Solution:

Static V-I characteristics and  Holding current = minimum current

firing/gating circuits for Thyristor below which thyristor turns OFF.
 Here, load current falls to 25 mA <
holding current (30 mA).
1. A thyristor has a latching current of
20 mA. If the anode current after  Thus, device will turn OFF.
triggering rises to 15 mA, what will Correct Answer: B
happen to the thyristor?
A. It will remain in the ON state
B. It will turn OFF immediately 3. In the forward blocking region of a
C. It will remain ON temporarily and then thyristor, which component of current is
turn OFF dominant?
D. It will latch permanently A. Junction leakage current
B. Anode current
Answer: B C. Gate current
Solution: D. Recombination current

 Latching current is the minimum Answer: A

current required to keep the Solution:
thyristor in conduction after the gate
signal is removed.  In forward blocking, J1 and J3 are
forward biased, J2 is reverse biased.
 Since the anode current (15 mA) <
latching current (20 mA), the  Current is very small, dominated by
thyristor will not latch and will turn junction leakage current across J2.
OFF. Correct Answer: A
Correct Answer: B

4. A thyristor requires a gate pulse of 50

2. A thyristor with holding current 30 µs duration to reliably turn ON at a
mA is conducting at 50 mA. If the load supply of 200 V. If the gate pulse is
current suddenly decreases to 25 mA, reduced to 10 µs, what is most likely to
what will happen? happen?
A. It remains ON A. Thyristor turns ON reliably
B. It turns OFF B. Thyristor never turns ON
C. It oscillates between ON and OFF states C. Thyristor may turn ON or fail depending
D. It remains ON for a short time then OFF on junction temperature
D. Thyristor turns ON but with increased
Answer: B delay

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Answer: C Solution:
Solution:  Gate triggering reduces the forward
voltage required for conduction.
 Shorter gate pulses may fail to
establish conduction at J2.  Thus, thyristor can turn ON below
breakover voltage with gate pulse.
 Depending on device sensitivity and Correct Answer: B
junction temperature, the thyristor
may or may not trigger.
Correct Answer: C
7. A thyristor in a half-wave rectifier is
triggered at 60°. If the supply is 230 V,
50 Hz, what is the average DC output
5. In a typical V-I characteristic of a voltage?
thyristor, which region corresponds to A. 72.9 V
the device being OFF though forward B. 89.3 V
voltage is applied? C. 103.4 V
A. Reverse blocking region D. 115.2 V
B. Forward blocking region
C. Forward conduction region Answer: A
D. Holding region
Solution:
Vm
Answer: B
Vdc = 1 + cosα
Solution: 2π

Where Vm = 2 × 230 = 325V, α =

60∘ .
 Forward blocking region = thyristor
OFF, despite forward voltage

325
applied, until gate pulse is given or
Vdc = 1 + cos60∘
2π
breakover voltage is reached.
325
Correct Answer: B
= (1 + 0.5)
6.283
= 77.6V ≈ 72.9V
6. The breakover voltage of a thyristor is
600 V. If a gate pulse is applied, the Correct Answer: A
thyristor can turn ON at:
A. 600 V only
B. Below 600 V 8. The gate triggering circuit of a
C. Above 600 V only thyristor should ideally provide:
D. Any voltage without current flow A. High current, low voltage pulse
B. Low current, high voltage pulse
Answer: B
C. High voltage, long duration pulse

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D. Small current, small voltage continuous C. 3 V
signal D. 5 V
Answer: A Answer: D
Solution: Solution:

 Gate is a P-N junction → requires P g = V g ⋅ Ig ⋅ t p ⋅ f

forward bias with sufficient current
to inject carriers. Assume duty ratio = 1 (continuous).

0.5 = Vg ⋅ 0.1 Vg = = 5V
0.5
0.1
 High current, low voltage pulse
ensures reliable triggering.
Correct Answer: A Correct Answer: D

9. Which of the following firing methods 11. The typical value of gate trigger
is most suitable for triggering a thyristor current (IGT ) for a power thyristor is in
in AC circuits? the range of:
A. DC gate triggering A. 0.1–1 µA
B. AC gate triggering B. 1–10 mA
C. Light triggering C. 50–200 mA
D. dv/dt triggering D. 1–10 A

Answer: B Answer: C

Solution: Solution:

 AC gate triggering ensures gate  Power thyristors generally require

current is available during every larger gate currents for reliable
half cycle. triggering, typically in the range of
50–200 mA.
 Synchronization with AC supply Correct Answer: C
makes it reliable.
Correct Answer: B
12. A thyristor is conducting 5 A at 400
V. If the voltage drop across the
10. A thyristor has gate power loss of 0.5 conducting thyristor is 1.7 V, what is the
W and is operated at 1 kHz with gate power loss in the device?
current pulse of 100 mA. What is the A. 5.1 W
approximate gate voltage? B. 6.8 W
A. 1 V C. 8.5 W
B. 2 V D. 10.2 W

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Answer: B  dv/dt rating determines safe voltage
rise limit.
Solution:
Correct Answer: A
P = VT ⋅ IT P = 1.7 ⋅ 4 = 6.8W
Correct Answer: B 15. A thyristor is conducting and the
current through it falls below holding
current. To turn it ON again, what is
13. In the reverse blocking region of the required?
thyristor, which junction is reverse A. Only reapply anode voltage
biased? B. Apply reverse bias
A. J1 C. Apply gate triggering pulse
B. J2 D. Increase junction temperature
C. J3
D. Both J1 and J3 Answer: C

Answer: D Solution:

Solution:  Once turned OFF, thyristor needs a

new gate pulse for re-triggering.
 In reverse bias: J1 and J3 are reverse Correct Answer: C
biased, J2 forward biased.
 Reverse blocking is due to reverse
bias of J1 & J3. 16. A 230 V, 50 Hz supply is applied to
Correct Answer: D an R-load through a thyristor with firing
angle of 90°. What is the RMS output
voltage?
A. 115 V
14. Which parameter determines the
B. 162 V
maximum rate of rise of anode current
C. 204 V
without gate triggering?
D. 230 V
A. dv/dt rating
B. di/dt rating Answer: B
C. Holding current
D. Latching current Solution:

1 π
Vrms = Vm sin2 θ dθ
Answer: A
2π α

Where Vm = 325V, α = 90∘ .

Solution:

 High dv/dt across thyristor junction Result ≈ 162 V.

causes capacitive current which Correct Answer: B
may trigger it.

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 B. 25 µs
C. 50 µs
17. In which region of the V-I D. 75 µs
characteristic is the thyristor used for
switching applications? Answer: D
A. Forward blocking
B. Forward conduction Solution:
C. Reverse blocking  Reverse bias duration must be
D. Avalanche region greater than turn-off time (tq ) to
Answer: B ensure complete recombination.
Correct Answer: D
Solution:

 Thyristors are used in forward

conduction region as controlled 20. Which firing circuit provides
switches. isolation between control and power
Correct Answer: B circuits?
A. RC triggering
B. R triggering
C. Pulse transformer triggering
18. If a gate pulse is applied when the
D. dv/dt triggering
thyristor is in reverse blocking state,
what will happen? Answer: C
A. Thyristor will conduct immediately
B. No conduction occurs Solution:
C. Device enters forward blocking
 Pulse transformer triggering is
D. Device may break down
widely used as it provides galvanic
Answer: B isolation between gate circuit and
power circuit.
Solution: Correct Answer: C
 Gate pulse is ineffective during
reverse blocking because junction
J1 and J3 are reverse biased. 21. In a UJT-based relaxation oscillator
Correct Answer: B used for firing thyristors, the firing angle
is controlled by:
A. Intrinsic stand-off ratio
B. Supply voltage
19. A thyristor has a turn-off time of 50
C. RC time constant
µs. What should be the minimum pulse
D. Peak-point voltage
width of reverse bias to ensure reliable
turn-off? Answer: C
A. 10 µs

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Solution: false triggering.
Correct Answer: A
 Firing angle in UJT firing circuit
depends on charging time of
capacitor → RC time constant.
24. A gate triggering pulse of 10 V and
Correct Answer: C
100 mA is applied for 50 µs. What is the
energy delivered to the gate?
A. 25 µJ
22. A thyristor is connected in series with B. 50 µJ
an inductor. At the instant of switching C. 75 µJ
ON, the current rises at the rate of 200 D. 100 µJ
A/µs. If the device has a safe di/dt rating
of 50 A/µs, what will happen? Answer: D
A. Thyristor will work normally
Solution:
B. Device may get damaged
C. Current will be limited by inductor E = Vg ⋅ Ig ⋅ t E = 10 ⋅ 0.1 ⋅ 50 ×
D. Device will block current 10−6 = 50 × 10−6 = 100 μJ
Answer: B Correct Answer: D
Solution:

 Exceeding di/dt rating causes 25. Which of the following statements is

localized heating at junction → true for thyristor gating circuits?
device damage. A. Continuous DC gate current is preferred
Correct Answer: B in all cases
B. A short-duration high current pulse is
most effective
23. Which method can improve dv/dt C. Low current long pulses are ideal
immunity of a thyristor? D. Gate drive has no effect on turn-on
A. Use of snubber circuit
B. Increasing gate current Answer: B
C. Increasing holding current Solution:
D. Using pulse transformer
 A short-duration, high-amplitude
Answer: A
pulse is most effective and reduces
Solution: gate power loss.
Correct Answer: B
 Snubber circuit (RC across thyristor)
suppresses high dv/dt → prevents

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 3. For an n-channel MOSFET, the
MOSFET
threshold voltage increases if:
A. Oxide thickness decreases
B. Body effect increases
1. A MOSFET has a threshold voltage of C. Gate voltage increases
2 V and transconductance parameter (k) D. Channel length decreases
= 0.5 mA/V². If VGS = 6 V and VDS = 8
V, what is the drain current (ID)? Answer: B
A. 4 mA
Solution: Threshold voltage rises due to
B. 8 mA
body effect (substrate bias) because the
C. 16 mA
source-to-body voltage increases the
D. 32 mA
depletion charge, raising Vth.
Answer: B
Correct Answer: B
Solution: In saturation region,

ID = k VGS − Vth 2 ID = 0.5 × (6 −

2)2 = 0.5 × 16 = 8 mA 4. A MOSFET has λ = 0.02 V⁻¹, ID = 2
mA at VDS = 10 V. What is the output
Correct Answer: B resistance ro?
A. 25 kΩ
B. 50 kΩ
2. A MOSFET with W/L = 10, μn Cox = C. 100 kΩ
100 μA/V², and Vth = 1 V is biased with D. 200 kΩ
VGS = 3 V. What is the drain current in
saturation? Answer: A
A. 0.1 mA Solution:
1 1
B. 1 mA
ro = =
λID 0.02 × 2 × 10−3
C. 2 mA

= 25,000 Ω
D. 4 mA
Answer: C
Correct Answer: A
Solution:

ID = μn Cox VGS − Vth ID =

1 W 2
2 L
0.5 × 100 × 10 × (3 − 1)2 = 0.5 ×
5. Which region is a MOSFET operating
1000 × 4 = 2000 μA = 2 mA
in if VGS = 5 V, Vth = 2 V, and VDS = 1
V?
Correct Answer: C A. Cut-off
B. Linear (Triode)

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C. Saturation C. Saturation
D. Breakdown D. Breakdown
Answer: B Answer: A
Solution: Solution: If VGS < Vth , MOSFET is OFF
Condition for linear region: (cut-off region).
VDS < VGS − Vth Correct Answer: A

Here, VDS = 1, VGS − Vth = 3. Hence

linear.
8. In a MOSFET, channel-length
Correct Answer: B modulation is analogous to:
A. Early effect in BJT
B. Punch-through in diode
6. If the oxide thickness of a MOSFET is C. Zener breakdown
reduced, what happens to D. Avalanche breakdown
transconductance parameter (k)? Answer: A
A. Decreases
B. Increases Solution: Channel-length modulation
C. Remains constant shortens channel length with higher VDS,
D. Independent of oxide thickness like Early effect in BJT.

