative to atmospheric pressure causes air to
enter the lungs.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

11) Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Exchange of gases and nutrients between blood and body cells occurs directly across the capillary
wall.
II. Exchange between blood and cells occurs through the interstitial fluid.
III. Interstitial fluid is drained by the lymphatic vessels.
IV. Lymph is eventually returned to major veins.

(1) II and III only

(2) II, III and IV only
(3) I, II and IV only
(4) All four statements are correct

12) Which valve is found between the right atrium and right ventricle?
(1) Bicuspid valve
(2) Semilunar valve
(3) Tricuspid valve
(4) Aortic valve

13) Which of the following statements regarding nodal tissue and its function is correct?

(1) The AV node initiates the heartbeat and is called the pacemaker of the heart
(2) Purkinje fibers are present in the atrial wall and help initiate action potentials
(3) The SA node is located in the left atrium and generates 40–60 action potentials per minute.
The AV bundle carries impulses from the AV node to the interventricular septum and splits into
(4)
left and right bundles.

14) Choose the incorrect match:

ECG Feature Clinical Significance

(1) P-wave Indicates atrial excitation
(2) QRS complex Begins atrial systole
(3) T-wave Indicates return of ventricles to normal state
(4) QRS complex count Used to calculate heart rate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) The coronary system is:

(1) A part of the hepatic portal circulation

(2) A system of nerves supplying the heart
(3) The blood vessel network supplying the cardiac muscles
(4) A vein carrying blood from the heart to the brain

16) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Two Kingdom classification
system developed by Linnaeus?

(1) It clearly distinguished between unicellular and multicellular organisms.

(2) It included all living organisms under the kingdoms Plantae and Animalia.
(3) It differentiated between eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
(4) It was based on evolutionary relationships and cell structure.

17) Why was the Two Kingdom classification system considered inadequate?

(1) It included fungi in a separate kingdom.

(2) It did not account for differences in cell structure, nutrition, and reproduction.
(3) It was based on genetic sequencing.
(4) It included only unicellular organisms.
18) Who proposed the Five Kingdom Classification and which of the following were of the criteria
used for classification?

(1) R.H. Whittaker; criteria included cell structure, reproduction, and phylogenetic relationships.
(2) R.H. Whittaker; criteria included body organization and mode of nutrition genetic sequencing.
(3) Carolus Linnaeus; criteria included genetic sequencing and locomotion.
(4) R.H. Whittaker; criteria included cell structure and body organization.

19) What major change was introduced in the Three-Domain system compared to Whittaker’s Five
Kingdom system?

(1) Kingdom Plantae was divided into two domains.

(2) Kingdom Fungi was merged with Protista.
(3) Kingdom Monera was split into two separate domains.
(4) All eukaryotic kingdoms were removed from the classification.

20) What was the main feature used in earlier classification systems to group organisms under the
'Plant' kingdom?

(1) Presence of chlorophyll

(2) Mode of reproduction
(3) Presence of a cell wall
(4) Multicellularity

21) Why was the earlier classification of organisms under the 'Plant' kingdom considered
problematic?

(1) It did not include algae and fungi.

It grouped unicellular and multicellular, as well as prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
(2)
together.
(3) It separated cyanobacteria from bacteria.
(4) It only considered habitat as the basis for classification.

22) Which of the following substances is found in the cell wall of fungi?

(1) Cellulose
(2) Lignin
(3) Chitin
(4) Pectin

23) Why were organisms like Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Paramoecium, and Amoeba grouped
together under Kingdom Protista in the new classification?

(1) They are all prokaryotic

(2) They are multicellular autotrophs
(3) They are unicellular eukaryotes
(4) They have identical modes of reproduction
24) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Five Kingdom Classification?
I. Fungi were separated from plants due to differences in nutrition and cell wall composition.
II. All prokaryotic organisms were grouped under Kingdom Protista.
III. The classification system is now based solely on morphological traits.

(1) Only I
(2) I and II
(3) II and III
(4) I, II, and III

25) Assertion (A): Fungi are no longer placed under the Plant kingdom.
Reason (R): Fungi are heterotrophic and have cell walls made of chitin, unlike plants that are
autotrophic and have cellulose in their walls.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

26) What has been a major shift in classification systems over time?

(1) Focus has shifted from evolutionary traits to habitat

(2) Classification now ignores reproductive traits
(3) Emphasis is now on both evolutionary relationships and morphological similarities
(4) All organisms are now grouped based on size alone

27) Which of the following bacterial shapes is correctly matched with its name?

(1) Rod-shaped – Spirillum

(2) Spiral-shaped – Bacillus
(3) Comma-shaped – Vibrio
(4) Spherical – Bacillus

28) Under which kingdom are all bacteria classified?

(1) Protista
(2) Fungi
(3) Monera
(4) Plantae

29) Assertion (A): Bacteria are found in extreme environments such as hot springs and deep
oceans.
Reason (R): Bacteria are metabolically diverse and can adapt to various environmental conditions.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

30) Which of the following statements about bacteria is/are correct?

I. All bacteria are autotrophs.
II. Bacteria can survive in extreme environments like snow and deserts.
III. Photosynthetic and chemosynthetic bacteria are both autotrophic.

(1) Only II
(2) I and III
(3) II and III
(4) I, II, and III

31) Which of the following types of archaebacteria is correctly matched with its habitat?

(1) Halophiles – Gut of ruminants

(2) Thermoacidophiles – Extreme salty areas
(3) Methanogens – Gut of ruminants
(4) Methanogens – Hot springs

32) What enables archaebacteria to survive in extreme environmental conditions?

(1) Presence of flagella for movement

(2) Ability to photosynthesize
(3) Different structure of their cell wall
(4) High reproductive rate

33) Which of the following statements about bacteria is/are correct?

I. Cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll a and perform photosynthesis like green plants.
II. Some cyanobacteria can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called heterocysts.
III. Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria use light energy to produce ATP.

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II, and III

34) Which of the following diseases is caused by bacteria?

(1) Malaria
(2) Cholera
(3) Dengue
(4) AIDS

35) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding heterotrophic bacteria?
I. They are important decomposers.
II. They help in nitrogen fixation and curd formation.
III. They reproduce only by spore formation.

(1) Only I
(2) I and II
(3) II and III
(4) I, II, and III

36) Assertion (A): Bacteria can survive unfavorable conditions by forming spores.
Reason (R): Spores allow bacteria to reproduce rapidly in all environments.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

37) What makes Mycoplasma different from other bacteria?

(1) They are multicellular organisms.

(2) They have chloroplasts.
(3) They lack a cell wall and can survive without oxygen.
(4) They are viruses that infect bacteria.

38) Which is the most common method of reproduction in bacteria?

(1) Budding
(2) Fission
(3) Spore formation
(4) Conjugation

39) Why is Kingdom Protista considered to form a link between plants, animals, and fungi?

(1) Because it includes both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

(2) Because its members have characteristics similar to plants, animals, and fungi.
(3) Because all protists are autotrophic.
(4) Because it includes multicellular organisms.

40) Which of the following groups is included under Kingdom Protista in the given text?

(1) Bacteria and Mycoplasma

(2) Algae and Bryophytes
(3) Chrysophytes and Protozoans
(4) Fungi and Cyanobacteria

41) Which of the following statements about Kingdom Protista is/are correct?
I. All protists are unicellular eukaryotes with membrane-bound organelles.
II. Some protists possess flagella or cilia for movement.
III. Protists reproduce only through asexual methods.

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II, and III

42) Which of the following are included in the group Chrysophytes?

