04-08-2025

2001CMD303035250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) Consider East as +ve x-axis, North as +ve y-axis. A girl walks 10 m East first time then 10 m in a
direction 30° West of North for the 2nd time & then third time in unknown direction and magnitude,
so as to return to her initial position. What is her third displacement vector :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) she cannot return

2) If then calculate the value of .

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) The angles which vector makes with x, y and z axis respectively are:-

(1) 60°, 60°, 60°

(2) 45°, 45°, 45°
(3) 60°, 60°, 45°
(4) 45°, 45°, 60°

4) If resultant of and is perpendicular to then angle between and will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) Figure shows three vectors , where R is the midpoint of PQ. Then which of the
following relations is correct :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) Given and R = 3 where , then angle between and

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) What is the angle between and the resultant of and

(1) 0°

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) If a car covers 2/5th of the total distance with v1 speed and 3/5th distance with v2 then the average
speed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The engine of a train passes an electric pole with a velocity 'u' and the last compartment of the
train crosses the same pole with a velocity 'v'. Then the velocity with which the mid-point of the train
passes the pole is-

(1) u
(2) v

(3)

(4)

10) A person travels along a straight road for the first (t/3) time with a speed (V1) and for next (2t/3)
time with speed (V2). Then the average speed V is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A particle moves towards east with velocity 5 m/s. After 10 seconds its direction changes
towards north with same velocity. The average acceleration of the particle is :

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Statement-1 : In rectilinear motion if acceleration and velocity have opposite sign, speed of
particle decreases.
Statement-2 : If acceleration of a particle is constant, its speed must increase.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false

13) A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according
to v(x) = bx–2n
where b and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the particle as a
function of x, is given by :

(1) –2nb2x–4n–1
(2) –2b2x–2n+1
(3) –2nb2e–4n+1
(4) –2nb2x–2n–1

14) A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by s = t3 –
6t2 + 3t + 4 meters. The velocity when the acceleration is zero is :-

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) –12 ms–1
(3) 42 ms–1
(4) –9 ms–1

15) The relation between time t and distance x is t = ax2 + bx. Where a and b are constant. The
acceleration is :

(1) –2abv2
(2) 2bv3
(3) –2av3
(4) 2av2

16) A small block slides without friction down an inclined plane starting from rest. Let Sn be the

distance travelled from time t = n – 1 to t = n. Then is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A particle located at x = 0 at time t = 0, starts moving along the positive x-direction with a
velocity 'v' that varies as
v = α . the displacement of the particle varies with time as:-

(1) t2
(2) t
(3) t1/2
(4) t3

18) An object, moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is decelerated at a rate given by

= –2.5
where v is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object, to come to rest, would be :-
(1) 4 s
(2) 8 s
(3) 1 s
(4) 2 s

19) A particle is projected upwards. The times corresponding to height h while ascending and while
descending are t1 and t2 respectively. The velocity of projection will be

(1) gt1

(2)

(3) g(t1 + t2)

(4)

20) A balloon is going upwards with velocity 12 m/sec. It releases a packet when it is at a height of
65 m from the ground. How much time the packet will take to reach the ground (g = 10 m/sec2)

(1) 5 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 7 sec
(4) 8 sec

21) A particle is dropped vertically from rest from a height. The time taken by it to fall through
successive distances of 1 m each will then be

(1) All equal, being equal to second

(2) In the ratio of the square roots of the integers 1, 2, 3.....
In the ratio of the difference in the square roots of the integers
(3)
i.e.
In the ratio of the reciprocal of the square roots of the integers
(4)
i.e.,.

22) Water drop fall at regular intervals from a tap 5 m above the ground. The third drop is leaving
the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground is the second drop
at that instant ?

(1) 1.25 m
(2) 2.50 m
(3) 3.75 m
(4) 4.00 m

23) Velocity v/s time graph of a particle starting from origin is given below. Choose the correct
option for corresponding acceleration and displacement graphs :-

I. II.

III. IV.

(1) II, I
(2) III, I
(3) II, IV
(4) III, IV

24) Find out average speed of particle in 4s in given graph

(1) 6 m/s
(2) 7 m/s
(3) 8 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

25)

The acceleration will be positive in :-

(1) (I) and (III)
(2) (IV)
(3) (II) and (IV)
(4) None of these

26) A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time, after which it decelerates at a
constant rate β and comes to rest. If the total time elapsed is t, then the maximum velocity acquired
by the car is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) The velocity (v) of a particle moving along x-axis varies with its position x as shown in figure. The

acceleration (a) of particle varies with position (x) as

(1) a2 = x + 3
(2) a = 2x2 + 4
(3) 2a = 3x + 5
(4) a = 4x – 8

28) The initial speed of a projectile fired from ground is u. At the highest point during its motion, the

speed of projectile is . The time of flight of the projectile is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Two particles are projected from the same point with the same speed u such that they have the
same range R, but different maximum heights h1 and h2. Which of the following is correct ?

2
(1) R = 2 h1h2
2
(2) R = 16 h1h2
2
(3) R = 4 h1h2
2
(4) R = h1h2

30) The trajectories of the motion of three particles A, B and C are shown in figure. Match the

entries of column I with the entries of column II.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Time of flight is least for (P) A

(B) Vertical component of the velocity is greatest for (Q) B

(C) Horizontal component of the velocity is greatest for (R) C

(D) Launch speed is least for (S) same for all

(1) A→P, B→R, C→S, D→S
(2) A→S, B→P, C→Q, D→R
(3) A→S, B→S, C→P, D→R
(4) A→S, B→S, C→R, D→P

31) A particle is projected with a velocity u making an angle θ with the horizontal at any instant, its
velocity v is at right angle to its initial velocity u, then v is :-

(1) u cosθ
(2) u tanθ
(3) u cotθ
(4) u secθ
32) The velocity of a projectile at the initial point A is m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at point Bis :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) A ball is thrown from the ground to clear a wall 3 m high at a distance of 6 m and falls 18 m
away from the wall, the angle of projection of ball is:-

(1)
tan–1

(2)
tan–1

(3)
tan–1 ​

(4)
tan–1

34) Trajectory of a particle in a projectile motion is given by:

Here, x and y are in metres. For this projectile motion, match the entries of column I with the entries
of column II.
(Given g = 10m/s2)

Column-I Column-II

(A) Angle of projection (P) 20 m

(B) Angle of velocity with horizontal after 4s (Q) 80m

(C) Maximum height (R) 45°

(D) Horizontal range (S)

(1) A-R, B-R, C-P, D-Q

(2) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(3) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-P
(4) A-S, B-S, C-P, D-Q

35) A shell is fired vertically upwards with a velocity v1 from the deck of a ship travelling at a speed
of v2. A person on the shore observes the motion of the shell as parabola. Its horizontal range is
given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) An aeroplane is flying horizontal with a velocity of 600 km/hr and at a height of 1960 m. When it
is vertically above a point A on the ground, a bomb is released from it. the bomb strikes the ground
at point B. The distance AB is.

(1) 1200 m
(2) 0.33 km
(3) 3.33 km
(4) 33 km

37) A particle is projected horizontally with a speed of , from some height at t = 0. At what

time will its velocity make 30° angle with the initial velocity :

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec
(4) 2/3 sec

38) A ball rolls off the top of stair-way with a horizontal velocity of magnitude 1.8 ms–1. The steps are
0.20 m high and 0.20 m wide. Which step will the ball hit first?

(1) First
(2) Second
(3) Third
(4) Fourth

39) A particle is projected from tower of height 100 m with speed 50 m/s at angle 53 degree from
horizontal as shown in figure. Find time taken by it to reach on ground.
(1) 2 sec
(2) 6 sec
(3) 8 sec
(4) 10 sec

40) A particle starts with initial speed u and retardation a to come to rest in time T. The time taken
to cover first half of the total path travelled is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) A projectile is given an initial velocity of , where is along the ground and is along
the vertical. If , the equation of its trajectory is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

42)

A bus stats moving with acceleration 2 ms–2. A cyclist 96 m behind the bus starts simultaneously
towards the bus at 20 m/s. After what time will he be able to overtake the bus?