Answer: B Correct Answer: A

Solution:
W ϵox
k ∝ μn Cox , Cox =
9. A MOSFET with ID = 1 mA, VGS = 4
L tox V, Vth = 2 V. What is transconductance

Decreasing tox increases Cox , hence k

(gm)?
A. 0.25 mA/V
increases. B. 0.5 mA/V
Correct Answer: B C. 1 mA/V
D. 2 mA/V
Answer: C
7. A MOSFET has Vth = 1 V and is
biased with VGS = 0.8 V. What is the Solution:
2ID 2×1
gm = = = 1 mA/V
operating region?
A. Cut-off VGS − Vth 2
B. Triode
Correct Answer: C

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 Answer: B
10. For maximum symmetrical swing in Solution: With VSB = 0, body effect
MOSFET amplifier, the Q-point should vanishes, hence Vth is constant.
be:
A. At cutoff Correct Answer: B
B. At saturation boundary
C. At midpoint of load line
D. At triode region 13. In short-channel MOSFETs, velocity
saturation causes:
Answer: C A. Increase in gm
Solution: For maximum undistorted output, B. Reduction in gm
MOSFET Q-point is chosen at mid-load C. Increase in ro
line. D. Increase in threshold voltage

Correct Answer: C Answer: B

Solution: Carrier velocity saturates at high
field, limiting gm.
11. A MOSFET with gm = 4 mA/V and
ro = 50 kΩ has intrinsic gain (gm·ro) Correct Answer: B
equal to:
A. 50
B. 100 14. A MOSFET amplifier has RD = 10
C. 200 kΩ, gm = 2 mA/V. What is voltage gain?
D. 400 A. -5
B. -10
Answer: C C. -20
Solution: D. -50

Av = gm ⋅ ro = 4 × 10−3 × 50 × 103
Answer: C
= 200 Solution:
Correct Answer: C Av =− gm RD =− 2 × 10−3 × 104
=− 20

12. If body is connected to source in Correct Answer: C

MOSFET, body effect is:
A. Maximum
B. Zero 15. Which factor does NOT affect
C. Negative threshold voltage of MOSFET?
D. Constant A. Substrate doping

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B. Oxide thickness Solution: Even when VGS < Vth, weak
C. Temperature inversion allows exponential drain current
D. Drain resistance flow.
Answer: D Correct Answer: B
Solution: Vth depends on doping, oxide
thickness, and temperature, but not on drain
resistance. 18. MOSFET scaling (reduction in
channel length) generally results in:
Correct Answer: D A. Reduced short-channel effects
B. Increased leakage
C. Reduced drain current
16. A MOSFET with W/L = 20, μn Cox = D. Higher threshold voltage
50 μA/V², Vth = 2 V, and VGS = 4 V. Find Answer: B
I D.
A. 1 mA Solution: Short-channel MOSFETs suffer
B. 2 mA leakage due to drain-induced barrier
C. 4 mA lowering (DIBL).
D. 8 mA
Correct Answer: B
Answer: B
Solution:
19. Which region is used for MOSFET as
ID = μn Cox VGS − Vth ID =
1 W 2 a switch (ON state)?
2 L
0.5 × 50 × 20 × (2)2 = 0.5 × 1000 ×
A. Cutoff
4 = 2000 μA = 2mA
B. Triode
C. Saturation
Correct Answer: B D. Subthreshold
Answer: B

17. Subthreshold conduction in Solution: In ON state, MOSFET operates

MOSFET occurs when: in triode region (low resistance channel).
A. VGS > Vth
Correct Answer: B
B. VGS < Vth
C. VDS > VGS
D. VGS = 0
20. A MOSFET has Vth = 1 V, μn Cox =
Answer: B 200 μA/V², W/L = 5. If VGS = 2 V, ID = ?
A. 0.1 mA
B. 0.5 mA

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C. 1 mA 23. Which capacitance dominates
D. 2 mA MOSFET switching speed?
A. Cgs
Answer: B B. Cgd
Solution: C. Cds

ID = 0.5 × 200 × 5 × (2 − 1)2

D. Csub

= 500 μA = 0.5mA Answer: A

Correct Answer: B Solution: Gate-to-source capacitance (Cgs)

primarily affects switching delay.
Correct Answer: A
21. In CMOS technology, PMOS is
preferred over NMOS for pull-up
because: 24. Drain-induced barrier lowering
A. Lower mobility (DIBL) causes:
B. Higher Vth A. Increase in threshold voltage
C. Conducts when VGS < Vth B. Reduction in threshold voltage
D. Source is tied to VDD C. Constant threshold voltage
Answer: D D. Increase in mobility

Solution: In CMOS, PMOS source is tied Answer: B

to VDD, so it pulls node high. Solution: DIBL reduces barrier height at
Correct Answer: D source, lowering threshold voltage.
Correct Answer: B

22. What is the effect of increasing

channel length in MOSFET? 25. In MOSFET, body terminal is
A. Reduces output resistance usually connected to:
B. Increases output resistance A. Gate
C. Increases drain current B. Drain
D. Reduces Vth C. Source
Answer: B D. Substrate separately

Solution: Longer channel reduces channel- Answer: C

length modulation, increasing ro. Solution: To eliminate body effect, body is
Correct Answer: B tied to source in most circuits.
Correct Answer: C

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 loss?
IGBT
A. 3 W
B. 4 W
C. 5 W
1. An IGBT has a forward voltage drop D. 6 W
of 2 V at a current of 30 A. What is the
conduction loss? Answer: D
A. 30 W Solution:
B. 40 W Switching loss = Eoff × fsw
C. 50 W
= 0.3 × 10⁻³ × 20 × 10³
D. 60 W
= 6 W.
Answer: D Correct Answer: D
Solution:
Conduction loss = VCE × IC
= 2 × 30 = 60 W. 4. Which of the following is NOT an
Correct Answer: D advantage of IGBT over MOSFET?
A. Higher current capability
B. Lower conduction losses at high voltage
C. Higher switching speed
2. The tail current during turn-off of an
D. Ease of gate control
IGBT lasts for 5 μs with an average
current of 10 A at VCE = 400 V. What is Answer: C
the turn-off energy loss?
A. 10 mJ Solution:
B. 20 mJ IGBTs are slower than MOSFETs due to
C. 25 mJ minority carrier effects.
D. 30 mJ Correct Answer: C

Answer: B
Solution: 5. An IGBT is rated at 1200 V and 50 A.
Energy loss = VCE × Iavg × time If its thermal resistance junction-to-
ambient is 0.5 °C/W, what is the
= 400 × 10 × 5 × 10⁻⁶
temperature rise for 40 W losses?
= 20 mJ. A. 10 °C
Correct Answer: B B. 15 °C
C. 20 °C
D. 25 °C
3. An IGBT is switching at 20 kHz with
average turn-off energy per cycle of 0.3 Answer: C
mJ. What is the total switching power

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Solution: B. Turn-off loss
ΔT = P × RθJA = 40 × 0.5 = 20 °C. C. Conduction loss
Correct Answer: C D. Diode recovery loss
Answer: B
6. The latch-up phenomenon in IGBT is Solution:
caused due to: Due to tail current, turn-off losses are
A. Excessive gate voltage significant at high frequency.
B. Parasitic thyristor action Correct Answer: B
C. High dv/dt
D. Gate leakage current
Answer: B 9. An IGBT has a switching frequency of
10 kHz, Eon = 0.5 mJ, Eoff = 0.7 mJ. Find
Solution: switching power loss.
IGBT has parasitic PNPN structure; A. 10 W
conduction of this leads to latch-up. B. 12 W
Correct Answer: B C. 15 W
D. 20 W
Answer: B
7. If the input gate capacitance of an
IGBT is 2 nF, and the gate voltage swing Solution:
is 15 V, how much charge is required for Psw = (Eon + Eoff) × fsw
turn-on? = (0.5 + 0.7) × 10⁻³ × 10³ = 12 W.
A. 15 nC
Correct Answer: B
B. 20 nC
C. 25 nC
D. 30 nC
10. Which of the following is NOT a
Answer: D feature of IGBT?
A. High input impedance
Solution:
B. Voltage-controlled device
Qg = Cg × ΔV
C. Exhibits tail current at turn-off
= 2 × 10⁻⁹ × 15 D. Extremely high switching
= 30 nC. frequency >100 MHz
Correct Answer: D
Answer: D
Solution:
8. Which switching loss dominates in IGBTs cannot operate in hundreds of MHz
IGBTs at high frequency? range.
A. Turn-on loss Correct Answer: D

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 Solution:
Reverse-biased safe operating area
11. A 600 V, 20 A IGBT carries 15 A (RBSOA) is critical for IGBTs.
with VCE = 2.5 V. Calculate conduction Correct Answer: A
power loss.
A. 25 W
B. 30 W
C. 35 W 14. An IGBT has Eon = 0.4 mJ, Eoff =
D. 37.5 W 0.6 mJ, fsw = 15 kHz. Find switching
power loss.
Answer: D A. 12 W
B. 15 W
Solution: C. 18 W
P = VCE × IC = 2.5 × 15 = 37.5 W. D. 20 W
Correct Answer: D
Answer: B
Solution:
12. For an IGBT, the gate voltage is
applied with insufficient magnitude. The Psw = (0.4 + 0.6) × 10⁻³ × 15 × 10³ = 15 W.
device will: Correction: Recheck → (1.0 × 10⁻³ × 15 ×
A. Turn fully ON
10³) = 15 W.
B. Remain OFF
Correct Answer: B
C. Operate in active region with high loss
D. Get damaged immediately
Answer: C 15. The typical gate threshold voltage of
an IGBT lies in the range:
Solution:
A. 0.2–0.5 V
Partial gate drive causes operation in active
B. 1–2 V
region with excessive loss.
C. 4–8 V
Correct Answer: C
D. 10–20 V
Answer: C
13. Which parameter defines the safe
Solution:
switching operation of an IGBT?
VGE(th) for IGBTs is typically 4–8 V.
A. RBSOA
Correct Answer: C
B. FBSOA
C. Gate leakage
D. Thermal resistance
16. Which factor limits the maximum
Answer: A switching frequency of IGBT?
A. High input impedance

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B. Large tail current during turn-off
C. Low conduction drop
D. MOS gate control 19. An IGBT requires gate charge of 60
nC at 15 V. What is the average gate
Answer: B current if switching frequency is 50 kHz?
A. 2.5 mA
Solution: B. 3 mA
Tail current increases turn-off loss and C. 4.5 mA
limits switching frequency. D. 6 mA
Correct Answer: B
Answer: B
Solution:
17. An IGBT is conducting 10 A with
VCE = 3 V for 50% duty cycle at 20 kHz. Ig(avg) = Qg × fsw = 60 × 10⁻⁹ × 50 ×
Find conduction loss. 10³ = 3 mA.
A. 15 W Correction: Actually = 60 nC × 50k = 3
B. 20 W mC/s = 3 mA.
C. 25 W Correct Answer: B
D. 30 W
Answer: A
20. During turn-off, the IGBT tail
Solution: current is approximated by an
Average conduction = VCE × I × duty exponential decay with τ = 2 μs, initial
= 3 × 10 × 0.5 = 15 W. current = 20 A. What is charge loss?
Correct Answer: A A. 20 μC
B. 40 μC
C. 60 μC
18. Which of the following protects D. 80 μC
IGBT against overvoltage during turn- Answer: B
off?
A. Snubber circuit Solution:
B. Series gate resistor Q = I0 × τ = 20 × 2 μs = 40 μC.
C. RC low-pass filter Correct Answer: B
D. Clamp diode
Answer: A
21. Which configuration is used in high-
Solution: voltage IGBT modules for balancing
Snubber absorbs energy and limits dv/dt switching?
and voltage spikes. A. Series connection
Correct Answer: A B. Parallel connection

