20 15 June NTA UGC NET So lv ed Question Pa per -1

The CBSE UGC NET Examination Question Paper-1 of 28th June, 2015, Test Booklet Code C along with answer keys are given below. The
answer keys are as per the revised answer keys released by UGC after grievances.

1. Which of the following represents one billion characters?

(A) Terabyte

(B) Kilobyte

(C) Megabyte

(D) Gigabyte

Answer: (D)

2. The factors which are most important in determining the impact of anthropogenic activities on environment are:

(A) Population, forest cover and land available per person

(B) Population, affluence per person, land available per person

(C) Population, affluence per person and the technology used for exploiting resources

(D) Atmospheric conditions, population and forest cover

Answer: (C)

3. Which one of the following represents the binary equivalent of the decimal number 25?

(A) 11011

(B) 10101

(C) 01101

(D) 11001

Answer: (D)

4. The University Grants Commission was established with which of the following aims?

(a) Promotion of research and development in higher education

(b) Identifying and sustaining institutions of potential learning

(c) Capacity building of teachers

(d) Providing, autonomy to each and every higher educational institution in India

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b) and (d)

(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (C)
5. The session of the parliament is summoned by:

(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

(B) The President

(C) The Prime Minister

(D) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Answer: (B)

6. India's contribution to total global carbon dioxide emissions is about:

(A) ~15%

(B) ~3%

(C) ~6%

(D) ~10%

Answer: (C)

7. In which of the countries per capita use of water is maximum?

(A) India

(B) USA

(C) European Union

(D) China

Answer: (C)

8. Encoding or scrambling data for transmission across a network is known as:

(A) Decryption

(B) Protection

(C) Detection

(D) Encryption

Answer: (D)

9. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on:

(A) 7th July

(B) 21st April

(C) 24th April

(D) 21st June

Answer: (B)

10. The South Asia University is situated in the city of:

(A) Kathmandu

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(B) Colombo

(C) Dhaka
(D) New Delhi

Answer: (D)

11. Which is an instant messenger that is used for chatting?

(A) Google Talk

(B) AltaVista

(C) MAC

(D) Microsoft Office

Answer: (A)

12. The Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in institutions of higher education in India at present (2015) is about:

(A) 23 percent

(B) 8 percent

(C) 12 percent

(D) 19 percent

Answer: (A)

13. Two earthquakes A and B happen to be of magnitude 5 and 6 respectively on Richter Scale. The ratio of the energies released EB/EA will
be approximately:

(A) ~64

(B) ~8

(C) ~16

(D) ~32

Answer: (D)

14. Which of the following is not an output device?

(A) Keyboard

(B) Printer

(C) Speaker

(D) Monitor

Answer: (A)

15. Which of the following is not open source software?

(A) Apache HTTP server

(B) Internet explorer

(C) Fedora Linux

(D) Open office

Answer: (B)
16. In the recently launched Air Quality Index in India, which of the following pollutants is not included?

(A) Chlorofluorocarbons

(B) Carbon monoxide

(C) Fine particulate matter

(D) Ozone

Answer: (A)

17. The total number of central universities in India in April 2015 was:

(A) 43

(B) 08

(C) 14

(D) 27

Answer: (A)

18. Which of the following combinations represent renewable natural resources?

(A) Oil, forests and tides

(B) Fertile soil, fresh water and natural gas

(C) Clean air, phosphates and biological diversity

(D) Fishes, fertile soil and fresh water

Answer: (D)

19. Which of the following factors does not impact teaching?

(A) Learning through experience

(B) Teacher's knowledge

(C) Class room activities that encourage learning

(D) Socio-economic background of teachers and students

Answer: (D)

20. Which of the following steps are required to design a questionnaire?

(a) Writing primary and secondary aims of the study.

(b) Review of the current literature.

(c) Prepare a draft of questionnaire.

(d) Revision of the draft.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (c) and (d)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (A)
21. Which of the following is the highest level of cognitive ability?

(A) Evaluating

(B) Knowing

(C) Understanding

(D) Analysing

Answer: (A)

22. Achievement tests are commonly used for the purpose of:

(A) Assessing the amount of learning after teaching

(B) Making selections for a specific job

(C) Selecting candidates for a course

(D) Identifying strengths and weaknesses of learners

Answer: (A)

23. The conclusions/findings of which type of research cannot be generalized to other situations?

(A) Causal Comparative Research

(B) Historical Research

(C) Descriptive Research

(D) Experimental Research

Answer: (B)

24. Techniques used by a teacher to teach include:

(a) Lecture

(b) Interactive lecture

(c) Group work

(d) Self study

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

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Answer: (B)

25. A good thesis writing should involve:

(a) Reduction of punctuation and grammatical errors to a minimum.

(b) Careful checking of references.

(c) Consistency in the way the thesis is written.

(d) A clear and well written abstract.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (B)

26. Which of the following statements regarding the meaning of research are correct?

(a) Research refers to a series of systematic activity or activities undertaken to find out the solution of a problem.

(b) It is a systematic, logical and an unbiased process wherein verification of hypothesis, data analysis, interpretation and formation of
principles can be done.

(c) It is an intellectual enquiry or quest towards truth.

(d) It leads to enhancement of knowledge.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (b), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (c) and (d)

Answer: (A)

27. Jean Piaget gave a theory of cognitive development of humans on the basis of his:

(A) Evaluation Research

(B) Fundamental Research

(C) Applied Research

(D) Action Research

Answer: (B)

28. "Male and female students perform equally well in a numerical aptitude test." This statement indicates a:

(A) Statistical hypothesis

(B) Research hypothesis

(C) Null hypothesis

(D) Directional hypothesis

Answer: (C)

29. Which of the following statements about teaching aids are correct?

(a) They help in retaining concepts for longer duration.

(b) They help students learn better.

(c) They make teaching learning process interesting.

(d) They enhance rote learning.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b) and (d)

(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (C)

30. A good teacher is one who:

(A) Inspires students to learn

(B) Gives useful information

(C) Explains concepts and principles

(D) Gives Printed notes to students

Answer: (A)
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 31 to 36.

Story telling is not in our genes. Neither it is an evolutionary history. It is the essence of what makes us Human.

Human beings progress by telling stories. One event can result in a great variety of stories being told about it. Sometimes those stories differ
greatly. Which stories are picked up and repeated and which ones are dropped and forgotten often determines how we progress. Our history,
knowledge and understanding are all the collections of the few stories that survive. This includes the stories that we tell each other about the
future. And how the future will turn out depends partly, possibly largely, on which stories we collectively choose to believe.

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Some stories are designed to spread fear and concern. This is because some story-tellers feel that there is a need to raise some tensions. Some
stories are frightening, they are like totemic warnings: "Fail to act now and we are all doomed." Then there are stories that indicate that all will
be fine so long as we leave everything upto a few especially able adults. Currently, this trend is being led by those who call themselves "rational
optimists". They tend to claim that it is human nature to compete and to succeed and also to profit at the expense of others. The rational
optimists however, do not realize how humanity has progressed overtime through amiable social networks and how large groups work in less
selfishness and in the process accommodate rich and poor, high and low alike. This aspect in story-telling is considered by the 'Practical
Possibles', who sit between those who say all is fine and cheerful and be individualistic in your approach to a successful future, and those who
ordain pessimism and fear that we are doomed.

What the future holds for us is which stories we hold on to and how we act on them.

Answer the following questions:

31. Rational optimists:

(a) Look for opportunities.

(b) Are sensible and cheerful.

(c) Are selfishly driven.

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (b) and (c) only

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a) only

(D) (a) and (b) only

Answer: (B)

32. Humans become less selfish when:

(A) They work in solitude

(B) They work in large groups

(C) They listen to frightening stories

(D) They listen to cheerful stories

Answer: (B)

33. 'Practical Possibles' are the ones who:

(A) Are cheerful and carefree

(B) Follow Midway Path

(C) Are doom-mongers

(D) Are self-centred

Answer: (B)

34. Story telling is:

(A) The essence of what makes us human

(B) An art

(C) A science

(D) In our genes

Answer: (A)

35. Our knowledge is a collection of:

(A) Some important stories

(B) All stories that we have heard during our life-time

(C) Some stories that we remember

(D) A few stories that survive

Answer: (D)

36. How the future will turn out to be, depends upon the stories?

(A) Designed to make prophecy

(B) We collectively choose to believe in

(C) Which are repeatedly narrated

(D) Designed to spread fear and tension

Answer: (B)

37. At present a person is 4 times older than his son and is 3 years older than his wife. After 3 years the age of the son will be 15 years. The
age of the person's wife after 5 years will be:

(A) 50

(B) 42

(C) 48

(D) 45

Answer: (A)
38. Among the following statements two are contradictory to each other. Select the correct code that represents them:

Statements:

(a) All poets are philosophers.

(b) Some poets are philosophers.

(c) Some poets are not philosophers.

(d) No philosopher is a poet.

Codes:

(A) (b) and (c)

(B) (a) and (b)

(C) (a) and (d)

(D) (a) and (c)

Answer: (D)

39. In an examination 10,000 students appeared. The result revealed the number of students who have:

Passed in all five subjects = 5583

Passed in three subjects only = 1400

Passed in two subjects only = 1200

Passed in one subject only 735

Failed in English only = 75

Failed in Physics only = 145

Failed in Chemistry only = 140

Failed in Mathematics only = 200

Failed in Bio-science only = 157

The number of students passed in at least four subjects is:

(A) 7900

(B) 6300

(C) 6900

(D) 7300

Answer: (B)

40. Which of the following is not a principle of effective communication?

(A) Strategic use of grapevine

(B) Persuasive and convincing dialogue

(C) Participation of the audience

(D) One-way transfer of information

Answer: (D)

41. In communication, the language is:

(A) The non-verbal code

(B) The verbal code

(C) Intrapersonal

(D) The symbolic code

Answer: (B)

42. When the purpose of a definition is to explain the use or to eliminate ambiguity the definition is called:

(A) Persuasive

(B) Stipulative

(C) Theoretical

(D) Lexical

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Answer: (D)

43. A deductive argument is invalid if:

(A) Its premises and conclusions are all true

(B) Its premises and conclusions are all false

(C) Its premises are true but its conclusion is false

(D) Its premises are false but its conclusion is true

Answer: (C)

44. Which of the following are the characteristic features of communication?

(a) Communication involves exchange of ideas, facts and opinions.

(b) Communication involves both information and understanding.

(c) Communication is a continuous process.

(d) Communication is a circular process.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (A)

45. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements? Select the code:

Statements:

(a) Venn diagram represents the arguments graphically.

(b) Venn diagram can enhance our understanding.

(c) Venn diagram may be called valid or invalid.

(d) Venn diagram is clear method of notation.

Codes:

(A) (a), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (C)

46. The next term in the series is:

2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ?

(A) 80

(B) 73

(C) 75

(D) 78

Answer: (C)

47. Inductive reasoning is grounded on:

(A) Harmony of nature

(B) Integrity of nature

(C) Unity of nature

(D) Uniformity of nature

Answer: (D)

48. If we want to seek new knowledge of facts about the world, we must rely on reason of the type:

(A) Physiological

(B) Inductive

(C) Deductive

(D) Demonstrative

Answer: (B)

49. Effectiveness of communication can be traced from which of the following?

(a) Attitude surveys

(b) Performance records

(c) Students attendance

(d) Selection of communication channel

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b) and (d)

(B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (C)

50. One day Prakash left home and walked 10 km towards south, turned right and walked 5 km, turned right and walked 10 km and turned
left and walked 10 km. How many km will he have to walk to reach his home straight?
(A) 30

(B) 10

(C) 20

(D) 15

Answer: (D)

51. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is related to the girl as:

(A) Son

(B) Brother

(C) Uncle

(D) Nephew

Answer: (B)

52. In certain code MATHURA is coded as JXQEROX. The code of HOTELS will be:

(A) ELIPQB

(B) LEQIBP

(C) ELQBIP

(D) LEBIQP

Answer: (C)

53. The term 'grapevine' is also known as:

(A) Horizontal communication

(B) Downward communication

(C) Informal communication

(D) Upward communication

Answer: (C)

54. Assertion (A): Formal communication tends to be fast and flexible.

Reason (R): Formal communication is a systematic and orderly flow of information.

(A) (A) is false but, (R) is correct

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(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is correct but, (R) is false

Answer: (A)

Question numbers 55 to 60 are based on the tabulated data given below:

A company has 20 employees with their age (in years) and salary (in thousand rupees per month) mentioned against each of them:
55. What is the average salary (in thousand per month) in the age group 40-50 years?

(A) 36.5

(B) 35

(C) 42.5

(D) 40.5

Answer: (C)

56. What is the fraction of employees getting salary less than the average salary of all the employees?

(A) 47%

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(B) 45%

(C) 50%

(D) 55%

Answer: (D)

57. What is the frequency (%) in the class interval of 30-35 years?

(A) 35%

(B) 20%

(C) 25%

(D) 30%

Answer: (A)

58. What is the fraction (%) of employees getting salary > 40,000 per month?

(A) 32%

(B) 45%

(C) 50%

(D) 35%

Answer: (B)

59. What is the average age of the employees?

(A) 45.3 years

(B) 40.3 years

(C) 38.6 years

(D) 47.2 years

Answer: (B)

60. Classify the data of age of each employee in class interval of 5 years. Which class interval of 5 years has the maximum average salary?

(A) 50-55 years

(B) 35-40 years

(C) 40-45 years

(D) 45-50 years

Answer: (A)

20 15 December NTA UGC NET Solv ed Questio n Paper 1

The UGC NET Examination Question Paper-1 of 27th December, 2015, Test Booklet Code P along with answer keys are given below. The
answer keys are as per the final answer keys released by UGC / NTA.

1. Greater the handicap of the students coming to the educational institutions, greater the demand on the:

(A) Family

(B) Society

(C) Teacher

(D) State

Answer: (C)

2. What are the characteristics of Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation?

(a) It increases the workload on students by taking multiple tests.

(b) It replaces marks with grades.

(c) It evaluates every aspect of the student.

(d) It helps in reducing examination phobia.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (b) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (D)

3. Which of the following attributes denote great strengths of a teacher?

(a) Full-time active involvement in the institutional management

(b) Setting examples

(c) Willingness to put assumptions to the test

(d) Acknowledging mistakes

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b) and (d)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (B)

4. Which one of the following statements is correct in the context of multiple - choice type questions?

(A) They are more objective than true-false type questions.

(B) They are less objective than essay type questions.

(C) They are more subjective than short-answer type questions.

(D) They are more subjective than true-false type questions.

Answer: (A)

5. As Chairman of an independent commission on education, Jacques Delors report to UNESCO was titled

(A) International Commission on Education Report

(B) Millennium Development Report

(C) Learning: The Treasure Within

(D) World Declaration on Education for All

Answer: (C)

6. What are required for good teaching?

(a) Diagnosis

(b) Remedy

(c) Direction

(d) Feedback

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a) and (b)

(C) (b), (c) and (d)

(D) (c) and (d)

Answer: (A)

7. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of participatory research?

(A) It recognizes knowledge as power.

(B) It emphasises on people as experts.

(C) It is a collective process of enquiry.

(D) Its sole purpose is production of knowledge.

Answer: (D)

8. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the testing of a hypothesis?

(A) It is only the alternative hypothesis that can be tested.

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(B) It is only the null hypothesis that can be tested.

(C) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses can be tested.

(D) Both, the alternative and the null hypotheses cannot be tested.

Answer: (B)

9. Which of the following are the basic rules of APA style of referencing format?
(a) Italicize titles of shorter works such as journal articles or essays

(b) Invert authors’ names (last name first)

(c) Italicize titles of longer works such as books and journals

(d) Alphabetically index reference list

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (B)

10. Which of the following are the characteristics of a seminar?

(a) It is a form of academic instruction.

(b) It involves questioning, discussion and debates.

(c) It involves large groups of individuals.

(d) It needs involvement of skilled persons.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

(A) (b) and (c)

(B) (b) and (d)

(C) (b), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (D)
11. A researcher is interested in studying the prospects of a particular political party in an urban area. What tool should he prefer for the
study?

(A) Rating scale

(B) Interview

(C) Questionnaire

(D) Schedule

Answer: (C)

12. Ethical norms in research do not involve guidelines for:

(A) Thesis format

(B) Copyright

(C) Patenting policy

(D) Data sharing policies

Answer: (A)

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers 13 to 17.

I did that thing recently where you have to sign a big card - which is a horror unto itself, especially as the keeper of the Big Card was leaning
over me at the time. Suddenly I was on the spot, a rabbit in the headlights, torn between doing a fun message or some sort of in-joke or a
drawing. Instead overwhelmed by the myriad options available to me, I decided to just write “Good luck, best, Joel”.
 It was then that I realised, to my horror, that I had forgotten how to write. My entire existence is “tap letters into computer”. My
shopping lists are hidden in the notes function of my phone. If I need to remember something I send an e-mail to myself. A pen is something I
chew when I’m struggling to think. Paper is something I pile beneath my laptop to make it a more comfortable height for me to type on.

A poll of 1,000 teens by the stationers, Bic found that one in 10 don’t own a pen, a third have never written a letter, and half of 13 to
19 years - old have never been forced to sit down and write a thank you letter. More than 80% have never written a love letter, 56% don’t have
letter paper at home. And a quarter has never known the unique torture of writing a birthday card. The most a teen ever has to use a pen is on
an exam paper.

Bic, have you heard of mobile phones? Have you heard of e-mail, facebook and snap chatting? This is the future. Pens are dead. Paper
is dead. Handwriting is a relic.

“Handwriting is one of the most creative outlets we have and should be given the same importance as other art forms such as sketching,
painting or photography.”

Answer the following questions:

13. When confronted with signing a big card, the author felt like “a rabbit in the headlight”. What does this phrase mean?

(A) A state of confusion

(B) A state of pleasure

(C) A state of anxiety

(D) A state of pain

Answer: (A)

14. According to the author, which one is not the most creative outlet of pursuit?

(A) Handwriting

(B) Photography

(C) Sketching

(D) Reading

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Answer: (D)

15. The entire existence of the author revolves round

(a) Computer

(b) Mobile phone

(c) Typewriter

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below

(A) (b) only

(B) (a) and (b) only

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (b) and (c) only

Answer: (B)

16. How many teens, as per the Bic survey, do not own a pen?

(A) 800

(B) 560

(C) 500
(D) 100

Answer: (D)

17. What is the main concern of the author?

(A) That the teens use social networks for communication.