(1) 4 s
(2) 8 s
(3) 12 s
(4) 16 s
43) A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h–1 fires a bullet at a thief’s car
speeding away in the same direction with a speed of 192 km h–1. If the muzzle speed of the bullet is
150 ms–1, with what speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car (as, seen by thief). According to thief in
the car ?

(1) 105 m/s

(2) 100 m/s
(3) 110 m/s
(4) 90 m/s

44) A coin is released inside a lift at a height of 2m from the floor of the lift. The height of the lift is
10m. The lift is moving with an acceleration of 9 m/s2 downwards. The time after which the coin will
strike with the lift is (g=10m/s2)

(1) 4s
(2) 2s

(3)

(4)

45) The (x, y, z) co-ordinates of two points A and B are given respectively as (0, 1, –2) and (–1, 3, 1).
The unit vector along the displacement vector A to B is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) In IUPAC nomenclature of compounds

(I) (II)

(III) (IV)
(V) –C ≡ N
The priority order of groups is :-

(1) II > I > III > IV > V

(2) II > III > I > V > IV
(3) II > III > V > I > IV
(4) II > III > I > IV > V

2) The correct IUPAC name of compound is.

(1) Methyl 2-ethylpropanoate

(2) Methyl butane-2-carboxylate
(3) Methyl 2-methylbutanoate
(4) Methoxypentanone

3) The IUPAC name of the compound is.

(1) N-methyl-N-ethyl pent-4-enamide

(2) N-ethyl-N-methyl pent-4-enamide
(3) N-ethyl-N-methyl pent-5-enamide
(4) N-methyl-N-ethyl but-4-enamide

4) has correct IUPAC name :

(1) Ethanoic-2-bromo propanoic anhydride

(2) 2-Bromo propanoic ethanoic anhydride
(3) Ethanoic propanoic-2-bromo anhydride
(4) Propanoic ethanoic anhydride [2-bromo]

5) The IUPAC name of the compound is :-

(1) 4-Methylcyclopent-1-en-2-ol
(2) 2-Methylcyclopent-4-en-1-ol
(3) 3-Methylcylopent-1-en-2-ol
(4) 5-Methylcyclopent-2-en-1-ol
6) has the IUPAC name:

(1) Ethyl–2keto cyclopentane carboxylate

(2) 2–Cyclopentanone–1–carbethoxy
(3) 2–Ethylcarbonate cyclopentanone
(4) 1–Keto–2–carbethoxy cyclopentanone

7) Statement-I : Parent chain always contain maximum number of carbon atom during IUPAC
naming.

Statement-II : has 3 carbon in main chain.

(1) Statement I is correct but II is wrong.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but II is correct
(3) Statement I and II both are correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

8) The IUPAC name of given compound is :-

(1) 2-ethyl-3, 3-dimethylcyclohexene

(2) 1-ethyl-2, 2- dimethylcyclohexene
(3) 1-ethyl-6, 6-dimethylcyclohexene
(4) 6, 6-dimethyl-1-ethylcyclohexene

9) IUPAC name of the given compound is :

(1) 5-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanecarboxylicacid
(2) 2-carboxy-5-formylecyclohexane
(3) 4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexanecarboxylicacid
(4) 4-carboxy-3-oxocyclohexanal

10) Correct IUPAC name of is :-

(1) 3-bromo-3 methyl cyclopent-1-ene-4-one
(2) 5-bromo-5 methyl cyclopent-3-ene-1-one
(3) 1-bromo-1 methyl cyclopent-4-ene-2-one
(4) 2-bromo-2 methyl -3-cyclopentenone

11) Match the columns

Column-II (type of
Column-I (organic compound)
isomerism)

Functional
(A) (p)
group isomerism
&

(B) (q) Chain isomerism

&

(C) (r) Metamerism

&

(D) CH3–O–C3H7 & C2H5–O–C2H5 (s) Position isomerism

(1) A–p; B–r; C–q; D–s
(2) A–q; B–s; C–p; D–r
(3) A–r; B–q; C–p; D–s
(4) A–p; B–q; C–s; D–r

12) The IUPAC name of is :

(1) N-Cyclohexyl benzamide

(2) N-Phenyl-N-cyclohexylmethanamide
(3) N-Phenylcyclohexane carboxamide
(4) N-Cyclohexyl-N-phenylmethylamide

13) The IUPAC name of the compound

(1) 1-Butyl cyclopropane

(2) 1-Cyclopropyl butane
(3) 1-Epoxy butane
(4) 1-Cyclopropyl pentane

14) The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(1) 4–Bromo–3–cyanophenol
(2) 2–Bromo–5–hydroxybenzonitrile
(3) 2–Cyano–4–hydroxybromobenzene
(4) 6–Bromo–3–hydroxybenzonitrile

15) Correct match is

Column-I Column-II
Functional Group Suffix
(A) –CHO (P) oic acid
(B) –COOH (Q) al
(C) OH (R) Oyl chloride
(D) –COCl (S) ol
(1) A → Q, B → S, C → P, D → R
(2) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R
(3) A → S, B → P, C → Q, D → R
(4) A → S, B → Q, C → P, D → R

16) IUPAC name of given compound is.

CH3CH2NHCHO

(1) N-ethylmethanamide
(2) N-ethylmethanol
(3) N-formylethanamine
(4) None of these

17) and are

(1) Geometrical isomers

(2) Enantiomers
(3) Identical
(4) Position isomers
18) Which of the following is not a pair of functional isomers.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) CH3–CH2–CH2–C≡N;
(A) (B)
Relation between (A) and (B) is :-

(1) Chain isomer

(2) Positional isomer
(3) Identical
(4) Homologous

20) No. of all possible structural isomers for C3H6Cl2 is: [excluding stereoisomers]

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

21) Minimum number of carbon in an alkane to show positional isomerism?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

22) Which of the following is a pair of metamers :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

23) The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C3H9N is :-

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

24) Which of the following statement is correct if the intermolecular force in liquids A, B and C are
in the order A < B < C?

(1) B evaporates more readily than A

(2) B evaporates less readily than C
(3) A evaporates more readily than C
(4) A and B evaporate at the same rate

25)

Which of the following solution shows positive deviation from Raoult's law :-

(1) CHCl3 + Acetone

(2) Acetone + C2H5OH
(3) Phenol + Aniline
(4) H2O + HNO3

26)

Mole fraction of the benzene in the vapour phase is in equilibrium with a solution of benzene (P° =
200 Torr) and toluene (P° = 150 Torr) having 5 moles of each, is –

(1) 0·57
(2) 0·25
(3) 0·60
(4) 0·40

27) Vapour pressure of pure A- = 100 mmHg

Vapour pressure of pure B- = 150 mmHg
A solution containing 2 moles A and 3 moles B will have total vapour pressure, approximately :-

(1) 130 mm Hg
(2) 135 mm Hg
(3) 140 mm Hg
(4) 145 mm Hg

28) Vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon

(1) Temperature
(2) Surface area
(3) Number of moles
(4) None

29) What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution, that has a density 1.84 gm/cc at 35oC and contains 98%
by weight of solute?

(1) 18.4 M
(2) 18 M
(3) 4.18 M
(4) 8.14 M

30) The mixture that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is

(1) Heptane + octane

(2) Water + nitric acid
(3) Ethanol + water
(4) Acetone + carbon disulphide

31) Assertion : Acetone and aniline shows negative deviation from Raoult's law.
Reason : H-bonding between acetone and aniline is stronger than that between acetone & acetone
and aniline-aniline

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

32) Consider the following vapour pressure-composition graph, SP is equal to :-

(1) PQ + RS
(2) QR + RS
(3) SR + SQ
(4) PQ + QR
33) Calculate the mass of urea (NH2CONH2) required to prepare 2.06 kg of 0.5 molal aqueous
solution?

(1) 90 g
(2) 120 g
(3) 60 g
(4) 45 g

34) Assertion : One molar aqueous solution has generally higher concentration than one molal
aqueous solution.
Reason : One molar solution contains less solvent than one molal aqueous solution.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.