(1) Diatoms and Desmids

(2) Euglenoids and Protozoans
(3) Slime moulds and Dinoflagellates
(4) Bacteria and Fungi

43) Why are diatom cell walls considered indestructible?

(1) They are made of cellulose

(2) They contain lignin
(3) They are embedded with silica
(4) They have no cell wall

44) Which of the following statements about diatoms is/are correct?

I. Diatoms are planktonic and photosynthetic.
II. Diatomaceous earth is used in polishing and filtration.
III. Diatoms are considered the primary producers in marine ecosystems.

(1) Only I
(2) I and II only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II, and III

45) What feature helps identify Euglenoids in contrast to other protists?

(1) Cell wall made of silica.

(2) Cell wall made of cellulose.
(3) Protein-rich flexible pellicle instead of a cell wall.
(4) Absence of pigments.

46) Which of the following statements about Dinoflagellates is/are correct?

I. They are mostly marine and photosynthetic.
II. Red tides are caused by their rapid multiplication.
III. All dinoflagellates are harmless to marine life.

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II, and III

47) Why are Euglenoids considered both autotrophic and heterotrophic?

(1) They contain both plant and animal DNA.

(2) They can photosynthesize in sunlight and feed on organisms in its absence.
(3) They switch between unicellular and multicellular forms.
(4) They have a cell wall and pellicle.

48) Which of the following is true about slime moulds?

(1) They are photosynthetic protists found in water.

(2) Their spores lack protective walls and quickly degrade.
(3) They form plasmodium and fruiting bodies under different conditions.
(4) They reproduce only by binary fission.

49) Which of the following statements about protozoans is/are correct?

I. All protozoans are heterotrophs.
II. Some protozoans move using pseudopodia, cilia, or flagella.
III. Sporozoans include free-living aquatic organisms only.

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II, and III

50) Which protozoan is responsible for causing sleeping sickness?

(1) Plasmodium
(2) Paramoecium
(3) Entamoeba
(4) Trypanosoma

51) Which of the following statements about fungi is/are correct?

I. Most fungi are filamentous and made up of structures called hyphae.
II. Fungal cell walls are made of cellulose.
III. Fungi can be saprophytic, parasitic, or symbiotic.

(1) I and II only

(2) I and III only
(3) II and III only
(4) I, II, and III

52) Assertion (A): In ascomycetes and basidiomycetes, a dikaryotic stage (n + n) is formed during
sexual reproduction.
Reason (R): In these fungi, fusion of protoplasm (plasmogamy) is not immediately followed by
nuclear fusion (karyogamy).
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

53) Which of the following characteristics is true for Phycomycetes?

(1) Mycelium is septate and branched

(2) Asexual spores are conidia produced exogenously
(3) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
(4) Sexual reproduction occurs via ascospores in asci

54) Which of the following pairs of fungi are classified under Ascomycetes and are known for their
economic importance?

(1) Mucor and Rhizopus

(2) Penicillium and Neurospora
(3) Albugo and Saccharomyces
(4) Aspergillus and Mucor

55) Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. Early humans could distinguish between living and non-living things.
II. Early humans immediately started classifying and naming organisms.
III. Fear and awe were common reactions to both animate and inanimate forms.

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II, and III

56) Assertion (A): Systematic description of life forms required detailed identification and
nomenclature systems and classification system.
Reason (R): Without this system, similarities among organisms could not be studied.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

57) Which of the following was a spin-off of the systematic study of life forms?

(1) Deification of nature

(2) Recognition of disimilarities among organism
(3) Recognition of shared similarities among organisms
(4) Invention of tools
58) Identify the correct statement(s):
I. Living organisms show similarities only horizontally (i.e., among contemporary species).
II. All organisms are unrelated to those that existed in the past.
III. Present-day organisms are related to both current and past organisms.

(1) I and II only

(2) III only
(3) I and III only
(4) II and III only

59) Assertion (A): Anthropocentric societies progressed rapidly in biological knowledge.

Reason (R): These societies considered humans as central to the universe.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are false.

60) What led to cultural movements for biodiversity conservation?

(1) Discovery of new species only

(2) Realization that all organisms are related
(3) Fear of natural disasters
(4) Advancements in astronomy

61) Consider the following statements:

I. Early man deified certain natural elements like wind and fire.
II. Biology always had a taxonomic approach from its inception.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor II

62) Assertion (A): All living organisms on Earth are isolated and do not share any lineage.
Reason (R): Evolution and taxonomy show that there is no connection among species.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

63) Assertion (A): Ernst Mayr significantly influenced the field of evolutionary biology by focusing
on species diversity.
Reason (R): He defined the currently accepted concept of a biological species.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

64) What is the estimated number of known and described species on Earth?

(1) 1.7–1.8 billion

(2) 170–180 thousand
(3) 1.7–1.8 million
(4) 7–8 million

65) What is the process of assigning a universal name to an organism called?

(1) Classification
(2) Nomenclature
(3) Identification
(4) Taxonomy

66) What must be done before naming an organism scientifically?

(1) Assign a random name

(2) Translate its name into Latin
(3) Describe and identify the organism correctly
(4) Compare it with all other species

67) Assertion (A): Scientific names help avoid confusion caused by local names.
Reason (R): The same organism may have different names in different languages.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

68) Which of the following is/are correct about scientific naming?

I. It ensures that one organism has only one name.
II. Names are based on internationally accepted codes.
III. Any name can be reused for different organisms.

(1) I and II only

(2) II and III only
(3) I and III only
(4) I, II, and III

69) The naming of animals is governed by which of the following codes?

(1) ICZN – International Code of Zoological Nomenclature.
(2) ICBN – International Code of Botanical Nomenclature.
(3) ISO – International Scientific Organization.
(4) NCERT – National Code of Educational Research and Training.

70) In Chlamydomonas and Amoeba:

(1) Reproduction is synonymous with growth, i.e., increase in number of cells

(2) Multicellular organisation may be formed
(3) Growth does not occur by increase in mass
(4) Growth occur by increase in mass but not by increase in number

71) Biodiversity refers to -

(1) ecosystem of a region

(2) number and types of organisms present on earth
(3) total gene present on earth
(4) organisms present at a particular place

72) The given table gives the classification of a wheat plant.

Kingdom Plantae

Division Angiospermae

_____i_____ Monocotyledonae

_____ii_____ Poales

Family _____iii_____
(1) i-Genus; ii-Class; iii-Poaceae
(2) i-Class; ii-Order; iii-Poaceae
(3) i-Genus; ii-Class; iii-Solanaceae
(4) i-Class; ii-Order; iii-Solanaceae

73)

Study the following representation and choose the correct option

(1) A & C → Polymoniales, E & G → Carnivora
(2) B & D → Monocotyledonae, F & H → Canidae
(3) A & C → Convolvulaceae, F & H → Felidae
(4) B & D → Poales, E & G → Mammalia

74) Which of the following violates the rules of binomial nomenclature?

(1) Panthera leo Linn

(2) Solanum Tuberosum
(3) Canis lupus
(4) Pisum sativum Linn

75) Identify the labellings in the following figures:-

A-Cell wall, B-Cell membrane,

(1) C-Heterocyst, D-DNA,
E-Mucilagenous sheath
A-Cell wall, B-Cell membrane,
(2) C-DNA, D-Heterocyst,
E-Mucilagenous sheath
A-Mucilagenous sheath,
(3) B-Cell membrane, C-DNA,
D-Heterocyst, E-Cell wall
 A-Cell membrane, B-Cell wall,
(4) C-DNA, D-Heterocyst,
E-Mucilagenous sheath

76) Which of the following plant is dioecious ?