(B) That the teens use mobile phones.

(C) That the teens use computer.

(D) That the teens have forgotten the art of handwriting.

Answer: (D)

18. The main objectives of student evaluation of teachers are:

(a) To gather information about student weaknesses.

(b) To make teachers take teaching seriously.

(c) To help teachers adopt innovative methods of teaching.

(d) To identify the areas of further improvement in teacher traits.

Identify the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a) and (b) only

(B) (b), (c) and (d) only

(C) (a), (b) and (c) only

(D) (a) only

Answer: (B)

19. Using the central point of the classroom communication as the beginning of a dynamic pattern of ideas is referred to as:

(A) Systemisation

(B) Problem - orientation

(C) Idea protocol

(D) Mind mapping

Answer: (D)

20. Aspects of the voice, other than the speech are known as:

(A) Physical language

(B) Personal language

(C) Para language

(D) Delivery language

Answer: (C)

21. Every type of communication is affected by its:

(A) Reception

(B) Transmission

(C) Non-regulation
(D) Context

Answer: (D)

22. Attitudes, actions and appearances in the context of classroom communication are considered as:

(A) Verbal

(B) Non-verbal

(C) Impersonal

(D) Irrational

Answer: (B)

23. Most often, the teacher - student communication is:

(A) Spurious

(B) Critical

(C) Utilitarian

(D) Confrontational

Answer: (C)

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24. In a classroom, a communicator’s trust level is determined by:

(A) The use of hyperbole

(B) The change of voice level

(C) The use of abstract concepts

(D) Eye contact

Answer: (D)

25. The next term in the series

2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, ? is:

(A) 50

(B) 57

(C) 62

(D) 72

Answer: (A)

26. A group of 210 students appeared in some test. The mean of 1/3 rd of students is found to be 60. The mean of the remaining students is
found to be 78. The mean of the whole group will be:

(A) 80

(B) 76

(C) 74

(D) 72

Answer: (D)
27. Anil after travelling 6 km towards East from his house realized that he has travelled in a wrong direction, lie turned and travelled 12 km
towards West, turned right and travelled 8 km to reach his office. The straight distance of the office from his house is:

(A) 20 km

(B) 14 km

(C) 12 km

(D) 10 km

Answer: (D)

28. The next term in the series:

B2E, D5H, F12K, H27N, ? is:

(A) J561

(B) 162Q

(C) Q62J

(D) J58Q

Answer: (D)

29. A party was held in which a grandmother, father, mother, four sons, their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons were
present. The number of females present in the party is:

(A) 12

(B) 14

(C) 18

(D) 24

Answer: (B)

30. P and Q are brothers. R and S are sisters. The son of P is brother of S. Q is related to R as:

(A) Son

(B) Brother

(C) Uncle

(D) Father

Answer: (C)
31. Consider the argument given below:

‘Pre - employment testing of teachers is quite fair because doctors, architects and engineers who are now employed had to face such a
testing.’

What type of argument it is?

(A) Deductive

(B) Analogical

(C) Psychological

(D) Biological

Answer: (B)
32. Among the following propositions two arc related in such a way that they can both be true although they cannot both be false. Which are
those propositions? Select the correct code.

Propositions:

(a) Some priests are cunning.

(b) No priest is cunning.

(c) All priests are cunning.

(d) Some priests are not cunning.

Codes:

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (c) and (d)

(C) (a) and (c)

(D) (a) and (d)

Answer: (D)

33. A Cluster of propositions with a structure that exhibits some inference is called

[Link]

(A) An inference

(B) An argument

(C) An explanation

(D) A valid argument

Answer: (B)

34. Consider the following assertion (A) and reason (R) and select the correct code given below:

(A): No man is perfect.

(R): Some men are not perfect.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not provide sufficient reason for (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) provides sufficient reason for (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

35. A definition that has a meaning that is deliberately assigned to some symbol is called:

(A) Lexical

(B) Precising

(C) Stipulative

(D) Persuasive

Answer: (C)

36. If the proposition ‘No men are honest’ is taken to be false which of the following proposition/propositions can be claimed certainly to be
true?

Propositions:
(A) All men are honest

(B) Some men are honest

(C) Some men are not honest

(D) No honest person is man

Answer: (B)

Given below in the table is the decadal data of Population and Electrical Power Production of a country.

Based on the above table, answer the questions from Sl. No. 37 to 42.

37. Which decade registered the maximum growth rate (%) of population?

(A) 1961-71

(B) 1971-81

(B) 1991-2001

(D) 2001-2011

Answer: (A)

38. Average decadal growth rate (%) of population is:

(A) ~12.21%

(B) ~9.82%

(C) ~6.73%

(D) ~5%

Answer: (B)

39. Based on the average decadal growth rate, what will be the population in the year 2021?

(A) 40.34 million

(B) 38.49 million

(C) 37.28 million

(D) 36.62 million

Answer: (B)

40. In the year 1951, what was the power availability per person?

(A) 100 W

(B) 200 W

(C) 400 W

(D) 500 W

Answer: (D)

41. In which decade, the average power availability per person was maximum?

(A) 1981-1991
(B) 1991-2001

(C) 2001-2011

(D) 1971-1981

Answer: (C)

42. By what percentage (%) the power production increased from 1951 o 2011?

(A) 100%

(B) 300%

(C) 600%

(D) 900%

Answer: (D)

43. NMEICT stands for:

(A) National Mission on Education through ICT

(B) National Mission on E-governance through ICT

(C) National Mission on E-commerce through ICT

(D) National Mission on E-learning through ICT

Answer: (A)

44. Which of the following is an instant messaging application?

(a) WhatsApp

(b) Google Talk

(c) Viber

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a) and (b) only

(B) (b) and (c) only

(C) (a) only

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (D)

45. In a Computer a byte generally consists of:

(A) 4 bits

(B) 8 bits

(C) 16 bits

(D) 10 bits

Answer: (B)

46. Which of the following is not an input device?

(A) Microphone

(B) Keyboard
(C) Joystick

(D) Monitor

Answer: (D)

47. Which of the following is an open source software?

(A) MS Word

(B) Windows

(C) Mozilla Firefox

(D) Acrobat Reader

Answer: (C)

48. Which of the following enables us to send the same letter to different persons in MS Word?

(A) Mail join

(B) Mail copy

(C) Mail insert

(D) Mail merge

Answer: (D)

49. Inside rural homes, the source/sources of Nitrogen Oxide Pollution may be:

(a) Unvented gas stoves

(b) Wood stoves

(c) Kerosene heaters

Choose the correct code:

(A) (a) and (b) only

(B) (b) and (c) only

(C) (b) only

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (D)

50. Which of the following pollutants can cause cancer in humans?

(A) Pesticides

(B) Mercury

(C) Lead

(D) Ozone

[Link]

Answer: (A)

51. Assertion (A): People population control measures do not necessarily help in checking environmental degradation.

Reason (R): The relationship between population growth and environmental degradation is rather complex.

Choose the correct answer from the following

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

52. Which of the following phenomena is not a natural hazard?

(A) Wildfire

(B) Lightning

(C) Landslide

(D) Chemical contamination

Answer: (D)

53. As part of National Climate Change Policy, Indian government is planning to raise the installed capacity of renewable energy by the year
2030 to

(A) 175 GW

(B) 200 GW

(C) 250 GW

(D) 350 GW

Answer: (D)

54. At present, in terms of per capita energy consumption (kWh/year), identify the correct sequence.

(A) Brazil > Russia > China > India

(B) Russia > China > India > Brazil

(C) Russia > China > Brazil > India

(D) China > Russia > Brazil > India

Answer: (C)

55. Which of the following are the objectives of Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)?

(a) To improve the overall quality of state institutions.

(b) To ensure adequate availability of quality faculty.

(c) To create new institutions through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges.

(d) To downgrade universities with poor infrastructure into autonomous colleges.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b) and (d)

Answer: (B)
56. The grounds on which discrimination in admission to educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited are

(a) Religion

(b) Sex

(c) Place of birth

(d) Nationality

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (B)

57. Which of the following statements are correct about Lok Sabha?

(a) The Constitution puts a limit on the size of the Lok Sabha.

(b) The size and shape of the Parliamentary Constituencies is determined by the Election Commission.

(c) First - past - the Post electoral system is followed.

(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha does not have a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a) and (c)

(B) (a), b) and (c)

(C) (a), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (A)

58. Public Order as an item in the Constitution figures in

(A) The Union List

(B) The State List

(C) The Concurrent List

(D) The Residuary Powers

Answer: (B)

59. The term of office of the Advocate General of a State is:

(A) 4 years

(B) 5 years

(C) 6 years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier

(D) not fixed

Answer: (D)

60. Which among the following States has the highest number of seats in the Lok Sabha?

(A) Maharashtra
(B) Rajasthan

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) West Bengal

Answer: (A)

20 16 July NTA UGC NET Solv ed Questio n Pa per -1

Instead of the UGC NET Examination of 2016 June, CBSE conducted the UGC NET Examination on 10th July, 2016. The UGC NET
Examination Question Paper-1 of 10th July, 2016, Test Booklet Code D along with answer keys are given below. The answer keys are as per
the answer keys released by CBSE / UGC.

1. Which of the following is the largest source of water pollution in major rivers of India?

[Link]

(A) Untreated sewage

(B) Agriculture run-off

(C) Unregulated small scale industries

(D) Religious practices

Answer: (A)

2. Sustainable development goals have specific targets to be achieved by

(A) 2022

(B) 2030

(C) 2040

(D) 2050

Answer: (B)

3. Indian government’s target of producing power from biomass by the year 2022, is

(A) 50 MW

(B) 25 MW

(C) 15 MW

(D) 10 MW

Answer: (Wrong Question)

4. Assertion (A): Conserving our soil resources is critical to human survival.

Reason (R): Soil is home to many micro-organisms and contains minerals.

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (B)
5. World Meterological Organisation’s (WMO) objective has been to reduce the number of deaths to hydrometerological disasters over the
decade 2010-2019 by (with reference to the decade 1994-2003)

(A) 25%

(B) 50%

(C) 75%

(D) 80%

Answer: (B)

6. – is a type of memory circuitry that holds the computer’s start-up routine.

(A) RIM (Read Initial Memory)

(B) RAM (Random Access Memory)

(C) ROM (Read Only Memory)

(D) Cache Memory

Answer: (C)

7. An ASCII is a character-encoding scheme that is employed by personal computers in order to represent various characters, number and
control keys that the computer user selects on the keyboard. ASCII is an acronym for

(A) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

(B) American Standard Code for Intelligent Information

(C) American Standard Code for Information Integrity

(D) American Standard Code for Isolated Information

Answer: (A)

8. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human beings.

(A) Particulate matter

(B) Oxides of nitrogen

(C) Surface ozone

(D) Carbon monoxide

Answer: (C)

9. Which of the following statements about the Indian political system is/are correct?

(a) The president is both Head of the State and Head of the Government.

(b) Parliament is Supreme.

(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.

[Link]

(d) The Directive Principles of State Policy are justifiable.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (b) and (c)

(D) (c) only

Answer: (D)

10. Which of the following are the fundamental duties?

(a) To respect the National Flag.

(b) To protect and improve the natural environment.

(c) For a parent to provide opportunities for education to his/her child.

(d) To protect monuments and places of national importance.

Select the correct answer from the codes given:

Codes:

(A) (a), (b) and (c)

(B) (a), (b) and (d)

(C) (a), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (A)
11. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Niti Aayog?

(a) It is a constitutional body.

(b) It is a statutory body.

(c) It is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.

(d) It is a think-tank.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (a) and (d)

(B) (b) and (d)

(C) (c) and (d)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (C)

12. Which of the following core value among the institutions of higher education are promoted by the NAAC (National Assessment and
Accreditation Council)?

(a) Contributing to national development.

(b) Fostering global competencies among students and teachers.

(c) Inculcating a value system among students and teachers.

(d) Promoting the optimum utilization of the infrastructure.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(A) (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (b) and (c)

(C) (a), (c) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (B)

13. The best way for providing value education is through

(A) Discussions on scriptural texts

(B) Lecture/discourses on values

(C) Seminars/symposia on values

(D) Mentoring/reflective sessions on values

Answer: (D)

14. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) has been declared unconstitutional by

(A) The Supreme Court of India

(B) The High Court

(C) The High Court and the Supreme Court both

(D) The President of India

Answer: (A)

15. Which set of learner characteristics may be considered helpful in designing effective teaching-learning systems? Select the correct
alternative from the codes given below:

(i) Prior experience of learners in respect of the subject.

(ii) Interpersonal relationships of learner’s family friends.

(iii) Ability of the learners in respect of the subject.

(iv) Student’s language background.

(v) Interest of students in following the prescribed dress code.

(vi) Motivational – orientation of the students.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(B) (i), (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(C) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(D) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer: (B)

16. A college level assistant professor has planned his/her lectures with an intent to develop cognitive dimensions of students centered on skills
of analysis and [Link] Below, given are two sets of items Set – I consisting of levels of cognitive interchange and Set – II
comprising basic requirements for promoting them. Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing the correct alternative from the
code:
Codes:

a b c

(A) ii iv i

(B) iii iv ii

(C) ii i iv

(D) i ii iii

Answer: (C)

17. Match the items of the first set with that of the second set in respect of evaluation system. Choose the correct code:
Codes:

a b c d
(A) iv iii i ii

(B) i ii iii iv

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) i iii iv ii

Answer: (A)

18. Select the alternative which consists of positive factors contributing to effectiveness of teaching:

List of factors:

a. Teacher’s knowledge of the subject.

b. Teacher’s socio-economic background.

c. Communication skill of the teacher.

d. Teacher’s ability to please the students.

e. Teacher’s personal contact with students.

f. Teacher’s competence in managing and monitoring the classroom transactions

Codes:

(A) (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (c), (d) and (f)

(C) (b), (d) and (c)

(D) (a), (c) and (f)

Answer: (D)

19. The use of teaching aids is justified on the grounds of

(A) Attracting student’s attention in the class room.

(B) Minimizing indiscipline problem in the classroom.

(C) Optimizing learning outcomes of students.

(D) Effective engagement of students in learning tasks.

Answer: (C)

20. Assertion (A): The purpose of higher education is to promote critical and creative thinking abilities among students.

Reason (R): These abilities ensure job placements

[Link]

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true

Answer: (B)

21. In qualitative research paradigm, which of the following features may be considered critical?

(A) Data collection with standardized research tools.

(B) Sampling design with probability sample techniques.

(C) Data collection with bottom-up empirical evidences.

(D) Data gathering to take with top-down systematic evidences.

Answer: (C)

22. From the following list of statement identify the set, which has negative implications for ‘research ethics ’:

i. A researcher critically looks at the findings of another research.

ii. Related studies are cited without proper references.

iii. Research findings are made the basis for policymaking.

iv. Conduct of practitioner is screened in terms of reported research evidences.

v. A research study is replicated with a view to verify the evidences from other researches.

vi. Both policy making and policy implementing processes are regulated in terms of preliminary studies.

(A) i, ii and iii

(B) ii, iii and iv

(C) ii, iv and vi

(D) i, iii and v

Answer: (C)

23. In a research on the effect of child-rearing practices on stress –proneness of children in competing school projects, the hypothesis formulated
is that ‘child rearing practices do influence stress- proneness’. At the data-analysis stage a null hypothesis is advanced to find out the tenability
of research hypothesis. On the basis of the evidence available, the null hypothesis is rejected at 0.01 level of significance. What decision may
be warranted in respect of the research hypothesis?

(A) The research hypothesis will also be rejected.

(B) The research hypothesis will be accepted.

(C) Both the research hypothesis and the null hypothesis will be rejected.

(D) No decision can be taken in respect of the research hypothesis.

Answer: (B)

24. A research intends to explore the effect of possible factors for the organization of effective mid-day meal interventions. Which research
method will be most appropriate for this study?

(A) Historical method

(B) Descriptive survey method

(C) Experimental method

(D) Ex-post facto method

Answer: (D)

25. Which of the following is an initial mandatory requirement for pursuing research?

(A) Developing a research design

(B) Formulating a research question

(C) Deciding about the data analysis procedure

(D) Formulating a research hypothesis

Answer: (B)
26. The format of thesis writing is the same as in

(A) Preparation of a research paper/article

(B) Writing of seminar presentation

(C) A research dissertation

(D) Presenting a workshop/conference paper

Answer: (C)

Read the following passage carefully and answer question numbers from 37 to 42:

In terms of labour, for decades the relatively low cost and high quality of Japanese workers conferred considerable competitive advantage
across numerous durable goods and consumer electronics industries (eg. Machinery, automobiles, televisions, radios), then labour-based
advantages shifted to South Korea, then to Malaysia, Mexico and other nations. Today, China appears to be capitalizing best on the basic of
labour, Japanese firms still remain competitive in markets for such durable goods, electronics and other products, but the labour force is no
longer sufficient for competitive advantage over manufacturers in other industrializing nations. Such shifting of labour-based advantage is
clearly not limited to manufacturing industries. Today a huge number of IT and service jobs are moving from Europe and North America to
India, Singapore and like countries with relatively well-educated, low-cost workforces possessing technical skills. However, as educational
level and technical skills continue to rise in other countries, India, Singapore and like nations enjoying labour-based competitive advantage
today are likely to find such advantage cannot be sustained through emergence of new competitions.

In terms of capital, for centuries the days of gold coin and later even paper money restricted financial flows. Subsequently regional
concentrations were formed where large banks, industries and markets coalesced. But today capital flows internationally at rapid speed. Global
commerce no longer requires regional interactions among business players. Regional capital concentrations in places such as New York,
London and Tokyo still persist of course, but the capital concentrated there is no longer sufficient for competitive advantage over other
capitalists distributed worldwide, Only if an organization is able to combine, integrate and apply its resources (eg. Land, labour, capital, IT) in
an effective manner that is not readily imitable by competitors can such as organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime.