35) The normality of 2 molar H3PO2 solution will be :-

(1) 2 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 3 N

36) Calculate volume strength of H2O2 in 4L solution which yields 100 L of O2 at NTP :-

(1) 100 V H2O2

(2) 20 V H2O2
(3) 25 V H2O2
(4) 4V H2O2

37) 20 ml of 0.5 N HCl and 35 ml of 0.1 N NaOH are mixed. The resulting solution will :-

(1) be neutral
(2) be basic
(3) turn phenolphthalein solution pink
(4) be acidic

38) In mixture showing positive deviation from Raoult's law, the volume of the mixture is :-

(1) Slightly more than the total volume of the components.

(2) Slightly less than the total volume of the components.
(3) Equal to the total volume of the components.
(4) None of these

39) The boiling point of and are 80°C, 65°C, 184°C and 212°C
respectively. Which will show highest vapour pressure at room temperature :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) How many grams of H2O required to dissolve 4 gm NaOH to make 0.2 molal aqueous solution.

(1) 150 gm
(2) 500 gm
(3) 400 gm
(4) 200 gm

41) At a given temperature, the vapour pressure of a solution of two volatile liquids A and B is given
by the equation
PS = 120 – 80XB (XB = mole fraction of B)
Vapour pressure of pure A and B at the same temperature are respectively :-

(1) 120, 80
(2) 120, 200
(3) 120, 40
(4) 80, 40

42) Two liquid A and B have vapour pressure in the ratio at a certain
temperature. If the ratio of mole fractions of A to B in the vapour phase is 4 : 3, then the mole
fraction of B in the solution at the same temperature is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) How much methanol should be added to water, to make 150 mL. 2 M solution of CH3OH ?

(1) 9.6 gram

(2) 2.4 gram
(3) 9.6 × 103 gram
(4) 4.3 × 102 gram

44) Two liquids having vapour pressures and in pure state in the ratio of 2 : 1 are mixed in a
molar ratio of 1 : 2. The ratio of their moles in the vapour state can be:
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 2 : 3

45) Assertion (A) :- The solution of ethanol and water shows positive deviation from Rault's law.
Reason (R) :- Intermolecular interactions between C2H5OH and H2O are stronger than H2O–H2O
interactions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

BIOLOGY

1) Sexual reproduction in fungi may occur by means of :-

(1) Sporangiospore, Oospore and Ascospore

(2) Zoospore, Oospore and Ascospore
(3) Sporangiospore, Ascospore and basidiospore
(4) Oospore, Ascospore and basidiospore

2) Which of the following is incorrect about blue green algae?

(1) They may be unicellular, colonial or filamentous

(2) Their colonies are generally surrounded with membranous sheath
(3) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies
(4) Some of the members can fix atmospheric nitrogen

3) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is a disease caused by prions in :-

(1) Cow
(2) Sheep
(3) Potato
(4) Monkey

4) In the sexual cycle of fungi, when the event of meiosis takes place ?

(1) Before plasmogamy

(2) After karyogamy
(3) Before karyogamy
(4) Just after plasmogamy

5) Reproduce only by asexual spores conidia in :-

(1) Albugo
(2) Alternaria
(3) Agaricus
(4) Aspergillus

6) Which of the following is/are true about members of class basidiomycetes?

(1) Sex organs are absent

(2) Vegetative reproduction by fragmentation is most common
(3) Mycelium is branched and septate
(4) All the above

7) Indestructible cell wall found in which of the following protist :-

(1) Dinoflagellates
(2) Chrysophytes
(3) Slime moulds
(4) Euglenoids

8)

Which of followings have Protein rich layer called pellicle which makes their body flexible instead of
cell wall?

(1) Slime moulds

(2) Desmids
(3) Euglena
(4) All

9) Which of the following are responsible for the production of methane in the gut of several
ruminant animals?

(1) Halophiles
(2) Acidophiles
(3) [Link]
(4) Methanogens

10)

Select the correct matching:

A. Fungi depend on dead substrate are called saprophytic
B. Fungi depend on living plants and animals are called parasite
C. Fungi as symbiont with algae called lichens
D. Fungi as symbiont with root of higher plant called mycorrhazia

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) All of these

11) Read the following statements w.r.t. fungi :

(i) Their body consist of long, slender thread like structures called hyphae
(ii) The network of hyphae is called mycelium
(iii) Hyphae may be continuous tubes filled with multinucleate cytoplasm, these hyphae are
coenocytic
(iv) In many cases hyphae have septate or cross walls
(v) The cell wall of fungi are composed by chitin and polysaccharides.
How many of the above statements are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

12) Porine protein is found in :-

(1) Cell wall of mycoplasma

(2) Cell wall of Gram –ve bacteria
(3) Ribosome of bacteria
(4) Cell wall of Gram +ve the bacteria

13) In basidiomycetes karyogamy and meiosis takes place in the basidium producing :-

(1) Four basidiospores, endogenously

(2) Four basidiospores, exogenously
(3) Eight basidiospores, endogenously
(4) Eight basidiospores, exogenously

14) Consider the following statements:

(a) Body as a soap box.
(b) Walls possess a large amount of silica.
(c) Two transversely and longitudinally arranged flagella are present.
(d) They float passively.
How many are correct for chrysophytes.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 1

15) Study the following table carefully and give the correct answer from the options :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

 A Ulva Sea lettuce Rhodophyceae

B Ectocarpus Brown alga Phaeophyceae

C Gelidium Agar-Agar Chlorophyceae

Red rot
D Colletotrichum Deuteromycetes
disease

(1) A & B - incorrect, C & D correct

(2) A & D - incorrect, B & C correct
(3) B & and D - correct, C & A - incorrect
(4) A, B, C - correct, only D is incorrect
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Most of the members of deuteromycetes

(1) Have septate and unbranched mycelium

(2) Reproduce sexually by conidia
(3) Are very simple in structure
(4) Are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling

17) Which of the following is extensively used in biochemical and genetic work?

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Neurospora
(3) Claviceps
(4) Agaricus

18) Which of the following groups of diseases is caused by viruses ?

(1) AIDS, Smallpox, Herpes

(2) Cholera, Tetanus, Smallpox
(3) Cholera, Tetanus, T.B
(4) AIDS, Diabetes, Herpes

19) A new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses and caused potato spindle tuber disease
belongs to group

(1) Viruses
(2) Prions
(3) Bacteria
(4) Viroids

20) Assertion :- Few dinoflagellates like Gonyaulax are responsible for red appearance of sea (Red
tide).
Reason :- Various dinoflagellates release light after oxidation of leuciferin.

Both Statement-I & Statement-II are True & the Statement-II is a correct explanation of the
(1)
Statement-I.
Both Statement-I & Statement-II are True but Statement-II is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Statement-I
(3) Statement-I is True but the Statement-II is False.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are false.

21) Statement I : Slime moulds under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation called
plasmodium.
Statement II : Slime moulds during unfavourable condition, the plasmodium differentiates and
forms bodies bearing spores at their tips.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

22) Assertion (A) :- Boundaries of kingdom-protista are not well-defined.

Reason (R) :- Kingdom-protista included plants like, animals-like and fungi-like organisms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

23) Assertion : Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh habitats.

Reason : Archaebacteria survive in extreme conditions due to the presence of peptidoglycan in their
cell wall.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

24) Match the column and choose wrongly matched.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

25) Mark True (T) or False (F) for the statements given below.
I. Only the sexual phases of imperfect fungi are known.
II. The mycelium is septate and branched in Deuteromycetes.
III. Members of Deuteromycetes help in mineral cycling.

I II III

(1) T T F

(2) F T T

(3) F F T

(4) T F F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Which of the following is false about ascomycetes?

(1) Mode of nutrition saprophytic, decomposer, coprophilous and parasitic

(2) Includes unicellular and multicellular forms
(3) Mycelium is coenocytic
(4) Aspergillus, claviceps, neurospora are important members of ascomycetes

27) Which of the following is correct about slime mould?

A. Its thalloid body, plasmodium grow several feet engulfing organic matter
B. During unfavourable conditions plasmodium differentiates and produce fruiting bodies
C. Spores possess no true cell wall
D. Spores are dispersed by air current
E. Being extremely resistant, spores survive for many years
Options :

(1) A,B,D,E
(2) A,B,C
(3) A,B,C,D
(4) B,C,D

28) Assertion :- Five Kingdom system of classification did not differentiate between the
heterotrophic group, fungi and the autotrophic green plants. Through they showed a characteristic
difference in their cell wall composition.
Reason :- Fungal cell wall contains chitin, while green plants have a cellulosic cell wall.