(1) China rose

(2) Date palm
(3) Coconut
(4) Maize

77) Which of the following is incorrect

Angiospermic flower shows an amazing range of adaptations to ensure formation of the end
(1)
products of sexual reproduction the fruits and seeds.
(2) Flowers do not exist only for us to be used for our own selfishness.
(3) All fertile flowering plants shows sexual reproduction.
(4) Flowering plants produce fragrant and attractive flowers so they can be used by human beings.

78)

Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones
only.
(a) Pollen grains are usually spherical and measure 25-50 micrometer in diameter.
(b) At germpore sporopollenin is absent.
(c) Pollen grain consumption increase performance of athletes and race horses.
(d) Pollen grain are shed at 3-celled stage in more than 40% angiospermic plants.

Option :-
(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

79) How many megaspore mother cells are responsible for the formation of 80 functional
megaspores in Angiosperms ?

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 40
(4) 80

80) Sperms in angiosperms are formed by mitotic division in :-

(1) Microspore mother cell

(2) Tapetum
(3) Generative cell
(4) Vegetative cell

81) Assertion :- One meiosis is required for formation of four microspores.

Reason :- PMC is diploid cell which undergo meiosis give rise to haploid microspore.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

82) Assertion :- Microspore get dispersed after their maturation.

Reason :- Dehiscence take place through stomium cells of anther.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

83) Refer to the given figure of reproductive structure of Papaver and identify X and Y.

X Y

1. Syncarpous ovary Stigma

2. Stigma Syncarpous ovary

3. Thalamus Apocarpous ovary

4. Apocarpous ovary Thalamus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

84) Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D. Select the true statement?
(1) A is basal part of ovule.
(2) B is haploid tissue.
(3) D is the basal part of ovule.
(4) C is haploid and unicellular structure.

85) Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C and D in the figure and select the correct option.

A B C D

1. Synergids Antipodals Egg Filiform apparatus

2. Antipodals Synergids Egg Filiform apparatus

3. Antipodals Synergids Filiform apparatus Egg

4. Polar nuclei Antipodals Filiform apparatus Egg

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Assertion :- Anemophilous plants produce enormous amount of pollen grains.

Reason :- Pollen grains coming in contact with stigma is a chance factor in wind pollination.

(1) Assertion is true, reason is true and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is true, reason is true and reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, reason is true.

87) Amorphophallus flower provide floral rewards to the pollinator in the form of :-

(1) Beautiful colour

(2) Providing safe place to lay eggs
(3) Nectar
(4) Providing safe place for asexual reproduction

88) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Most of the plants like water hyacinth are pollinated by water
(b) Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
(c) Vallisneria flowers are pollinated under the water surface.
(d) Water lily are pollinated by insects. Option:

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d).

(2) Statements (b) and (d).
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d).
(4) Statements (a) and (c).

89) Given below is the diagrammatic view of fertilized female gametophyte of angiosperms.
Identify the parts labelled [A], [B], [C] and [D] and select the right option about them.

Part [A] Part [B] Part [C] Part [D]

(1) Egg cell Central Cell PEN Egg apparatus

(2) Egg cell PEC PEN Egg apparatus

(3) Zygote PEN PEC Degenerating antipodal cells

(4) Zygote PEC PEN Degenerating antipodal cells

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
90) Find the incorrect match

(1) Triple fusion - Fusion of male gamete with two polar nuclei
(2) Syngamy - Fusion of male gamete with egg cell
(3) Double fertilisation - Unique feature of Angiosperms
(4) Triple fusion - Syngamy + Double fertilisation
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 3 1 3 2 4 4 3 3 3 4 4 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 2 1 2 1 3 3 2 2 2 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 1 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 3 4 2 4 4 3 2 1 1 3 3 3 1 1 3 3 1 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 1 3 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 4 4 4 1 1 1 3 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 1 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 2 2 3 2 2 1 2 1 2 3 4 2 3 2 2 1 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 3 3 1 1 3 3 3 1 3 3 3 1 2 2 3 3 2 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 3 4 3 1 2 3 1 4 2 1 3 2 3 1 3 2 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 1 3 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 2 3 2 1 2 2 4 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Explaining : The mass and volume of a body are found to be (5 ± 0.05) kg and (1 ± 0.05)m3
respectively, then the maximum possible percentage error in density:

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

= 6%
Final Answer : (3)

2) Explaining : If and percentage error in measurement of A,B and C are 0.1%, 0.2
% and 0.3% respectively, then maximum percentage error in measurement of X will be
Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
= 1.3%
Final Answer : (4)

3) Explaining : The main scale division of vernier calliper is equal to 1 mm. 19 division of
main scale are equal in length to 20 division of vernier scale. In measuring diameter the main
scale read 35 divison and 4th divison of vernier scale coinide with main scale. Find diameter
Concept : This question is based on Reading = MSR + VSR.
Solution : 1MSD = 1mm
19 MSD = 20 VSD

1 VSD = MSD
LC = 1 MSD – 1 VSD = 0.05 mm
Reading = MSR + VSR
= 35 × 1 MSD + 4 × LC
= 35 × 1mm + 4 × 0.05
= 35 + 0.2
= 35.2 mm
Final Answer : (3)

4) Explaining : A screw guage has 50 divisions in its circular scale and pitch of the screw
gauge is 0.5 m. Then the least count of the screw gauge (in meter) is.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

5) Explaining : If force ; is dimensionally correct, the dimensions of [xy] are

Concept : This question is based on principle of homogenity.
Solution : x = FA
x = [ML3T–2]
y = [MLT–2]
(xy) = M2L4T–4
Final Answer : (1)

6) Explaining : Some physical constants are given in column I and their dimensional formulae
are given in column II. Match the correct pairs in the columns.
Concept : This question is based on dimensional formula.
Solution : G = M–1L3T–2
• Stefans constant,

σ = [MT–3K–4]
• Boltzamann's constant,

• Plank's constant,
E = hν
h = [ML2T–1]
Final Answer : (3)

7) Explaining : If the error in the measurement of area of a sphere is 2%, then the maximum
error in calculation of volume will be
Concept : This question is based on A = 4πr2

Solution : A = 4πr2

Volume of sphere,

= 3%
Final Answer : (4)

8) Explaining : A physical quantities given by the relation P3 = , if the percentage error

are in P, Q, & S is 2%, 3% & 1%, than find out the % error in R

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

=
= 1% + 6% + 2%
= 9%
Final Answer : (3)

9) Explaining : The dimensions of in the equation , where P is pressure, x is

distance and t is time, are:-

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : and
⇒

So
Final Answer : (1)

10) Explaining : Which of the following functions of A and B is possibly correct if A and B
possess different dimensions?
Concept : This question is based on dimensional formula.
Solution : In option, 1,2 & 4 dimension of A = dimension of B.
For different dimensional quantity option 3 is valid.
Final Answer : (3)

11) Explaining : A wave is represented by y = a sin(At – Bx + C) where A, B, C are constants.