In a knowledge-based theory of the firm, this idea is extended to view organizational knowledge as recourse with at least the same level of
power and importance as the traditional economic inputs. An organization with superior knowledge can achieve competitive advantage in
markets that appreciate the application of such knowledge. Semiconductors, genetic engineering, pharmaceuticals, software, military warfare,
and like knowledge-intensive competitive arenas provide both time-proven and current examples. Consider semiconductors (e. g. computer
chips), which are made principles of sand and common metals, these ubiquitous and powerful electronics devices are designed within common
office building, using commercially available tools, and fabricated within factories in many industrialized nations. Hence land is not the key
competitive recourse in the semiconductor industry.

Based on the passage answer the following questions:

27. What is required to ensure competitive advantages in specific markets?

(A) Access to capital

(B) Common office buildings

(C) Superior knowledge

(D) Common metals

Answer: (C)

28. The passage also mentions about the trend of

(A) Global financial flow

(B) Absence of competition in manufacturing industry

(C) Regionalization of capitalists

[Link]

(D) Organizational incompatibility

Answer: (A)
29. What does the author lay stress on in the passage?

(A) International commerce

(B) Labour-Intensive industries

(C) Capital resource management

(D) Knowledge-driven competitive advantage

Answer: (D)

30. Which country enjoyed competitive advantages in automobile industry for decades?

(A) South Korea

(B) Japan

(C) Mexico

(D) Malaysia

Answer: (B)
31. Why labour-based competitive advantages of India and Singapore cannot be sustained in IT and service sectors?

(A) Due to diminishing levels of skill

(B) Due to capital-intensive technology making inroads

(C) Because of new competitors

(D) Because of shifting of labour-based advantage in manufacturing industries.

Answer: (C)

32. How can an organization enjoy competitive advantage sustainable overtime?

(A) Through regional capital flows

(B) Through regional interactions among business players.

(C) By making large bank, industries and markets coalesced.

(D) By effective use of various instrumentalities.

Answer: (D)

33. The choice of communication partners is influenced by factors of

(A) Proximity, utility, loneliness

(B) Utility, secrecy, dissonance

(C) Secrecy, dissonance, deception

(D) Dissimilarity, dissonance, deviance

Answer: (A)

34. As a teacher, select the best option to ensure your effective presence in the classroom.

(A) Use of peer command

(B) Making aggressive statements

(C) Adoption of well-established posture

(D) Being authoritarian

Answer: (C)
35. Every communicator has to experience

(A) Manipulated emotion

(B) Anticipatory excitement

(C) The issue of homophiles

(D) Status dislocation

Answer: (B)

36. Imagine you are working in an educational institution where people are of equal status. Which method of communication is best suited
and normally employed in such a context?

(A) Horizontal communication

(B) Vertical communication

(C) Corporate communication

(D) Cross communication

Answer: (A)

37. Identify the important element a teacher has to take cognizance of while addressing students in a classroom.

(A) Avoidance of proximity

(B) Voice modulation

(C) Repetitive pause

(D) Fixed posture

Answer: (B)

38. What are the barriers to effective communication?

(A) Moralising, being judgemental and comments of consolation.

(B) Dialogue, summary and self-review.

(C) Use of simple words, cool reaction and defensive attitude.

(D) Personal statement, eye contact and simple narration.

Answer: (A)

39. A person walks 10 m in front and 10 m to the right. Then every time turning to his left, he walks 5, 15 and 15 m respectively. How far is
he from his starting point?

(A) 20 m

(B) 15 m

(C) 10 m

(D) 5 m

[Link]

Answer: (D)

40. A sister of B. F is daughter of G. C is mother of B. D is father of C. E is mother of D. A is related to D as

(A) Grand daughter

(B) Daughter

(C) Daughter-in-law

(D) Sister

Answer: (A)

41. In the series AB, EDC, FGHI, ________? ________ OPQRST, The missing term is

(A) JKLMN

(B) JMKNL

(C) NMLKJ

(D) NMKLJ

Answer: (C)

42. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that one is the denial of the other. Which are those propositions? Select
the correct code:

Propositions:

(a) All women are equal to men

(b) Some women are equal to men

(c) Some women are not equal to men

(d) No women are equal to men

Codes:

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (a) and (d)

(C) (c) and (d)

(D) (a) and (c)

Answer: (D)

43. In certain code, SELECTION is coded as QCJCARGML. The code of AMERICANS will be

(A) YKCPGAYLQ

(B) BNFSJDBMR

(C) QLYAGPCKY

(D) YQKLCYPAG

Answer: (A)

44. In the series

3, 11, 23, 39, 59, ________

The next term will be

(A) 63

(B) 73

(C) 83

(D) 93
Answer: (C)

45. Two railway tickets from city A and B three ticketd from city A to C cost Rs. 177. Three tickets from city A to B and two tickets from
city A to C city Rs. 173. The fare for city B from city A will be Rs.

(A) 25

(B) 27

(C) 30

(D) 33

Answer: (D)

46. Select the code, which is not correct in the context of deductive argument with two premises:

(A) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.

(B) An argument with two true premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

(C) An argument with one true premise, one false premise and a false conclusion may be valid.

(D) An argument with two false premises and a false conclusion may be valid.

Answer: (B)

47. Given below two premise and four conclusions are drawn from them (taking singly or together). Select the code that states the conclusion
validly drawn.

Premises: (i) All religious persons are emotional.

(ii) Ram is a religious person.

Conclusion: (a) Ram is emotional.

(b) All emotional persons are religious.

(c) Ram is not a non-religious person.

(d) Some religious persons are not emotional.

Codes:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a) only

(C) (a) and (c) only

(D) (b) and (c) only

Answer: (C)

48. If the proposition ‘All thieves are poor’ is false, which of the following propositions can be claimed certainly to be true?

Propositions:

(A) Some thieves are poor.

(B) Some thieves are not poor.

(C) No thief is poor.

(D) No poor person is a thief.

Answer: (B)

49. Consider the following statement and select the correct code stating the nature of the argument involved in it:
[Link]

To suppose that the earth is the only populated world in the infinite space is as absurd as to assert that in an entire field of millet only one
grain will grow.

(A) Astronomical

(B) Anthropological

(C) Deductive

(D) Analogical

Answer: (D)

50. Select the code, which is not correct about Venn diagram:

(A) Venn diagram represents propositions as well as classes.

(B) It can provide clear method of notation.

(C) It can be either valid or invalid.

(D) It can provide the direct method of testing the validity.

Answer: (C)

The following table shows the percentage profit (%) earned by two companies A and B during the years 2011 - 15. Answer questions 1 - 3
based on the data contained in the table:

Profit earned by the companies

Where, percent (%) Profit = [(Income−Expenditure) / Expenditure] X100

51. If the total expenditure of the two companies was Rs. 9 lakh in the year 2012 and the expenditure of A and B were in the ratio 2:1, then
what was the income of the company A in that year?

(A) Rs. 9.2 lakh

(B) Rs. 8.1 lakh

(C) Rs. 7.2 lakh

(D) Rs. 6.0 lakh

Answer: (B)

52. What is the average percentage profit earned by the company B?

(A) 35%

(B) 42%

(C) 38%

(D) 40%

Answer: (C)

53. In which year, the percentage profit earned by the company B is less than that of company A?

(A) 2012

(B) 2013

(C) 2014
(D) 2015

Answer: (B)

[Link]

The table shows the number of people in different age groups who responded to a survey about their favourite style of music. Use this
information to answer the questions that follow:

54. Approximately what percentage of the total sample were aged 21 - 30?

(A) 31%

(B) 23%

(C) 25%

(D) 14%

Answer: (C)

55. Approximately what percentage of the total sample indicates that Hip-Hop is their favourite style of music?

(A) 6%

(B) 8%

(C) 14%

(D) 12%

Answer: (D)

56. What percentage of respondents aged 31 + indicated a favorite style other than classical music?

(A) 64%

(B) 60%

(C) 75%

(D) 50%

Answer: (C)

57. An unsolicited e-mail message sent to many recipients at once is a________

(A) Worm

(B) Virus

(C) Threat

(D) Spam

Answer: (D)

58. The statement “the study, development, implementation, support or management of computer-based information systems, particularly
software applications and computer hardware” refers to

(A) Information Technology (IT)

(B) Information and collaborative Technology (ICT)

(C) Information and data Technology (IDT)

(D) Artificial Intelligence (AI)

Answer: (A)

[Link]

59. If the binary equivalent of the decimal number 48 is 110000, then the binary equivalent of the decimal number 51 is given by

(A) 110011

(B) 110010

(C) 110001

(D) 110100

Answer: (A)

60. The process of copying files to a CD-ROM is known as________

(A) Burning

(B) Zipping

(C) Digitizing

(D) Ripping

Answer: (A)

20 16 Aug ust NTA UGC NET Solved Question Paper -1

The CBSE UGC NET Examination held on 10th July, 2016 was re-conducted in certain centres on 28th August, 2016. It is to be noted that the
UGC NET exam of 2016 June and 2016 December was not organized. The UGC NET Examination Question Paper-1 of 28th August, 2016,
Test Booklet Code A along with answer keys are given below. The answer keys are as per the answer keys released by UGC.

1. In a Ph.D. thesis which one is the correct sequence for showing scheme of Chapterisation?

(A) Survey of related studies, Introduction, Design of the study, Data-Analysis and interpretation, Conclusions and generalisations, suggested
further study, References,

Appendix

(B) Introduction, Design of study, Data Analysis and Interpretation, Generalizations, Conclusions and Survey of related studies and suggestions
for further research, References and Appendix

(C) Introduction, Survey of related studies, Design of study, Data-presentation; analysis & Interpretation, Formulation of generalization &
Conclusions, Suggestions for further research, References & Appendix

(D) Survey of related studies, References, Introduction, Design of study, Data analysis and interpretation, Conclusions and generalizations,
Suggestions for further research, Appendix

Answer: (C)

2. Which of the following is not the critical feature of qualitative research?

(A) Actual settings are the direct source of data.

(B) Data take the forms of words or pictures.

(C) Seeking to establish relationships among measured social facts.

(D) Researcher becomes immersed in the situation, present or past related to the phenomena.

Answer: (C)
3. A detailed description of methodology of research is required in

(A) Thesis/Dissertation

(B) Symposium/Workshop

(C) Seminar paper/Articles

(D) Conference and Seminar Papers

Answer: (A)

4. Research ethics has a direct connection more often with which stages of research?

(A) Defining and delimiting the scope of research.

(B) Problem formulation and reporting of research findings.

(C) Defining the population and deciding the sampling technique for research.

(D) Deciding about statistical techniques and data analysis.

Answer: (B)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 5 to 10 :

Many aspects of the motion-picture industry and its constituent companies are dissimilar to those observable in advanced-technology industries
and firms. For instance, company longevity does not represent a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts. In the advanced-
technology company for example, one new-product innovation – which is expected to generate financial returns to the firm – is insufficient for
the company to be successful.

Rather, a stream of new product innovations is required. By contrast with the independent production company of this case, each new film –
which is expected to generate financial returns to the principals – is sufficient for the company to be successful. Any subsequent new films
involving the firm’s participants will be produced by a different independent company.

As another instance, people’s learning is expected to have different contributors and beneficiaries across the two organizational contexts. In
the advanced-technology company, for example, each new product innovation provides an opportunity for participants on the project team to
learn and acquire experience, and this same company intends to retain such participants, hence, benefit from their increased experience on the
next project. By contrast with the independent production company, each new film provides an opportunity for participants on the project team
to learn and acquire this experience also, but this same company has little or no expectation of retaining such participants, and hence, benefitting
from their increased experience in the next project.

Experience is paramount in the motion-picture industry. Generally, on film projects, budgets are very tight, and schedules are very demanding.
People are hired largely based on their experience and are expected to perform well immediately when called to do so. There is negligible slack
time or margin for learning through trial and error, but experienced people learn exactly through trial and error. Because experience is valued
so highly and film-production houses have such short time horizons, entry into the industry is very difficult for most people. Further, the role
played by schools and colleges is minimal in this industry. Some skills and techniques can be learned and refined through formal education
(e.g., acting schools, theatre, film degrees), but the majority come through direct experience. Mentoring plays an important role. True, the film
business focuses heavily on exploitation over exploration. Yet success of the industry as a whole is critically dependent upon learning and
exploration overtime.

Answer the following questions:

5. What is not a consistent concern across the two organisational contexts?

(A) Dissimilarity

(B) Product package

(C) Financial return

(D) Company longevity

Answer: (D)

6. What will be sufficient for an independent production company to be successful?

(A) New product innovations

[Link]

(B) Financial returns from each new film

(C) Active role by firm’s participants

(D) Organisational context

Answer: (B)

7. What does an advanced-technology company expect from the learning experience of its participants?

(A) Benefit for the next project

(B) Opportunity for more learning

(C) Little expectation of retaining them

(D) Help in marketing the previous product

Answer: (A)

8. What is not the expectation of an independent production company in the case of its participants?

(A) Absence from the next project.

(B) Retention for the next project.

(C) Participation in the current project.

(D) Use of opportunity to acquire experience.

Answer: (B)

9. Why do film production houses value experience highly?

(A) Because of the importance of trial and error methods.

(B) Because of the margin for learning.

(C) Because of short time horizons.

(D) Because it allows easy entry to everyone into the film world.

Answer: (C)

10. According to the author, what has been the focus of film business?

(A) Formal education

(B) Mentoring

(C) Exploitation

(D) Indirect experience

Answer: (C)
11. Internal and external factors that affect message reception by the students in the classroom are referred to as

(A) Feedback

(B) Fragmentation

(C) Channelization

(D) Noise

Answer: (D)
12. A teacher in a classroom has immediate control over

(A) The self, selected methods of communication and the message.

(B) The audience, the noise and the reception.

(C) The feedback, the technology and the audience experience.

(D) The communication channel, other communicators, and external factors.

Answer: (A)

13. What do communicated words carry in a classroom situation?

(A) Inspiration, controversy and introspection

(B) Diversion, criticism and irrationality

(C) Insipidity, irrationality, and non-acceptance

(D) Power, structure and tradition

Answer: (D)

14. As a good classroom communicator, you are supposed to know your

(A) Audience emotions

(B) Silent cues

(C) Artful pauses

(D) Counter arguments

Answer: (C)

15. Figure out the components of non-verbal communication in a classroom from the following:

(A) Facial expression, cultural space and seating arrangement

(B) Speed of utterance, feel good factor and acoustics

(C) High sound, physical ambience and teacher-learner distance

(D) Facial expression, kinesics and personal space

Answer: (D)

16. Which of the following are the basic factors of effective listening?

(A) Opinionation, stare and glare and interruptions

(B) Aggressive questioning, continuous cues and frequent movement

(C) Me-too-ism, glancing sideways, and offering advice

(D) Acknowledgement of thoughts, reflection, and asking open-ended questions

Answer: (D)

17. In a particular code, HOSPITALS is coded as HSOLSAPTI. The code of BIOLOGICALS will be

(A) BLICOALIOSG

(B) BOLGICAILOS

(C) SBLAOILOBCG

(D) BSILOALCOIG
[Link]

Answer: (D)

18. In the series 1, 5, 13, 25, 41, ……. the next term is

(A) 59

(B) 63

(C) 61

(D) 68

Answer: (C)

19. At present, a mother is 3 times older than her son. After 5 years, the sum of their ages will be 70 years. The age of the mother after 10
years will be

(A) 40

(B) 55

(C) 45

(D) 60

Answer: (B)

20. In the series AYD, BVF, DRH, GMJ, ? the next term is

(A) GLK

(B) HLM

(C) LHM

(D) KGL

Answer: (D)

21. C and D are sisters. A and B are brothers. E is son of A and brother of D. B is related to C as

(A) Brother

(B) Son

(C) Uncle

(D) Father-in-law

Answer: (C)

22. Anil played 8 cricket matches. The mean (average) of the runs was found to be 80. After playing four more matches, the mean of the runs
of all the matches was found to be 70. The total runs made in the last four matches is

(A) 400

(B) 300

(C) 200

(D) 100

Answer: (C)
23. If two propositions are connected in such a way that they cannot both be false although they may both be true, then their relationship is
called

(A) Contrary

(B) Subcontrary

(C) Contradictory

(D) Subalternation

Answer: (B)

24. Which one among the following is not a characteristic of a deductive type of argument?

(A) The conclusion follows from the premise/premises necessarily.

(B) The argument admits degree of complexity.

(C) The argument provides us knowledge about matters of fact.

(D) The argument must be either valid or invalid.

Answer: (C)

25. Select the code which states the condition of an invalid deductive argument:

(A) All the premises are true but the conclusion is false.

(B) Some of the premises are true but the conclusion is false.

(C) All the premises are false and the conclusion is also false.

(D) All the premises are true and the conclusion is also true.

Answer: (A)

26. Given below are two premises, with four conclusions drawn from them (taking singly or together); which conclusions are validly drawn?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Premises:

(i) All bats are mammals.

(ii) Birds are not bats.

Conclusions:

(a) Birds are not mammals.

(b) Bats are not birds.

(c) All mammals are bats.

(d) Some mammals are bats.

Codes:

(A) (a), (b) and (d)

(B) (b) and (d)

(C) (a) and (c)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (B)

27. When a definition implies a proposal to use the definiendum to mean what is meant by the definiens it is called

(A) Lexical definition

(B) Stipulative definition

(C) Precising definition

(D) Persuasive definition

Answer: (B)

28. Select the code which is not correct:

An analogical argument is strengthened by

(A) Increasing the number of entities.

(B) Increasing the number of similar respects.

(C) Reducing the claim made earlier stronger.

(D) Making the conclusion stronger when premises remain unchanged.

Answer: (D)

Consider the following two tables (I and II) that show the percentage of students in each faculty at University and the number of foreign
students in the Science faculty. These percentages have been rounded to the nearest whole number. There are a total of 1049 students in the
science faculty. Study these tables I and II and answer the questions that follow (Questions 29 – 31):

[Link]

I: Students Faculty wise

II : Foreign Students in Science Faculty

29. Approximately, what percentage of students in the Science faculty is that of foreign students?

(A) 14%

(B) 9%

(C) 30%

(D) 11%

[Link]

Answer: (D)

30. Approximately, how many students belong to the Engineering faculty?

(A) 420

(B) 410

(C) 390

(D) 400

Answer: (B)
31. In case, there are 34 European medical students, then approximately, what is their percentage in the medicine faculty?