Both Statement-I & Statement-II are True & the Statement-II is a correct explanation of the
(1)
Statement-I.
 Both Statement-I & Statement-II are True but Statement-II is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Statement-I
(3) Statement-I is True but the Statement-II is False.
(4) Statement-I false & Statement-II are correct.

29) Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. Which one of the following options contains
correct labels for A, B, C and D ?

(1) A-Tail fibres, B-Head, C-Sheath, D-Collar

(2) A-Sheath, B-Collar, C-Head, D-Tail fibres
(3) A-Head, B-Sheath, C-Collar, D-Tail fibres
(4) A-Collar, B-Tail fibres, C-Head, D-Sheath

30) Study the given figure for structure of TMV (Tobacco Mosaic Virus) and select the option that

correctly identifies the labellings A and B.

A B

(1) ssDNA Capsomeres

(2) dsDNA Capsomeres

(3) ssRNA Capsomeres

(4) dsRNA Tail fibres

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
31) Contagium vivum fluidum was proposed by :

(1) D.J. lvanowsky

(2) M.W. Beijerinck
(3) Stanley
(4) Robert Hooke

32) Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the given codes :

Column-I Column-II

A. Edible delicacies i. Penicillium, Streptomyces

B. Experimental genetics ii. Neurospora crassa

C. Source of antibiotics iii. Puccinia, Ustilago

D. Rust and smut diseases iv. Morels and truffles

(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

33) Assertion : In lichens, mycobiont and phycobiont are symbiotically associated in which algae is
predominant and fungi is a subordinate partner.
Reason : The fungus provides food and alga protects the fungus from unfavourable conditions.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

34) Study the following table carefully and give the correct answer from the options :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

(i) Chlorella Protein source Cyanobacteria

(ii) Spirullina Chlorophyceae Protein source

Grow in salty
(iii) Halophiles Archaebacteria
areas

Saprophytic Forms
(iv) Slime moulds
protists plasmodium
(1) i & ii - incorrect, iii & iv correct
(2) i & iii - incorrect, ii & iv correct
(3) ii & and iv - incorrect, iii & i - correct
(4) i, ii, iii - correct, only iv is incorrect

35) A protonema is :-
(1) A structure in pteridophytes formed before the thallus develops
(2) A sporophytic free living structure formed in pteridophytes
(3) A creeping, green, filamentous and gametophytic structure produced in bryophytes.
(4) A primitive structure formed after fertilization in pteridophytes

36)

Identify A, B, C and D in given table :-

Name of Chlorophyll Store

Habitat
organism Pigment food

Red Floridian
A 'a' &'d'
algae starch

Brown Marine Laminarian

B
algae water & Mannitol

Dino- Marine
C Starch
flagellates water

Green
D 'a' &'b' Starch
algae

A B C D

Marine
(1) a,b a,d Tree
water

Salty Animal
(2) a,d a,b
water body

Fresh
(3) a,c a,c Land
water

Marine
(4) a,c a,c Water
water
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

37) Read the given examples carefully.

Gelidium, Chara, Spirulina, Chlorella, Fucus, Gracilaria, Polysiphonia, Laminaria, Sargassum,
Sphagnum, Dictyota, Ectocarpus.
How many of them belong to Red, Brown and Green algae respectively.

(1) 3, 5 & 2
(2) 4, 6 & 2
(3) 2, 5 & 3
(4) 3, 6 & 3
38) Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) Agar-Agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria.

(2) Chlorella and spirulina are used as space food.
(3) Mannitol is stored food in phaeophyceae.
(4) Algin and carragen are products of fungi.

39) Which one is correct ?

(1) Pyrenoids are present in cyanophyceae.

(2) Brown algae are found primarly in marine habitats
(3) Floridean starch is stored food of green algae
(4) In red algae, Sexual reproduction is isogamous, anisogamous and oogamous.

40) Select the option that correctly identifies A, B and C in the given figure of female Thallus of

Marchantia:

(1) A - Antheridiophore, B - Bud, C - Rhizoids

(2) A - Antheridiophore, B - rhizoids, C - Gemma cup
(3) A - Archegoniophore, B - Gemma cup, C - Rhizoids
(4) A - Archegoniophore, B - Rhizoids, C - Gemma cup

41) Two unequal/dissimilar flagella are observed in:

(1) Diatoms and dinoflagellates

(2) Dinoflagellates and green algae
(3) Green algae and red algae
(4) Euglenoids and brown algae

42)

How many organisms in the given below list belong to protista kingdom ?
Mucor, Vibrio cholerae, Paramoecium, Agaricus, Euglena, Alternaria, Noctiluca, Neurospora,
Gonyaulax, Ustilago, Physarum.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

43) The four sketches (A,B, C and D) given below represent four different organisms. Which one of
these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct stored food and class ?

Name of Stored
Class
Organism Food
(1) (D) Nostoc Glycogen Myxophyceae
Floridean
(2) (A) Volvox Chlorophyceae
starch
(3) (B) Laminaria Starch Phaeophyceae
Floridean
(4) (C) Polysiphonia Rhodophyceae
starch
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

44) Biochemical analysis of pyrenoids in algae would reveal the presence of :-

(1) sugars and phospholipids

(2) protein & starch
(3) RNA & starch
(4) protein & phosphates

45) Observe the given algae and select the correct option in which all answers are correct of given
questions : (a) Name of algae ?
(b) Type of sexual reproduction ?
(c) Name of class ?

(1) Laminaria : Isogamous : Chlorophyceae

(2) Volvox : Oogamous : Chlorophyceae
(3) Fucus : Isogamous : Rhodophyceae
(4) Chara : Oogamous : Rhodophyceae

46) Which is not a character of cartilaginous fishes?

(1) 2- Chambered heart

(2) Paired fins
(3) Air or swim bladder
(4) Gills without operculum

47) The characteristic feature of birds which makes them different from reptiles is -

(1) Homoeothermic nature

(2) Post anal tail
(3) Vertebral column
(4) Viviparity

48) Select the correct pair.

(1) Arthropoda - Silver fish

(2) Echinodermata - Cuttle fish
(3) Pisces - Jelly fish
(4) Mollusca - Star fish

49) Select the correct option :

Animal Common name

(a) Gorgonia (1) Bath sponge

(b) Ctenoplana (2) Sea fan

(c) Taenia (3) Comb jelly

 (d) Euspongia (4) Tapeworm
(1) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(2) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
(3) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(4) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

50) Identify the name of given animals from the given option.

A B C D

(1) Struthio Neophron Pavo Psittacula

(2) Neophron Struthio Pavo Psittacula

(3) Neophron Struthio Psittacula Pavo

(4) Pavo Struthio Psittacula Neophron

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

51) On the basis of coelom, Antedon is :-

(1) Acoelomate
(2) Pseudocoelomate
(3) Schizocoelomate
(4) Enterocoelomate

52) Claspers are :-

(1) Respiratory and present in reptilia

(2) Present on pelvic fins in cartilaginous fishes
(3) Olfactory and present in amphibia
(4) Respiratory and present in amphibia
53) Read the following (A-D) four statements :-
(A) Mouth is located ventrally
(B) Notochord is absent throughout the life
(C) Gill slits are absent
(D) Cycloid scale is absent
How many of the above statements are correct for Chondrichthyes ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

54) Diploblastic and triploblastic are terms that describe

(1) The number of invaginations during embryonic development

(2) The number of heads during embryonic development
(3) The number of germinal layers during embryonic development
(4) The number of cell types during development

55) Metagenesis means :-

(1) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(2) Polyp produce medusae sexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(3) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp asexually.
(4) Both (1) & (2)

56) Incomplete digestive tract is found in :-

(1) Sponges, Coelenterates, Ctenophores

(2) Coelenterates, Ctenophores, Echinoderms
(3) Coelenterates, Ctenophores, Platyhelminthes
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata

57) Metameric segmentation is present in :-

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca

(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinoderms
(3) Aschelminthes, Arthropoda, Echinoderms
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata

58) Which of the following is known as gregarious pest ?