The dimensions of A, B, C are
Concept : This question is based on dimensional formula.
Solution : At = dimensionless
A = [T–1]
–1
B = [L ]
0 0 0
C = [M L T ]
Final Answer : (2)

12) Explaining : A charge Q is placed at each of two opposite corners of a square. A charge q
is placed at each of the other two corners. If resultant electric force on q is zero, then q/Q is :-
Concept : This question is based on Fnet = 0.
Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

13) Explaining : Two identical metal spheres charged with +12 μC and –8μC are kept at a
certain distance in air. They are brought into contact and then kept at the same [Link]
ratio of the magnitude of electrostatic force between them before and after their contact is :-

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : ... (1)

... (2)

Final Answer : (4)

14) Explaining : Three charges –q1, +q2 and –q3 are placed as shown in the figure. The x-

component of the force on –q1 is proportional to :- Concept :

This question is based on coulomb law.
Solution : Fx = F1 + F2 sinθ

Final Answer : (3)

15) Explaining : Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD, as shown in the
adjoining figure. The electric field at the centre O is
Concept : This question is based on electric field.
Solution : We put a unit positive charge at O. Resultant force due to the charge placed at A
and C is zero and resultant charge due to B and D is towards D along the diagonal BD
Final Answer : (3)
16)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks where to place a third electric charge so that it
experiences no net force due to two existing charges, 4q and -9q, which are 20 cm apart. The
third charge should be positioned on the line joining the two charges so that the forces from
both charges balance each other perfectly.

Underlying Concept: The core concept is electrostatic equilibrium, where the net electric
force on a charge is zero. This uses Coulomb's law, which describes the force between two
point charges. For equilibrium, the magnitudes of the forces from the two charges on the third
charge must be equal and opposite, so that they cancel out.

Relevant Formulas: Coulomb's law: where - is the magnitude of the force

between two charges, - is Coulomb's constant, - are the magnitudes of the two
charges, - is the distance between the charges.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Assume the third charge is placed on the side of the 4q charge,
opposite to -9q, at a distance cm from 4q. - Distance from the third charge to -9q is

cm. - Forces due to charges on third charge: - For equilibrium,

set : - Take the positive square root: - Cross multiply and

solve: - So, the third charge is 40 cm from 4q,

and its distance from -9q is: - Hence, it is 60 cm from the -9q charge.

Tips and Tricks: Remember that forces must be balanced in magnitude but act oppositely for
equilibrium. Use square roots carefully when solving equations involving squares.

Common Mistakes: Placing the third charge between 4q and -9q instead of on the opposite
side of 4q. Forgetting to consider that distance from -9q increases if placed on that side.
Ignoring the sign of charges and directions of forces.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: '20 cm from 4q' and '8 cm from 4q' are incorrect
because the calculated equilibrium point is further away. '20 cm from -9q' is wrong because
the equilibrium position lies beyond the 4q charge, not near -9q. The correct option '60 cm
from -9q' matches the calculation.

17)

2. Concept-Based:
To solve this problem, we need to:
- Use Coulomb's law to calculate the electric field due to each charge at point A.
- Apply the superposition principle: the net electric field at any point is the vector sum of the
electric fields due to all charges in the system.
- Use the symmetry of the equilateral triangle to simplify the calculation, as the electric fields
due to the charges at the two vertices are symmetric.
3. Formula Used:
The electric field due to a point charge $Q$ is given by Coulomb's law:

where:
- k is Coulomb's constant,
- Q is the charge,
- r is the distance from the charge to the point where the field is calculated.
4. Calculation:
Let the side length of the equilateral triangle be $a$, and the distance from the center O to

any vertex be .
Electric Field due to Charges Q :
- The electric field at point A due to the charge Q at vertex B is:

This field is directed along the line from A to B.

- Similarly, the electric field at point A due to the charge Q at vertex C is:

This field is directed along the line from A to C.

- The angle between EB and EC is 60° (since it is an equilateral triangle). To find the resultant
electric field ER, we use the formula for the resultant of two vectors:

Substituting cos60° = , we get:

This is the resultant electric field from the two charges Q, directed along the median from A to
the midpoint of BC.
Electric Field due to Charge q :
- The electric field at A due to the charge q at the center O is:

The direction of this field is from the center O to A, along the line joining O and A.
Setting the Net Electric Field to Zero:
For the net electric field at point $A$ to be zero, the electric field due to the charge q at the
center must cancel out the resultant electric field ER due to the charges Q at the vertices.
Thus:
Eq = - ER
Substituting the values:

Canceling out common terms:

Solving for q :
Simplifying further:

Option 4 =

18) Explaining : Consider the following charged suspended ball system. If α < β then the
statements which can be true at equillibrium out of followings

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

Final Answer : (4)

19) Explaining : Particle B of charge Q and mass m is in equilibrium under weight and
electrostatics force applied by a fixed charged A, which is directly beneath the particle B as
shown in figure. When particle B is disturbed along vertical, the equilibrium is
Concept : This question is based on types of equilibrium.
Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

20) Explaining : Find E = + + + +....∞

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

Final Answer : (3)

21) Explaining : Six charges are placed at the vertices of a regular hexagon as shown in the
figure. The horizontal component of the electric field will be at point O : -

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

=
Final Answer : (1)

22)
Explaining : For a ring having radius R of uniform linear charge density λ (As shown in
figure) its intensity of electric field at its centre equals to :

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :
Final Answer : (2)

23) Explaining : Electric field of a charged ring (of radius R and charge Q) at its axis, very
close to centre can be approx equal to (x–distance from centre) :-

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : For ring

For close to centre x < < R ⇒

Final Answer : (2)

24) Explaining : Correct graph between electric field and position (x) due to +ve charged
ring is :-

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :
Final Answer : (3)

25)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks to match each given electric field line diagram
(Column I) with the correct charge configuration responsible for those field lines (Column II).
Each figure represents a different charge or combination of charges, and you need to identify
which description fits each figure.

Underlying Concept: Electric field lines represent the direction and nature of the electric
field around charges. Key points are: field lines originate on positive charges and terminate on
negative charges; lines radiate outward from positive charges and inward toward negative
charges; a dipole has lines flowing from positive to negative; like charges repel, so field lines
between two positive charges show repulsion.

Tips and Tricks: Use the direction of arrows on field lines: outward means positive, inward
means negative. Look for connecting lines indicating dipoles. Identifying patterns in field lines
helps to classify charge configurations quickly.
Common Mistakes: Confusing field lines of a single positive charge with those of two positive
charges. Forgetting that field lines never cross. Assuming negative charges have field lines
going outward rather than inward.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Matching a dipole diagram with two like charges is
incorrect since dipole lines connect positive to negative. Assigning two positive charges to a
diagram with field lines converging inward is wrong because negative charges attract lines
inward.

26) Explaining : An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in between two charged plates as
shown. The lines of force look like:
Concept : This question is based on properties of field line.
Solution : ΕInside the conductor = 0
Final Answer : (3)

27) Explaining : In a region of space the electric field is given by The electric
flux through a surface of area of 100 unit in XY-plane is :
Concept : This question is based on .
Solution :

Final Answer : (2)

28) Explaining : At the centre of a cubical box +Q charge is placed. The value of total flux
that is coming out a wall is

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : According to Gauss’ law

So total flux
Since cube has six face, so flux coming out through one wall or one face is .
Final Answer : (4)

29) Explaining : A charge Q is enclosed by a Gaussian spherical surface of radius R. If the

radius is doubled, then the outward electric flux will

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : By Gauss’s theorem,

Thus, the net flux depends only on the charge enclosed by the surface. Hence, there will be no
effect on the net flux if the radius of the surface is doubled.
Final Answer : (3)

30) Explaining : Find flux from G.S. (Radius of sphere is R)

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

ϕ= =
Final Answer : (2)

31) Explaining : In the figure, uniform electric field is present in vertical downward direction.
Find flux passing through the curved surface?
Concept : This question is based on ϕ = EA.
Solution : Projection Area = πR2
ϕcurved surface =
= EπR2
Final Answer : (1)

32) Explaining : As shown in fig. the electric field in a region is given by volt/m
then the total electric flux through the cube of side 'a' will be :-
Concept : This question is based on ϕ = EA.