(A) 13%

(B) 18%

(C) 12%

(D) 15%

Answer: (D)
A college has a total of 800 MCA students, 80% of whom are in class MCA-III and remaining are equally divided between class MCA-I and
class MCA-II. The proportion of female students and the proportion of vegetarian students in the college are indicated as under through the
table.

Answer questions 32 to 34 based on this information.

Proportion of females and proportion of vegetarians in each class

For example, in the table above, 0.525 is the total proportion of female students and 0.53 is the total proportion of vegetarian students in the
college.

32. What is the percentage of female students in class MCA-III?

(A) 40

(B) 45

(C) 50

(D) 55

Answer: (D)

[Link]

33. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in class MCA-I?

(A) 40

(B) 45

(C) 50

(D) 55

Answer: (A)

34. How many total non-vegetarian students are there in class MCA-I and class MCA-II?

(A) 72

(B) 88

(C) 78

(D) 92

Answer: (B)

35. Which of the following statements regarding the features of Information and

Communication Technology (ICT) is/are true?

I. ICT are the main instruments for the creation of computer networks and the applications based on them.

II. ICT supports the spread of information and knowledge, separating the content from the place where it belongs physically.

III. The digital and virtual nature of most of ICT products allow the expenditure for them to be maximized.

Codes:

(A) I and II only

(B) I and III only

(C) II and III only

(D) I, II and III

Answer: (A)
36. If one GigaByte is equal to 230 Bytes of data storage, then 1024 TeraBytes is equal to _____ bits of data storage.

(A) 250

(B) 253

(C) 240

(D) 256

Answer: (B)

37. The software used to navigate through the web is known as

(A) Website

(B) Web Browser

(C) Internet

(D) World Wide Web

Answer: (B)

38. With regard to e-mail, what does Bcc: mean?

(A) Blind Computer Communication: - The users specified in the Bcc: field will get the e-mail and see the addresses in the to : and cc :
fields.

(B) Blind Carbon Copy: - The users specified in the Bcc: field will get the e-mail and see the addresses in the to: and cc: fields.

(C) Blind Computer Communication:- The users specified in the Bcc : field will get the e-mail but it will be an audio file because this is how
blind people get e-mail.

(D) Blind Carbon Copy: The users specified in the Bcc: field will get the e-mail but will not see the addresses in the to: and cc: fields.

Answer: (B)

39. Random Access Memory (RAM), a form of computer storage, is a ______ memory.

(A) Non-volatile

(B) Volatile

(C) Permanent

(D) Secondary

Answer: (B)

40. In Computer Networking, HTTP is referred to as a stateless protocol as servers do not maintain any information about past client
requests. HTTP is an acronym for

(A) Hyper Text Translation Protocol

(B) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

(C) High TeraByte Transfer Protocol

(D) Hypervisor Test Translation Protocol

Answer: (B)

41. The arsenic pollution in ground water in Bangladesh and parts of India is due to

(A) Industrial waste

(B) Thermal power plants

(C) Natural sources

(D) Agricultural practices

Answer: (C)

42. Among the following air pollutants which directly impacts human health as well as climate?

(A) Soot

(B) Sulphur dioxide

(C) Oxides of nitrogen

(D) Chlorofluoro carbons

Answer: (A)

43. Assertion (A): The problems of environmental sustainability are difficult to resolve.

Reason (R): Our understanding how environment works and how different human choices affect environment is inadequate.

Choose the correct code:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

[Link]

44. The percentage share of electrical power from solar energy in the total electric power generation from all renewable energy sources
sought to be achieved by Indian government by the year 2022, is

(A) ~ 57.1%

(B) ~ 65.5%

(C) ~ 47.5%

(D) ~ 75%

Answer: (A)

45. As part of Intended Nationally Determined contributions, Indian government through additional forest and tree cover has resolved to
create an additional carbon sink (in terms of carbon dioxide equivalent) by year 2030 to the extent of

(A) 3.5 to 4 billion tons

(B) 2.5 to 3 billion tons

(C) 1.5 to 2 billion tons

(D) 1 to 1.5 billion tons

Answer: (B)

46. Which of the following is a meteorological hazard?

(A) Avalanche

(B) Coastal erosion

(C) Landslide

(D) Blizzard

Answer: (D)

47. Which of the following universities/institutes is ranked first in the India Rankings 2016?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru University, New Delhi

(B) Central University, Hyderabad

(C) Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore

(D) Institute of Chemical Technology, Mumbai

Answer: (C)

48. Which of the following statements are correct about distance education in India?

(a) It supplements formal education.

(b) It reduces the cost of education.

(c) It replaces the formal education.

(d) It enhances access to education.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(B) (a), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (C)

49. Which of the following are statutory bodies?

(a) Election Commission of India

(b) University Grants Commission (UGC)

(c) All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE)

(d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (a), (b) and (c)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (b) and (c)

(D) (b) and (d)

Answer: (C)

50. Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Rajya Sabha?

(a) It has same powers as those of Lok Sabha.

(b) It can pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.

(c) It can amend a money bill.

(d) It can be dissolved during emergency.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (b) and (c)

(B) (b), (c) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (c)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (D)

51. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the powers of the Governor of a State?

(a) He has the power to dissolve the Legislative Assembly.

(b) He has the power to appoint judges of the State High Court.

(c) He has the power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.

(d) He has diplomatic powers.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (a) only

(B) (a) and (b)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (A)

52. In which of the following cases, the principle of natural justice (Hear the other party) must be followed?

[Link]

(a) Dismissal of an employee

(b) Supersession of a municipality

(c) Threat to national security

(d) Disciplinary action against a student or an employee

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (a) and (b)

(B) (a) and (d)

(C) (a), (b) and (d)

(D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (C)

53. Which of the following set of statements reflects the basic characteristics of teaching?

Select the correct alternative from the codes:

(i) Teaching is the same as training.

(ii) There is no difference between instruction and conditioning when we teach.

(iii) Teaching is related to learning.

(iv) Teaching is a ‘task’ word while learning is an ‘achievement’ word.

(v) Teaching means giving information.

(vi) One may teach without learning taking place.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(B) (iii), (iv) and (vi)

(C) (ii), (iii) and (v)

(D) (i), (iv) and (vi)

Answer: (B)

54. Which of the following factors affect teaching?

Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.

(i) Teacher’s internal locus of control.

(ii) Learner-motivation.

(iii) Teacher’s biographical data.

(iv) Teacher’s self efficacy.

(v) Learner’s interest in co-curricular activities.

(vi) Teacher’s skill in managing and monitoring.

(vii) Teacher’s knowledge of the subject including general knowledge.

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii), (iv), (vi) and (vii)

(B) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(C) (iii), (iv), (v), (vi) and (vii)

(D) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer: (A)

55. Which combination of methods of teaching is likely to optimise learning?

(A) Lecturing, discussions and seminar method

(B) Interactive discussions, planned lectures and PowerPoint based presentations

(C) Interactive lecture sessions followed by buzz sessions, brainstorming and projects

(D) Lecturing, demonstrations and PowerPoint based presentations

Answer: (C)

56. Assertion (A): Teaching aids have to be considered as effective supplements to instruction.

Reason (R): They keep the students in good humour.

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

57. The purpose of formative evaluation is to

(A) Grade students’ learning outcomes.

(B) Accelerate students’ learning performance.

(C) Check students’ performance graph.

(D) Provide feedback to teacher effectiveness.

Answer: (B)

58. Which of the following learner characteristics are likely to influence the effectiveness of teaching aids and evaluation systems to ensure
positive results?

(A) Learner’s family background, age and habitation.

(B) Learner’s parentage, socio-economic background and performance in learning of the concerned subject.

(C) Learner’s stage of development, social background and personal interests.

(D) Learner’s maturity level, academic performance level and motivational dispositions.

Answer: (D)

59. For advancing knowledge, the latest strategy used by mankind is

(A) Consulting an authority

(B) Deductive reasoning

(C) Scientific thinking

(D) Inductive reasoning

Answer: (C)

[Link]

60. There are two sets given below, Set-I consists of methods of research and Set-II indicates their procedural characteristics. Match the two
sets and choose your answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

a b c d e

(A) i iii iv v vii

(B) iii iv v vi vii

(C) i ii iii iv v

(D) iii vi v ii i

Answer: (D)
2017 January NTA UGC NET Solved Question Paper -1
The CBSE NET examination 2016 December was not held; instead the UGC conducted the next UGC NET exam on 22nd January 2017. The
UGC NET Examination Question Paper-1 of 22nd January 2017, Test Booklet Code X along with answer keys are given below. The answer
keys are as per the answer keys released by CBSE on behalf of UGC.
1. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is said that most people believe in

(1) Indeterminate messages

(2) Verbal messages

(3) Non-verbal messages

(4) Aggressive messages

Answer: (3)

[Link]

2. The typical feature of an information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being

(1) Sedentary

(2) Staggered

(3) Factual

(4) Sectoral

Answer: (3)

3. Expressive communication is driven by

(1) Passive aggression

(2) Encoder's personality characteristics

(3) External clues

(4) Encoder-decoder contract

Answer: (2)

4. Positive classroom communication leads to

(1) Coercion

(3) Confrontation

(2) Submission

(4) Persuasion

Answer: (4)

5. Classroom communication is the basis of

(1) Social identity

(2) External inanities

(3) Biased passivity

(4) Group aggression

Answer: (1)

6. Effective communication pre-supposes

(1) Non-alignment

(2) Domination

(3) Passivity
(4) Understanding

Answer: (4)

7. The next term in the following series YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, ? will be

(1) TLO

(2) QOL

(3) QLO

(4) GQP

Answer: (2)

8. If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as 0, I as A, P as N, E as M, 0 as E and C as S, then the code of COMPANIES will be

[Link]

(1) SPEINMOAC

(2) NCPSEIOMA

(3) SMOPIEACN

(4) SEINCPAMO

Answer: (4)

9. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data:

(1) Number of languages a person speaks

(2) Number of children in a household

(3) Population of cities

(4) Weight of students in a class

Answer: (4)

10. Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays Rs. 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays Rs.
28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glasses, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays Rs. 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups will be

(1) Rs.40

(2) Rs.60

(3) Rs.80

(4) Rs.70

Answer: (4)

11. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is different. Identify the odd one

(1) Lucknow

(2) Rishikesh

(3) Allahabad

(4) Patna

Answer: (1)
12. Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not of deductive reasoning:

(1) The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment.

(2) The conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises.

(3) The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily.

(4) The argument may be valid or invalid.

Answer: (1)

13. The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 343, ... is

(1) 30

(2) 49

(3) 125

(4) 81

Answer: (3)

14. Men and woman may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered inferior or superior to the other, any more than a
bird's wings can be considered superior or inferior to a fish's fins. What type of argument it is ?

(1) Biological

(2) Physiological

(3) Analogical

(4) Hypothetical

Answer: (3)

15. Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be true but can both be false. Select the code that
states those two propositions.

Propositions:

(a) Every student is attentive.

(b) Some students are attentive.

(c) Students are never attentive.

(d) Some students are not attentive.

Codes:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

16. Given below are two premises ((a) and (b)). From those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv) are drawn. Select the code that
states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises (taking singly or jointly.)

Premises:

(a) Untouchability is a curse.

(b) All hot pans are untouchable.

Conclusions:

(i) All hot pans are curse.

(ii) Some untouchable things are hot pans.

(iii) All curses are untouchability.

(iv) Some curses are untouchability.

Codes:

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (iii) and (iv)

[Link]

(4) (ii) and (iv)

Answer: (4)

17. If the statement 'None but the brave wins the race' is false which of the following statements can be claimed to be true?

Select the correct code:

(1) All brave persons win the race.

(2) Some persons who win the race are not brave.

(3) Some persons who win the race are brave.

(4) No person who wins the race is brave.

Answer: (2)

18. If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are related in such a manner that if one is undetermined
the other must be undetermined, what is their relation?

(1) Contrary

(2) Subcontrary

(3) Contradictory

(4) Sub-altern

Answer: (3)

The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (Rs. in lakh) generated by a publishing house during the years 2012-15 while selling books,
magazines and journals as three categories of items. Answer questions 19 — 21 based on the data contained in the table.

19. The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two categories of items, is

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 2

(4) 3

Answer: (3)
20. If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales revenue as the year 2015 over the year 2014, then the revenue in the
year 2016 must be approximately:

(1) Rs. 194 lakh

(2) Rs. 187 lakh

(3) Rs. 172 lakh

(4) Rs. 177 lakh

Answer: (4)
21. In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue came from books?

(1) 45%

(2) 55%

(3) 35%

(4) 25%

Answer: (1)

A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by performance and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer
hard disk, but accidently sonic of it is lost because of a computer virus. Only the following could be recovered:
Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self evident:

(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.

(b) 40% of the students were females.

(c) One-third of the male students were average.

Answer questions 22 — 24 based on the data given above:

22. What proportion of female students are good?

(1) 0

(2) 0.25

(3) 0.50

(4) 0.75

Answer: (2)

23. Approximately, what proportion of good students are male?

(1) 0

(2) 0.73

(3) 0.43

(4) 0.27

Answer: (2)

24. How many female students are excellent?

(1) 0

(2) 8

(3) 16

(4) 32
Answer: (1)

25. Read the following two statements:

I: Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology (IT).

II: The 'right to use' a piece of software is termed as copyright.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

(1) Both I and II

(2) Neither I nor II

(3) II only

(4) I only

Answer: (2)

26. Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest speed?

(1) Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM); Cache Memory; CPU Registers

(2) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Secondary Storage; Main Memory (RAM)

(3) CPU Registers; Cache Memory; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage

(4) Cache Memory; CPU Registers; Main Memory (RAM); Secondary Storage

Answer: (3)

27. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

S1: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11.

S2: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625.

(1) SI only

(2) S2 only

(3) Both S1 and S2

(4) Neither S1 nor S2

Answer: (2)

28. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in a publication together with variable information
in a data source to create one merged publication is called

(1) Electronic mail

(2) Data sourcing

(3) Mail merge

(4) Spam mail

Answer: (3)

29. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data. DVD is an acronym for

(1) Digital Vector Disc

(2) Digital Volume Disc

(3) Digital Versatile Disc

(4) Digital Visualization Disc

Answer: (3)

[Link]

30. Assertion (A): Sustainable development is critical to well being of human society.

Reason (R): Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete the natural resources.

Choose the correct code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (2)

31. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NO x) in urban areas is

(1) Road transport

(2) Commercial sector

(3) Energy use in industry

(4) Power plants

Answer: (1)

32. Which of the following is not a water-brone disease?

(1) Typhoid

(2) Hepatitis

(3) Cholera

(4) Dengue

Answer: (4)

33. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.0 applications?

(1) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.

(2) Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share information online.

(3) Web2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating users to create it.

(4) Web2.0 applications use only static pages.

Answer: (2)

34. In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?

(1) Rwanda

(2) Morocco

(3) South Africa

(4) Algeria

Answer: (1)
35. Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological?

(1) Snow avalanche

(2) Sea erosion

(3) Tropical cyclone

(4) Tsunami

Answer: (4)

36. Which of the following are the demerits of globalisation of higher education?

(a) Exposure to global curriculum

(b) Promotion of elitism in education

(c) Commodification of higher education

(d) Increase in the cost of education Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (3)

37. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?

(a) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.

(b) They can design their own syllabus and course work.

(c) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.

(d) They can grant degrees.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

38. Indian government's target for power production from small hydro projects by the year 2022 is

(1) 1 Giga-Watt

(2) 5 Giga-Watt

(3) 10 Giga-Watt

(4) 15 Giga-Watt

Answer: (2)
39. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.

(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.

[Link]

(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.

(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

40. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President's Rule in a State?

(a) Dissolution of the State Assembly.

(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.

(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government.

(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (b) and (c)

Answer: (1)
41. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold(s) office during good behaviour?

(a) Governor of a State

(b) Attorney General of India

(c) Judges of the High Court

[Link]

(d) Administrator of a Union Territory Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(1) (a) only

(2) (c) only

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

42. The purpose of value education is best served by focussing on

(1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.

(2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group.

(3) Concern for human values.

(4) Religious and moral practices and instructions.

Answer: (3)

43. Assertion (A): Learning is a lifelong process.

Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

44. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of

(1) Course coverage

(2) Students' interest

(3) Learning outcomes of students

(4) Use of teaching aids in the classroom

Answer: (3)

45. In which teaching method learner's participation is made optimal and proactive?

(1) Discussion method

(2) Buzz session method

(3) Brainstorming session method

(4) Project method

Answer: (4)

46. One of the most powerful factors affecting teaching effectiveness is related to the

(1) Social system of the country

(2) Economic status of the society

(3) Prevailing political system

(4) Educational system

Answer: (4)

47. Assertion (A): Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.

Reason (R): As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable. Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

48. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning relationships?

Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.

(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.

(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.

(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place.

(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.

(v) A teacher teaches but learns also.

(vi) Real learning implies rote learning.

Codes:

(1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

Answer: (2)

49. In doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps?

(1) Reflect, observe, plan, act

(2) Plan, act, observe, reflect

(3) Plan, reflect, observe, act

(4) Act, observe, plan, reflect

Answer: (2)

50. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below?

(1) Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and
conclusions.

(2) Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.

(3) Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design, Collection of data, Data analysis and formulation of
generalizations and conclusions.

[Link]

(4) Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools, Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of
research evidence.

Answer: (3)

51. Below are given two sets — research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools (Set-II). Match the two sets and indicate your answer by
selecting the correct code:
Codes:
Answer: (2)
52. The issue of 'research ethics' may be considered pertinent at which stage of research?

(1) At the stage of problem formulation and its definition

(2) At the stage of defining the population of research

(3) At the stage of data collection and interpretation

(4) At the stage of reporting the findings.