(1) Limulus
(2) Locusta
(3) Anopheles
(4) Apis
59) The radial symmetry is observed in
I. Platyhelminthes
II. Coelenterates
III. Aschelminthes
IV. Annelids
V. Echinoderms

(1) I, II, III and V

(2) II, III and I
(3) I, III and IV
(4) II and V

60) Ascidia belongs to which phylum :-

(1) Hemichordata
(2) Urochordata
(3) Cephalochordata
(4) Chordata

61) Chondrichthyes is characterised by :-

(1) Ventral mouth

(2) Placoid scales
(3) Ventral mouth and ctenoid scales
(4) Both 1 and 2

62) Which among the following is true?

(1) Chordates have ventral hollow nerve cord

(2) All vertebrates have open circulatory system
(3) All chordates are vertebrates
(4) All vertebrates are chordates

63) Beside the mammals, vivipary is also found in some members of :-

(1) Chondrichthyes
(2) Osteichthyes
(3) Amphibians
(4) Aves

64) Match the column I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given below
:-
(1) a–3–R, b–1–S, c–2–Q
(2) a–2–R, b–3–S, c–1–Q
(3) a–3–S, b–1–Q, c–2–R
(4) a–1–R, b–2–S, c–3–Q

65) Which of the following is correct matching ?

(1) Haemocoel – Prawn and Pila

(2) Protonephridia – Some rotifers
(3) Acoelomate – Hookworm
(4) Both 1 and 2

66) Read the following statements with respect to Aves:-

(i) Respiration is through skin.
(ii) The fore limbs always possess scales.
(iii) Long bones are pneumatic.
(iv) Heart is completely three chambered.
(v) Digestive tracts have additional chambers called crop and gizzard.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) (iii), (v)

(2) (iii), (iv), (v)
(3) (i), (ii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii)

67) Find out incorrect match from column-I, II and III :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

68)

How many of the following animals shows organ/organ system level of body organisation along with
bilateral symmetry ?

Pleurobrachia, Fasciola, Ancylostoma, Hirudinaria, Anopheles, adult Cucumaria, Balanoglossus

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

69) Following animals belongs to which classes ?

A-Petromyzon, B-Scoliodon, C-Pristis

A-Cyclostomata, B-Chondrichthyes,
(1)
C-Chondrichthyes
A-Osteichthyes, B-Chondrichthyes,
(2)
C-Chondrichthyes
A-Osteichthyes, B-Chondrichthyes,
(3)
C-Osteichthyes
A-Osteichthyes, B-Chondrichthyes,
(4)
C-Cyclostomata

70) Find out incorrect match from column I, II and III :-

[Link] Column-I Column-II Column-III

Scales
1 Petromyzon
absent
 Air bladder
absent but
2 Pristis
operculum is
present

Air bladder
and
3 Hippocampus operculum
both are
present

Skin is
scaleless,
and
4 Rana
tympanum
represents
the ear
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

71) Identify the animals shown in the given figures A, B, C and D from the options given below

A B C D

(1) Pila Octopus Asterias Ophiura

(2) Octopus Pila Asterias Ophiura

(3) Asterias Ophiura Pila Octopus

(4) Ophiura Asterias Pila Octopus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
72) Match the following columns and choose the correct answer from the options given below

Scientific name Common name

A Apis I King crab

B Bombyx II Lac insect

C Laccifer III Silkworm

D Limulus IV Honey bee

A B C D

(1) IV III II I

(2) IV II I III

(3) IV III I I

(4) III IV II I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) _________ is/are absent in Echinoderms but present in mollusca

(1) Larval stage

(2) Flame cells
(3) Locomotory organs
(4) Excretory organs

74) Open type of circulatory system is the system in which blood is pumped out of the heart and the
cells and tissues are directly bathed in it. This type of circulatory system is found in :-

(1) Arthropoda, mollusca

(2) Annelida, arthropoda, mollusca
(3) Arthropoda, mollusca, cephalopod mollusca
(4) Annelida, mollusca, cephalopod mollusca

75)

(a) Hooks and suckers are present

(b) Absorb nutrients from the host directly through their body surface
(c) Specialised cells called flame cells help in excretion and osmoregulation
(d) Sexes are separate
Which of the above given charater is not related with diagram given below?
(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

76) Match the columns and choose the correct answer from the options given below

Common name Scientific name

Phylum
of animal of animal

a Platyhelminthes (i) roundworm (u) Taenia

b Aschelminthes (ii) earthworm (v) Pheretima

c Annelida (iii) tapeworm (w) Ascaris

a b c

(1) ii,v i,w iii,u

(2) iii,u ii,w i,v

(3) iii,u ii,v i,w

(4) iii,u i,w ii,v

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Complete the following chart by choosing correct option for A, B, C and D
 A B C D

1 Cellular level Bilateral Aschelminthes Acoelomate

2 Bilateral Cellular level Aschelminthes Acoelomate

3 Cellular level Bilateral Acoelomate Aschelminthes

4 Acoelomate Aschelminthes Bilateral Cellular level

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) Find out the incorrect statement

(1) In pseudocoelom, mesoderm is found as scattered pouches

(2) Echinoderms , Arthropoda , Aschelminthes , Annelids are eucoelomates.
(3) In tapeworm body cavity is absent.
(4) Larva of echinodermata exhibit bilateral symmetry but their adults have radial symmetry.

79) Evidence for the origin of birds from reptiles is presence of :-

(1) Feathers
(2) Claws
(3) Hair
(4) Scales

80)

Reterogressive metamorphosis is found in :

(1) Amphibians
(2) Urochordates
(3) Cephalochordates
(4) Cyclostomes

81) Which is not the feature of chordates ?

(1) Notochord present

(2) Post anal tail
(3) Heart is dorsal
(4) Central nervous system is dorsal, hollow and single

82) Identify the aquatic mammals from the following :-

(i) Balaenoptera (ii) Equus
(iii) Delphinus (iv) Pteropus

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (ii) only
(4) (iv) and (iii)

83) For the following figure which one is correct ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) D is animal with 3 chambered Heart

(2) C is cold blooded animal in which fertilization is external
(3) A is marine and gills are without operculum
(4) B is oviparous with external fertilization

84)

Read the following statements about the phylum porifera :-

(i) Commonly known as sponges
(ii) Are generally found in fresh water and mostly symmetrical animals
(iii) Possess water canal system
(iv) The body is supported by 'skeleton'
(v) Fertilization is external
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) (iii), (v)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) (ii), (v)

85) Which one is not a cnidarian ?

(1) Hydra
(2) Meandrina
(3) Pennatula
(4) Laccifer

86) In the given organism, body is covered by ____exoskeleton and circulatory system is _____type :-

(1) Non-chitinous, open

(2) Non-chitinous, close
(3) Chitinous, open
(4) Chitinous, close

87) Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding phylum coelenterata ? (A) They are
aquatic mostly marine, sessile or free swimming, radially symmetrical animals.
(B) They have a central gastro-vascular cavity.
(C) Digestion is extracellular and intracellular.
(D) Examples are Sycon, Spongilla and Euspongia

(1) A and B
(2) A and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) All of these

88) Poison sting is present in ?

(1) Torpedo
(2) Betta
(3) Trygon
(4) Nereis
89) Fill in the blanks:
(a) In birds, air sacs connected to ....1.... supplement respiration.
(b) The class name reptilia refers to their creeping or ....2.... mode of locomotion.
(c) In amphibians, the eyes ....3.... eyelids.
(d) Cyclostomes are ....4.... but migrate for spawning to ....5.... water.