Solution :
= – E0a2

0
= 4E a2

Final Answer : (2)

33) Explaining : The net field at P due to two thin infinite planes of surface charge densities σ
and –σ at P is :

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :
Final Answer : (1)

34) Explaining : Two infinite wire are placed in parallel at separation a what will be electric
field at mid point between two wire.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :
=
Final Answer : (3)

35) Explaining : Which of the following correctly represents the E–r curve for charged
spherical shell :-
Concept : This question is based on Ein = 0.
Solution : Ein = 0

and Eout =
3rd option is correct.
Final Answer : (3)

36) Explaining : Two charged conducting spheres of radii a and b are connected to each
other by a wire. What is the ratio of electric fields at the surfaces of the two spheres.

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : V1 = V2

... (1)

Final Answer : (2)

37) Explaining : Electric field produces by a conducting sphere on its surface is 3 × 106
volt/metre. If diameter of the sphere is 5 m then approximate charge present on the sphere is :
[In coulombs]

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

∴
Final Answer : (2)

38) Explaining : Two large parallel planes charge uniformly with surface charge density σ
and –σ are located as shown in the figure. Which one of the following graphs shows the
variation of electric field along a line perpendicular to the planes as one moves from A to B ?

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : At point A, E = 0
At point B, E = 0
At mid point
Final Answer : (2)

39) Explaining : Sphere is charged uniformly. If one moves from A to B along diameter AB,
then electric field :-

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : Electric field due to a uniformly charged sphere (for r < R) is

When we move along AB, then first we are moving from surface to centre then from centre to
surface, so E first decreases then increases.
Final Answer : (2)

40) Explaining : What is the value of Q so that electric potential at point P becomes zero :-
Concept : This question is based on V = 0.

Solution : Given

Final Answer : (2)

41) Explaining : The potential at a point due to a charge of 5 x 10-7 C located 10 cm away is

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution : V = = 4.5 × 104 V

Final Answer : (3)

42) Explaining : Electric potential at point P is :

Concept : This question is based on .

Solution :

=
Final Answer : (4)

43)
 Key Concept:

Electrostatic Potential Energy

A. The electrostatic potential energy of a system of charges is the work required to assemble the
charges from an infinite distance.

Formula
Potential energy between two point charges:

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
The system consists of three charges : Q, + q, and +q. We compute the potential energy for
each pair :
1. Potential Energy between Q and +q (at vertex A)

2. Potential Energy between Q and +q (at vertex B)

3. Potential Energy between +q and +q

The total potential energy of the system is :

U = U1 +6 U2 + U3

Since the net electrostatic energy is zero, we set U = 0:

Dividing by k/ l (since k 0 0):

2Qq + q2 = 0
Solving for Q:
2Qq = –q2

Conclusion:
Hence, option (1) is correct.

44) Explaining : Calculate electric flux through prism

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :
 Final Answer : (3)

45) Explaining : find surface charge density

Concept : This question is based on

Solution :

σ=
= 400 µC/m2.
Final Answer : (1)

CHEMISTRY

46)

Explaining: Find one mole CO2 contains

Concept: This question is based on based on calculation of moles
Solution: one mole CO2 contains ⇒ 1 mole atoms of C.
⇒ 6.02 × 1023 atoms of C.
Final Answer: (1)

47)

Explaining : Find smaller numbers of molecules

Concept : This question is based on calculation of number of molecules.
Solution :

(1) 11.2 L of O2 at NTP, number of molecule ⇒ n × NA ⇒ = 0.5 NA.

(2) 8 g of O2 ⇒ number of molecule ⇒ = 0.25 NA.

(3) 0.1 mole O2 ⇒ number of molecule ⇒ 0.1 × NA = 0.1 NA (smallest)
(4) 2.24 × 104 mL of O2 = number of molecules = n × NA ⇒ 1 × NA
Final Answer: (3)

48)

Explaining : Find empirical formula of compound.

Concept : This question is based on empirical formula and molecular formula.
Solution :

% (percentage) % at. wt ratio

X 75.8 2

Y 24.2 3
Final Answer: (4)

49)

Explaining: Find mass of Al in gram?

Concept: This question is based on stoichiometry
Solution: 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3

, nAl ⇒ ⇒ 2 mole
mass = n × Mw = 2 × 27 ⇒ 54 g.
Final Answer: (2)

50)

Explaining : Find amount of excess reagent?

Concept : This question is based on limiting reagent.
Solution :
2H2 + O2 → 2H2O
30 mL 20 mL 5 mL

L.R.
O2 left = 5 mL
Final Answer : (4)

51)

Explaining: Find amount of C formed?

Concept: This question is based on limiting reagent.
Solution:
A + 2B → C
5 mole 8 mole

x1 = x2 =
5 > 4
B is LR
2 moles of B → 1 mole of C
8 mole of B → 4 mole of C.
Final Answer: (4)

52)

Explaining : Find ratio of number of molecules

Concept : This question is based on number of molecule.
Solution :
 ⇒

Final Answer : (3)

53)

Explaining: Calculate mass present of carbon in CO2?

Concept: This question is based on percentage composition.

Solution: % of C = × 100 ⇒ 27.27%

Final Answer: (2)

54)

Explaining: Find moles of CO2

Concept: This question is based on calculation of moles?
Solution:

Initial moles = ⇒ 5 × 10–3 moles

removed molecules = ⇒ 1 × 10–3

number of moles left = 5 × 10–3 – 1 × 10–3 ⇒ 4 × 10–3.
Final Answer: (1)

55)

Explaining : Find mass of graphite

Concept : This question is based on stoichiometry calculation.
Solution :
C + O2 → CO2
nC = 13.2 g

=
mass ⇒ nc × MW

⇒ ⇒ 3.6 g.
Final Answer: (1)

56)

Explaining: Evaluate match the column.

Concept: This question is based on match the column.
Solution:
(A) 0.1 mole → 0.1 g atom of iron (q), 200 mg at H2 gas (t)
(B) 0.2 mole → 4480 mL of CO2 at STP.

(C) 9 mL of water = n = = 0.5 mole

23
(D) 1.5 × 10 molecule of O2 gas = n = 0.25 mole.
Final Answer: (3)

57)

Explaining : Find amount of Pb(NO3)2

Concept : This question is based on limiting reagent.
Solution :

PbO + 2NO2 + O2 → Pb(NO3)2

446g 46g 16g

n= n= n=
=2 =1 =0.5
Among PbO, NO2, O2 ⇒ NO2 will be L·R

2 mol NO2 —— 1 mol Pb(NO3)2

1 mol NO2 —— 1/2 mol Pb(NO3)2

∴ wt of Pb(NO3)2 = = 165.5 g
Final Answer : (3)

58)

Explaining : Find molecular formula of compound

Concept : This question is based on combustion reaction
Solution :

CxHy + → xCO2 +

x:y=2:4
Molecular formula = C2H4
Final Answer : (3)

59)

Explaining : Find volume of O2

Concept : This question is based on combustion reaction
Solution :
C3H8 + 5O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O
1 mol C3H8 —— 5 mol O2
5 mol C3H8 —— 25 mol O2
∴ = 25 × 22.4 = 560 L
Final Answer : (1)

60)

Explaining : Find number of atoms

Concept : This question is based on number of atoms
Solution :
1 drop of water having mass = 1.8 g

No. of mole = = 0.1 mole

No. of molecule ⇒ 0.1 NA
No. of atoms = 0.1 × 3 × NA = 0.3 NA atoms
Final Answer : (1)

61) Explaining : From the given set of ions which are set of isoelectronic species.
Concept : This question is based on Isoelectronic species.
Solution : K+, Ca2+, Sc3+, Cl– = 18e⊝
Final Answer : (3)