Answer: (3)

53. In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed?

(1) Doctoral level thesis

(2) Conference of researchers

(3) Workshops and seminars

(4) Symposia

Answer: (1)

54. The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and students with a view to explore the possibility of their enhanced
participation in school programmes. This endeavour may be related to which type of research?

(1) Evaluation Research

(2) Fundamental Research

(3) Action Research

(4) Applied Research

Answer: (3)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 55 to 60 : The last great war, which nearly shook the foundations of the
modern world, had little impact on Indian literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsion against violence and adding to the growing
disillusionment with the 'humane pretensions' of the Western World. This was eloquently voiced in Tagore's later poems and his last testament,
Crisis in Civilisation. The Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help sympathising with England's
dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting with their backs to the wall against the ruthless Nazi hordes, and with China
groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand, their own country was practically under military occupation of their own
soil, and an Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from
such confusion of loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the Allies'
victory and was followed by the collapse of colonialism in the neighbouring countries of South-East Asia, would have released an upsurge of
creative energy. No doubt it did, but unfortunately it was son submerged in the geat agony of partition, with its inhuman slaughter of the
innocents and the uprooting of millions of people from their homeland, followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies, along
with Pakistan's invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a poignant writing, particularly in the languages
of the regions most affected, Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. But poignant or passionate writing does not by itself make
great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence survived these disasters have been mainly absorbed in the task of national
reconstruction and economic development. Great literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today
in volume, range and variety than it ever was in the past. Based on the passage answer the following questions from 55 to 60:

55. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?

(1) Offered support to Subhas Bose.

(2) Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World.

(3) Expressed loyalty to England.

(4) Encouraged the liberation of countries.

Answer: (2)

56. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?
(1) Indifference to Russia's plight.

(2) They favoured Japanese militarism.

(3) They prompted creativity out of confused loyalties.

(4) They expressed sympathy for England's dogged courage.

Answer: (4)

57. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence of creative energy in Indian literature.

(1) Military occupation of one's own soil.

(2) Resistance to colonial occupation.

(3) Great agony of partition.

(4) Victory of Allies.

Answer: (3)

58. What was the aftermath that survived tragedies in Kashmir and Bangladesh?

(1) Suspicion of other countries

[Link]

(2) Continuance of rivalry

(3) Menace of war

(4) National reconstruction

Answer: (4)

59. The passage has the message that

(1) Disasters are inevitable.

(2) Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions.

(3) Indian literature does not have a marked landscape.

(4) Literature has no relation with war and independence.

Answer: (2)

60. What was the impact of the last Great War on Indian literature?

(1) It had no impact.

(2) It aggravated popular revulsion against violence.

(3) It shook the foundations of literature.

(4) It offered eloquent support to the Western World.

Answer: (2)

20 17 No vember NTA UGC NET Solv ed Questio n Paper -1

The UGC NET Examination 2017 November was conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) on 5 th November, 2017.
The following are the answer keys of Test Booklet Series B, Paper-1 of UGC NET / CBSE NET held on 5th November, 2017. The answer keys
are as per the answer keys released by CBSE on behalf of UGC. It is to be noted that the UGC NET Examination 2017 June and 2017 December
was not held.
Answer the question 1 to 5 based on the data given in the table below.

Table: Number of registered vehicles in India and India’s population.

1. What was the per capita ownership of two wheelers in India in the year 2011?

(1) ~0.0084%

(2) ~0.84%

(3) ~0.068%

(4) ~0.084%

Answer: (Wrong Question)

2. What was the average decadal growth in the number of cars during 1961 – 2011?

(1) ~68%

(2) ~217%

[Link]

(3) ~157%

(4) ~131%

Answer: (4)

3. In the year 2001, out of total number of vehicles, the number of passenger vehicles (4 wheelers) accounted for:

(1) ~24%

(2) ~31%

(3) ~43%

(4) ~14%

Answer: (4)

4. The maximum decadal growth in population of India is registered in the period:

(1) 1991 – 2001

(2) 2001 – 2011

(3) 1981 – 1991

(4) 1961 – 1971

Answer: (4)

5. In which year the decadal growth (%) in number of car surpassed that of the two wheelers?

(1) 2001

(2) 1981

(3) 2011

(4) 1991

Answer: (3)

6. The next term in the series ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB … is:
(1) SBL

(2) PSK

(3) RUH

(4) NSA

Answer: (1)

7. Given below are four statements. Among them, two are related in such a way that they can both be true but they cannot both be false. Select
the code that indicates those two statements:

Statements:

(a) Honest people never suffer.

(b) Almost all honest people do suffer.

(c) Honest people hardly suffer.

(d) Each and every honest person suffers.

Code:

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (a) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) (a) and (b)

Answer: (3)

8. In a classroom probability of message reception can be enhanced by:

(1) Exposing the ignorance of students

(2) Increasing the information load

(3) Using high decibel audio tools

(4) Establishing a viewpoint

Answer: (4)

9. It is Truism to say that no one was there when life first appeared on earth. Any assertion about life’s origin thus, should be treated as a
theory.

The above two statements constitute:

(1) A narrative

(2) An argument

(3) A conjecture

(4) A historical explanation

Answer: (2)

10. The spatial audio reproduction in a classroom can reduce the students’:

(1) Respect for the teacher

(2) Motivation for excellence

(3) Interest in technology - orientation

(4) Cognitive load in understanding

Answer: (4)

11. A deductive argument is invalid if:

(a) Its premises and conclusion are all false

(b) Its premises are all false but its conclusion is true.

(c) Its premises are all true but its conclusion is false.

(d) Its premises and conclusion are all true.

Answer: (3)

[Link]

12. A good communicator begins his/her presentation with a:

(a) Non-sequitur

(b) Repetitive phrase

(c) Ice-breaker

(d) Complex question

Answer: (3)

13. In certain code, “COVALENT” is code as BWPDUOFM. The code of “ELEPHANT” will be:

(a) QMUBIADH

(b) QFMFUOBI

(c) EPHNTEAS

(d) MFUIQRTW

Answer: (2)

14. In the series 1, 6, 15, 28, 45 … the next term will be:

(a) 76

(b) 56

(c) 84

(d) 66

Answer: (4)

15. Ajay is a friend of Rakesh, Pointing to an old man Ajay asked Rakesh who is he? Rakesh said “His son is my son’s uncle”. The old man is
related to Rakesh as:

(a) Father-in law

(b) Father

(c) Uncle

(d) Grandfather

Answer: (2)

16. The interaction between a teacher and students creates a zone of proximal:
(a) Confusion

(b) Development

(c) Distortion

(d) Difference

Answer: (2)

17. Given below are two premises (a and b), from those two premises four conclusions (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are drawn. Select the code that
states the conclusion/conclusions drawn validity (taking the premises singularly or jointly).

Premises:

(a) All bats are mammals.

(b) No birds are bats.

Conclusions:

(i) No birds are mammals.

(ii) Some birds are not mammals.

(iii) No bats are birds.

(iv) All mammals are bats.

Code:

(1) (i) and (ii) only

(2) (iii) only

(3) (iii) and (iv) only

(4) (i) only

Answer: (2)

18. A postman walked 20 m straight from his office, turned right and walked 10 m. After turning left he walked 10 m and after turning right
walked 20 m. He again turned right and walked 70m. How far he is from his office?

(1) 40 m

(2) 60 m

(3) 20 m

(4) 50 m

Answer: (4)

19. Just melting ice-cubes do not causes a glass of water to overflow, melting sea – ice does not increase ocebic volume. What type of argument
is it?

(1) Hypothetical

(2) Psychological

(3) Statistical

(4) Analogical

Answer: (4)

20. The classroom communication should essentially be:

(1) Empathetic
(2) Abstract

(3) Non-descriptive

(4) Contrived

Answer: (1)

21. Which of the following set of statements best represents the nature and objective of teaching and learning?

[Link]

(a) Teaching is like selling and learning is like buying.

(b) Teaching is a social act while learning is a personal act.

(c) Teaching implies learning whereas learning does not imply teaching.

(d) Teaching is a kind of delivery of knowledge while learning is like receiving it.

(e) Teaching is an interaction and is triadic in nature whereas learning is an active engagement in a subject domain.

Code:

(1) (b), (c) and (e)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b) and (d)

(4) (a), (d) and (e)

Answer: (1)

22. From the list given below identify the learner characteristics which would facilitate teaching-learning system to become effective. Choose
the correct code to indicate your answer.

(a) Prior experience of learner

(b) Learner’s family lineage

(c) Aptitude of the learner

(d) Learner’s stage of development

(e) Learner’s food habit and hobbies

(f) Learner’s religious affiliation

Code:

(1) (d), (e) and (f)

(2) (a), (d) and (e)

(3) (b), (c) and (f)

(4) (a), (c) and (d)

Answer: (4)

23. In finalizing a thesis writing format which of the following would form part of supplementary pages?

(1) Table of contents

(2) Conclusions of the study

(3) Bibliography and Appendices

(4) List of tables and figures

Answer: (3)
24. Which of the following is a key behaviour in effective teaching?

(1) Structuring

(2) Instructional variety

(3) Questioning

(4) Using student ideas and contribution

Answer: (2)

25. Which of the following research types focuses on ameliorating the prevailing situations?

(1) Applied Research

(2) Action Research

(3) Experimental Research

(4) Fundamental Research

Answer: (2)

26. A researcher attempts to evaluate the effect of method of feeding on anxiety – proneness children. Which method of research would be
appropriate for this?

[Link]

(1) Experimental method

(2) Ex-post-facto method

(3) Survey method

(4) Case study method

Answer: (2)

27. Which of the following is susceptible to the issue of research ethics?

(1) Faulty research design

(2) Choice of sampling technique

(3) Reporting of research findings

(4) Inaccurate application of statistical techniques

Answer: (3)

28. On the basis of summative tests, a teacher is interpreting his/her students, performance in terms of their wellness life style evident in
behaviour. This will be called:

(1) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation

(2) Norm – referenced testing

(3) Criterion – referenced testing

(4) Formative testing

Answer: (3)

29. In which of the following arrangements a wider spectrum of ideas and issues may be made possible?

(1) Workshop mode

(2) Conference

(3) Symposium

(4) Research Article

Answer: (2)

30. Assertion (A): All teaching implies learning.

Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be derived from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(3) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (2)
31. Occurrence of natural hazards is affected by:

(a) Land use changes

(b) Drainage and construction

(c) Ozone depletion

(d) Climate change

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

32. What is the name of a webpage address?

(1) Directory

(2) Protocol

(3) URL

(4) Domain

Answer: (3)

33. Which of the following universities has received the Visitor’s Award for the best Central

University in India in Feb, 2017?

(1) Banaras Hindu University

(2) Tezpur University

(3) University of Hyderabad

(4) Jawaharlal Nehru University

Answer: (4)
34. Which of the following has been ranked the best college in the country (2017) as per the

National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF)?

(1) St. Stephen’s College, Delhi

(2) Fergusson College, Pune

(3) Maharaja’s College, Mysore

(4) Miranda House, Delhi

Answer: (4)

35. Which of the following are the goals of higher education in India?

(a) Access

(b) Equity

(c) Quality and Excellence

(d) Relevance

(e) Value based Education

(f) Compulsory and free education

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (e) and (f)

(2) (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)

(3) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)

(4) (a), (b) and (e) only

Answer: (2)

36. Among the following fuels of energy, which is the most environments friendly?

(a) Biogas

(b) CNG

(c) Hydrogen

(d) Ethanol

Answer: (3)

37. Which of the following pollutant gases is not produced both naturally and as a result of industrial activity?

(a) Nitrous oxide

(b) Methane

(c) Carbon dioxide

(d) Chlorofluoro carbons

Answer: (4)

[Link]

38. Which of the following come(s) within the ambit of the term ‘corruption’?

(a) Misuse of official position

(b) Deviation from rules, laws and norms

(c) Non-action when action is required

(d) Harm to public good

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (a), (b) and (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a) only

Answer: (3)

39. Who among the following can be removed by the President without Parliament’s resolution?

(a) Governor of a State

(b) Chief Election Commissioner

(c) Comptroller and Auditor – General

(d) Judge of a High Court

Answer: (1)

40. Assertion (A): In urban areas, smog episodes occur frequently in winters.

Reason (R): In winters, a lot of biomass is burnt by people for heating purposes or to keep themselves warm.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(2) (A) is true and (R) is false

(3) Both (A) and (R) are false

(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Answer: (1)
41. Which of the following represents billion characters?

(1) Megabytes

(2) Kilobytes

(3) Gigabytes

(4) Terabytes

Answer: (3)

42. Which of the following pollutants is the major cause of respiratory disease?

(1) Nitrogen oxides

(2) Carbon monoxide

(3) Volatile organic compounds

(4) Suspended fine particles

[Link]

Answer: (4)

43. Which of the following domains is used for – profit businesses?

(1). net

(2). edu

(3). com

(4). org

Answer: (3)

44. The data storage hierarchy consists of:

(1) Bits, bytes, fields, records, files and databases

(2) Bits, bytes, records, fields, files and databases

(3) Bits, bytes, fields, files, records and databases

(4) Bytes, bits, fields, records, files and databases

Answer: (1)

45. What is the full form of USB as used in computer related activities?

(1) Universal Security Block

(2) Universal Serial Bus

(3) United Serial Bus

(4) Ultra Security Block

Answer: (2)

Read the passage carefully and answer question numbers from 46 to 50

Climate change is considered to be one of the most serious threats to sustainable development, with adverse impacts on the environment,
human health, food security, economic activity, natural resources and physical infrastructure. Global climate varies naturally. According to the
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the effects of climate change have already been observed, and scientific findings indicate
that precautionary and prompt action is necessary. Vulnerability to climate change is not just a function of geography or dependence on natural
resources; it also has social, economic and political dimensions which influence how climate change affects different groups. Poor people
rarely have insurance to cover loss of property due to natural calamines i.e. drought, floods, super cyclones etc. The poor communities are
already struggling to cope with the existing challenges of poverty and climate variability and climate change could push many beyond their
ability to cope or even survive. It is vital that these communities are helped to adapt to the changing dynamics of nature. Adaptation is a process
through which societies make themselves better able to cope with an uncertain future. Adapting to climate change entails taking the right
measures to reduce the negative effect of climate change (or exploit the positive ones) by making the appropriate adjustments and changes.
These range from technological options such as increased sea defences or – flood - proof houses on stilts-to behavioural change at the individual
level, such as reducing water use in times of drought. Other strategies include early warning systems for extreme events, better water
management, improved risk management, various insurance options and biodiversity conservation. Because of the speed at which climate
change is happening due to global temperature rise, it is urgent that the vulnerability of developing countries to climate change is reduced and
their capacity to adapt is increased and national adaptation plans are implemented, Adapting, to climate change will entail adjustments and
changes at every level from community to national and international. Communities must build their resilience, including adopting appropriate
technologies while making the most of traditional knowledge, and diversifying their livelihoods to cope with current and future climate stress.
Local coping strategies and knowledge need to be used in synergy with government and local interventions. The need of adaptation
interventions depends on national circumstances. There is a large body of knowledge and experience within local communities on coping with
climatic variability and extreme weather events. Local communities have always aimed to adapt to variations in their climate. To do so, they
have made preparations based on their resources and their knowledge accumulated through experience of past weather patterns. This includes
times when they have also been forced to react to and recover from extreme events, such as floods, drought and hurricanes. Local coping
strategies are an important element of planning for adaptation. Climate change is leading communities to experience climatic extremes more
frequently, as well as new climate conditions and extremes. Traditional knowledge can help to provide efficient, appropriate and time – tested
ways of advising and enabling adaptation to climate change in communities who are feeling the effects of climate changes due to global
warming.

46. To address the challenge of climate change developing countries urgently requires:

(1) Implementation of natural adaptation policy at their level

(2) Adoption of short term plans

(3) Adoption of technological solutions

(4) Imposition of climate change tax

Answer: (1)

47. Given below are the factors of vulnerability of poor people to climate changes. Select the correct that contains the correct answer.

(a) Their dependence on natural resources

(b) Geographical attributes

(c) Lack of financial resources

(d) Lack of traditional knowledge

Code:

(1) (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (c) only

(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (4)

48. Adaption as a process enables societies to cope with:

(a) An uncertain future

(b) Adjustments and changes

(C) Negative impact of climate change

(d) Positive impact of climate change

Select the most appropriate answer from the following code:

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (c) only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (4)

49. The main focus of the passage is on:

(1) Co-ordination between regional and national efforts

(2) Adaptation to climate change

(3) Social dimensions of climate change

(4) Combining traditional knowledge with appropriate technology

Answer: (2)

50. The traditional knowledge should be used through

(1) Improvement in national circumstances

(2) Synergy between government and local interventions

(3) Modern technology

(4) Its dissemination

Answer: (2)

20 18 July 8 NTA UGC NET Solved Question Paper -1

The UGC NET Examination of July 2018 was conducted on 8 th July, 2018 by the CBSE. Kindly find herewith the answer keys along with
question papers of the examination held on 8 th July, 2018 of Series-P. The answer keys are as per the revised answer keys release after
grievances by the CBSE. Kindly note that now-a-days the UGC NET Examination is conducted by National Testing Agency (NTA) instead of
CBSE or UGC.

1. Which of the following set of statements best describes the nature and objectives of teaching?

(a) Teaching and learning are integrally related.

(b) There is no difference between teaching and training.

(c) Concern of all teaching is to ensure some kind of transformation in students.

(d) All good teaching is formal in nature.

(e) A teacher is a senior person.

(f) Teaching is a social act whereas learning is a personal act.

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (e)

(3) (a), (c) and (f)

(4) (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: (3)

2. Which of the following learner characteristics is highly related to effectiveness of teaching?

(1) Prior experience of the learner

(2) Educational status of the parents of the learner

(3) Peer groups of the learner

(4) Family size from which the learner comes.

Answer: (1)

3. In the two sets given below Set –I indicates methods of teaching while Set –II provides the basic requirements for success/effectiveness.
Match the two sets and indicate your answer by choosing from the code:

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(3) (iii) (v) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

Answer: (3)
4. From the list of evaluation procedures given below identify those which will be called ‘formative evaluation’. Indicate your answer by
choosing from the code:

(a) A teacher awards grades to students after having transacted the course work.