1–lungs, 2–crawling, 3–do not have,

(1)
4–marine, 5– fresh
(2) 1–pneumatic bones, 2–swimming, 3–do not have, 4–marine, 5–fresh
(3) 1–lungs, 2–crawling, 3–have, 4–fresh water, 5–marine
1–lungs, 2–crawling, 3–have, 4–marine,
(4)
5–fresh

90) Column A has some characters and B has their examples. Select the option, which correctly
matches them :

Column-A Column-B
(P) Canal system (a) Asterias
(Q) Spiny body (b) Obelia
(R) Stomochord (c) Euspongia
(S) Metagenesis (d) Columba
(T) Pneumatic bone (e) Balanoglossus
(1) P-c, Q-a, R-e, S-b, T-d
(2) P-a, Q-c, R-b, S-e, T-d
(3) P-e, Q-a, R-c, S-d, T-b
(4) P-b, Q-c, R-a, S-d, T-e
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 3 3 1 3 1 4 4 1 2 3 1 4 3 3 1 4 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 1 2 4 4 2 2 4 3 4 2 1 3 3 4 4 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 2 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 3 2 1 4 1 2 3 3 4 2 3 2 2 2 1 4 3 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 3 2 1 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 1 3 4 1 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 1 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 2 1 2 2 4 2 3 4 4 4 2 2 2 3 4 2 1 4 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 1 3 2 2 3 1 4 3 3 2 3 4 1 3 4 1 4 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 4 2 2 3 1 1 4 3 4 2 3 3 1 3 4 2 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 1 1 4 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 4 1 4 4 3 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 1 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2)

⇒ cos θ = 0
θ = 90°

3)

(direction cosine)

4)
5)

6)

R2 = P2 + Q2 + 2PQcosθ

7)
θ = 0°

8)

9)

Velocity at mid position

10) <V> = V = =

11)

a=

12)
Conceptual.

13)

a = –2nb2x–4n–1

14)

t=2
V = -9 m/s

15) t = ax2 + bx

= 2ax + b

or = (2ax + b)–1
or V = (2ax + b)–1

16)

17)
18)

When v = 0 ⇒ t = 2s

19)

time of flight = t1 + t2 =

20) b = –65 m
v = 12 m/s
a = –10 m/s2

–65 = 12t – × 10 × t2
t = 5 sec

21)
Velocity after travelling 1m distance

For second 1 meter distance

Taking +ve sign

and so on.
22)
x + 3x = 5m
4x = 5m

Distance of 2nd drop from ground = 3x

= 3.75 m

23)

Conceptual

24) Ans. (1)

<v> =

<v> =

25)

Conceptual

26) Let the car accelerate at rate α for time t1 then maximum velocity attained, v = 0 + αt1 =
αt1
Now, the car decelerates at a rate β for time (t – t1 ) and finally comes to rest. Then,
0 = v – β(t – t1) ⇒ 0 = αt1 – βt + βt1

27)

= =-2
V = -2x + 4
a=v = (-2x + 4)(-2) = 4x - 8

28)

29)

30) (A) Vertical height for all is same. So time of flight is same for all.
(B) Vertical component of velocity is same for all, because height is same for all
(C) Range is maximum for C, so horizontal component of C is maximum.
(D) Vertical component of velocity is same for all and horizontal distance is least for A, so
horizontal component is least for A, there by so launch speed is least for A.

31)

v=ucotθ

32)

33)
34) Comparing with the standard equation of projectile;

we get, θ = 45o and u = m/s

Time of flight

= 4sec
i.e., projectile comes back to same initial level after 4 sec. Hence its velocity vector will again
make 45o with the horizontal.

Horizontal range =

Maximum height = and θ = 45°

Maximum height = = 20 m

35) For vertical motion, time of flight t

for horizontal motion R = v2 × t

36)

37)
θ = 0°

38)

R = na =
h = na

39) 100 = –4t + × 10 × t2

t2 = 8t – 20 = 0
t = 10 sec

40)

for second half

41)

42)

After what time will he be able to overtake the bus is 8 s

43)
 Speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car (as, seen by thief). According to thief in the car is 105
m/s

44)

t= = 2 sec

45)

CHEMISTRY

46) A. Question explanation: The question asks that In IUPAC nomenclature of compounds,
what is the priority order of the given groups
B. Given Data:
(I) -CONH2 (II) -COOH (III) -COCI (IV) -CHO (V) -CN
C. Concept: The priority order of functional groups in IUPAC nomenclature determines which
group is considered the "principal functional group" and thus dictates the suffix used in the
name. The order is based on the oxidation state of the carbon atom and the types of atoms
bonded to it.
D. Answer Explanation: The correct priority order is:

A. -COOH (Carboxylic Acid): Carboxylic acids are given the highest priority.
B. -COCI (Acid Chloride): Acid chlorides are next in priority.
C. -CONH2 (Amide): Amides are in next priority.
D. -CHO (Aldehyde): Aldehydes are in next priority
E. -CN (Nitrile): Nitriles have lower priority than aldehydes.

• Therefore, the complete order is: II > III > I > V > IV
E. Final Answer: option ;- 2

47) Question Explanation :

To identify the correct IUPAC name of given compound.

Concept :
This question is based on IUPAC nomenclature.

Solution :

alkyl
Ester is the PF4, carbon of ester will include in PCC, so we will use suffix 'oate'
PCC contain 3C, we will write word Root 'prop'
Numbering will starts from carbon of PFG Ethyl present as subs at position 2
In case A ester alkyl group attached to single bonded oxygen is written firstly in IUPAC name.
Combining all parts, the IUPAC name is
Methyl 2-methylbutanoate

Final Answer :
Option (3)

48) Question Explanation :

The question asking about IUPAC name of compound.

Concept:
IUPAC rules of nomenclature.

Solution :

: N-Ethyl-N-methylpent-4-en amide
• Parent carbon chain of five carbons is numbered such that functional group carbon of amide
is given lowest number.
• 'N' of amide is 3° and has ethyl & methyl groups.
• Suffix for amide: Amide
• Multiple bond is at C-4

Final Answer :
Option (2)

49)

Theory Based

50)
IUPAC → 5–Methylcyclopent–2–en–1–ol

51)

Theory Based

52)

Theory Based
53)

Theory Based

54)
4-formyl-2-oxocyclohexanecarboxylicacid

55)

Theory Based

56)

Theory Based

57)
N-Phenylcyclohexane carboxamide

58) A Question Explanation:

The question asks for the IUPAC name of a compound?
B Given Data:

C Concept:
1. Longest Chain: Identify the longest continuous carbon chain, which will be the parent
chain.
2. Numbering: Number the parent chain from the end that gives the substituent the lowest
number.
3. Substituents: Name and number the substituents .
D Answer Explanation:

1. Longest Chain: The longest chain is the four-carbon butane chain.

2. Numbering: Numbering starts from the end of the butane chain that is attached to the
cyclopropane ring, giving the cyclopropyl substituent position 1.
3. Substituents: The three-membered ring is named cyclopropane. Since it's attached to the
butane chain, it becomes a cyclopropyl substituent.
Combining these, the IUPAC name is 1-cyclopropylbutane.
E Final Answer:
Option 2

59)
2–bromo–5–hydroxybenzonitrile

60)

(A) –CHO → al
(B) COOH → oic acid
(C) OH → ol
(D) –COCl → Oyl chloride

61)

Theory Based

62)

% gain in SE =

= × 100

=
= 300 %

63)

Theory Based

64)

NCERT XI Pg. # 348

65)

Theory Based

66)
Theory Based

67)
are metamers because they have same M.F. & same F.G. but different arrangement of
substituents around F.G.

68)

69) Explanation:-
Stronger intermolecular forces mean molecules are held together more tightly.
This makes it harder for them to escape into the gas phase (evaporate).
Weaker intermolecular forces mean easier evaporation.
Concept :-
Given A < B < C (intermolecular forces), A has the weakest forces, and C has the strongest.
Therefore, A will evaporate most readily, and C will evaporate least readily.
Answer option 3, (A evaporates more readily than C).

70) Question Explanation:

The question asks which of the given solutions shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law. A
positive deviation occurs when the intermolecular forces between the components in the
solution are weaker than those between the molecules of the pure substances, leading to a
higher vapor pressure than expected according to Raoult's law.

Concept: Positive deviation from Raoult's law.

Explanation of Options:

• CHCI3 + Acetone:
This is an example of a solution that shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law. The reason
is that CHCI3 (chloroform) and acetone molecules have weaker intermolecular interactions
(they are not capable of forming strong hydrogen bonds with each other). As a result, the
molecules can escape into the vapor phase more easily, leading to an increase in vapor
pressure. The solution's vapor pressure is higher than expected according to Raoult's law.