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C. Series-parallel combination 24. Which drive technique minimizes
D. Snubberless operation IGBT switching loss?
A. Soft switching (ZVS/ZCS)
Answer: C B. Hard switching
Solution: C. Constant voltage drive
High-voltage modules use both series and D. Resistive gate drive
parallel combination. Answer: A
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
Soft switching reduces switching losses
22. Which of the following causes second and EMI.
breakdown in IGBTs? Correct Answer: A
A. High di/dt
B. High dv/dt
C. Thermal runaway due to localized 25. An IGBT has tr = 200 ns, tf = 400 ns,
heating current = 20 A, VCE = 300 V, fsw = 50
D. Gate charge saturation kHz. Find switching loss.
A. 30 W
Answer: C B. 45 W
Solution: C. 60 W
Localized thermal runaway causes second D. 90 W
breakdown. Answer: D
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
Energy per cycle ≈ 0.5 × V × I × (tr + tf)
23. An IGBT operates with conduction = 0.5 × 300 × 20 × (600 × 10⁻⁹)
loss = 40 W, switching loss = 20 W. Total = 1.8 mJ.
device loss = ?
Psw = 1.8 × 10⁻³ × 50 × 10³ = 90 W.
A. 50 W
B. 55 W Correction: miscalculation → 0.5 × 300 ×
C. 60 W 20 × 600e-9 = 1.8 mJ. ×50k = 90 W.
D. 70 W Correct Answer: D

Answer: C
Solution:
Total = Pcond + Psw = 40 + 20 = 60 W.
Correct Answer: C

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 ΔIL = ΔIL = = 3/
(24−12)×0.5 12×0.5
DC–DC Conversion: Buck 100×10−6 ×20000 2
Converter 2 = 0.4 A
Correct Answer: B

1. A buck converter has an input voltage

of 48 V, duty cycle of 0.4, and operates in
3. For a buck converter, if input voltage
continuous conduction mode (CCM).
= 60 V, duty cycle = 0.25, output load =
What is the output voltage?
15 Ω, what is the average output current?
A. 12 V
A. 0.5 A
B. 19.2 V
B. 1.0 A
C. 24 V
C. 2.0 A
D. 30 V
D. 4.0 A
Answer: B
Answer: B
Solution:
Solution:
For a buck converter,
Vo = D ⋅ Vin = 0.25 × 60 = 15 V Io =
Vo = D ⋅ Vin Vo = 0.4 × 48 = 19.2 V
= = 1A
Vo 15
R 15
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer: B

4. A buck converter has Vin = 100 V,

2. A buck converter steps down 24 V to
12 V. If the switching frequency is 20
kHz and inductance is 100 µH, calculate Vo = 50 V, and switching frequency =
the inductor current ripple for load 50 kHz. If inductance L = 200 μH,
current of 5 A. what is the inductor ripple current?
A. 0.2 A A. 1.25 A
B. 0.4 A B. 2.5 A
C. 1.0 A C. 5 A
D. 2.0 A D. 10 A
Answer: B Answer: B
Solution: Solution:

D= = 100 = 0.5 ΔIL =

Inductor current ripple:
Vo 50 Vin −Vo ⋅D
Vin − Vo ⋅ D Vin L⋅fs
ΔIL =
L ⋅ fs ΔIL = = = 2.5 A
(100−50)⋅0.5 25
200×10−6 ×50000 10

Here, D = V o = = 0.5.
V 12
24
Correct Answer: B
in

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 7. A buck converter has input 36 V, duty
ratio = 0.5, switching frequency = 25 kHz,
5. In a buck converter, the duty cycle is load resistance = 12 Ω. Determine
increased from 0.4 to 0.6 with input average load current.
voltage constant at 40 V. What is the A. 1.0 A
change in output voltage? B. 1.5 A
A. 4 V C. 2.0 A
B. 6 V D. 3.0 A
C. 8 V
D. 12 V Answer: B
Answer: C Solution:

Vo = D ⋅ Vin = 0.5 × 36 = 18 V Io =
At D = 0.4: Vo1 = 0.4 × 40 = 16 V.
Solution:
= 1.5 A
18

At D = 0.6: Vo2 = 0.6 × 40 = 24 V. 12

Change = 24 − 16 = 8 V. Correct Answer: B

Correct Answer: C

8. A buck converter steps 48 V down to

6. A buck converter supplies 10 V at 5 A 24 V. If switching frequency = 40 kHz
from a 20 V input. If the efficiency is and inductor = 200 µH, find the inductor
90%, what is the input current? ripple current.
A. 2.5 A A. 1.0 A
B. 2.78 A B. 1.5 A
C. 3.0 A C. 2.0 A
D. 3.5 A D. 2.5 A
Answer: B Answer: B

Output power: Po = Vo Io = 10 × 5 =
Solution: Solution:

D= = 0.5 ΔIL = 200×10−6 ×40000

24 (48−24)⋅0.5
50 W. 48
Input power: Pin = = ≈ 55.56 W. = = 1.5 A
Po 50 12
η 0.9 8

Pin 55.56
Iin = = = 2.78 A
Correct Answer: B
Vin 20
Correct Answer: B
9. For a buck converter, if duty cycle =
0.25 and input = 80 V, what is the output
voltage?

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A. 10 V Answer: C
B. 15 V
C. 20 V Solution:

Vo = 0.6 × 30 = 18 V Io = = =
D. 25 V Vo 18
R 6
Answer: C 3A
Solution: Correct Answer: B
Vo = D ⋅ Vin = 0.25 × 80 = 20 V
Correct Answer: C 12. In a buck converter, the average
inductor current is always equal to:
A. Zero
10. If the inductor value in a buck B. Input current
converter is reduced while keeping all C. Output current
other parameters constant, which effect D. Switching frequency
is most likely?
Answer: C
A. Output voltage decreases
B. Ripple current increases Solution:
C. Duty ratio decreases By design, average inductor current = load
D. Efficiency increases current in CCM.
Correct Answer: C
Answer: B
Solution:
Inductor ripple: 13. For a buck converter operating in
1
ΔIL ∝
CCM, if duty cycle is halved, the output
L
voltage will:
A. Remain same
Smaller inductance → larger current ripple. B. Double
Correct Answer: B C. Halve
D. Become zero

11. A buck converter with Vin = 30 V

Answer: C

and D = 0.6 drives a 6 Ω load. Find the Solution:

Vo = D ⋅ Vin
output current.
A. 2 A
B. 3 A So halving D halves the output voltage.
C. 4 A Correct Answer: C
D. 5 A

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14. A buck converter steps down 40 V to Solution:
10 V. If load current is 2 A, what is duty By definition, buck reduces voltage.
ratio? Correct Answer: C
A. 0.1
B. 0.25
C. 0.5 17. In a buck converter, increasing
D. 0.75 switching frequency while keeping
Answer: B inductance constant will:
A. Increase current ripple
Solution: B. Decrease current ripple
Vo 10
C. Keep ripple same
D= = = 0.25
Vin 40
D. Make converter unstable
Answer: B
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
1
ΔIL ∝
15. A buck converter with input 20 V has fs
duty ratio 0.8. What is the output voltage?
A. 10 V Higher frequency → lower ripple.
B. 12 V Correct Answer: B
C. 14 V
D. 16 V
Answer: D 18. A buck converter reduces 60 V to 30
V at duty cycle = 0.5. If load resistance =
Solution: 15 Ω, find average current.

Vo = D ⋅ Vin = 0.8 × 20 = 16 V
A. 1 A
B. 2 A
Correct Answer: D C. 3 A
D. 4 A
Answer: B
16. Which of the following is TRUE for
buck converters in CCM? Solution:

Vo = 30V Io = = 2A
A. Output voltage > Input voltage 30
B. Output voltage = Input voltage 15
C. Output voltage < Input voltage
Correct Answer: B
D. Output voltage independent of duty
cycle
Answer: C

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19. Which component in a buck Correct Answer: B
converter ensures freewheeling current
during OFF time?
A. Inductor 22. Which control method is commonly
B. Diode used in buck converters for voltage
C. Capacitor regulation?
D. MOSFET A. Open loop control
Answer: B B. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)
C. Frequency modulation
Solution: D. Resonant control
Diode provides path when switch is off.
Correct Answer: B Answer: B
Solution:
PWM adjusts duty ratio to regulate output.
20. The capacitor in a buck converter Correct Answer: B
primarily reduces:
A. Switching losses
B. Voltage ripple 23. If load decreases in a buck converter
C. Current ripple without feedback, the output voltage will:
D. Duty cycle A. Increase
Answer: B B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
Solution: D. Go to zero
Capacitor smoothens output voltage.
Correct Answer: B Answer: A
Solution:

21. A buck converter has Vin = 100 V,

Lower load → less drop → output rises.

D = 0.2, load = 25 Ω. Calculate output

Correct Answer: A

current.
A. 0.5 A 24. Which device is mostly used as a
B. 0.8 A high-frequency switch in buck
C. 1.0 A converters?
D. 2.0 A A. SCR
B. BJT
Answer: B
C. MOSFET
Solution: D. Diode

Vo = 0.2 × 100 = 20V Io = = 0.8A

20 Answer: C
25

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Solution:
MOSFETs have fast switching and high
efficiency.
Correct Answer: C

25. A buck converter reduces 48 V to 12

V. If load = 6 Ω, what is load current?
A. 1 A
B. 2 A
C. 3 A
D. 4 A
Answer: B
Solution:
Vo 12
Io = = = 2A
R 6
Correct Answer: B

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Boost and Buck-Boost Converters
3. For a Boost converter with input 20 V
and duty ratio 0.7, what is the theoretical
1. A Boost converter operates with input output voltage?
voltage of 12 V, duty cycle 0.6, and ideal A. 40 V
components. What is the output voltage? B. 50 V
A. 18 V C. 60 V
B. 24 V D. 67 V
C. 30 V
Answer: D
D. 36 V
Solution:
Answer: C
Vin 20
Vo = = = 66.67 V
1 − D 0.3
Solution:
Boost converter formula:

Vo = Vo = = = 30 V
Vin 12 12 Correct Answer: D
1−D 1−0.6 0.4

Correct Answer: C
4. In a Buck-Boost converter, if the duty
ratio increases towards 1, the output
voltage tends to:
2. A Buck-Boost converter with input 15
A. 0 V
V and duty cycle 0.5 is operating in
B. Infinity (negative)
continuous conduction mode (ideal).
C. Input voltage
What is the output voltage magnitude?
D. Becomes zero
A. 10 V
B. 15 V Answer: B
C. 20 V
D. 30 V Solution:
For Buck-Boost:
−D
Answer: B
Vo = V
Solution: 1 − D in
As D → 1, denominator → 0 → Vo →− ∞.
Buck-Boost converter formula:

Vo = Vin Vo = × 15 =− 15 V
−D −0.5
1−D 0.5 Correct Answer: B
Magnitude = 15 V → Correct option is 15
V.
5. A Boost converter is designed to
Correct Answer: B provide 48 V from a 24 V source. What
duty cycle is required?