62) Explaining : The correct increasing order of radii of the following series is K+, Cl–, S2–,
Ca2+
Concept : This question is based on Relation between ionic radii & Zeff

Solution : For isoelectronic sp3 Ionic radii ∝

Final Answer : (3)

63) Explaining : The element with highest electronegativity will belong to.
Concept : This question is based on Electronegativity.
Solution : Fluorine (period 2 group-17) have highest EN.
Final Answer : (1)

64) Explaining : From the given value of If which one is correct for Alkali metal.
Concept : This question is based on Ionization Energy.
Solution : For alkali metals (IE)1 << (IE)2
Final Answer : (3)

65)

Explaining : From the given element which one has maximum IE.
Concept : This question is based on Ionisation Energy.
Solution :
An electron is lost, effective nuclear charge increases, force of attraction increases.
Hence, (IE)1 < (IE)2 < (IE)3
Thus, Mg2+ has maximum (IE)
Final Answer : (3)
66) Explaining : Which pair represents incorrect first I.E.
Concept : This question is based on Ionisation Energy.
Solution :

He He+ He2+
I2 > I1, hence, (d) is incorrect.
Final Answer : (4)

67) Explaining : Nitrogen is found to have higher value of ionisation energy because
Concept : This question is based on Ionisation Energy.
Solution : It has half-filled p-orbitals
Final Answer : (1)

68) Explaining : First, second and third IE values are 100 eV, 150 eV and 1500 eV, Element.
Concept : This question is based on Ionisation Energy.
Solution : IE3 is very high indicating +2 oxidation state is most stable. Thus, element is of
group 2.
Final Answer : (1)

69)

Explaining : Among halogens, the correct order of amount of energy released in electron gain
(electron gain enthalpy) is.
Concept : This question is based on Electron Affinity.
Solution :
As we move from Cl to I, the electron gain enthalpy (i.e. energy released in electron gain)
become less and less negative due to a corresponding increase in the atomic size. However,
the electron gain enthalpy of F is less negative than that of Cl due to its small size.
Thus, the negative electron gain enthalpy follows the order F < Cl > Br > I
Final Answer : (3)

70)

Explaining : Which of the following is the correct order of size of the given species.
Concept : This question is based on Relation between size & zeff.
Solution : Anion formed after the gain of electron to the neutral atom and cation formed after
the lose of electron from outer shell.
Hence, cation has smaller size but anion has bigger size than its neutral atom. Thus, I– > I > I+.
Final Answer : (1)

71) Explaining : We have to evaluate the Assertion and Reason given for Ionisation energy.
Concept : This question is based on Ionisation energy.
Solution : Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation
of assertion. Ionisation enthalpy increases along a period because effective nuclear charge
increases and atomic size decreases.
Final Answer : (1)
 72) Explaining : Match the atomic number in Column I with its IUPAC nomenclature in
Column II.

Column-I Column-II

A 105 1 Uuh

B 107 2 Uun

C 109 3 Uns

D 110 4 Unp

E 116 5 Une
Concept : This question is based on Namerclature of Elevent tauing.
Solution :
105 – Unnilpentium
107 – Unnilseptium
109 – Unnilennium
110 – Ununnilium
116 – Ununhexium
Final Answer : (1)

73) Explaining : Ionisation energy of the element X(g) is I and the electron affinity of X+(g) is
E then
Concept : This question is based on Relation between If 8 EA.
Solution :
X(g) → X+(g) + e– ; ΔH = I
X+(g) + e– → X(g) ; ΔH = E = I
Final Answer : (2)

74)

Explaining : Which is correct order of size of O–, O2–, F– and F

Concept : This question is based on Relation b/w A.R. 8 zeff.
Solution :
O>F O– > F– O2– > F–
Thus, O2– > O– > F– > F
Final Answer : (1)

75)

Explaining : The newly discovered element with atomic number 117 would be placed in
Concept : This question is based on Identification of periad, blacic, Gravfag elevent
Solution :
For element Z = 104 to 118
group no. = last two digit of atomic no. 117 = Group no. = 17
Final Answer : (3)

76) Explaining : Anything that influences the valence electrons will affect the chemistry of
the element. Which one of the following factors does not affect the valence shell.
Concept : This question is based on General Knowledge of Atom.
Solution : Nuclear mass (protons + neutrons) does not effect the valence shell only protons,
i.e. nuclear charge affect the volume, shell.
Final Answer : (3)

77) Explaining : The first element of a group in many ways differs from the other heavier
members of the group. This is due to
Concept : This question is based on Abnormal betiaviour of 2nd perioal element.
Solution : First element of group has small size, high EN, high IP & does not have vacant d-
orbital.
Final Answer : (4)

78) Explaining : We have to find correct option regarding the given process.
Concept : This question is based on IE & EA.
Solution :
X(g) + e– → X–(g) ; ΔH = x = EA of X(g)
X–(g) → X(g) + e– ; ΔH = y = (IE) of X–(g)
= –(EA) of X(g)
Thus (a), (b), (c) are true.
Final Answer : (4)

79) Explaining : Magic number are

Concept : This question is based on Magic number.
Solution : In the periodic table, two adjacent elements placed in a group differ by atomic
number 2, 8, 18 or 32, these particular number 2, 8, 18 and 32 are therefore, called the magic
numbers.
Final Answer : (4)

80) Explaining : The electron affinity of halogens are F = 322, Cl = 349, Br = 324, I = 295 kJ
mol–1. The higher value of Cl as compared to that of F due to
Concept : This question is based on Electron Affinity.
Solution : Electron affinity value of Cl is higher than that of F as Cl belongs to third period
(have larger size) while F belongs to second period (have small size). In Cl electron-electron
repulsion forces are weaker than that of F and hence, the extra electron which is to the added
experience less electronic repulsions.
Final Answer : (1)

81)

Explaining : Which of the following species has tetrahedral shape

Concept : This question is based on VSEPR theory.
Solution :
⇒ 4 bond pairs + 0 lone pair
⇒ sp3-hybridised = tetrahedral geometry
⇒ V-shape
⇒ Triangular planar
+
H3O ⇒ Pyramidal
Final Answer : (1)

82) Explaining : All the following molecules are linear except one
Concept : This question is based on VSEPR
Solution : SO2 has sp2-hybridisation with angle 119° (bent shape).
Final Answer : (1)

83) Explaining :
Electronegativity value of
W = 1.0 X = 2.0 Y = 2.5 Z = 3.5
Based on the given values, which bond is least polar
Concept : This question is based on ΔEN × Bond Palarity.
Solution : With minimum (EN) difference
Final Answer : (3)

84) Explaining : The strength of bonds by overlapping of atomic orbitals are in order.
Concept : This question is based on VBT.
Solution : Bond formed due to linear axial overlapping is stronger than that due to sideway
overlapping.
Final Answer : (1)

85) Explaining : Assertion & Reason are given tegarding NaCl formation we have to evaluate
then.
Concept : This question is based on Octet Rule.
Solution : Both A & R is correct and R is correct explanation of A.
Final Answer : (1)

86) Explaining : Value of ionisation energy (IE) of Na (11) with be

Concept : This question is based on Ionisation Energy.