(b) During interaction with students in the classroom, the teacher provides corrective feedback.

(c) The teacher gives marks to students on a unit test.

(d) The teacher clarifies to doubts of students in the class itself.

(e) The overall performance of a student’s us reported to parents at every three months interval.

(f) The learner’s motivation is raised by the teacher through a question-answer session.

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

[Link]

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a), (c) and (e)

(4) (b), (d) and (f)

Answer: (4)

5. Assertion (A): All teaching should aim at ensuring learning.

Reason (R): All learning results from teaching.

Choose the correct answer from the following code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

6. There are two sets given below. Set – I specifies the types of research, while Set –II indicates their characteristics. Match the two and given
your answer by selecting the appropriate code.
Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iii) (iv)

4 (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

Answer: (1)

7. Which of the sets of activities best indicate the cyclic nature of action research strategy?

(1) Reflect, Observe, Plan, Act

(2) Observe, Act, Reflect, Plan

(3) Act, Plan, Observe, Reflect

(4) Plan, Act, Observe, Reflect

Answer: (4)

8. Which of the following sequence of research steps is nearer to scientific method?

(1) Suggested solution of the problem, Deducing the consequences of the solution, Perceiving the problem situation, Location of the difficulty
and testing the solutions.

(2) Perceiving the problem situation, Locating the actual problem and its definition, Hypothesizing, Deducing the consequences of the
suggested solution and Testing the hypothesis in action.

(3) Defining a problem, Identifying the causes of the problem, Defining a population, Drawing a sample, Collecting data and Analysing results.

(4) Identifying the causal factors, Defining the problem, Developing a hypothesis, Selecting a sample, Collecting data and arriving at
generalization and Conclusions.

Answer: (2)

9. The problem of ‘research ethics’ is concerned with which aspect of research activities?

(1) Following the prescribed format of a thesis

(2) Data analysis through qualitative or quantitative technique

(3) Defining the population of research

(4) Evidence based research reporting

Answer: (4)

10. In which of the following activities, potential for nurturing creative and critical thinking is relatively greater?

(1) Preparing research summary

(2) Presenting a seminar paper

(3) Participation in research conference

(4) Participation in a workshop

Answer: (3)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions from 11 to 15:

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic
dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests. These technological imperatives also take into account a ‘fourth’
dimensions, time, and offshoot of modern day dynamism in business, trade, and technology that leads to continually shifting targets. We believe
that technological strengths are especially crucial in dealing with this fourth dimension underlying continuous change in the aspirations of the
people, the economy in the global context, and the strategic interests. The progress of technology lies at the heart of human history.
Technological strengths are the key to creating more productive employment in an increasingly competitive market place and to continually
upgrade human skills. Without a pervasive use of technologies, we cannot achieve overall development of our people in the years to come.
The direct linkages of technology to the nation’s strategic strengths are becoming more and more clear, especially since 1990s. India’s own
strength in a number of core areas still puts it in a position of reasonable strength in geo-political context. Any nation aspiring to become a
developed one needs to have strengths in various strategic technologies and also the ability to continually upgrade them through its own creative
strengths. For people-oriented actions as well, whether for the creation of large scale productive employment or for ensuring nutritional and
health security for people, or for better living conditions, technology is the only vital input. The absence of greater technological impetus could
lead to lower productivity and wastage of precious natural resources. Activities with low productivity or low value addition, in the final analysis
hurt the poorest most important. India, aspiring to become a major economic power in terms of trade and increase in GDP, cannot succeed on
the strength of turnkey projects designed and built abroad or only through large-scale imports of plant machinery, equipment and know how.
Even while being alive to the short-term realities, medium and long-term strategies to develop core technological strengths within our industry
are vital for envisioning a developed India.

11. According to the above passage, which of the following are indicative of the fourth dimension?

(a) Aspirations of people

(b) Modern day dynamism

(c) Economy in the global context

(d) Strategic interests

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

[Link]

Answer: (3)

If India has to develop her internal strengths, the nation has to focus on the technological imperatives, keeping in mind three dynamic
dimensions: the people, the overall economy and the strategic interests

12. More productive employment demands:

(1) Pervasive use of technology

(2) Limiting competitive market place

(3) Geo-political considerations

(4) Large industries

Answer: (1)

13. Absence of technology would lead to:

(a) Less pollution

(b) Wastage of precious natural resources

(c) Low value addition

(d) Hurting the poorest most

Codes:

(1) (a), (b) and (c) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a), (c) and (d) only

Answer: (2)

14. The advantage if technological inputs would result in:

(1) Unbridled technological growth

(2) Importing plant machinery

(3) Sideling environmental issues

(4) Lifting our people to a life of dignity

Answer: (4)

15. Envisioning a developed India requires:

(1) Aspiration to become a major economics player

(2) Dependence upon projects designed abroad

(3) Focus on short-term projects

(4) Development of core technological strengths

Answer: (4)

16. Differentiation between acceptance and non-acceptance of certain stimuli in classroom communication is the basis of:

(1) Selective expectation of performance

(2) Selective affiliation to peer groups

(3) Selective attention

(4) Selective morality

Answer: (3)

17. Assertion (A): The initial messages to students in the classroom by a teacher need not be critical to establish interactions later.

Reason (R): More control over the communication process means more control over what the students are learning.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

18. Assertion (A): To communicate well in the classroom is a natural ability.

Reason (R): Effective teaching in the classroom demands knowledge of the communication process.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (4)

19. Assertion (A): Classroom communication is a transactional process.

Reason (R): A teacher does not operate under the assumption that students’ responses are purposive. Select the correct code for your answer:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (3)

20. Which of the following set of statements is correct for describing the human communication process?
(a) Non-verbal communication can stimulate ideas.

[Link]

(b) Communication is a learnt ability.

(c) Communication is not a universal panacea.

(d) Communication cannot break-down.

(e) More communication means more effective learning by students.

(f) Value of what is learnt through classroom communication is not an issue for students.

Codes:

(1) (a), (c), (e) and (f)

(2) (b), (d), (e) and (f)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: (3)
21. The next term in the series -1, 5, 15, 29, ________, … is

(1) 36

(2) 47

(3) 59

(4) 63

Answer: (2)

22. The next term in the series: ABD, DGK, HMS, MTB, SBL, ________, … is:

(1) ZKU

(2) ZCA

(3) ZKW

(4) ZKU

Answer: (3)

23. If VARANASI is coded as WCUESGZQ, then the code of KOLKATA will be:

(1) LOQOZEH

(2) HLZEOOQ

(3) ZELHOQO

(4) LQOOFZH

Answer: (4)

24. Introducing, Rakesh to her husband a women said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. The woman is related to Rakesh
as:

(1) Aunt

(2) Mother

(3) Sister

(4) Daughter

Answer: (3)
25. Two numbers are in the ratio 2: 5. If 16 is added to both the numbers, their ratio becomes 1: 2. The numbers are:

(1) 16, 40

(2) 20, 50

(3) 28, 70

(4) 32, 80

Answer: (4)

26. Superiority of intellect depends upon its power of concentration on one theme in the same way as a concave mirror collects all the rays
that strike upon it into one point.

(1) Mathematical

(2) Psychological

(3) Analogical

(4) Deductive

Answer: (3)

27. Given below are two premises (A and B). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validity drawn conclusion (s)
(taking the premises individually or jointly). Premises:

(A) Most of the dancers are physically fit.

(B) Most of the singers are dancers.

Conclusions:

(a) Most of the singers are physically fit.

(b) Most of the dancers are singers.

(c) Most of the physically fit persons are dancers.

(d) Most of the physically fit persons are singers.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (d) and (a)

Answer: (2)

28. Which one among the following is a presupposition in inductive reasoning?

(1) Law of identity

(2) Unchangeability in nature

(3) Harmony in nature

(4) Uniformity of nature

Answer: (4)

29. If the proposition ‘domestic animals are hardly ferocious’ is taken to be false, which of the following proposition/propositions can be
claimed to be certainly true? Select the correct code:
Propositions:

(a) All domestic animals are ferocious.

(b) Most of the domestic animals are ferocious.

(c) No domestic animal is ferocious.

(d) Some domestic animals are non-ferocious.

Code:

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (a) only

(3) (c) and (d)

(4) (b) only

Answer: (1)

30. Which one of the following statements is not correct in the context of Venn diagram method?

(1) It is a method of testing the validity of arguments.

(2) It represents both the premises of a syllogism in one diagram.

(3) It requires two overlapping circles for the two premises of a standard-form categorical syllogism.

(4) It can be used to represent classes as well as propositions.

Answer: (3)

The table below embodies data on the production, exports and per capita consumption of rice in country P for the five years from 2012 to
2016. Answer questions 31 - 35 based on the data contained in the table.

[Link]

Year-wise Production, Exports and Per Capita Consumption of Rice

Where, Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption in million kg) / (Population in million) and consumption (in million kg) = Production –
Exports.

31. The Percentage increase in the consumption of rice over the previous year was the highest in which year?

(1) 2013

(2) 2014

(3) 2015

(4) 2016

Answer: (2)

32. What is the population of the country in the year 2014 (in million)?

(1) 2.64

(2) 2.72

(3) 2.79

(4) 2.85

Answer: (3)
33. The ratio of exports to consumption in the given period was the highest in the year:

(1) 2012

(2) 2013

(3) 2014

(4) 2015

Answer: (1)

34. In which year, the population of country was the highest?

(1) 2013

(2) 2014

(3) 2015

(4) 2016

[Link]

Answer: (4)

35. What is the average consumption of rice (in million kg) over the years 2012 - 2016?

(1) 104

(2) 102.1

(3) 108

(4) 100.1

Answer: (4)
36. Which of the following statements, regarding the term ICT is/are TRUE? P: ICT is an acronym that stands for Indian Classical
Technology. Q: Converging technologies that exemplify ICT include the merging of audio-visual, telephone and computer networks through
a common cabling system.

(1) P Only

(2) Q Only

(3) P and Q

(4) Neither P nor Q

Answer: (2)

37. A new Laptop has been produced that weighs less, is smaller and uses less power previous Laptop models. Which of the following
technologies has been used to accomplish this?

(1) Universal Serial Bus Mouse

(2) Faster Random Access Memory

(3) Blu Ray Drive

(4) Solid State Hard Drive

Answer: (4)

38. Given the following email fields, which of the email addresses will ‘swami’ be able to see when he receives the message? Mail-

To… ram@test. com

Cc… raj@test. com; ravi@[Link]

Bcc… swami@test. com; rama@test. com

Codes:

(1) ram@test. com

(2) ram@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

(3) ram@test. com; rama@test. com

(4) ram@test. com; rama@test. com; raj@test. com; ravi@test. com

Answer: (2)

39. Put the following units of storage into the correct order, starting with the smallest unit first and going down to the largest unit:

(a) Kilobyte

(b) byte

(c) Megabyte

(d) Terabyte

(e) Gigabyte

(f) Bit

Give your answer from the following code:

(1) (f), (b), (a), (c), (d), (e)

(2) (f), (b), (a), (d), (e), (c)

(3) (f), (b), (a), (c), (e), (d)

(4) (f), (b), (a), (d), (c), (e)

Answer: (3)

40. With regard to computer memory, which of the following statement (s) is/are TRUE? P: Read Only Memory (ROM) is ‘volatile’
memory. Q: Random Access Memory (RAM) is ‘volatile’ memory. R: Secondary Memory is ‘volatile’ memory.

[Link]

(1) P only

(2) Q only

(3) P and Q only

(4) P and R only

Answer: (2)

41. ‘Fly ash’ produced in thermal power plants is an ecofriendly resource for use in:

(a) Agriculture as micro-nutrient

(b) Wasteland development

(c) Dam and water holding structures

(d) Brick industry

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b), (c) and (d) Only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) Only

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (4)

42. Which of the following types of natural disasters has no definite beginning and end?

(1) Earthquakes

(2) Landsides

(3) Hurricanes

(4) Droughts

Answer: (4)

43. Assertion (A): Indoor air pollution is serious hazard.

Reason (R): The dispersal of air pollutants is rather limited in indoor environment. Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.

Answer: (1)

44. In terms of their contribution to the total power generation in India, Identify the correct sequence of energy sources – Thermal Power
Plants (TPP), Large Hydropower Projects (LHP), Nuclear Energy (NE) and Renewable Energy (RE) which includes solar energy, wind
energy, biomass and small hydropower projects.

(1) TPP > RE > LHP > NE

(2) TPP > LHP > RE > NE

(3) LHP > TPP > RE > NE

(4) LHP > TPP > NE > RE

Answer: (1)

45. Which of the following is considered as major source of pollution in rivers of India?

(1) Unregulated small scale industry

(2) Untreated sewage

(3) Agricultural run-off

(4) Thermal power plants

Answer: (2)

46. India has the largest Higher Education System in the World after:

(a) The United States of America

(b) Australia

(c) China

(d) United Kingdom (UK)

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (c) only

Answer: (4)

47. Prime Minister Research Fellowship is for students pursuing Ph. D programme in:

(1) State and Central Universities

(2) Central Universities, IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs and IIITs

(3) IISc, IITs, NITs, IISERs, IIITs, State and Central Universities

(4) IITs and IISc

Answer: (4)

48. Leader of the opposition is a member of committees which select:

(a) The central information Commissioner

(b) The Central Vigilance Commissioner

(c) The Chairperson of National Human Rights Commission

(d) The Chairperson of National Commission for women

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a), (b) and (d) only

Answer: (2)

49. Which of the following statements are correct about gender budgeting?

(a) It is separates budget addressing the specific needs of women.

(b) It assesses the impact of government budget on women.

(c) It is an accounting exercise.

(d) It is another budgeting innovation.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (b) and (d) only

[Link]

(2) (a) and (d) only

(3) (a), (c) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

Answer: (1)

50. Which of the following are the barriers to citizen-centric administration in India?

(a) Wooden and inflexible attitude of the civil servants

(b) Ineffective implementation of laws and rules

(c) Awareness of rights and duties of citizens

(d) Lack of job opportunities for the youth Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c) only

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only

(4) (a) and (b) only

Answer: (4)

20 18 July 22 NTA UGC NET Solved Question Paper -1

The UGC NET Examination of 8th July 2018 was re-conducted in certain centre on 22nd July, 2018 by the CBSE. Kindly find herewith the
answer keys along with question papers of the examination held on 22 nd July, 2018 of Series-W. The answer keys are as per the revised answer
keys release after grievances by the CBSE. Kindly note that now-a-days the UGC NET Examination is conducted by National Testing Agency
(NTA) instead of CBSE or UGC.

1. From the following list of statements, select those which indicate the characteristics and basic requirements of teaching.

(i) Teaching implies communication.

(ii) Teaching is like selling goods.

(iii) Teaching means managing and monitoring.

(iv) Teaching implies influencing others.

(v) Teaching requires convincing others.

(vi) There can be no teaching without infrastructural support.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)

(4) (ii), (v) and (vi)

Answer: (1)

2. What is the purpose underlying the use of teaching aids?

(1) To make the lessons interesting

[Link]

(2) To capture the students’ attention

(3) To enhance access to technological resources

(4) To optimise learning outcomes

Answer: (4)

3. In the two lists given below, List I provides the list of teaching methods, while List II indicates the factors helpful in rendering them effective.
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

Answer: (1)

4. Below are given statements pertaining to evaluation systems. Identify those which correctly explain them.

(i) Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) focuses on a delimited domain of learning tasks.

(ii) Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) requires a clearly defined group.

(iii) Formative tests are given at the end of a course.

(iv) Both Norm-Referenced Testing (NRT) and Criterion-Referenced Testing (CRT) use the same type of test items.

(v) Summative tests are used regularly during teaching transactions.

(vi) Mastery tests are examples of Norm-Referenced Testing.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)

(4) (ii), (v) and (vi)

Answer: (2)

5. In the list given below, identify those key teaching behaviours which have been observed to be contributive to effectiveness.

(i) Lesson clarity

(ii) Probing

(iii) Teacher-task orientation

(iv) Student success rate

(v) Instructional variety

(vi) Using student ideas

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

(3) (i), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(4) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vi)

Answer: (3)

6. Identify the correct order of the following components which are interrelated in research.

(i) Observation

(ii) Hypothesis making

(iii) Developing concepts

(iv) Deducing the consequences of theories

(v) Methods employed to obtain them

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (v), (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)

(2) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv) and (v)

(3) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv) and (v)

(4) (iv), (v), (iii), (ii) and (i)

Answer: (2)

7. In the list given below, identify those statements which correctly describe the meaning and characteristics of research.

(i) Research is a method of improving our common sense.

(ii) Deductive and inductive methods get integrated in a research process.

(iii) Research is creativity and charisma.

[Link]

(iv) Research is the use of scientific method to provide answers to meaningful questions.

(v) Method of consulting and using experience is called research.

(vi) The answers provided by research can be empirically verified.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (ii), (iv) and (vi)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)

(4) (i), (iii) and (v)

Answer: (1)

8. In the two lists given below, List I provides the types of research methods, while List II indicates the critical features associated with them.
Match the two lists and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)

(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (v)

(4) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)

Answer: (4)

9. A researcher uses parametric test in lieu of non-parametric test for analysis and interpretation of results. This may be described as a case of

(1) Unethical research practice

(2) Malpractice in reporting of results

(3) Technical lapse in handling data

(4) Manipulation of research results

Answer: (3)
10. Which of the following provides more latitude to the researcher for creative expression ?

(1) Thesis writing

(2) Writing of a research article

(3) Presentation of a conference paper

(4) Preparing a research synopsis

Answer: (3)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions no. 11 to 15.

Some 2000 km down south of the Amazon, and about the same time when the tidal waves were at their highest as a consequence of the big
clash of sea and fresh water at the Amazon delta most vigorously in March and April (2018), more than 40,000 people were talking about the
power of water. Brasilia hosted the eighth edition of the World Water Forum (WWF – 8), where heads of states, civil societies and private
sector gathered to discuss the present and future of mankind’s most valuable resource. This year’s theme was ‘Sharing Water’, and the
government authorities expectedly put forth a political declaration, aimed at raising awareness about threats and opportunities associated with
water resources. Deliberations here would play a decisive role in the periodic assessment of the sustainable development goals of Agenda 2030.