• Acetone + C₂H₂OH (Ethanol):

This solution shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law. Acetone and ethanol can form
hydrogen bonds, which are stronger interactions compared to the individual intermolecular
forces in the pure liquids. As a result, the vapor pressure is lower than expected because these
strong interactions reduce the tendency of the molecules to vaporize.

• Phenol + Aniline:
This mixture also shows a negative deviation from Raoult's law due to hydrogen bonding
between phenol and aniline molecules. The formation of hydrogen bonds results in a decrease
in vapor pressure compared to what would be predicted by Raoult's law.

• H2O + HNO3 (Nitric acid):

Water and nitric acid form strong intermolecular interactions through hydrogen bonding,
leading to a negative deviation from Raoult's law. The solution's vapor pressure is lower than
expected because of these strong hydrogen bonding interactions.

Final Answer:
The solution that shows a positive deviation from Raoult's law is: Option 1: CHCI₃ +
Acetone.
This is because the intermolecular forces between CHCI3 and acetone are weak, allowing the
molecules to escape into the vapor phase more easily, which results in a higher vapor pressure
than predicted by Raoult's law.

71) Explanation:
Mole fraction of benzene in the vapor phase is to be found.
Given data:
• Vapor pressure of pure benzene (P°benzene) = 200Torr
• Vapor pressure of pure benzene (P°toluene) = 150Torr
• Moles of benzene = 5
• Moles of toluene = 5
concept
Raoult'sLaw Law: The partial pressure of a component in the vapor phase is directly
proportional to its mole fraction in the solution.
Dalton's Law: The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial
pressure of the individual gases.
Calculation
Xbenzene = moles of benzene / (moles of benzene + moles of toluene) = 5/(5+5) = 0.5
Pbenzene =Xbenzene (P°benzene) =0.5 ×200Torr = 100 Torr
Ptoluene = Xtoluene (P°toluene)
Xtoluene = 1 - Xbenzene = 0.5
Ptoluene = 0.5×150 Torr = 75 Torr
Ptotal = Pbenzene + Ptoluene
Ptotal = 100 Torr + 75 Torr = 175 Torr
Mole fraction of benzene in vapor phase (Ybenzene)
Ybenzene = Pbenzene/ Ptotal = 100Torr/ 175 Torr = 0.571
Final answer =The mole fraction of benzene in the vapor phase is approximately 0.57
correct option - 1

72)
40 + 90 = 130

73)
 Question Explanation: Vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon
Concept : This question is based on Vapour pressure
Solution :
Vapor pressure is the pressure exerted by the vapor of a liquid in thermodynamic equilibrium
with its condensed phases at a given temperature in a closed system.
Vapour pressure increases exponentially with temperature due to increased kinetic energy of
liquid molecules, allowing more to escape into the vapour phase.
Surface area and the number of moles of the liquid do not affect the vapor pressure.

Final Answer : option (1)

74) 98 % by weight 98 g H2SO4 in 100 g of solution

75) Maximum boiling azeotropes are formed by those solutions which show negative
deviations from Raoult’s law. H2O and HNO3 mixture shows negative deviations.

76)

Concept : Raoult's Law

Negative Deviation
Hydrogen bonding
Final Ans.
Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

77)

PS =
SP =
SP = SR + SQ

78)

Explanation :
Calculation for weight of the solute.

Given Data

A. Molality (m) = 0.5 mol/kg

B. Mass of solution = 2.06 kg
C. Molar mass of urea (NH2CONH2) = 60 g/mol
 Concepts

A. Molality (m) = moles of solute / mass of solvent (kg)

B. Mass of Solution = Mass of Solute + Mass of Solvent

Calculations

A. Mass of solvent:
A. Let mass f solvent be 'x' kg.
B. Moles of urea = 0.5x
C. Mass f Urea = 0.5x × 60 = 30x grams = 0.03x Kg
D. Mass f solution = x + 0.03x = 2.06 Kg
E. 1.03x = 2.06
F. x = 2.06/1.03 = 2 Kg
G. Mass f solvent = 2 Kg
B. Mass of urea:
A. Mass f solution = Mass of solvent + Mass of urea.
B. Mass f urea = 2.06 Kg - 2 Kg = 0.06 Kg
C. Mass f urea = 0.06 Kg ×1000 g/Kg = 60 g

Answer option 3, (60 g).

79)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question is asking whether a one molar (1 M) aqueous solution
generally has a higher concentration than a one molal (1 m) aqueous solution, and whether the
reason given-that a one molar solution contains less solvent than a one molal solution-is true
and correctly explains the assertion.

Underlying Concept: Molarity (M) is defined as moles of solute per liter of solution, whereas
molality (m) is defined as moles of solute per kilogram of solvent. Because molarity depends on
total solution volume and molality on solvent mass, their concentrations differ slightly.
Generally, since volume changes with temperature and solute presence but mass does not,
molarity and molality are not the same. In aqueous solutions, a 1 M solution usually contains
more solute per unit volume than a 1 m solution contains per mass of solvent, meaning the
same amount of solute is dissolved in less solvent volume.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: molarity depends on total volume, molality depends on solvent
mass; solution volume increases with added solute, so molarity usually corresponds to a
smaller amount of solvent compared to molality.

Common Mistakes: Confusing molarity with molality or assuming they measure

concentration in the same way leads to errors. Also, ignoring the difference between solution
volume and solvent mass is a common mistake.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: If one claims the assertion or reason is false, they likely
misunderstand that molality is based on solvent mass while molarity is based on solution
volume, and that molarity solutions indeed contain less solvent volume for the same mole
amount compared to molality solutions.
80)

Explain Question – Calculate the normality by using molarity.

Concept – This question based on Normality = Molarity × basicity.

Solution –
Given Molarity = 2 M, basicity = 1.
Normality = 2 M × 1 = 2 N. The normality of 2 M H3PO2 solution will be 2 N

Final Answer – Option (1)

81) 4L H2O2 gives → 100 L O2 1L H2O2 gives → 25 L O2

82)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks what the nature of the solution will be after mixing
20 mL of 0.5 N hydrochloric acid (HCl) with 35 mL of 0.1 N sodium hydroxide (NaOH). It
wants you to determine if the resulting solution will be acidic, basic, neutral, or if it will
change the color of phenolphthalein indicator.

Underlying Concept: This problem involves acid-base neutralization. When an acid and a
base react, they neutralize each other depending on their amounts. Here, normality and
volume help calculate the milliequivalents of each reactant to know which is in excess,
defining if the solution is acidic, basic, or neutral.

Relevant Formulas: Milliequivalents (meq) = Normality (N) × Volume (mL) Where

Normality is the equivalent concentration of the acid or base.

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: Calculate the milliequivalents of each solution: - HCl:

meq - NaOH: meq
Step 2: Compare the milliequivalents: Since 10 meq of HCl > 3.5 meq of NaOH, there is excess
acid left after neutralization.
Therefore, the resulting solution will be acidic.

Tips and Tricks: Always calculate milliequivalents to compare reactive amounts rather than
just volumes or molarities since normality accounts for reactive capacity.

Common Mistakes: Confusing volumes for the amount of acid/base without considering
normality. Ignoring that normality already takes into account the reactive units can lead to
errors.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: 'Be neutral' is incorrect because acid is in excess. 'Be
basic' and 'turn phenolphthalein solution pink' are incorrect because base is insufficient to
neutralize the acid or create a basic environment that would turn phenolphthalein pink.
 83)

Explanation:

A. Raoult's Law: Predicts ideal solution behavior.

B. Positive Deviation: Means intermolecular forces in the mixture are weaker than in the pure
components. This leads to increased vapor pressure and also volume expansion.
C. Volume: Because the forces are weaker, the molecules spread out more, increasing the
overall volume.

Answer option 1. (Slightly more than the total volume of the components).