Solution : IE of Li > Na. Thus, Na falls below Li
Final Answer : (3)

87) Explaining : Fluorine has the highest electronegativity among the ns2np5 group on the
Pauling scale, but the electron affinity of fluorine is less than that of the chlorine
Concept : This question is based on Electron Affinity
Solution : Small size, high electron density and an increased electron repulsion makes
addition of an electron fluorine less favourable than that in the case of chlorine
Final Answer : (4)
 88)

Explaining : Two column are given regarding to compound & nature of oxide we have to
match them.
Concept : This question is based on Nature of oxide.
Solution :
Zn, Be, Al, Sb, As, Pb, Sn, Ga, Cr+3 = Amphoteric
None metal oxide → Acidic
Metal oxide → Basic
Final Answer : (1)

89) Explaining : The water molecule has a ……….. (X) ……….. geometry because its central
atom has ……….. (Y) ……….. bonds and ……….. (Z) ……….. lone pair of electrons.
Concept : This question is based on VSEPR.
Solution :

X–bent ; Y–bonds ; Z–2 lone-pairs

Final Answer : (1)

90) Explaining : The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of N in , and respectively

are
Concept : This question is based on Hybridisation
Solution :

Final Answer : (1)

BIOLOGY

91)

Explaining : (a) Asthma involves airway inflammation, not alveolar damage.

(b) Emphysema is due to alveolar wall damage, not bronchial inflammation.
(d) Asthma does not involve fibrosis or reduced respiratory surface.
Concept :
Solution :
Final Answer : (3)
 92) Explaining :
Residual Volume (RV) – 1200 mL
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) – 1100 mL
Inspiratory Capacity (IC) = TV + IRV = 3500 mL
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) – 2500–3000 mL So, in increasing order:
→ (iii) < (ii) < (i) < (iv)
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

93) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution :
(a) External intercostals relax during expiration.
(b) Both diaphragm and external intercostals contract during inspiration.
(d) Diaphragm contraction increases Antero-posterior volume.
(e) Relaxation of external intercostals decreases dorso-ventral volume.
Final Answer : (2)

94) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Carbaminohemoglobin is CO2 bound to hemoglobin which is transported
through RBCs, not transported in plasma.
Final Answer : (2)

95) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Right shift of the oxygen dissociation curve indicates reduced affinity of
hemoglobin for oxygen, facilitating oxygen release to tissues.
This occurs due to:

A. High temperature
B. High pCO₂
C. Low pH (↑H⁺ ions)
D. Low pO₂ in tissues

Final Answer : (3)

96) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Vital capacity is the maximum amount of air a person can exhale forcefully after a
maximum inhalation.
Final Answer : (2)

97) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Alveoli are thin and richly supplied with blood vessels to enable gas exchange.
Final Answer : (2)
98) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : A – Incorrect: Epiglottis covers the glottis during swallowing, not breathing.
C – Incorrect: Initial bronchioles have cartilage, but terminal bronchioles do not.
Final Answer : (1)

99) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : C → A → B → E → D
Final Answer : (2)

100) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Air flows from high to low pressure. During inspiration, the lungs create negative
pressure (less than atmospheric), causing air to flow in.
Final Answer : (1)

101) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : II,III and IV are correct.
I - Exchange doesn’t occur directly between blood and cells – it happens through interstitial
fluid.
Final Answer : (2)

102) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle is the tricuspid valve.
Final Answer : (3)

103) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : (A) SA node, not the AV node, initiates the heartbeat and is called the pacemaker.
(B) Purkinje fibers are located in the ventricular walls, not in the atria.
(C) SA node is located in the right atrium, not left, and generates 70–75 impulses/min.
(AV node generates 40–60)
Final Answer : (4)

104) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : The QRS complex marks the start of ventricular systole, not atrial systole.
Final Answer : (2)

105) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : The coronary system refers to the network of blood vessels (arteries and veins) that
supply blood to and from the cardiac musculature (heart muscles).
Final Answer : (3)

106) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 10
“The two kingdom system of classification with Plantae and Animalia kingdoms was used.” –
This supports statement B. The system did not distinguish between unicellular/multicellular
(A), prokaryotes/eukaryotes (C), nor was it based on evolutionary relationships (D).
Final Answer : (2)

107) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 10
“This system did not distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes, unicellular and
multicellular organisms and photosynthetic (green algae) and non-photosynthetic (fungi)
organisms.” – Confirms B is correct.
Final Answer : (2)

108) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 11
“R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed the Five Kingdom Classification. The kingdoms defined by
him were Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. The main criteria... were cell
structure, body organisation, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationships.”
– Hence, genetic sequencing and locomotion (C) were not used.
Final Answer : (1)

109) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 11
“The three-domain system divides Kingdom Monera into two domains, Archaea and Bacteria,
and retains the rest of the eukaryotic kingdoms under Eukarya.” – Confirms C.
Final Answer : (3)

110) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 11
“A characteristic feature of plant cells is the presence of a cell wall.” – This justifies C.
Final Answer : (3)

111) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 10
“It grouped together organisms which were quite different. For example, unicellular and
multicellular organisms, as well as prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.”
Final Answer : (2)
112) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 11
“The cell walls of fungi are composed of chitin and polysaccharides.” – Hence, Chitin is
correct.
Final Answer : (3)

113) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 11
“Kingdom Protista includes all single-celled eukaryotes.”
Final Answer : (3)

114) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 11
“It placed fungi in a separate kingdom based on differences in cell wall composition and mode
of nutrition.” – Supports statement I; II is false because Monera contains prokaryotes, not
Protista.
Final Answer : (1)

115) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 11,12
“Most fungi are heterotrophic... cell walls of fungi are composed of chitin.” – Unlike plants
which are autotrophic and have cellulose, confirming both A and R and that R explains A.
Final Answer : (1)

116) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 12
“The main criteria for classification included phylogenetic relationships” and “cell structure,
body organisation” – This shows classification now considers both evolutionary and
morphological traits.
Final Answer : (3)

117) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 12
“Bacteria come in four basic shapes: spherical Coccus, rod-shaped Bacillus, comma-shaped
Vibrio and spiral Spirillum.”
Final Answer : (3)

118) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 12
“Kingdom Monera includes all prokaryotes such as bacteria and cyanobacteria.”
Final Answer : (3)

119) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 13
“They also live in extreme habitats such as hot springs, deserts, snow... Bacteria are grouped
under four categories based on their shape... and their mode of nutrition is varied.” – Confirms
both A and R and R explains A.
Final Answer : (1)

120) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 13,14
“Bacteria live in extreme habitats photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria use chlorophyll a,
chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise inorganic substances.” – Confirms II and
III.“Bacteria live in extreme habitats... photosynthetic autotrophic bacteria use chlorophyll a,
chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria oxidise inorganic substances.” – Confirms II and III.
Final Answer : (3)

121) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 13
“Methanogens are present in the gut of several ruminant animals such as cows and buffaloes.”
Final Answer : (3)

122) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 13
“Archaebacteria... differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure and this
feature is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions.”
Final Answer : (3)

123) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Cyanobacteria have chlorophyll a similar to green plants. Some can fix atmospheric
nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts.
Final Answer : (1)

124) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 14
Some bacteria are pathogens... Cholera, typhoid, tetanus and citrus canker are well-known
diseases caused by bacteria.
Final Answer : (2)

125) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 13
Heterotrophic bacteria are most abundant. They are helpful in making curd, antibiotics and
fixing nitrogen.
Final Answer : (2)

126) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 14
Under unfavourable conditions they generally produce spores. The spores help them survive,
not reproduce rapidly.” – A is true, R is false.
Final Answer : (3)

127) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 14
Mycoplasmas... are the smallest living cells and can survive without oxygen. They completely
lack a cell wall.
Final Answer : (3)

128) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 14
Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission.
Final Answer : (2)

129) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 14
Protists are primarily aquatic. This kingdom forms a link with the others dealing with plants,
animals and fungi.
Final Answer : (2)

130) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 15
Chrysophytes, Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids, Slime moulds and Protozoans are included in
Protista.
Final Answer : (3)
131) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 15
Kingdom Protista includes all single-celled eukaryotes... Some have cilia or flagella.” – I and II
are correct; III is incorrect as sexual reproduction also occurs.
Final Answer : (1)

132) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 14
This group includes diatoms and desmids (golden algae).
Final Answer : (1)

133) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 14
Their cell walls are embedded with silica and thus the walls are indestructible.
Final Answer : (3)

134) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 14
They are the chief 'producers' in oceans... Diatomaceous earth... used in polishing, filtration...
Final Answer : (4)

135) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 14
Instead of a cell wall, they have a protein-rich layer called pellicle.
Final Answer : (3)

136) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 14
They are mostly marine and photosynthetic... red tides are caused by their rapid
multiplicationThey are mostly marine and photosynthetic... red tides are caused by their rapid
multiplication.
Final Answer : (1)
137) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 13
In presence of sunlight they are autotrophic, in absence of sunlight they behave like
heterotrophs.
Final Answer : (2)

138) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 15
The plasmodium differentiates and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores.
Final Answer : (3)

139) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 15,16
All protozoans are heterotrophs. They live as predators or parasites. Locomotory organs are
cilia, flagella or pseudopodia.
Final Answer : (1)

140) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 15,16
Trypanosoma (cause sleeping sickness).
Final Answer : (4)

141) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 16
Fungi are filamentous. Their bodies consist of hyphae. The cell walls of fungi are composed of
chitin.
Final Answer : (2)

142) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 18
In other fungi (ascomycetes and basidiomycetes), an intervening dikaryotic stage... Later, the
parental nuclei fuse.
Final Answer : (1)
143) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 17
Phycomycetes have aseptate, coenocytic mycelium and reproduce asexually via endogenously
produced spores.
Final Answer : (3)

144) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Penicillium is a source of antibiotics and Neurospora is widely used in genetic
studies; both are Ascomycetes. Penicillium is a source of antibiotics and Neurospora is widely
used in genetic studies; both are Ascomycetes.
Final Answer : (2)

145) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 1
“Early man could easily perceive the difference between inanimate matter and living
organisms.”
“A common feature of all such forms was the sense of awe or fear that they evoked.”
These lines confirm statements I and III. Statement II is false—early humans did not start
classification immediately.
Final Answer : (3)

146) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 1
“This identification, naming and classification of organisms is what is meant by taxonomy.”
“Systematic study of organisms with the objective of understanding similarities and
differences was the basis of taxonomy.”
Both statements are directly supported, and the reason explains the assertion.
Final Answer : (1)

147) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 1
“Systematic study led to recognition of similarities and differences among organisms.”
This line clearly links study to recognition of similarities.
Final Answer : (3)

148) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 1
1. Living organism show similarities both horizontally and vertically.
2. All organism are related to those existed in the part.
Final Answer : (2)
149) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Societies which indulged in anthropocentric view of biology could register limited
progress in biological knowledge.
Final Answer : (3)

150) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 1
“Recognition that all living organisms are related led to cultural movements for conservation.”
This directly links understanding of relatedness to conservation efforts.
Final Answer : (2)

151) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 1
“Natural elements like wind, water, fire and air were deified by early man.”
“Early human awareness of biodiversity was not based on taxonomy.”
Only statement I is true; II is explicitly incorrect.
Final Answer : (1)

152) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 1
“All living organisms are related through evolutionary history.”
This clearly proves that organisms are not isolated and do share connections, making both
assertion and reason false.
Final Answer : (4)

153) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 2
“Ernst Mayr was the most significant evolutionary biologist of the 20th century.”
“He defined the Biological Species Concept still accepted today.”
Both points are true and linked.
Final Answer : (1)

154) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 3
“The number of currently known and described species is between 1.7–1.8 million.”
Final Answer : (3)

155) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 4
“The system of assigning names is called nomenclature.”
Final Answer : (2)

156) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 4
“Before naming, the organism must be described correctly and identified to be different from
other organisms.”
Final Answer : (3)

157) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 4
“An organism can have different names in different languages... To avoid this confusion,
scientific naming is used.”
The reason explains the assertion fully.
Final Answer : (1)

158) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 4
“Scientific names are universally accepted and follow certain rules laid down by international
codes.”
“Each organism has only one name.”
Statement III is wrong—names cannot be reused.
Final Answer : (1)

159) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : NCERT-XI, Page # 4
“ICZN – International Code for Zoological Nomenclature governs the naming of animals.”
Final Answer : (1)

160) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Unicellular organisms like bacteria, unicellular algae or Amoeba, reproduction is
synonymous with growth, i.e., increase in number of cells. We have already defined growth as
equivalent to increase in cell number or mass.
Final Answer : (1)

161) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : The number of species that are known and described range between 1.7-1.8
million. This refers to biodiversity or the number and types of organisms present on earth.
Final Answer : (2)

162) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : Division - Angiospermae
Class - Monocotyledonae
Order - Poales
Family - Poaceae
Final Answer : (2)

163) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : A - Polymoniales, B - Solanaceae, C - Polymoniales, D - Solanaceae, E - Carnivora, F
- Felidae, G - Carnivora, H - Canidae.
Final Answer : (1)

164) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution :The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter while the specific
epithet starts with a small letter.” In option 2, Tuberosum incorrectly starts with a capital
letter.
Final Answer : (2)

165) Explaining :
Concept :
Solution : A-Cell wall, B-Cell membrane, C-DNA, D-Heterocyst, E-Mucilagenous sheath
Final Answer : (2)

166) Solution : Chinarose - Posses bisexual flowers.

Date palm - Dioecious plant.
Coconut & Maize - Monoecious plant.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

167) Explaining : Flowering plants produce fragrance and attractive flowers to attract
pollinators.
Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

168) Solution : Statement (a), (b) and (c) are true however statement (d) is false, this is of
consideration that only less than 40% angiosperms shed pollens in 3 called stage.
Concept : Androecium
Final Answer : (2)

169) Solution :
1 MMC → 1 Functional megaspore.
Concept : Megasporogenesis
Final Answer : (4)

170) Solution : Generative cell divides to form two male gametes sperms.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)

171) Solution : One PMC divide meiotically to produce four haploid microspores/pollen
grains.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

172) Solution : Dehiscence of anther leads to dispersal of pollen grains.

Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

173) Explaining :

Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

174) Solution : A is micropyle which is not the basal part of ovule.

B is nucellus that is diploid.
C is embryo sac that is haploid and consists of 7 cells.
D is chalaza which is the basal part of ovule.
Concept :
Final Answer : (3)
175) Explaining : A indicates Antipodals where as C is Egg cell B are Synergids and D are
Filiform apparatus.

Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

176) Explaining : In abiotic pollinations, pollen grains coming in contact with stigma is a
chance factor, thus to compensate this anemophilous plants produce enormous pollen grains.
Concept :
Final Answer : (1)

177) Explaining : Amorphophallus flower provide safe place to lay eggs to their pollinator
insect.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

178) Solution : Not all aquatic plants are pollinated by water such as water hyacinth and
water lily are pollinated by wind or insect. So, statements (b) and (d) are correct.
Concept :
Final Answer : (2)

179) Explaining : A - Zygote, B - PEC, C - PEN, D - Degenerating antipodal cells.

Concept :
Final Answer : (4)

180) Explaining : Double fertilization = Syngamy + Triple fusion.

Concept :
Final Answer : (4)