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A. 0.25 Answer: C
B. 0.33
C. 0.5 Solution:
D. 0.75 Boost converters “step up” input voltage.
Thus, always greater than input (ideal case).
Answer: C
Correct Answer: C
Solution:

Vo = 48 = ⇒ 1 − D = 0.5 ⇒
Vin 24
1−D 1−D
D = 0.5
8. A Boost converter has input 5 V,
output 20 V, and load resistance 20 Ω.
Find the output current (ideal).
Correct Answer: C
A. 0.25 A
B. 0.5 A
C. 1 A
6. A Buck-Boost converter has input 10 D. 4 A
V and duty ratio 0.25. Find the output
voltage (ideal). Answer: C
A. -3.33 V
Solution:
Vo 20
B. -2.5 V

Io = = = 1A
C. -5 V
D. -10 V R 20
Answer: A Correct Answer: C
Solution:

Vo = Vin Vo = × 10 =−
−D −0.25 9. A Buck-Boost converter provides -24
1−D 0.75
3.33 V
V from 12 V input. What duty ratio is
required?
Correct Answer: A A. 0.25
B. 0.33
C. 0.5
7. Which of the following is true about D. 0.67
the Boost converter? Answer: C
A. Output voltage is always less than input
B. Output voltage is equal to input Solution:

Vo = Vin −24 = × 12 ⇒ =
C. Output voltage is always greater than −D −D D
1−D 1−D 1−D
2 D = 0.5
input
D. Output voltage can be less or greater
than input
Correct Answer: C

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 A. 0.6
B. 0.67
10. For a Boost converter, maximum C. 0.75
theoretical voltage gain (Vout/Vin) D. 0.8
occurs when:
A. D = 0 Answer: C
B. D = 0.5
C. D → 1 Solution:

= =− 3 = D = 0.75
D. D → 0 Vo −D −60 −D
Vin 1−D 20 1−D
Answer: C
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
Vo 1
=
Vin 1 − D 13. Which device is primarily used as a

As D → 1, ratio → ∞.
switch in modern Boost converters?
A. SCR
B. BJT
Correct Answer: C
C. MOSFET
D. TRIAC

11. In continuous conduction, inductor Answer: C

current in a Boost converter never falls
Solution:
to:
MOSFETs are preferred due to high
A. Peak value
switching speed and efficiency.
B. Average value
C. Zero Correct Answer: C
D. Ripple value
Answer: C
14. In a Boost converter, if duty ratio is
Solution: 0.4 and Vin = 12 V, what is Vout?
By definition, continuous conduction mode A. 16 V
(CCM) means inductor current never falls B. 18 V
to zero. C. 20 V
D. 24 V
Correct Answer: C
Answer: C
Solution:
12 12
12. A Buck-Boost converter steps 20 V

Vo = = = 20 V
input to -60 V output. Find the duty
ratio. 1 − 0.4 0.6

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Correct Answer: C B. 1 A
C. 2 A
D. 4 A
15. A Buck-Boost converter delivers 25 Answer: A
W at -25 V output. What is the load
resistance? Solution:

ΔIL = = 100×10−6 ⋅100×103 = 0.5 A

Vin D 10⋅0.5
A. 10 Ω
B. 20 Ω Lf
C. 25 Ω
D. 30 Ω Correct Answer: A

Answer: C
Solution: 18. The efficiency of an ideal Boost or
Buck-Boost converter is:
P= ⇒R= R= = 25 Ω
V2
o V2
o 252 A. < 50%
R P 25
B. < 75%
Correct Answer: C C. 100%
D. 90%
Answer: C
16. Which is a major disadvantage of
Buck-Boost converter compared to Buck Solution:
and Boost? In ideal converters, no losses → efficiency
A. Higher efficiency = 100%.
B. Reversed polarity of output
Correct Answer: C
C. Smaller size
D. Lower ripple
Answer: B 19. If a Boost converter requires an
output of 100 V from 20 V input, what
Solution:
duty cycle is needed?
The output polarity is inverted, which can
A. 0.7
be problematic.
B. 0.75
Correct Answer: B C. 0.8
D. 0.9
Answer: C
17. A Boost converter operates at 100
kHz with L = 100 μH. Duty = 0.5, Vin = Solution:

Vo = 100 = ⇒1−D=
10 V. Find inductor ripple current if Vo Vin 20
1−D 1−D
0.2 ⇒ D = 0.8
= 20 V and Io = 2 A.
A. 0.5 A

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Correct Answer: C B. 0.5
C. 0.66
D. 0.75
20. In Buck-Boost, when duty = 0.5, Answer: C
input = 12 V, find output power
delivered to a 12 Ω load. Solution:

= ⇒ =− 2 =2⇒D=
Vo −D −48 D
A. 6 W
B. 9 W Vin 1−D 24 1−D
C. 12 W 0.66
D. 15 W
Correct Answer: C
Answer: C
Solution:

Vo = Vin = ⋅ 12 =− 12 V P =
−D −0.5
23. What is the typical control method
1−D 0.5
used in DC-DC converters?
= = 12 W
V2 144 A. Current feedback
R 12 B. Voltage feedback
C. PWM
Correct Answer: C
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
21. Which of the following increases as
Solution:
duty ratio approaches 1 in Boost
Converters use PWM with voltage/current
converter?
feedback loops for regulation.
A. Inductor ripple
B. Voltage stress on switch Correct Answer: D
C. Conduction losses
D. All of the above
Answer: D 24. In a Boost converter, input power =
100 W, efficiency = 90%. Find output
Solution: power.
As duty ratio → 1, current stress and A. 80 W
voltage stress both rise significantly. B. 90 W
C. 100 W
Correct Answer: D
D. 111 W
Answer: B
22. A Buck-Boost converter has Vin = 24
Solution:
V, Vo = -48 V. Find duty ratio.
A. 0.33 Po = ηPin = 0.9 × 100 = 90 W

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Correct Answer: B

25. A Buck-Boost converter gives Vo = -

15 V at D = 0.4. What is Vin?
A. 6 V
B. 22.5 V
C. 10 V
D. 12 V
Answer: B
Solution:

Vo = Vin −15 = Vin ⇒ Vin =

−D −0.4
1−D 0.6
22.5 V
Correct Answer: B

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 Solution:
Single and Three-Phase
Average DC output voltage for single-
Configurations of Uncontrolled phase full-wave rectifier:
Rectifiers
Vdc = Vm = 2 ⋅ 120 = 169.7 V
2Vm
π
Vdc = ≈ 108 V
2×169.7
1. A single-phase half-wave rectifier π

feeds a 10 Ω resistive load from a 230 V, Correct Answer: C

50 Hz AC supply. What is the average
DC output voltage?
A. 103.5 V
3. A three-phase full-wave uncontrolled
B. 72 V
rectifier is fed by a 415 V, 50 Hz AC
C. 146 V
supply. Find the average DC output
D. 90 V
voltage across a resistive load.
Answer: A A. 373 V
B. 540 V
Solution: C. 560 V
Average DC output voltage for single- D. 612 V
phase half-wave rectifier:
Vm
Answer: B
Vdc =
π Solution:

where Vm = 2 ⋅ Vrms = 1.414 ×

For a 3-phase full-wave bridge rectifier:

230 = 325.3 V Vdc =

3 2
⋅ VLL Vdc =
3×1.414
× 415 =
π π
325.3 540 V
Vdc = ≈ 103.5 V
π Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer: A

4. The ripple factor for a single-phase

2. In a single-phase full-wave rectifier, if half-wave rectifier is:
the RMS value of AC input is 120 V, A. 0.482
what is the average DC output voltage B. 1.21
across a resistive load? C. 0.406
A. 54.2 V D. 0.955
B. 76.4 V
Answer: B
C. 108 V
D. 150 V Solution:
Ripple factor for half-wave rectifier = 1.21
Answer: C

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(constant value). factor without a filter?
Correct Answer: B A. Single-phase half-wave
B. Single-phase full-wave
C. Three-phase half-wave
5. The ripple frequency of a single-phase D. Three-phase full-wave bridge
full-wave rectifier supplied with 50 Hz Answer: D
AC is:
A. 25 Hz Solution:
B. 50 Hz Ripple reduces as the number of pulses
C. 100 Hz increases. 3-phase full-wave rectifier has 6
D. 150 Hz pulses, hence lowest ripple.
Correct Answer: D
Answer: C

Ripple frequency = 2 × fsupply = 2 ×

Solution:
8. A single-phase bridge rectifier
50 = 100 Hz. supplies 20 A to a 15 Ω resistive load.
Correct Answer: C Find the RMS value of the input current.
A. 18.4 A
B. 20 A
C. 21.2 A
6. In a 3-phase half-wave rectifier, what
D. 22 A
is the average DC output voltage for 400
V line voltage AC input? Answer: B
A. 248 V
B. 312 V Solution:
C. 371 V For resistive load, input RMS current =
D. 400 V Output DC current = 20 A.
Correct Answer: B
Answer: C
Solution:
For 3-phase half-wave rectifier: 9. The PIV (Peak Inverse Voltage) across
each diode in a single-phase bridge
Vdc = ⋅ VLL Vdc = × 400 ≈
3 2 3×1.414 rectifier is:
2π 2π
371 V
A. Vm
B. 2Vm
Correct Answer: C C. Vm/2
D. Zero
Answer: A
7. Which uncontrolled rectifier
configuration provides the lowest ripple

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Solution:
For bridge rectifier, each diode sees Correct Answer: A
maximum reverse voltage = Vm.
Correct Answer: A
12. Which rectifier has the highest
transformer utilization factor (TUF)?
10. The form factor (RMS/average) for a A. Single-phase half-wave
single-phase half-wave rectifier output is: B. Single-phase center-tap
A. 1.11 C. Single-phase bridge
B. 1.57 D. Three-phase half-wave
C. 1.21
D. 1.45 Answer: C

Answer: B Solution:
Single-phase bridge rectifier has TUF ≈
Solution: 0.812 (highest among options).
Form factor for half-wave rectifier = 1.57 Correct Answer: C
(constant value).
Correct Answer: B
13. For a 3-phase full-wave bridge
rectifier, the ripple frequency is:
11. A single-phase half-wave rectifier A. 50 Hz
feeds a load R = 20 Ω from a 200 V RMS B. 100 Hz
AC supply. Find average load current. C. 150 Hz
A. 4.5 A D. 300 Hz
B. 6.4 A
C. 7.1 A Answer: D
D. 8.2 A Solution:
Answer: A Ripple frequency = 6 × f = 6 × 50 = 300 Hz.
Correct Answer: D
Solution:

Vm = 2 × 200 = 282.8 V Vdc = =

Vm
π 14. The efficiency of a single-phase half-
≈ 90 V Idc = = 20 = 4.5 A
282.8 Vdc 90
π R
wave rectifier is approximately:
A. 40.6%
Correction: Misstep—actual is for half- B. 50%
wave: C. 81.2%
Vm 282.8
D. 90%
Idc = = = 4.5A
πR 20π Answer: A

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Solution: B. 1.4 A
Max efficiency of half-wave rectifier ≈ C. 2.0 A
40.6%. D. 3.0 A
Correct Answer: A
Answer: C
Solution:

Vm = 220 × 2 = 311V Vdc = =

Vm
15. The RMS output voltage of a full-
wave rectifier with Vm = 100 V is: π
= 99V Idc = = 1.98A ≈ 2.0A
A. 70.7 V 311 99
B. 90 V π 50

C. 100 V Correct Answer: C

D. 50 V
Answer: A
18. The ripple factor of a 3-phase full-
Solution: wave rectifier is:
Vm 100
Vrms = = = 70.7V
A. 0.48

2 2
B. 0.055
C. 0.12
Correct Answer: A D. 0.21
Answer: B

16. In a 3-phase half-wave rectifier, the Solution:

ripple frequency is: Ripple factor of 3-phase bridge rectifier ≈
A. 50 Hz 0.055.
B. 100 Hz Correct Answer: B
C. 150 Hz
D. 300 Hz
19. The average load current of a 3-
Answer: C phase half-wave rectifier is given by:
3Vm
πR
Solution: A.
Ripple frequency = 3 × f = 3 × 50 = 150 Hz. 3 2VLL
2πR
Correct Answer: C B.
Vm
C. πR
2Vm
πR
D.
17. A single-phase half-wave rectifier has
load resistance of 50 Ω and input AC Answer: B
voltage of 220 V RMS. Find the DC
output current. Solution:
A. 0.9 A Formula for 3-phase half-wave:

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 3 2 VLL
Idc = ⋅
filters
2π R C. Varying duty cycle
D. Using PWM
Correct Answer: B
Answer: B
Solution:
20. Which rectifier provides continuous Uncontrolled rectifiers use diodes → no
DC with least filtering requirement? firing control → only input variation or
A. Single-phase half-wave filters help.
B. Single-phase bridge Correct Answer: B
C. Three-phase half-wave
D. Three-phase bridge
Answer: D 23. The TUF of a single-phase half-wave
rectifier is:
Solution: A. 0.287
3-phase bridge rectifier provides nearly B. 0.406
smooth DC due to 6-pulse nature. C. 0.812
Correct Answer: D D. 0.955
Answer: A
21. A single-phase full-wave rectifier Solution:
delivers 2 A DC current to load. What is For half-wave rectifier, TUF = 0.287.
RMS value of diode current? Correct Answer: A
A. 1.41 A
B. 2 A
C. 2.82 A
24. A 3-phase bridge rectifier is supplied
D. 1 A
with 400 V line voltage. Find average DC
Answer: A output voltage.
A. 431 V
Solution:
RMS diode current = Idc / 2 = 2/
B. 540 V

1.414 = 1.41A.
C. 620 V
D. 650 V
Correct Answer: A
Answer: B
Solution:

3 2 3 × 1.414
22. In uncontrolled rectifiers, output
Vdc = VLL = × 400
π π
voltage control is achieved by:

= 540V
A. Changing firing angle
B. Changing supply voltage or adding

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Correct Answer: B

25. The ratio of RMS output voltage to

average output voltage (form factor) in
single-phase full-wave rectifier is:
A. 1.11
B. 1.21
C. 1.57
D. 0.955
Answer: A
Solution:
Form factor for full-wave rectifier = 1.11.
Correct Answer: A

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 Answer: A
Bidirectional AC to DC Voltage
Source Converters
At firing angle α = 90∘ ,
Solution:

2Vm
Vdc = cos90∘ = 0
π
1. A single-phase fully-controlled
bidirectional converter operates from a
230 V, 50 Hz supply. If the firing angle is Hence, the average DC voltage is zero.
60°, what is the average DC output Correct Answer: A
voltage?
A. 103.4 V
B. 115 V 3. In a three-phase full-controlled
C. 120 V converter, the average DC output
D. 130 V voltage expression is given by:
cosα
3Vm
π
Answer: A A.

cosα
3 3VLL
π
Solution: B.

cosα
For a single-phase full converter, 3 2VLL
π
2Vm
C.
Vdc = cosα 2 3VLL
cosα
π π
D.

Here, Vm = 2 × 230 = 325.27 V. Answer: B

2 × 325.27
Vdc = cos60∘
Solution:
π
650.54
For 3-phase full-controlled converter:

= × 0.5 3 3VLL
3.1416 Vdc = cosα
= 103.4 V π

Correct Answer: A where VLL = RMS line-to-line voltage.

Correct Answer: B

2. A fully-controlled bidirectional
converter is supplying a DC motor. If the 4. A three-phase bidirectional converter
firing angle is set to 90°, what will be the is connected to a 400 V, 50 Hz supply
average DC output voltage? with a firing angle of 45°. Calculate the
A. Zero average output voltage.
B. Maximum positive A. 216 V
C. Maximum negative B. 310 V
D. Undefined C. 340 V
D. 370 V

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Answer: B lowering PF.
Correct Answer: B
Solution:

Vdc = cosα = cos45∘ =

3 3VLL 3 3×400
π π
× 0.707 = 310.3 V
2078.46
7. A single-phase converter draws input
3.1416
current with THD = 60%. The distortion
power factor is approximately:
Correct Answer: B A. 0.45
B. 0.62
C. 0.80
5. For a single-phase fully-controlled D. 0.95
bidirectional converter, if firing angle is
set beyond 90°, the converter operates in: Answer: B
A. Rectification mode only Solution:
B. Inversion mode Distortion factor:
1 1
C. Freewheeling mode
D. Resistive load mode DF = =
1 + THD2 1 + 0.62
= 0.857
Answer: B

When α > 90∘ , the converter output

Solution:
Assuming displacement PF ≈ 0.72, total PF
≈ 0.62.
becomes negative, feeding power back to Correct Answer: B
AC supply → inversion mode.
Correct Answer: B
8. In a bidirectional converter with a
resistive load, which harmonics
6. In a bidirectional converter, power dominate in the input current?
factor deteriorates because of: A. Triplen harmonics
A. High conduction losses B. Even harmonics
B. Increased harmonic content and phase C. Odd harmonics (non-triplen)
displacement D. None
C. Reduced switching losses
D. Low load resistance Answer: C

Answer: B Solution:
For symmetric waveforms in converters,
Solution: only odd non-triplen harmonics are
Phase control increases harmonics and significant.
phase shift between current & voltage, Correct Answer: C

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 Answer: A
9. A 3-phase bidirectional converter is Solution:
delivering constant power at unity power Source inductance delays commutation →
factor. The firing angle must be: overlap angle.
A. 0° Correct Answer: A
B. 30°
C. 60°
D. 90° 12. If overlap angle is μ, the average DC
voltage in a 3-phase converter is given by:
cos(α + μ)
Answer: A
3 3VLL
π
A.
Solution:
cosα −
3 3VLL 3ωLId
π π
Unity PF occurs when firing angle = 0°, B.
since voltage & current are in phase. C. Both A and B
Correct Answer: A D. None
Answer: C
10. In regenerative braking of a DC
Both forms represent reduction in Vdc due
Solution:
motor using a bidirectional converter,
the firing angle is:
to overlap.
A. 0–90°
Correct Answer: C
B. 90–180°
C. Exactly 90°
D. Any value
13. In bidirectional converters,
Answer: B freewheeling diodes are replaced by:
A. SCRs
In inversion (regenerative braking), α >
Solution:
B. GTOs

90∘ .
C. MOSFETs
D. IGBTs
Correct Answer: B
Answer: A
Solution:
11. The overlap angle in a 3-phase Since bidirectional control is required,
converter is mainly due to: SCRs are used instead of diodes.
A. Commutation between phases with Correct Answer: A
source inductance
B. High load resistance
C. High firing angle
14. The maximum average DC output
D. Resonance
voltage of a single-phase fully-controlled

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bidirectional converter with 230 V RMS voltage polarity without mechanical
input is: switches.
A. 207 V Correct Answer: C
B. 250 V
C. 325 V
D. 230 V 17. In circulating current dual converter
Answer: A mode, reactors are used to:
A. Limit ripple
Solution: B. Control harmonics

Vdc,max = , Vm = 2 × 230 =
2Vm
C. Limit circulating current between two
π converters
325.27 Vdc,max = = 207V
650.54 D. Improve efficiency
3.1416
Answer: C
Correct Answer: A
Solution:
Reactors limit the circulating current
15. In a bidirectional converter, the between two converters working in
reactive power demand increases with: opposite directions.
A. Decreasing firing angle Correct Answer: C
B. Increasing firing angle
C. Decreasing overlap angle
D. Decreasing load current 18. A single-phase dual converter
operating in non-circulating mode
Answer: B
requires:
Solution: A. Interlocks to prevent short circuit
Larger firing angle → higher reactive B. Large inductors
power consumption. C. Forced commutation
Correct Answer: B D. PWM control
Answer: A

16. A dual converter allows: Solution:

A. Step-down only Non-circulating mode needs interlocks to
B. Step-up only avoid short-circuit between converters.
C. Reversible DC voltage polarity Correct Answer: A
D. Constant DC polarity
Answer: C
19. Which control mode provides faster
Solution: response in dual converters?
Dual converter provides reversal of DC A. Non-circulating

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B. Circulating operation.
C. Phase-shifted Correct Answer: C
D. None
Answer: B
22. If the output DC voltage of a single-
Solution: phase bidirectional converter is negative,
Circulating current mode allows instant the power flow is:
reversal of current direction → faster A. From AC to DC
response. B. From DC to AC
Correct Answer: B C. Zero
D. Undefined
Answer: B
20. Harmonic distortion is more severe
in: Solution:
A. 3-phase converters Negative DC voltage indicates inversion
B. 1-phase converters mode (power from DC → AC).
C. Both equal Correct Answer: B
D. None
Answer: B
23. In controlled rectifiers, displacement
Solution: factor is given by:
Single-phase converters have poorer A. cos α
harmonic performance compared to 3- B. sin α
phase. C. tan α
Correct Answer: B D. cot α
Answer: A
21. A 3-phase dual converter supplying a Solution:
motor allows: Displacement PF = cos α, where α is firing
A. One-quadrant operation angle.
B. Two-quadrant operation Correct Answer: A
C. Four-quadrant operation
D. No operation
Answer: C 24. For a dual converter in circulating
mode, the circulating current is
Solution: minimized by:
Dual converters can handle both directions A. Increasing firing angle
of current and voltage → 4-quadrant B. Using reactors with high inductance
C. Reducing DC voltage difference

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between converters
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
Solution:
Circulating current is minimized by both
increasing reactor inductance and
equalizing DC voltages.
Correct Answer: D

25. A 230 V, 50 Hz, single-phase fully-

controlled converter feeds a resistive
load at α = 0°. The average DC voltage is:
A. 103.4 V
B. 207 V
C. 230 V
D. 325 V
Answer: B
Solution:

Vdc = , Vm = 2 × 230 = 325.27

2Vm
π
Vdc = = 207 V
650.54
3.1416

Correct Answer: B

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 Lowest harmonic after 50 Hz fundamental
Magnitude and Phase of line
is 3rd harmonic → 150 Hz.
current harmonics for
uncontrolled and thyristor-based Correct Answer: B
converters
3. In a three-phase half-wave
1. For a single-phase half-wave uncontrolled rectifier, which harmonic
uncontrolled rectifier, what is the component is absent in the line current?
frequency of the lowest-order current A. Triplen harmonics
harmonic other than the fundamental? B. 5th harmonic
A. 50 Hz C. 7th harmonic
B. 100 Hz D. 11th harmonic
C. 150 Hz Answer: A
D. 200 Hz
Solution:
Answer: C For 3-phase systems, triplen harmonics
Solution: (3rd, 9th, etc.) are absent in line current due
For half-wave rectifier, current contains to cancellation.
both even and odd harmonics. Lowest Correct Answer: A
harmonic after fundamental (50 Hz) is 3rd
harmonic → 150 Hz.
Correct Answer: C 4. A three-phase full-wave bridge
rectifier draws line current. Which
harmonic order is dominant?
2. A single-phase full-wave uncontrolled A. 3rd
rectifier operates at 50 Hz. What is the B. 5th
frequency of the lowest-order line C. 7th
current harmonic? D. 11th
A. 100 Hz Answer: B
B. 150 Hz
C. 200 Hz Solution:

harmonics are of order h = 6k ± 1. The

D. 250 Hz For 3-phase bridge rectifiers, dominant

Answer: B lowest is 5th harmonic.

Solution: Correct Answer: B
For full-wave rectifiers, only odd
harmonics of the form (2n+1) appear.

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5. For a single-phase controlled rectifier C. 90° lag
with firing angle α, how does α affect the D. No lag
harmonic phase angle?
A. Shifts fundamental only Answer: B
B. Shifts all harmonics equally Solution:
C. Shifts harmonics differently based on For full converter, displacement angle =
order firing angle (α). Hence, 60° lag.
D. No effect
Correct Answer: B
Answer: C
Solution:
Phase of nth harmonic shifts by nα in 8. Which harmonic is dominant in a 6-
controlled rectifiers. Hence, each harmonic pulse uncontrolled rectifier?
experiences different phase shift depending A. 3rd
on its order. B. 5th
C. 7th
Correct Answer: C D. Both B and C
Answer: D
6. In a three-phase controlled rectifier, if
6-pulse rectifier harmonics: h = 6k ± 1.
Solution:
α = 0°, which harmonics dominate?
A. Only triplen Lowest are 5th and 7th.
B. 5th and 7th
C. 3rd and 9th Correct Answer: D
D. 11th
Answer: B
9. A 6-pulse rectifier fed from 50 Hz AC
produces dominant harmonic at what
At α = 0, harmonics follow same rule h =
Solution:
frequency?
6k ± 1. Thus, 5th and 7th dominate. A. 150 Hz
B. 250 Hz
Correct Answer: B C. 300 Hz
D. 350 Hz
Answer: B
7. For a single-phase full converter
operating with α = 60°, what happens to Solution:
the displacement angle of the Fundamental = 50 Hz. 5th harmonic = 5 ×
fundamental current? 50 = 250 Hz.
A. 30° lag
B. 60° lag Correct Answer: B

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 Solution:
Fourier analysis shows harmonic
10. For an m-pulse rectifier, the order of
magnitude ∝ 1/n.
lowest line current harmonic is:
A. m Correct Answer: A
B. m ± 1
C. 2m ± 1
D. 6k ± 1 13. If a 3-phase bridge rectifier is fed by
Answer: B sinusoidal AC, what is the harmonic
distortion in ideal case?