84) [Link]. 44 Page no.104

85)

wA = 500 g

86)

Ps = 120 – 80 XB
For pure B, XB = 1, Ps = p°B = 40

For pure A, XB = 0, Ps = p°A = 120

87) and

88)

Theory Based

89)

Theory Based

90)

Theory Based
BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 23

92) NCERT XI pg.# 19

93)

NCERT-XI Pg # 21

94)

NCERT Pg # 23

95)

NCERT Pg # 24

96)

NCERT Pg # 24

97)

NCERT XI Pg No. # 20

98)

NCERT Pg # 21

99) NCERT-XI Pg. # 12

100)

Question Explanation :
This question is asking about which is the correct among the given statements.

Concept :
This question is based on
Select the correct matching:
A. Fungi depend on dead substrate are called saprophytic
B. Fungi depend on living plants and animals are called parasite
C. Fungi as symbiont with algae called lichens
 D. Fungi as symbiont with root of higher plant called mycorrhazia

Solution :
A. Fungi depend on dead substrate are called saprophytic
B. Fungi depend on living plants and animals are called parasite
C. Fungi as symbiont with algae called lichens
D. Fungi as symbiont with root of higher plant called mycorrhazia
All the given statement are correct.
So, the correct answer is 4. All of these

Final Answer :
Option (4)

101)

NCERT Pg # 22

102) NCERT Pg. # 177

103)

NCERT Pg # 24

104) NCERT-XI Pg.#20

105) NCERT (XI) Pg. # B-33, D-24

106)

NCERT Pg # 24

107) NCERT Page No : 24

108)

NCERT Pg # 26

109)

NCERT Pg # 27

110) Concept:
Dinoflagellates

Solution:
Assertion (statement) -+ True
Gonaulax and other dinolfagellates are indeed responsible for red tides.

Reason - true
Some dinoflagellates like gonyaulax do release light through biochemical process called
bioluminescence.
Bioluminescence indinoflagellates is a different phenomenon unrelated to the red tides.

Correct option: (2)

111) Concept:
Kingdom protista - slpem moulds
Solution:
Statement -I true
favourable conditions → Aggregation plasmodium

Statement -II - unfavourable conditions - fruiting bodies → spores.

Correct option: (1)

112)

NCERT XI Page No. # 14

113) NCERT-Pg. # 19, 2.1.1

114)

NCERT XI, Pg.# 20,21

115) Question Explanation:

You are asked to determine true or false statements related to duteromycetes.

Concept:
Due teromyctes - imperfect fungi

Solution:
The myucelium in Deuteromycetes is well developed separated branched.

Many duteromyceltes acts as decomposers.

Correct option: (2)

116) Question Explanation:

You asked to identify the false statement about as comycetes.
Concept:
kingdom fungi - phycomycetes.

Solution:
mycelium is septate not coenocytic in Ascomycetes.

Correct option : (3)

117)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 21

118) Question Explanation:

you are asked a Assertion Reason question Related to five kingdom classification.

Concept:
Five kingdom classification by R.H. whittaker.

Solution:
Assertion - false
because five kingdom system did clerly separate fungi from plants based on nutrition and cell
wall compositon
Reason - True - fungal cell wall contains chittin and plant cell wall contains cellulose.

Correct option: (4)

119) NCERT Page No. 26

120)

NCERT Pg. # 26

121) Explanation:
This question is asking you to identify the scientist who first described viruses.

Concept:
Topic : Biological classification virus.

Solution:
M.W. Beijerinck introduced the idea that viruses are not cellular organisms but infectious fluid
agent - which he called "contagium vivum fluidum."

Final Answer:
Option (2)

122) Explanation the Question:

 You are asked to correctly match type of fungi or fungal uses with their examples or
applications.

Concept:
Types of fungi

Solution:

A. Morels and truffles are edible fungi.

B. Neurospora crassa is used in experimental genetics.
C. Penicillium and streptomyces are antibiotic producing fungi.
D. Puccinia and ustilago cause rust and smut diseases.

Final Answer:
Option (3)

123) Explaining the Question:

The question presents an Assertion and Reason.

Concept:
Lichen - Roles of mycobiont and photobiont.

Solution:
Assertion - False
Because in Lichens fungus is dominant partner algae is the subordinate.

Reason - False
Because algae performs photosynthesis is and provide food while fungus protects.

Correct Answer:
Option (4)

124) NCERT XI, Page # 18,19,20,21

125) NCERT XI, Pg # 30

126)

NCERT-XI Pg#33

127) NCERT (XIth) Pg # 24 to 27

128) NCERT Pg. # 26, 27

129) NCERT Pg # 32,33,34, para-3.1.1, 3.1.2, 3.1.3

130) NCERT Pg. No. 34, Fig 3.2

 131) NCERT XI Pg.# 21, 33

132) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 18-24 Paramoecium, Euglena, Noctiluca, Gonyaulex, Physarum

133)

NCERT XI Pg. # 19, (Fig. 2.2 and Pg.# 31, Fig. 3.1)

134) MD

135)

NCERT Pg. No. 31, Fig. 3.1

136) NCERT (XI) Pg# 56 Para: [Link]

137) NCERT (XI) Pg# 58 Para: [Link]

138) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 145 (para-8)

139) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 50, 51

141) NCERT Pg. # 40

142)

Pg. No. 57 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

143)

New NCERT - XI, Pg. # 47

A) Mouth is located ventrally:

A. True. Chondrichthyes, like sharks and rays, have their mouths positioned on the underside of
their bodies (ventrally).

B) Notochord is absent throughout the life:

A. False. Chondrichthyes do possess a notochord, which is a flexible rod-shaped structure that

provides support. While it is replaced by cartilage in most vertebrates, it remains present in
Chondrichthyes.

C) Gill slits are absent:

A. False. Chondrichthyes are characterized by the presence of gill slits, which are openings on
 the sides of their head used for respiration.

D) Cycloid scale is absent:

A. True. Cycloid scales are a type of fish scale found in bony fishes (Osteichthyes) and not in
Chondrichthyes. Chondrichthyes have placoid scales, which are small, tooth-like structures.

Therefore, out of the four statements, only two are correct for Chondrichthyes: (A) Mouth is
located ventrally and (D) Cycloid scale is absent.
So, the answer to the question "How many of [Link] statements are correct for Chondrichthyes?"
is Option 3: Two.

144)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 50

145)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 50

146)

NCERT Based

147)

NCERT Based

148)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 53

149)

The correct answer is 4 II and V

A. Radial symmetry means that an organism can be divided into similar halves by passing a
plane through the central axis, like cutting a pie.
B. Coelenterates (Cnidaria), like jellyfish, corals, and sea anemones, have radial symmetry.
Their body plan is organized around a central axis, with tentacles and other features radiating
outwards.
C. Echinoderms, while showing a modified radial symmetry known as pentaradial symmetry as
adults (with five arms or sections), start as bilaterally symmetrical larvae, and then develop
radial symmetry. Starfish, sea urchins, sand dollars, etc., all fit this category.
D. Platyhelminthes (flatworms) have bilateral symmetry, meaning they have a distinct left
and right side.
E. Aschelminthes (roundworms) also have bilateral symmetry.
F. Annelids (segmented worms) have bilateral symmetry as well.
 150) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 55

151) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 56

152)

NCERT Based

153)

NCERT Based

154) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 51,52,54

155)

NCERT Based

156) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 58

157)

NCERT XI Pg. # 50

Fig 4.24(a)(b)(c)(d)

158) Pg. No. 46, 47 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

159)

NCERT Based

160)

NCERT XI Pg. # 47,48

Fig 4.18, 4.19(b), 4.20(b), 4.21(b)

161)

NCERT Based

162)
 NCERT Based

163)

NCERT Based

164)

NCERT Based

165)

NCERT Based

166)

NCERT Based

167)

NCERT Based

168)

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169)

NCERT Based

170)

NCERT Based

171) NCERT XIth Pg.#55

172) NCERT-XI, Pg # 54-60

173)

NCERT Pg. # 57, 58, 59

fig.4.20(a), 4.21(b), 4.23(b), 4.22(b)

174)
NCERT Based

175)

NCERT Based

176) NCERT XI, Pg # 53

177) NCERT XI, Pg # 41

178)

NCERT Based

179)

NCERT Based

180) NCERT-Page No.40, 41, 45, 49