[Link]

Brazil has established a solid institutional and legal framework for water management, based on the principle of multi-stakeholder participation.
Brazil has also been conducting one of the boldest river inter-linking projects in which 500 km of canals will transfer abundant waters from
the Sāo Francisco basin to small rivers and weirs in one of Brazil’s most arid areas, benefitting more than 12 million people in almost 400
municipalities.

India, too, has a large variety of water resources. An institutional framework consisting of regional river boards and river cleansing missions
has been set up, while successive Central Governments have made efforts to address the dire needs of irrigation and mitigation of ground water
depletion. As in the case of Brazil, a lot remains to be done in India.

Adequate treatment of industrial waste-water, the fight against contamination of riverbeds and assistance to drought affected areas are high
priority topics for both New Delhi and Brasilia. Due to these commonalities, there is ample room for bilateral co-operation. Water is a local,
regional and global common and as such, collaboration is key to address most of its associated threats.

Today, mankind is faced with two facts: water is too powerful a force to be fought over, and too valuable a resource to be lost. To harmonise
these two conflicting aspects, sharing water is perhaps the only meaningful motto for the ages to come.

11. As per the text of the passage, the eighth edition of the World Water Forum was concerned with

(1) Present and future of mankind

(2) The issue of high tidal waves

(3) The power of water

(4) The role of civil society in solving water-related problems

Answer: (3)

12. Deliberations on the theme ‘Sharing Water’ should facilitate

(1) Regular evaluation of sustainable development goals

(2) The role of private sector in preserving water resources

(3) The establishment of institutional framework

(4) Sensitisation of government authorities

Answer: (1)

13. The institutional framework of Brazil for water management

(1) Promotes bilateral collaboration

(2) Provides for multi-stakeholder participation

(3) Consists of regional river boards

(4) Addresses legal dimensions of water sharing

Answer: (2)

14. What would be of high priority to both New Delhi and Brasilia as regards river water ?

(1) Proposing water as a global common

(2) Sharing water

(3) Development of large water resources

(4) Fight against contamination of riverbeds

Answer: (4)

15. The main focus of the passage is on

(1) Resolution of water conflicts

(2) Encouraging bilateral co-operation

(3) Management of water as a valuable resource

(4) River inter-linking

Answer: (3)
16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the
correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Meanings of messages used in the classroom are arbitrary in nature.

Reason (R): Meanings are learnt as a result of one’s prior experiences.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

17. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the
correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Classroom communication has a cultural dimension.

Reason (R): Beliefs, habits, customs and languages are the cultural characteristics of communication.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

18. In a classroom, teachers and students use self-interest issues to judge

(1) Their acceptability

(2) Uncritical dispositions

(3) Negative re-inforcement of ideas

(4) External non-verbal cues

Answer: (1)

19. Variables that affect the information processing in a classroom are

(i) Perception levels

(ii) Learned habits

(iii) Attitudes, beliefs and values

(iv) Selectivity factor

(v) Market expectation

[Link]

(vi) Institutional intervention

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

(2) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (4)

20. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the
correct answer using the code given below.

Assertion (A): Selective exposure in the classroom is dependent upon students’

perceptions and knowledge about the source of information.

Reason (R): The effectiveness of the communication source determines the selective exposure of students to information.

Code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (1)

21. The next term in the series 5, 11, 21, 35, 53, ?, ... is

(1) 75

(2) 90

(3) 115

(4) 125

Answer: (1)
22. The next term in the series XY, ABC, FGHI, ? , ... is

(1) MNPQO

(2) MNOPQ

(3) PQOMN

(4) NMPOQ

Answer: (2)

23. If the code of ALLAHABAD is DPQGOIKKO, then the code of BENGULURU will be

(1) ESBTBDIMF

(2) MBDBFEIST

(3) EISMBTDBF

(4) ESBDFBTMI

Answer: (3)

24. A man paid Rs. 160 while travelling 10 km in a taxi which has some initial fixed charges. Another man paid Rs. 276 for travelling 16 km
and the taxi driver charged double of the initial fixed charges from him. The charges of the taxi per km is

(1) Rs. 10

(2) Rs. 13

(3) Rs. 11

(4) Rs. 17

Answer: (3)

25. Gopal walks 20 m North. Then he turns right and walks 30 m. Then he turns right and walks 35 m. Again he turns left and walks 15 m.
Then he again turns left and walks 15 m. The shortest distance between his original position and final one is

(1) 65 m

(2) 55 m

(3) 40 m

(4) 45 m

Answer: (4)

26. Choose the proper alternative given in the code to replace the question mark.

Cow – Milk

Bee – Honey

Teacher – ?

Code:

(1) Marks

(2) Discipline

(3) Wisdom

(4) Lesson

Answer: (3)
27. Among the following, two statements are related in such a way that if one becomes undetermined, the other will also be undetermined.
Select the code that refers to these two statements.

Statements:

(i) Every fruit is nutritious.

(ii) Fruits are hardly nutritious.

(iii) Fruits are mostly nutritious.

(iv) Some food items are nutritious.

Code:

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (iii) and (iv)

(4) (i) and (iv)

Answer: (1)

28. Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them.

Select the code that embodies validly drawn conclusion(s) (taking the premises individually or jointly).

Premises:

(a) All saints are noble.

(b) Some religious men are saints.

Conclusions:

(i) Some religious men are noble.

(ii) All religious men are noble.

(iii) Some saints are religious men.

(iv) All noble persons are saints.

Code:

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)

(3) (i) and (iii)

(4) (i) and (iv)

[Link]

Answer: (3)

29. Which one is not correct in the context of deductive and inductive reasoning?

(1) A deductive argument makes the claim that its conclusion is supported by its premises conclusively.

(2) A valid deductive argument may have all false premises and true conclusion.

(3) An inductive argument claims the probability of its conclusion.

(4) An inductive argument cannot provide us any new information about matters of fact.

Answer: (4)
30. When the purpose of the definition is to explain some established use of a term, the definition is called

(1) Stipulative

(2) Lexical

(3) Persuasive

(4) Theoretical

Answer: (2)
Consider the following two tables (I and II) that indicate the percentage of employees working in various departments of an organization
along with the ratio of men to women in the same departments. The total number of employees in the organization is 4600. Based on these
tables I and II, answer the questions that follow (Questions no. 31 – 35):

[Link]

I: Percentage of Employees Department wise

II: Gender Ratio of Employees

31. What is the total number of women in the Accounts department?

(1) 86

(2) 102

(3) 80

(4) 92

Answer: (4)

32. What is the total number of employees working in the IT and HR departments together ?

(1) 1628

(2) 1646

(3) 1766

(4) 1702

Answer: (4)

33. What is the ratio of the total number of men to total number of women working in all the departments put together?

[Link]

(1) 63 : 41

(2) 41 : 27

(3) 53 : 47

(4) 27 : 19

Answer: (3)

34. The number of women in the Purchase department forms what percentage of the total number of employees in the organization?

(1) 3%

(2) 6%

(3) 1%

(4) 12%

Answer: (1)
35. What is the ratio of the number of men in the Production department to the number of men in the Marketing department ?

(1) 7 : 3

(2) 9 : 11

(3) 13 : 7

(4) 11 : 9

Answer: (2)

36. Which of the following statement(s) regarding the term ICT is/are true?

P: A digital divide is an economic and social equality with regard to access to, use of, or impact of ICT.

Q: ICT helps in international development by bridging the digital divide and providing equitable access to technologies.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

(1) P only

(2) Q only

(3) P and Q

(4) Neither P nor Q

Answer: (2)

37. A confidential file needs to be deleted from a workstation. Which is the most effective way to ensure this?

(1) Rename the file

(2) Compress the file and back-up to tape

(3) Copy and paste the file into the recycle bin and empty the recycle bin

(4) Drag the file into the recycle bin and empty the recycle bin

Answer: (4)

38. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with regard to websites?

P: A blog is a website that consists of posts in reverse chronological order.

Q: A wiki is a website that is designed to allow people to collaborate easily.

Choose the correct answer from the following:

(1) P only

(2) Q only

(3) P and Q

(4) Neither P nor Q

Answer: (3)

39. In the context of e-mail, what is ‘spam’?

(1) The act of overloading an e-mail server by using denial-of-service attacks

(2) E-mail messages that are infected with viruses

(3) A large quantity of messages that do not reach the recipient

(4) Unsolicited advertising sent to a large number of recipients

Answer: (4)
40. A virus type that is capable of shifting from one computer to another without user interaction is known as a

(1) Worm

(2) Trojan

(3) Logic bomb

(4) Boot sector

Answer: (1)

41. Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are formally known as

(1) Transforming Our World: 2030 Agenda

(2) Sustainable Living For All: 2022 Agenda

(3) Life Of Dignity For All: 2022 Agenda

(4) One Planet, One People: 2030 Agenda

Answer: (1)

42. An earthquake of a magnitude in the range of 6·0 – 6·9 on the Richter Scale is considered

(1) Moderate

(2) Strong

(3) Major

(4) Great

Answer: (2)

43. Frequent episodes of dense smog in winter season in the National Capital Region (NCR) can be attributed to

(i) Stubble burning

(ii) Biomass burning in rural households

(iii) Transport

(iv) Transboundary movement of pollutants

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (4)

44. Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) comprises of

[Link]

(i) Household waste

(ii) Sanitation residue

(iii) Waste from streets

(iv) Construction and demolition debris

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i) and (iii)

(3) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (4)

45. As per the Indian Government’s target for exploiting renewable energy sources, the percentage share of solar and wind energy in the total
power generation from renewable energy sources by the year 2022 will be about

(1) ~ 91·43%

(2) ~ 57·14%

(3) ~ 50%

(4) ~ 60%

Answer: (1)

46. The mandate of the University Grants Commission (UGC) includes

(i) Disbursing grants to Universities and colleges

(ii) Recognising and monitoring technical institutions

(iii) Funding research centres in Universities

(iv) Managing various scholarship programmes

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (2)

47. Which one of the following States is going to have India’s first National Rail and Transportation University?

(1) Uttar Pradesh

(2) Maharashtra

(3) Bihar

(4) Gujarat

Answer: (4)

48. The Citizen’s Charter is an instrument which seeks to make an organisation

(i) Transparent

(ii) Accountable
(iii) Formal

(iv) Accessible

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (3)

49. The Chief Minister of a State is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election, if

(1) he/she himself/herself is a candidate

(2) he/she is a caretaker Chief Minister

(3) he/she has a criminal case pending against him/her

(4) he/she is a nominated member of the State Legislative Assembly

Answer: (4)

50. In the QS World Rankings (2018), which of the following Indian Universities is/are among the top 500 Universities?

(i) University of Delhi

(ii) University of Hyderabad

[Link]

(iii) Banaras Hindu University

(iv) Jawaharlal Nehru University

Choose the correct answer from the code given below:

Code:

(1) (i) only

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer: (1)

20 18 December NTA UGC NET Solv ed Questio n Paper -1

The following are the UGC NET Examination Question Paper along with answer keys (solved) which was held on 22 nd December 2018. The
answer keys are as per the revised answer keys release after grievances by the National Testing Agency (NTA).

1. Which among the following is the best field of study to improve the ability of students Experiment and analyse?

1. History

2. Languages

3. Economics

4. Science
Answer: (4)

2. Which among the following reflects best the quality of teaching in a classroom?

1. Through the use of many teaching aids in the classroom

2. Through the quality of questions asked by students in classroom

3. Through full attendance in the classroom

4. Through observation of silence by the students in classroom

Answer: (2)[Link]

3. Artifacts that arise and affect the internal validity in research are:

(a) History

(b) Randomization

(c) Maturity

(d) Instrumentation

(e) Experimental mortality

(f) Matching

1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

2. (b), (c), (d) and (f)

3. (a), (c), (d) and (e)

4. (d), (e), (f) and (b)

Answer: (3)

4. Formulation of a research problem depends on:

(a) What is the object behind the researcher’s choice?

(b) What are the specific questions?

(c) What is the conceptual model?

(d) What negative factors to research upon?

(e) Reasons for unlimiting the study.

(f) Construction of hypotheses.

1. (a), (c), (e) and (f)

2. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

3. (b), (c), (d) and (e)

4. (a), (b), (c) and (f)

Answer: (4)

5. Among the following which one is not an instructional material?

1. Audio podcast

2. YouTube video

3. Printed study guide

4. Overhead projector
Answer: (4)

6. Suppose as a teacher you are training your students in public speaking and debate. Which among the following is most difficult to develop
among the students?

1. Control over emotions

2. Concept formulation

3. Using / selecting appropriate language

4. Voice modulation

Answer: (1)

7. Which among the following is best advantage of choice based credit system?

1. Shift in focus from teacher-centric to student-centric education

2. Improving classroom attendance

3. Helping teacher to complete syllabus on time

4. Reducing examination anxiety among students

Answer: (1)

8. The components of a research design are:

(a) Comparison

(b) Control

(c) Reactivity

(d) Manipulation

(e) Non representativeness

(f) Generalization

1. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

2. (a), (c), (e) and (f)

3. (b), (c), (d) and (e)

4. (a), (b), (d) and (f)

Answer: (4)

9. The four major operations in scientific research are:

(a) Demonstration of co-variance

(b) Elimination of spurious relations

(c) Sequencing in terms of time order

(d) Self-education

(e) Operationalization of personal choice

(f) Theorization

Codes:

1. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

2. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

3. (a), (b), (c) and (f)

4. (b), (c), (d) and (e)

Answer: (3)

10. A variable that is manipulated is known as:

1. Dependent variable

2. Control variable

3. Independent [Link]

4. Confounding variable

Answer: (3)

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 11 to 15:

Singapore has long advocated for India to take up its role as an integral part of the region. It is gratifying to see how Asean – India relations
have grown during the past 25 years. In 1991, when the Cold War ended and India began its economic liberalization, Singapore saw an
opportunity to deepen ties and build on its historical and cultural links with the Asian region. Singapore pushed for India to become a full
Asean dialogue partner in 1995 and join the EAS in 1995 and since then, Asean – India ties have strengthened. All in all, around 30 platforms
for co-operation exist, including seven ministerial dialogues and the Annual Leader Summit. However, there is scope for more and it is a must.
For instance, there are tremendous opportunities in enhancing physical and digital connectivity between India and Asean. Asean is committed
to strengthening land, air and sea linkages with India. These linkages will enhance people-to-people flows, as well as boost business, investment
and tourism. The India-Myanmar Thailand trilateral highway will connect India’s Northeast to mainland Southeast Asia. While one can y
directly between India and several Asean countries, there is still much room to expand air links to support growing business and tourism.
Beyond physical linkages, digital connectivity, is the new frontier in the Fourth Industrial Revolution. India has made great progress in
innovation, Start-ups and digital inclusion. There are opportunities to apply initiatives such as Aadhaar in our region. E-commerce and FinTech
are two other areas potential collaboration. As an economic hub, Singapore can serve as a springboard to launch these ideas to Southeast Asia
and beyond. India’s role in Asean should be anchored by growing economic ties with Singapore. The economic integration involving 16
countries with one-third of global GDP and trade will create an integrated Asian market.

11. Who can be India’s Launchpad for an integrated Asian market as per the passage?

1. Southwest Asia

2. Thailand

3. Singapore

4. Myanmar

Answer: (3)

12. The areas of collaboration between India and Asian are:

(a) FinTech

(b) Aadhaar

(c) e-commerce

(d) Digital backwardness

(e) Trilateral highways

(f) Fourth industrial revolution

1. (b), (c), (d) and (e)

2. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

3. (a), (c), (e) and (f)

4. (c), (d), (e) and (f)

Answer: (2)

13. The commitment of Asian with India is:

1. Offer political platforms

2. More and more dialogues

3. Improving transport links

4. Hold leadership summits

Answer: (3)

14. What is needed to encourage tourism between India and Asian?

1. Waterways

2. Innovation

3. Air links

4. Start-ups

Answer: (3)

15. What prompted Singapore to opt for stronger ties with India?

1. Historical past

2. End of cold war

3. geo-political equations

4. Economic liberalization in India

Answer: (4)

16. The next term in the series 0, 1, 9, 36, 100, ______ is:

1. 216

2. 164

3. 196

4. 225

Answer: (4)

17. In the digital era, there is a fear that classroom communication may result in:

1. Passive adaptation

2. Quick adaptation

3. Stimulation

4. Over-stimulation

Answer: (4)

18. Under which of the conditions an argument may be valid? Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Statements:

(a) When its conclusion and premises are true

(b) Even when its conclusion and one or more of its premises are false
(c) Only when its conclusion is true

1. (c) alone

2. (a) and (b)

3. (a) and (c)

4. (a) alone

Answer: (2)

19. Jenifer’s father-in-law is my brother. Helen is a grand-daughter of my mother. How is Helen related to Jenifer?

1. Daughter-in-law

2. Sister

3. Sister-in-law

4. Mother

Answer: (3)

20. Truth and falsity are attributes of:

1. Debates

2. Propositions

3. Opinions

4. Arguments

Answer: (2)
21. Negative criticism as an element of classroom communication will lead to:

(a) External sympathy

(b) Justification

(c) Defensiveness

(d) De-motivation

(e) Supportive listening

(f) Confrontational empathy

1. (b), (c) and (d)

2. (d), (e) and (f)

3. (a), (b) and (c)

4. (c), (d) and (e)

Answer: (1)

22. The rhetorical approach in classroom communication considers teachers as _____ agents of students.

1. Influencing

2. Non-Official

3. Academic

4. Official

Answer: (1)
23. Assertion (A): Teacher communication is central to classroom management.

Reason (R): Teacher communication behaviors should not be used to regulate the classroom Behavior of students.

1. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

2. Both (A) and (R) are true.

3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

4. (A) is true, but (R) is false

Answer: (4)

24. Among the following, there are two statements which can’t be true together, but can be false together. Select the code that represents
them.

Statements:

(a) All poets are dreamers.

(b) No poets are dreamers.

(c) Some poets are dreamers.

(d) Some poets are not dreamers.