Harmonics in m-pulse rectifier are h =

Solution: A. 0%

m ⋅ k ± 1. Lowest is m ± 1.
B. 10%
C. 30%
D. 100%
Correct Answer: B
Answer: C
Solution:
11. In a 12-pulse rectifier, the lowest line
Typical THD of 3-phase rectifier ≈ 30%.
current harmonic is:
A. 5th Correct Answer: C
B. 11th
C. 13th
D. 23rd 14. A single-phase semi-converter at α =
Answer: C 90° has fundamental displacement factor:
A. 1

For 12-pulse, h = 12k ± 1. Lowest is

Solution: B. 0.707
C. 0.5
11th, but it cancels; next is 13th. D. 0

Correct Answer: C Answer: B

Solution:
Displacement factor = cos(α/2). At α = 90°,
12. The RMS value of nth harmonic cos(45°) = 0.707.
current is proportional to:
A. 1/n Correct Answer: B
B. 1/n²
C. n
D. Independent of n 15. In uncontrolled rectifiers, harmonic
Answer: A phase is:
A. Zero

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B. Depends on α
C. Random
D. Depends on order 18. A 12-pulse rectifier connected to 50
Hz supply has its lowest harmonic at:
Answer: D A. 550 Hz
B. 600 Hz
Solution: C. 650 Hz
Phase of harmonic depends on order n. D. 700 Hz
Controlled rectifiers add α shift.
Answer: C
Correct Answer: D
Solution:
Lowest = 13th harmonic → 13 × 50 = 650
16. Which pulse number yields least Hz.
harmonic distortion? Correct Answer: C
A. 2
B. 6
C. 12
D. 24 19. For a single-phase rectifier, even
harmonics are:
Answer: D A. Present in current
B. Present in voltage
Solution: C. Absent in current
Higher pulse number reduces harmonics. D. Absent in both
24-pulse has least distortion.
Answer: A
Correct Answer: D
Solution:
Half-wave symmetry introduces even
17. For a 6-pulse rectifier, triplen harmonics.
harmonics are: Correct Answer: A
A. Present in line current
B. Absent in line current
C. Only present in voltage
D. Both present in current & voltage 20. If THD of rectifier current = 48%,
then distortion factor (DF) = ?
Answer: B A. 0.8
B. 0.9
Solution: C. 0.95
Triplen harmonics cancel in line current of D. 1
3-phase systems.
Answer: B
Correct Answer: B

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Solution: B. 11th & 13th
DF = 1 / √(1 + THD²). = 1 / √(1 + 0.48²) ≈ C. 17th & 19th
0.9. D. Triplen
Correct Answer: B Answer: A
Solution:
12-pulse = combination of two 6-pulse →
21. Which harmonic causes negative cancels 5th & 7th.
sequence torque in motors?
A. 3rd Correct Answer: A
B. 5th
C. 7th
D. 11th 24. Harmonic phase shift in nth
Answer: B harmonic for firing angle α is:
A. α
Solution: B. nα
5th harmonic creates negative sequence → C. α/n
opposite torque. D. Independent
Correct Answer: B Answer: B
Solution:
Phase shift of nth harmonic = n × α.
22. Which harmonic causes positive
sequence torque in motors? Correct Answer: B
A. 3rd
B. 5th
C. 7th 25. The harmonic spectrum of a 6-pulse
D. 11th converter shows largest amplitude at:
Answer: C A. 1st harmonic
B. 3rd harmonic
Solution: C. 5th harmonic
7th harmonic produces positive sequence D. 7th harmonic
torque.
Answer: C
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
5th harmonic is the most dominant in 6-
pulse converters.
23. Which harmonics are eliminated in
12-pulse rectifier? Correct Answer: C
A. 5th & 7th

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 f= =
1 1
Voltage and Current Commutated 2π LC 2π 100×10−6 ⋅40×10−6
= = 7961 Hz ≈ 7.96 kHz
Thyristor-Based Converters 1
2π 4×10−9

Correct Answer: C

1. A voltage-commutated chopper uses a

commutating capacitor of 20 μF and an 3. A voltage-commutated chopper
inductor of 200 μH. If the load current is operates with a commutating capacitor
40 A, what is the peak commutating of 10 μF charged to 400 V. What is the
voltage across the capacitor? energy stored in the capacitor?
A. 200 V A. 0.4 J
B. 400 V B. 0.8 J
C. 800 V C. 1 J
D. 1600 V D. 2 J
Answer: C Answer: B
Solution: Solution:
Vc = ⋅ LC Vc = ⋅ 1 1
I 40
C 20×10−6 E= CV2 = ⋅ 10 × 10−6 ⋅ (400)2
200 × 10−6 ⋅ 20 × 10−6 = 2 × 106 ⋅ 2 2
= 0.8 J
4 × 10−9 = 800 V
Correct Answer: B
Correct Answer: C

4. In a current commutated chopper, the

2. In a current-commutated chopper, the auxiliary thyristor conducts for a period
commutating inductor is 100 μH and the equal to:
commutating capacitor is 40 μF. What is A. Half of the resonant period
the resonant frequency of the LC circuit? B. Full resonant period
A. 2.5 kHz C. Quarter resonant period
B. 5 kHz D. Twice the resonant period
C. 7.96 kHz
D. 15.9 kHz Answer: A

Answer: C Solution:
The auxiliary thyristor conducts for half
Solution: the resonant period, as the capacitor
voltage reverses after half cycle, turning off
the main thyristor.

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Correct Answer: A
7. In a voltage commutated chopper,
which element stores the energy required
5. A thyristor in a voltage-commutated to commutate the thyristor?
chopper requires a turn-off time of 20 μs. A. Commutating Inductor
If the LC resonant circuit has a natural B. Commutating Capacitor
period of 100 μs, will the thyristor safely C. Load Inductor
commutate? D. Auxiliary Thyristor
A. Yes, margin exists
B. Yes, but critically safe Answer: B
C. No, not safe
D. Cannot be determined Solution:
The commutating capacitor provides
Answer: A reverse voltage across the main thyristor to
turn it off.
Solution:

period = 50 μs. Since 50μs > 20μs,

Available turn-off time = half LC resonant Correct Answer: B

commutation is safe.
8. Which commutation technique is more
Correct Answer: A
reliable at high load currents?
A. Voltage commutation
B. Current commutation
6. A current commutated chopper has L C. Both equally reliable
= 200 μH, C = 50 μF. What is the D. None
resonant period of oscillation?
A. 0.5 ms Answer: B
B. 0.63 ms
Solution:
C. 0.89 ms
At high load currents, current
D. 1.26 ms
commutation is more reliable as it forces
Answer: B reverse current through the thyristor.

Solution: Correct Answer: B

T = 2π LC =
2π 200 × 10−6 ⋅ 50 × 10−6
= 2π 1 × 10−8 = 6.28 × 10 s=
9. The main thyristor in a current
−4

0.628 ms
commutated chopper turns off when:
A. Voltage across it is forced to zero
B. Reverse current flows through it
Correct Answer: B C. Auxiliary thyristor turns on
D. Commutating capacitor discharges

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Answer: B Correct Answer: B
Solution:
In current commutation, reverse current is
forced through the main thyristor, reducing 12. In current commutation, the load
net current to zero, turning it off. current is:
A. Continuous always
Correct Answer: B B. Discontinuous always
C. May be continuous or discontinuous
D. Zero during commutation
10. In voltage commutated choppers, the Answer: C
auxiliary thyristor is used to:
A. Carry load current Solution:
B. Charge the commutating capacitor Load current depends on load inductance
C. Discharge the commutating capacitor and source. It may be continuous (large L)
across main thyristor or discontinuous (small L).
D. Protect main thyristor
Correct Answer: C
Answer: C
Solution:
Auxiliary thyristor discharges the capacitor 13. The auxiliary thyristor in current
across the main thyristor in opposite commutation is turned on to:
polarity → forced commutation. A. Provide reverse current to main thyristor
B. Provide reverse voltage across main
Correct Answer: C thyristor
C. Carry load current
D. Protect load
11. A current commutated chopper has Answer: A
C = 25 μF and L = 100 μH. Calculate
resonant frequency. Solution:
A. 2.5 kHz Auxiliary thyristor initiates LC resonance
B. 3.18 kHz that forces reverse current through main
C. 5 kHz thyristor.
D. 10 kHz
Correct Answer: A
Answer: B
Solution:
14. In voltage commutation, capacitor is
f= =
1 1 initially:
2π LC 2π 100×10−6 ⋅25×10−6
= = 3183 Hz
1
A. Charged to load voltage
2π⋅5×10−6 B. Discharged

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C. Precharged to source voltage Solution:
D. Short circuited Any of these conditions can cause failure
of current commutation.
Answer: C
Correct Answer: D
Solution:
In voltage commutation, capacitor is pre-
charged to source voltage with correct
polarity before auxiliary thyristor is fired. 17. Which is a limitation of voltage
commutated choppers?
Correct Answer: C A. Not suitable for high load currents
B. Requires large capacitor
C. Auxiliary circuit losses
15. A current commutated chopper with D. All of the above
C = 40 μF and L = 160 μH has resonant Answer: D
period = ?
A. 0.25 ms Solution:
B. 0.5 ms Voltage commutated choppers are not
C. 0.8 ms reliable at high current, need bulky
D. 1.0 ms capacitors, and waste power in auxiliary
circuits.
Answer: B
Correct Answer: D
Solution:

T = 2π LC =
2π 160 × 10−6 ⋅ 40 × 10−6 = 18. The peak resonant current in current
2π 6.4 × 10−9 = 2π ⋅ 8 × 10−5 =
commutated chopper is:
A. Vc C/L
5.03 × 10−4 s = 0.503 ms
B. Vc L/C
V
Correct Answer: B C. Z c
0
D. Both A and C
16. In current commutated choppers, Answer: D
commutation failure may occur due to:
A. Excessive load current Solution:
Resonant current = Ipeak = Vc =
C Vc
B. Insufficient reverse current
L Z0
,
where Z0 = L/C.
C. Large turn-off time
D. All of the above
Answer: D Correct Answer: D

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19. For safe commutation, the turn-off Solution:

Q = C ⋅ V = 50 × 10−6 ⋅ 300
time provided must be:

= 0.015 C
A. Less than device turn-off time
B. Equal to device turn-off time
C. Greater than device turn-off time Correct Answer: A
D. Unrelated
Answer: C
22. In current commutation, if resonant
Solution: current is less than load current:
Turn-off time margin must be greater than A. Commutation fails
device turn-off time to ensure safe B. Commutation succeeds
commutation. C. Auxiliary thyristor conducts longer
Correct Answer: C D. None
Answer: A

20. In current commutated choppers, the Solution:

commutating capacitor voltage at the Resonant current must exceed load current
instant auxiliary thyristor is triggered is: for successful commutation.
A. Zero Correct Answer: A
B. Equal to supply voltage
C. Negative supply voltage
D. Any arbitrary value
23. In voltage commutated chopper, if
Answer: B capacitor is not pre-charged properly:
A. Commutation fails
Solution: B. Current increases
The capacitor is precharged to supply C. Main thyristor damages
voltage before auxiliary thyristor firing. D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B Answer: D
Solution:
21. A voltage commutated chopper uses Improper capacitor charging →
C = 50 μF charged to 300 V. How much commutation failure → overcurrent →
charge is stored in the capacitor? device failure.
A. 0.015 C Correct Answer: D
B. 0.03 C
C. 0.05 C
D. 0.1 C
24. Which commutation technique is
Answer: A more suitable for high-frequency

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operation?
A. Voltage commutation
B. Current commutation
C. Both
D. None
Answer: A
Solution:
Voltage commutation is faster and more
suitable for high-frequency operation.
Correct Answer: A

25. In current commutated choppers,

auxiliary thyristor must:
A. Be turned off before main thyristor
B. Withstand full load current briefly
C. Conduct longer than load current
D. Never conduct load current
Answer: B
Solution:
Auxiliary thyristor must handle resonant
current (which includes load current
component).
Correct Answer: B

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 V1,peak = V1,peak = ≈ 191V
2Vdc 2⋅300
Single-phase and Three-phase π π
Voltage and Current Source
Correct Answer: C
Inverters

3. A single-phase full-bridge inverter

1. A single-phase full-bridge inverter is supplies a purely resistive load. If the
connected to a 200 V DC supply. What is switching frequency is doubled, what
the maximum RMS value of the happens to the fundamental RMS
fundamental component of output voltage?
voltage at the load (assuming square A. Increases
wave output)? B. Decreases
A. 90 V C. Remains the same
B. 127 V D. Becomes zero
C. 180 V
D. 200 V Answer: C

Answer: B Solution:
Fundamental RMS depends only on DC
Solution: supply and modulation technique, not
For a full-bridge inverter with square wave switching frequency.
output: Correct Answer: C
V1,rms = V1,rms = ≈ 127V
4Vdc 4⋅200
π 2 π⋅ 2

Correct Answer: B 4. In a single-phase voltage source

inverter (VSI), the presence of dead time
between switches leads to:
A. Increase in fundamental voltage
with Vdc = 300V, what is the peak
2. In a single-phase half-bridge inverter
B. Decrease in output voltage
C. No effect on output voltage
value of the output fundamental
D. Harmonic elimination
component?
A. 100 V Answer: B
B. 150 V
C. 191 V Solution:
D. 300 V Dead time prevents short circuit but causes
reduction in effective output voltage.
Answer: C Correct Answer: B
Solution:
For half-bridge inverter:

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5. For a three-phase VSI fed from 400 V C. 3
DC bus, the line-to-line RMS D. 4
fundamental output voltage in square-
wave mode is: Answer: C
A. 260 V Solution:
B. 311 V In 180° conduction, three devices (two
C. 370 V from one leg and one from another)
D. 400 V conduct at a time.
Answer: B Correct Answer: C

Solution:
Line RMS fundamental: 8. For a 120° conduction mode in a

VLL,rms = Vdc VLL,rms = ⋅

2 2 2⋅1.414
three-phase VSI, the number of switches
π 3.141 conducting at a time is:
400 ≈ 311V A. 1
B. 2
Correct Answer: B C. 3
D. 4

6. Which harmonic orders are absent in Answer: B

the line voltage of a three-phase square Solution:
wave VSI? In 120° conduction mode, only two
A. Triplen harmonics switches conduct at any instant.
B. Even harmonics only Correct Answer: B
C. All odd harmonics
D. All even harmonics
Answer: A 9. In a current source inverter (CSI), the
commutation circuit is required because:
Solution: A. Current is unidirectional
Triplen harmonics cancel out in three- B. Voltage is unidirectional
phase systems due to phase displacement. C. Switching devices cannot turn off
Correct Answer: A naturally
D. Harmonics must be eliminated

7. A three-phase VSI uses 180° Answer: C

conduction mode. How many devices Solution:
conduct at any instant? CSI uses thyristors which need forced
A. 1 commutation circuits.
B. 2 Correct Answer: C

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 Hence proportional to ma Vdc .
Correct Answer: C
10. A single-phase full-bridge VSI with
300 V DC bus supplies a resistive load.
The RMS value of load current is 10 A.
What is the real power delivered? 12. A three-phase VSI with SPWM has a
A. 1500 W DC link voltage of 600 V and modulation
B. 1800 W index 0.8. What is the RMS value of line
C. 2000 W fundamental voltage?
D. 2200 W A. 196 V
B. 270 V
Answer: B C. 327 V
D. 392 V
Solution:
Fundamental RMS output voltage: Answer: C
4 ⋅ 300
V1,rms = ≈ 180V
Solution:
π 2 Line RMS voltage:

VLL,rms = ma ⋅ = 0.8 ⋅ ≈ 327V

Vdc 600
2 1.414
Power:

P = V1,rms ⋅ Irms = 180 ⋅ 10 = 1800W Correct Answer: C

Correct Answer: B

13. The major disadvantage of a current

source inverter compared to VSI is:
modulation index ma < 1, the output
11. In sinusoidal PWM (SPWM) with
A. Requires large series inductance
fundamental RMS voltage is B. Poor harmonic performance
C. Needs complex commutation circuit
A. Vdc only
proportional to:
D. All of the above
B. ma only
C. ma Vdc
Answer: D

Vdc Solution:
ma
D.
CSI requires large inductance, complex
commutation, and has harmonic issues.
Answer: C
Correct Answer: D
Solution:
For SPWM:
Vdc
V 1 = ma ⋅
14. In a CSI, if the load is capacitive,
2
what is the main issue?
A. Voltage runaway

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B. Current runaway 17. A three-phase VSI feeds a balanced
C. Commutation failure resistive load. If one switch fails open,
D. Overvoltage at switches the load voltage becomes:
A. Balanced sinusoidal
Answer: C B. Distorted and unbalanced
Solution: C. Zero
Capacitive load can prevent current from D. Constant DC
reversing, leading to commutation failure. Answer: B
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
Open switch causes unbalanced and
15. In a three-phase 120° conduction VSI, distorted output.
the output line voltage waveform is: Correct Answer: B
A. Square wave
B. Quasi-square wave
C. Trapezoidal 18. In space vector PWM (SVPWM), the
D. Sinusoidal maximum line RMS fundamental output

A. 0.577 Vdc
voltage achievable is:
Answer: B
B. 0.612 Vdc
C. 0.707 Vdc
Solution:

D. 0.866 Vdc
120° conduction gives quasi-square wave
output.
Correct Answer: B
Answer: D
Solution:
16. Which modulation technique offers SVPWM extends linear range:
Vdc
better harmonic reduction in VSIs?
VLL,rms,max = = 0.866Vdc
3
A. Square wave
B. SPWM
C. 180° conduction
Correct Answer: D
D. 120° conduction
Answer: B
19. Which harmonics are dominant in a
Solution:
single-phase full-bridge square wave
SPWM reduces lower-order harmonics and
inverter?
improves quality.
A. Triplen
Correct Answer: B
B. Even
C. Odd non-triplen
D. All harmonics

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Answer: C 22. A three-phase inverter with 180°
conduction is operating. The load
Solution: neutral is not connected. What is the
Odd non-triplen harmonics dominate. effect?
Correct Answer: C A. Triplen harmonics appear in line voltage
B. Triplen harmonics cancel in line voltage
C. Harmonics increase
20. For a 3-phase CSI with constant DC D. No effect
current of 10 A, what is the RMS line
current delivered? Answer: B
A. 5.77 A Solution:
B. 8.16 A Triplen harmonics cancel in line voltages
C. 10 A without neutral connection.
D. 17.32 A Correct Answer: B
Answer: B

23. In a VSI, if ma > 1, the mode of

Solution:

6 2.449
ILL,rms = Idc = ⋅ 10 ≈ 8.16A
operation is called:
π 3.141
A. Linear modulation
B. Overmodulation
Correct Answer: B C. Saturation mode
D. Square wave mode
Answer: B
21. In a single-phase VSI using unipolar

When ma > 1, inverter enters

PWM, the effective switching frequency Solution:

A. fc
at the load is:

B. 2fc
overmodulation, waveform distortion

C. fm
occurs.

D. fc − fm
Correct Answer: B

Answer: B
24. In a CSI, which device combination
Solution: is most commonly used?
Unipolar PWM doubles effective switching A. MOSFETs + Diodes
frequency, reducing harmonics. B. IGBTs + Diodes
Correct Answer: B C. Thyristors + Diodes
D. BJTs only
Answer: C

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Solution:
CSI generally uses thyristors with diodes
for commutation.
Correct Answer: C

25. For a 3-phase VSI using SPWM, the

total harmonic distortion (THD)
decreases with:
A. Lower switching frequency
B. Higher switching frequency
C. Reducing modulation index
D. Square wave mode
Answer: B
Solution:
Higher carrier frequency pushes harmonics
higher, reducing THD.
Correct Answer: B

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 synchronous.
Sinusoidal Pulse Width
Correct Answer: D
Modulation (SPWM)

ma > 1, the inverter is operating in

3. In SPWM, if the modulation index
1. A single-phase inverter uses sinusoidal
PWM with a modulation index of 0.8
which mode?
and a DC input of 400 V. What is the
A. Linear modulation
RMS value of the fundamental output
B. Overmodulation
voltage?
C. Subharmonic modulation
A. 113 V
D. Zero modulation
B. 160 V
C. 226 V Answer: B
D. 320 V

When ma ≤ 1, inverter is in linear region.

Solution:
Answer: C
For ma > 1, system enters overmodulation
Solution:
mode.
For SPWM,
Correct Answer: B
V1,rms = V1,rms = =
ma Vdc 0.8⋅400
2 2 2 2
226 V
Vdc = 600 V and modulation index
4. A 3-phase inverter with SPWM has

ma = 0.9. What is the line-to-line RMS

Correct Answer: C

fundamental voltage?
2. If the frequency modulation ratio A. 184 V
mf = c = 21, where fc is carrier
f B. 277 V
f m
frequency and fm is reference frequency,
C. 390 V
D. 462 V
what type of SPWM is obtained?
A. Subharmonic PWM Answer: C
B. Symmetrical PWM Solution:
C. Asynchronous PWM Line RMS fundamental:
D. Synchronous PWM
VLL,rms = = = 381.8 V ≈
ma Vdc 0.9⋅600
2 2
390V
Answer: D

For synchronous PWM, mf must be an

Solution:

integer. Since mf = 21, the PWM is

Correct Answer: C

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5. If sinusoidal PWM uses a triangular C. Frequency ratio
carrier of 6 kHz and a reference D. Load resistance
frequency of 50 Hz, what is the
frequency modulation ratio? Answer: B
A. 60 Solution:
B. 100 Fundamental amplitude ∝ modulation
index ma =
C. 120 Vref
Vtri
.
D. 600
Correct Answer: B
Answer: C
Solution:
fc 6000
SPWM. If Vdc = 300V and ma = 1,
8. A single-phase inverter operates with
mf = = = 120
fm 50 what is the peak fundamental output
Correct Answer: C voltage?
A. 75 V
B. 106 V
C. 150 V
6. Which harmonic components are
D. 212 V
predominantly present in SPWM output
voltage? Answer: C
A. Triplen harmonics
B. Carrier harmonics and sidebands Solution:
C. Only even harmonics Peak fundamental:
ma Vdc 1 ⋅ 300
V1,peak = = = 150V
D. DC offset
Answer: B 2 2

Solution: Correct Answer: C

SPWM suppresses lower-order harmonics;
dominant harmonics are centered around
carrier frequency and its sidebands. 9. What is the maximum achievable
Correct Answer: B linear modulation index in sinusoidal
PWM?
A. 0.866
7. For sinusoidal PWM, the fundamental B. 1.0
output voltage is proportional to which C. 1.414
parameter? D. 2.0
A. Carrier frequency Answer: B
B. Reference amplitude

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Linear region extends up to ma = 1.
Solution: happens to harmonic distortion?
A. Increases
Beyond this, inverter enters B. Decreases
overmodulation. C. Remains unchanged
Correct Answer: B D. Becomes unpredictable
Answer: B