1. (a) and (b)

2. (b) and (d)

3. (a) and (d)

4. (c) and (d)

Answer: (1)

25. Non-verbal communication is considered:

1. Formal

2. Culture-free

3. Informal

4. Precise

Answer: (3)

26. Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s).
[Taking the premises individually or jointly][Link]

Premises:

(a) All judges are lawyers.

(b) No doctors are lawyers.

Conclusions:

(1) No lawyers are doctors.

(2) No doctor are judges.

(3) All lawyers are judges.

(4) Some doctor are judges.

1. (1) and (3)

2. (1) and (2)

3. (1) and (4)

4. (2) and (3)

Answer: (2)

27. If ABODE is coded as ADRHJ, then the code for AGRO will be:

1. AIVX

2. AIUS

3. AIST

4. AVCD

Answer: (2)

28. Choose the word which is different from the rest:

1. Mount Kilimanjaro

2. Shivalik Hills

3. Aravali Hills

4. Nilgiri Hills

Answer: (1)

29. Which one of the following can be validly inferred from the proposition – “all animals are wild”?

1. No non-animals are wild.

2. Some animals are not wild.

3. No animals are wild.

4. Some animals are wild.

Answer: (4)

30. The next term in the letter series DEF, HIJ, LMN, PQR, TUV, ______ is

1. XYZ

2. WYZ

3. WXY

4. YZA

Answer: (1)

Based on the below table, answer question No. 31, 32, and 33.

31. How many States have at least 50% or more electrified villages?

1. 3

2. 2

3. 4
4. 1

Answer: (3)

32. Which State has twice the percentage of electrified villages in comparison to State D?

1. State A

2. State C

3. State B

4. State D

Answer: (2)

33. In the year 2000, the total number of villages in State D was 15,000. In the year 2010, the total number of villages had increased to
20,000 out of which 10,000 villages were yet to be electrified. The % of villages not electrified in 2010 in state D has thus_______.

1. Not enough data

2. Gone up

3. Come down

4. Cannot be computed

Answer: (3)

Based on the Table given below, answer question no. 34 and 35

34. If the population for state F is 2.6 lakhs, what is the population below education index?

1. 51000 lakhs

2. 3900 lakhs

3. 0.39 lakhs

4. 49000 lakhs

Answer: (3)

35. If the total population of state was 5 lakhs while the population in state B was 2 lakhs, the number of people below education index will
be:

1. Cannot be calculated

2. Higher in State A

3. Equal in State A and B

4. Higher in State B

Answer: (2)

36. The output quality of a printer is measured by:

1. Dots per cm

2. Dots per inch

3. Dots per mm

4. Digits per inch

Answer: (2)

37. _________ denotes an error in a computer program.

1. Bug

2. Virus

3. Spam

4. Bit

Answer: (1)[Link]

38. In which part of India, the tropical Western Ghats are situated?

1. Rajasthan

2. Gujarat

3. Punjab

4. Kerala

Answer: (3)

39. The University Grants Commission has a scheme for “Human Rights and Values in Education”. Under this scheme, which statement is
incorrect among the following for ‘Human Rights and Duties Education’ component

1. To encourage research activities

2. To sensitize the citizens so that the norms and values of human rights are realized.

3. To establish value and wellness centers in schools

4. To develop interaction between society and educational institutions.

Answer: (3)

40. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason(s)?

(a) Thermal difference between land and water.

(b) Variations in altitude between continents and oceans.

(c) Presence of strong winds in the interior.

(d) Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coastal region.

1. (a) and (b) only

2. (b) and (c) only

3. (a) only

4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (3)
41. The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally inaugurated on 28 December 1953 by whom among the following?

1. Sh. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad

3. Mrs. Indira Gandhi

4. Dr. S. Radhakrishan

Answer: (1)
42. A source of renewable power which can be developed with minimum cost is:

1. Wind [Link]

2. Tidal power

3. Biomass power

4. Geothermal energy

Answer: (3)

43. A small text le stored on user’s computer by some websites in order to recognize and keep track of user’s preferences is called:

1. Cookie

2. Report

3. Log

4. History

Answer: (1)

44 How much carbon is being added to the atmosphere by burning of fossil fuels?

1. 6-9 billion tons

2. 9-12 billion tons

3. 4-6 billion tons

4. 2-6 billion tons

Answer: (1)

45. Natural vegetation of an area needs to be preserved for the future, mainly for the purpose of:

1. Providing habitat for birds

2. Preventing soil erosion

3. Providing material for breeding new species

4. Study by scientists

Answer: (3)

46. In which year Education Commission under the Chairmanship of Dr. D.S. Kothari was set up?

1. 1960

2. 1955

3. 1952

4. 1964

Answer: (4)

47. Which of the following was launched in 2013 with the purpose to provide strategic funding to eligible state higher educational
institutions?

1. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan

2. All India Council for Technical Education

3. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan

4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan

Answer: (3)

48. Which of the following are audio le formats?

(a) .wav

(b) .aac

(c) .wmv

(d) .fiv

Codes:

1. (b) and (c)

2. (a) and (b)

3. (a) and (d)

4. (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

49. In a computer, if 8 bits are used to specify address in memory, the total number of addresses will be:

1. 8

2. 256

3. 216

4. [Link]

Answer: (2)

50. The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was established in which year?

1. 1998

2. 2007

3. 2000

4. 2005

Answer: (4)

20 19 June NTA UGC NET So lv ed Question Pa per -1

The following are the UGC NET Examination Question Paper-1 along with answer keys (solved) which was held on 26th June 2019 (Morning
Shift). The answer keys are as per the revised answer keys release after grievances by the National Testing Agency (NTA).

1. A shift in attitude in respondents between two points during data collection is called

(1) Reactive effect

(2) Maturation effect

(3) Regression effect

(4) Conditioning effect

Answer: (3)
2. The time-frame in which a study explores a situation or problem is also called the

(1) Reference period

(2) Age

(3) Longitudinal

(4) Retrospective time

Answer: (1)

3 The major characteristic of correlation analysis is to seek out

(1) Differences among variables

(2) Variations among variables

(3) Association among variables

(4) Regression among variables

Answer: (3)

4. Which of the learner characteristics will influence his/her perspective in a course of study?

i) Learner’s commitment

ii) Parents interest in the learner

(iii) Prior knowledge of the learner

(iv) Skill of the learner in the concerned area

(v) Family size of the learner

(vi) Socio-economic background of the family to which the learner belongs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i) (iii) and (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) and (Iii)

(3) (iii), (iv) and (v)

(4) (iv), (v) and (vi)

Answer: (1)

5. The performance of a student is compared with another student in which type of testing?

(1) Criterion referenced testing

(2) Diagnostic testing

(3) Summative testing

(4) Norm-referenced testing

Answer: (4)

6. From the list given below identify those which are called Non-probability sampling procedures’:

(i) Simple random sampling

(ii) Dimensional sampling

(iii) Snowball sampling

(iv) Cluster sampling

(v) Quota sampling

(vi) Stratified sampling

Choose the correct option

(1) (i), (ii) and (Iii)

(2) (ii), (iv) and (V)

(3) (i), (iii) and 6V)

(4) (ii). (iii) and (V)

Answer: (4)

7. The conceptual framework in which a research is conducted is called a

(1) Synopsis of research

(2) Research design

(3) Research hypothesis

(4) Research paradigm

Answer: (2)

8. Which of the following is an example of a maximum performance test?

(1) Personality tests

[Link]

(2) Projective personality tests

(3) Aptitude tests

(4) Interest and attitude scales

Answer: (3)

Q.9 Which of the strategies in the list given below will be associated with direct teaching?

(i) Providing examples and explanation

(ii) Promoting inquiry

(iii) Focussing on concepts

(iv) Giving review and recapitulation

(v) Oering practice and feedback

(vi) Problem raising and problem-solving

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (i), (iv) and (v)

(4) (iv) (v) and (vi)

Answer: (3)

10. From the list given below identify those questions which are called process rather than content based questions?

(i) Convergent questions

(ii) Divergent questions

(iii) Fact based questions

(iv) Concept based questions

(v) Open questions

(vi) Closed questions.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii) and (M

(3) (iv), (v) and (vi)

(4) (ii), (iii) and (v)

Answer: (4)

Geography seeks to understand the physical and human organization of the surface of the Earth. In the field of geography, inter-related themes
are frequently seen. These are scale, pattern and process. Scale is defined as the level of structure on organisation at which a phenomenon is
studied. Pattern is defined as the variation observed in a phenomenon studied at a particular scale. The third theme, process, further connects
the first two. Process is defined as the description of how the factors that aect a phenomenon act to product a pattern at a particular scale. For
instance, when a passenger on an aircraft looks out of the window, the View changes according to the scale. At the global scale when the
aircraft maintains its height, he can see the chunks of clouds in all their pattern, the sun or the moon, as per the time. When the aircraft loses a
little height, passengers can see the land and water masses in their dierent colours and the shape of land masses. At the continental scale, the
passengers can see the shapes of the land features and how they are distributed. The pattern emerges as the variation of land and water and the
proportion of each. Looking carefully, passengers can note how each land mass aligns with the others and how each mountain bears the signs
of the process through which it emerged.

The processes in a geography change in a regular and repetitive manner. One instance of this is the annual solar cycle of the sun and the earth.
Most systems in nature display time cycles that are organised in a rhythm of their own as these time cycles and natural processes are always
active, the environment of the earth is always in a state of dynamism. This environmental change is not only the result of natural process but
also the result of human activity. Physical geography works towards understanding the interaction between man and nature and also the results
of this interaction in order to manage global climate change better.

11. The time cycles of the system of nature follow their own

(1) Path

(2) Rhythm

(3) Process

[Link]

(4) Cycle

Answer: (2)

12. The view seen by a passenger looking out of the window of an aircraft; will be affected by the

(1) Process

(2) Pattern

(3) Scale

(4) Rhythm

Answer: (3)

13. Physical geography studies the results of the interaction between man and nature in order to

(1) Understand global climate change

(2) Study the impact of man’s activities on nature

(3) Address the issue of global climate change

(4) Reduce man—animal conflict

Answer: (3)

14. In geography, pattern studies the variation observed in a phenomenon at

(1) A particular scale

(2) Any scale

(3) Every scale

(4) Most scales

Answer: (1)

15. The alignment of landmass with other elements can be seen by a passenger on a flight on a

(1) Global scale

(2) Continental scale

(3) Local scale

(4) Time scale

Answer: (2)

16 Match Set ‘A’ with Set ‘B’.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Answer: (3)

17. When subject and predicate of both the premises are the same but they differ in quality only, it is known as

[Link]

(1) Contradictories

(2) Contraries

(3) Subaltern

(4) Super altern

Answer: (2)

18. Which of the following fractions is the result of the sum of an integer and its reciprocal?

1. 15/8

2. 26/5

3. 36/7

4. 37/5

Answer: (2)

19. Mass media do not have pre-determined functions for everyone and people use them the way they like. This is suggestive of the fact that,

(1) Audiences are active

(2) Content is of little significance

(3) Content lacks plurality

(4) Audiences are homogeneous

Answer: (1)

20. If proposition ‘All republics are grateful’ is taken to be true then which of the following propositions can be false?

(i) Republics are not grateful

(ii) Some republics are not grateful

(iii) No republics are grateful

(iv) Some republics are grateful

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i) only

(2) (ii) only

(3) (i). (ii) and (iii)

(4) (ii) and (iii)

Answer: (3)
21 Sanjay sold an article at a loss of 25%. If the selling price had been increased by Rs. 175, there would have been a gain of 10%. What was
the cost price of the article?

(1) Rs. 350

(2) Rs. 400

[Link]

(3) Rs. 500

(4) Rs. 750

Answer: (3)

22. A communication process can be considered complete when

(1) The sender transmits the message

(2) The message enters the channel

(3) The message leaves the channel

(4) The receiver understands the message

Answer: (4)

23. A customer writes to a bank, ‘Kindly send me a statement of my transactions in my savings bank account ‘A’ during the last three months”.
In terms of communication it will be called

(1) Input

(2) Message

(3) Output

(4) Feedback

Answer: (2)
24. A train leaves Agra at 5 am and reaches Delhi at 9 am. Another train leaves Delhi at 7 am and reaches Agra at 10:30 a.m. At what time do
the two trains cross each other?

(1) 6:36 am

(2) 6:56 am

(3) 7 am

(4) 7:56 am

Answer: (4)

25. The proposition ‘No red is black is equivalent to which of the following propositions?

(i) No black is red

(ii) All red are black

(iii) Some red are not black

(iv) Red is not black

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i), (ii). (iii) and (iv)

(2) (iii) only

(3) (1) and (iv)

(4) (iv) only

Answer: (3)

26. Given below are two premises with four conclusions drawn from them.

Which of the following conclusions could be validly drawn from the premises?

Premises:

(i) Some bags are tables

(1i) All bags are chairs.

Conclusions:

(a) Some tables are chairs

(b) No chair is [Link]

(c) Some chairs are bags

(d) Some bags are not tables

Select the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (a) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)

(3) (a) and (d)

(4) (b) only

Answer: (1)

27. The average of 35 raw scores is 18. The average of first seventeen of them is 14 and that of last seventeen is 20. Find the eighteenth raw
score.

(1) 42

(2) 46
(3) 52

(4) 56

Answer: (3)

28. Identify the reasoning in the following argument: Pre-active stage of classroom teaching is important just as pre-learning preparation stage
of communication’

(1) Hypothetical

(2) Deductive

(3) Inductive

(4) Analogical

Answer: (4)

29. In the context of communication, usual sequence is

(1) Language —> Communication —> Society —> Civilization

(2) Communication —> Society —> Language —> Civilization

(3) Communication —> Language —> Society —> Civilization

(4) Language —> Society —> Communication —> Civilization

Answer: (3)

30. If REASON is coded as 5 and GOVERNMENT as 9, than what is the code for ACCIDENT?

(1) 6

(2) 7

(3) 8

(4) 9

Answer: (2)

Consider the following table that shows expenditures of a company (in lakh rupees) per annum over the given years. Answer the questions
based on the data contained in the table:

31. The approximate ratio between the total expenditure on taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on transport for all the years is

(1) 31 : 40

(2) 25: 36

(3) 27 : 30

(4) 31 : 36

Answer: (4)

32. The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent of the total amount of salary paid
during this period?

(1) 0.9%

(2) 1.3%

(3) 1.6%
(4) 2.0%

Answer: (2)

33. Total expenditure of all the items in 2008 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2012?

(1) 66%

(2) 69%

(3) 72%

(4) 75%

Answer: (1)

34. The approximate ratio between the total expenditure of the company in the year 2008 and the total expenditure of the company in the year
2009 is

(1) 57: 75

(2) 52: 68

(3) 57 : 68

(4) 68 : 57

Answer: (3)

35. What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay (in Rupees) during this period?

(1) 30.5 Lakh

(2) 32.7 Lakh

(3) 33.7 Lakh

(4) 35.5 Lakh

Answer: (3)

36. Which of the following statements represent the main functions of UGC?

(1) Recognition of institutions

[Link]

(1i) Maintenance of quality and standards

(Iii) Appointment of Vice Chancellor

(iv) Giving grants to institutions

(v) Making state governments responsible for educational development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(2) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(3) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(4) (ii), (iii) and (v)

Answer: (3)

37. The main aim of the faculty recharge scheme of UGC was to

(1) Address the shortage of faculty in higher education institution

(2) Upgrade the teaching skills of the faculty

(3) Upgrade the research infrastructure for the faculty in colleges and universities

(4) Strengthen the academia — industry linkage

Answer: (1)

38. Which of the following is an online store house of all academic awards like certificates, diplomas, degrees marksheets etc?

(1) SWAYAM

(2) National Digital Library

(3) National Academic Library

(4) National Academic Depository

Answer: (4)[Link]

39. The convenient place to store contact information for quick retrieval in e-mail is

(1) Address box

(2) Message box

(3) Address book

(4) Message book

Answer: (3)

40. Montreal protocol aims at

(1) Reduction in emissions of green house gases

(2) Phasing out ozone depleting substances

(3) Prohibiting transboundary movement of hazardous waste

(4) Enhancing cooperation among UN member states for peaceful uses of nuclear energy

Answer: (2)
41. SMTP is an acronym for

(1) Simple Mail Transport Protocol

(2) Simple Mail Terminal Protocol

(3) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

(4) Simple Mail Transition Protocol

Answer: (3)

42. In large parts of Eastern India, the ground water is contaminated by

(1) Arsenic

(2) Lead

(3) Mercury

(4) Nickel

Answer: (1)
43. Taj Mahal is mainly threatened by the deleterious effects of

(1) Sulphur dioxide

(2) Chlorine

(3) Oxygen

(4) Hydrogen

Answer: (1)

44. Two statements are given

Statement I: Earthquake ‘A’ is 5 on Richter scale and Earthquake ‘B’ is 8 on the same scale. Earthquake ‘B’ has 1000 times the wave amplitude
compared to ‘A’.[Link]

Statement II: The energy released in ‘B’ is three times that of ‘A’

Choose the correct option:

(1) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I and II are correct

(3) Statement II is correct and I is incorrect

(4) Statement I and II are incorrect

Answer: (1)

45. A computer has main memory of 960 KBytes. What is the exact number of bytes contained in this memory?

(1) 960 x 8

(2) 960 x 1000

(3) 960 x 1024

(4) 960 x 1024 x 1024

Answer: (3)

46. Name the scheme which facilitates academic and research collaboration between Indian Institution and the best institution in the world

(1) ICSSR — IMPRESS

(2) Sta Development Scheme

(3) SPARC

(4) Institutional Development Scheme

Answer: (3)

47. Which of the following file format is not a video file format?

(1) AW

(2) .MOV

(3) .MP4

(4) .JPEG

Answer: (4)
48. For the day to day administration of University, which of the following bodies is responsible?

(1) Senate

(2) Syndicate/ Executive council

(3) Student council

(4) Academic council

Answer: (2)

49. Efficiency of electrical power generation is least amongst the following sources of energy in case of

(1) Solar

(2) Wind

(3) Geothermal

(4) Nuclear

Answer: (3)

50. Which of the following is a non-conventional learning programme in higher education?

(1) Swayam

(2) Face-to-face teaching-learning

(3) Tutorial class

(4) Seminar

Answer: (1)