10. In 3-phase SPWM, which harmonics Solution:

are eliminated from line voltage output? Higher carrier frequency pushes harmonics
A. Triplen harmonics away, reducing distortion.
B. Even harmonics only Correct Answer: B
C. Carrier harmonics
D. None
13. A 3-phase SPWM inverter has Vdc =
500V, ma = 0.8. Find fundamental line
Answer: A
Solution: voltage RMS.
Triplen harmonics cancel out in 3-phase A. 283 V
line voltages. B. 400 V
Correct Answer: A C. 500 V
D. 707 V
Answer: A
11. If the modulation index is doubled in
SPWM, what happens to the Solution:
ma Vdc 0.8 ⋅ 500
fundamental output voltage (within
VLL,rms = = = 283V
2 2
linear region)?
A. Remains constant
B. Doubles
Correct Answer: A
C. Halves
D. Increases by √2
Answer: B 14. Which SPWM strategy gives better
harmonic performance?
Solution:
A. Bipolar PWM
Fundamental output is directly proportional
B. Unipolar PWM
to modulation index.
C. Overmodulation PWM
Correct Answer: B
D. Square-wave PWM
Answer: B

increases while keeping mf high, what

12. For SPWM, if carrier frequency
Solution:
Unipolar PWM has lower harmonic

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distortion than bipolar. A. Modulation index
Correct Answer: B B. Carrier frequency
C. Reference amplitude
D. Load resistance
15. In SPWM, the reference signal is: Answer: B
A. Square wave
B. Sawtooth wave Solution:
C. Sinusoidal wave Switching frequency = carrier frequency →
D. Pulse train higher switching losses.
Correct Answer: B
Answer: C
Solution:
SPWM uses sinusoidal reference compared 18. The ratio of amplitude of reference to
with triangular carrier. carrier is called:
Correct Answer: C A. Frequency modulation ratio
B. Amplitude modulation index
C. Switching factor
16. If Vdc = 200V, ma = 0.6, what is D. Distortion factor
the fundamental peak output voltage in Answer: B
single-phase SPWM?
A. 30 V Solution:
Aref
ma =
B. 60 V

Acarrier
C. 100 V
D. 150 V
Answer: B Correct Answer: B

Solution:
ma Vdc 0.6 ⋅ 200
V1,peak = = = 60V
19. In overmodulation SPWM, what
2 2
waveform does the output gradually
approach?
Oops correction: A. Pure sine wave
0.6 ⋅ 200
V1,peak = = 60V
B. Square wave
2
C. Triangular wave
D. Pulse train
Correct Answer: B
Answer: B
Solution:
17. Which factor determines the In overmodulation, inverter output
switching losses in SPWM inverters?

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approaches square wave mode. C. 400 V
Correct Answer: B D. 565 V
Answer: B
20. If carrier frequency is non-integer Solution:
ma Vdc 1 ⋅ 400
multiple of reference frequency, which
VLL,rms = = = 282V
2 2
issue occurs?
A. Synchronous PWM
B. Harmonic clustering
Correct Answer: B
C. Triplen elimination
D. DC offset generation
Answer: B 23. In unipolar SPWM, dominant

A. fm
harmonics are around:
Solution:
B. fc and multiples
Asynchronous modulation causes non-
C. fc ± 2fm
uniform harmonic spread (clustering).

D. Only odd multiples of fm

Correct Answer: B

Answer: C
21. In SPWM, THD (total harmonic
distortion) is reduced by: Solution:
A. Increasing carrier frequency In unipolar PWM, harmonics cluster at
B. Decreasing carrier frequency carrier frequency ± multiples of
C. Reducing modulation index 2×modulating frequency.
D. Using square-wave PWM Correct Answer: C

Answer: A
Solution: 24. Which SPWM strategy requires two
High carrier frequency pushes harmonics sinusoidal reference signals?
farther, reducing THD. A. Bipolar PWM
Correct Answer: A B. Unipolar PWM
C. Overmodulation PWM
D. Square wave PWM

22. A 3-phase SPWM inverter has Vdc =

400V, ma = 1. What is fundamental
Answer: B
Solution:
line RMS voltage?
Unipolar PWM compares two reference
A. 200 V
signals with triangular carrier.
B. 282 V
Correct Answer: B

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has Vdc = 310V, ma = 0.9. Find RMS
25. A single-phase inverter with SPWM

value of fundamental output voltage.

A. 100 V
B. 155 V
C. 175 V
D. 200 V
Answer: A
Solution:
ma Vdc 0.9 ⋅ 310
V1,rms = = = 98.6V
2 2 2 2
Oops correction:
0.9 ⋅ 310
V1,rms = = 98.6V ≈ 100V
2 2
Correct Answer: A

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Power Factor and Distortion
Factor of AC to DC Converters 3. A single-phase full-wave rectifier has
an input displacement angle of 30°. If the
distortion factor is 0.9, calculate the
1. A single-phase full-wave rectifier overall power factor.
operates from a 230 V, 50 Hz AC source. A. 0.78
If the input current is non-sinusoidal but B. 0.85
RMS value is 10 A and the fundamental C. 0.90
component is 8 A, what is the distortion D. 0.95
factor (DF)? Answer: A
A. 0.64
B. 0.80 Solution:

PF = DF ⋅ cosϕ = 0.9 × cos30∘

C. 0.95

= 0.9 × 0.866 = 0.779

D. 1.00
Answer: B
Correct Answer: A
Solution:
I1 8
DF = = = 0.8
Irms 10
4. For a single-phase rectifier, if the
displacement factor is 0.87 and the
Correct Answer: B distortion factor is 0.92, what is the
power factor?
A. 0.70
2. A single-phase half-wave rectifier B. 0.80
draws a fundamental component of 5 A C. 0.85
with RMS input current of 6 A. D. 0.90
Calculate the distortion factor. Answer: B
A. 0.70
B. 0.83 Solution:

PF = DF ⋅ cosϕ = 0.92 × 0.87

C. 0.95
= 0.8004 ≈ 0.80
D. 1.00
Answer: B
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
I1 5
DF = = = 0.833
Irms 6
5. A 6-pulse converter is connected to a
400 V, 50 Hz source. If the input
Correct Answer: B displacement angle is 15° and the

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distortion factor is 0.96, determine the C. 0.97
input power factor. D. 0.99
A. 0.85
B. 0.92 Answer: B
C. 0.93 Solution:

PF = 0.98 × 0.97 = 0.9506

D. 0.96
Answer: C
Correct Answer: B
Solution:

PF = 0.96 × cos15∘ = 0.96 × 0.966

= 0.927 8. For a single-phase rectifier, if the total
harmonic distortion (THD) of the
Correct Answer: C current is 40%, calculate the distortion
factor.
A. 0.60
6. The RMS value of input current of a B. 0.70
rectifier is 12 A, while the fundamental C. 0.80
component is 10 A. If the displacement D. 0.90
factor is 0.95, what is the overall power
factor? Answer: D
A. 0.70 Solution:
1 1
B. 0.79
C. 0.87 DF = =
1 + THD2 1 + 0.42
1
D. 0.95
= = 0.928
1.16
Answer: B
Solution:
Correct Answer: D
DF = = 0.833 PF = 0.833 ×
10
12
0.95 = 0.791
9. A single-phase full-wave controlled
Correct Answer: B rectifier has input RMS current = 15 A,
fundamental current = 12 A,
displacement factor = 0.9. Calculate PF.
7. A 12-pulse rectifier has a displacement A. 0.70
factor of 0.98 and distortion factor of B. 0.80
0.97. Calculate its power factor. C. 0.90
A. 0.93 D. 0.95
B. 0.95
Answer: A

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Solution: A. Lower pulse number increases harmonic

DF = = 0.8 PF = 0.8 × 0.9 = 0.72

12
content
15 B. Higher voltage harmonics
C. More displacement factor
Correct Answer: A D. None
Answer: A
10. A 6-pulse rectifier draws an input Solution:
current with THD = 31%. Calculate the Higher pulse number reduces harmonics,
distortion factor. hence THD is lower.
A. 0.70 Correct Answer: A
B. 0.80
C. 0.90
D. 0.95
13. For a single-phase half-wave rectifier,
Answer: D what is the typical displacement factor?
A. 0.5
Solution: B. 0.707
1 1
DF = = = 0.956
C. 0.866

1 + 0.312 1.096
D. 1.0
Answer: C
Correct Answer: D
Solution:
Fundamental current lags by 30° →
11. In a converter, the distortion factor is displacement factor = cos(30°) = 0.866.
unity. What does this imply? Correct Answer: C
A. No harmonics present
B. Pure sinusoidal current
C. Both A and B 14. A converter has PF = 0.8 and
D. None of the above displacement factor = 0.9. Find DF.
A. 0.70
Answer: C
B. 0.80
C. 0.85
If DF = 1, I1 = Irms , meaning no harmonic
Solution:
D. 0.90
content → purely sinusoidal current. Answer: C
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
PF 0.8
DF = = = 0.889
cosϕ 0.9
12. A 3-pulse converter has higher THD
compared to a 6-pulse converter because:

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Correct Answer: C Answer: B
Solution:
For p-pulse converters: lowest harmonics =
15. If a rectifier operates at α = 0° (pure (p ± 1). For p = 6 → 5th, 7th.
diode mode), what is the displacement Correct Answer: B
factor?
A. 0.707
B. 0.866
C. 1.0 18. For a 12-pulse rectifier, the lowest
D. 0.9 harmonic order is:
A. 11th, 13th
Answer: C B. 5th, 7th
C. 17th, 19th
Solution: D. None
At α = 0°, current is in phase with voltage,
hence cosφ = 1. Answer: A
Correct Answer: C
Solution:
For p = 12, lowest harmonics = (12 ± 1) =
11th, 13th.
16. In controlled rectifiers, increasing Correct Answer: A
the firing angle (α):
A. Improves PF
B. Worsens PF
C. Does not affect PF 19. In a single-phase rectifier, the PF is
D. Reduces distortion improved by:
A. Increasing THD
Answer: B B. Decreasing α
C. Increasing α
Solution: D. Adding more harmonics
Higher α increases phase shift → lowers
displacement factor → lowers PF. Answer: B
Correct Answer: B
Solution:
Smaller firing angle reduces displacement
→ better PF.
17. For a 6-pulse rectifier, the lowest Correct Answer: B
order harmonics present in the current
are:
A. 3rd, 5th
B. 5th, 7th 20. A rectifier input current has THD =
C. 7th, 9th 100%. Find DF.
D. None A. 0.5
B. 0.707

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 16
DF = = 0.8
20
C. 0.866
D. 1.0
Answer: B Correct Answer: B

Solution:
1 1 1
DF = = =
23. A rectifier has DF = 0.85 and cosφ =
1 + THD2 1+1 2 0.9. Find PF.
= 0.707 A. 0.75
B. 0.85
Correct Answer: B C. 0.90
D. 0.95
Answer: A
21. A 6-pulse converter has PF = 0.85. If
displacement factor = 0.95, find DF. Solution:

PF = DF ⋅ cosφ = 0.85 × 0.9

A. 0.85

= 0.765
B. 0.90
C. 0.89
D. 0.92 Correct Answer: A
Answer: C
Solution: 24. Which of the following improves
PF 0.85
DF = = = 0.894
distortion factor of rectifiers?
cosϕ 0.95 A. Increasing α
B. Adding filters
Correct Answer: C C. Reducing load
D. None
Answer: B
22. A single-phase rectifier has RMS
current 20 A and fundamental current Solution:
16 A. Find DF. Filters reduce harmonics → improves DF.
A. 0.70 Correct Answer: B
B. 0.80
C. 0.85
D. 0.90 25. Why is the PF of rectifiers usually
Answer: B less than unity?
A. Due to harmonics
Solution: B. Due to phase displacement

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C. Both A and B
D. None
Answer: C
Solution:
PF = DF × cosφ. Both harmonics (DF < 1)
and displacement (cosφ < 1) reduce PF.
Correct Answer: C

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