28-08-2025

6201CMD30303125ST6 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find the acceleration of 3 kg mass when acceleration of 2 kg mass is 2 ms–2 as shown in figure.

(1) 3 ms–2
(2) 2 ms–2
(3) 0.5 ms–2
(4) Zero

2) A rope of mass 5 kg is moving vertically in vertical position with an upwards force of 100 N acting
at the upper end and a downwards force of 70 N acting at the lower end. The tension at midpoint of
the rope is

(1) 100 N
(2) 85 N
(3) 75 N
(4) 105 N

3) Find the reading of spring balance as shown in figure. Assume that mass ‘M’ is in equilibrium. (All

surfaces are smooth)

(1) 6 N
(2) 12 N
(3) 18 N
(4) 10 N

4) A force acts on block shown. The force of friction acting on the block is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

5) With what minimum velocity should block be projected from left end ‘A’ towards end ‘B’ such that
it reaches the other end ‘B’ of conveyer belt moving with constant velocity ‘v’. Friction coefficient
between block and belt is .

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) Motion of a block on a frictionless incline. A block of mass 10 kg placed on a frictionless, inclined

plane of angle , as shown in the figure. The force exerted by the incline on the block is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) One end of string which passes through pulley and connected to 10 kg mass at other end is pulled

by 100 N force. Find out the acceleration of 10 kg mass. (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 0.4 m/s2

(2) 1.2 m/s2
(3) 0.2 m/s2
(4) 2.4 m/s2
8) A block slides down an inclined plane of inclination 30° with the horizontal. Starting from rest it
covers 8 m in the first two seconds. Find the coefficient of kinetic friction between the two.

(1) 0.10
(2) 0.11
(3) 0.8
(4) 0.9

9) Three blocks A, B and C of equal mass m are placed one over the other on a smooth horizontal

ground as shown in figure. Coefficient of friction between any two blocks of A, B and C is . The
maximum value of mass of block D so that the blocks A, B and C move without slipping over each

other is

(1) 6 m
(2) 5 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 4 m

10) If the breaking strength of string is 600 N then find out the maximum acceleration of the man

with which he can climb up the rope

(1) 8 m/s2
(2) 12 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2
(4) 6 m/s2

11) A body of mass 400 g slides on a rough horizontal surface. If the frictional force is 3.0 N, the
magnitude of the contact force is (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 15 N
(2) 0.5 N
(3) 20 N
(4) 5 N
12) The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed 5 m away from the open end as
shown. The coefficient of friction between the box & the surface below it is 0.15. On a straight road,
the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2 m/s–2. At what distance from the starting point does
the box fall off the truck (i.e. distance travelled by the truck)? [Ignore the size of the box]

(1) 60 m
(2) 120 m
(3) 80 m
(4) 20 m

13) A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet given by where F is in
newton and t in second. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. What is
the average impulse imparted to the bullet ?

(1) 8 N-s
(2) Zero
(3) 0.9 N-s
(4) 1.8 N-s

14) The direction of frictional force for the front wheel & rear wheel of a bicycle when the pedaling
force is applied on it is (Assume motion of cycle is along North)

(1) For front wheel south, rear wheel north

(2) For front wheel west, rear wheel east
(3) For front wheel north, rear wheel south
(4) For front wheel east, rear wheel west

15) A block of mass 5 kg is held against wall by applying a horizontal force of 100 N. If the
coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.5, the frictional force acting on the block is

(g = 9.8 m/s2)

(1) 100 N
(2) 50 N
(3) 49 N
(4) 24.9 N
16) When forces F1, F2, F3​ are acting on a particle of mass m such that F2​ and F3 are mutually
perpendicular, then the particle remains stationary. If the force F1 is now removed then the
acceleration of the particle is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A smooth block is released at rest on a 45° incline and then slides a distance ‘d’. The time taken
to slide is ‘n’ times as much to slide on rough incline than on a smooth incline. The coefficient of
friction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination θ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is
rough. A body starling from rest at the top will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of
friction for the lower half is given by :

(1) tanθ
(2) 2tanθ
(3) 2cosθ
(4) 2sinθ

19) A body of mass 2 kg travels according to the law where,

and . The force acting on the body at t = 2s is

(1) 136 N
(2) 134 N
(3) 158 N
(4) 68 N

20) When the lift is moving up with an acceleration 'a' the apparent weight is given by . If the
same lift is moving downwards with same acceleration 'a' the apparent weight is given by , the
real weight of lift in terms of is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A block is first placed on its long side and then on its short side on the same inclined plane (see
figure). The block sides down in situation II but remains at rest in situation I. A possible explanation
is

Situation-I:

Situation-II:

(1) The normal contact force is less in situation-II.

(2) The frictional force is less in situation-II because the contact area is less.
(3) The longer side is smoother.
(4) In situation-II, frictional force is more.

22) In a tug-of-war contest, two men pull on a horizontal rope from opposite sides. The winner will

be the man who

(1) exerts greater force on the rope

(2) exerts greater force on the ground
(3) exerts a force on the rope which is greater than the tension in the rope
(4) makes a smaller angle with the vertical

23) In the figure shown, a balloon is pressed against a wall. It is in equilibrium and maximum
compressed state.
= force of balloon on hand of man;
= force of balloon on wall;
 = friction force; = weight of balloon.

Choose the correct statement(s). (A) and ​ are action reaction

pairs.
(B) and are action reaction pairs.
(C) and are action reaction pairs.
(D) and gravitational force exerted by balloon on earth are action reaction pairs.

(1) Only A and D

(2) Only A, B and D
(3) Only D
(4) Only C and D

CHEMISTRY

1) The oxidation number of sulfur in S8, S2F2, H2S respectively, are

(1) 0, +1 and –2
(2) +2, +1 and –2
(3) 0, +1 and +2
(4) –2, +1 and –2

2) Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Which of the following is a redox reaction ?

(1) NaCl + KNO3 ⟶ NaNO3 + KCl

(2) CaC2O4 + 2HCl ⟶ CaCl2 + H2C2O4
(3) Ca(OH)2 + 2NH4Cl ⟶ CaCl2 + 2NH3 + 2H2O
(4) 2K[Ag(CN)2] + Zn ⟶ 2Ag + K2[Zn(CN)4]
4) Match the following column-I and column-II:

Column-I Column-II

(a) H2S (p) Oxidising agent

(b) KMnO4 (q) Reducing agent

(c) H2O2 (r) Can acts as both oxidising and reducing agent
(1) a–r; b–p; c–q
(2) a–q; b–p; c–r
(3) a–p; b–q; c–r
(4) a–r; b–q; c–p

5) In the reaction, , the [Link]. of is equal to its

(1) mol. wt.

(2) mol. wt./2
(3) 2 × mol. wt.
(4) mol. wt./6

6) The equivalent weight of Cu2S (mol. wt. = M) in the following reaction is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Hydrazine reacts with KIO3 in presence of HCl as,

The equivalent masses of N2H4 and KIO3 respectively are:

(1) 8, 87
(2) 8, 35.6
(3) 16, 53.5
(4) 8, 53.5

8) The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half of its molecular weight when it converts to

(1) Mn2O3
(2) MnO2
(3)
(4)
9) Assertion : 5 mol of ferrous oxalate are completely oxidised by 2.5 moles of acidic solution of
K2Cr2O7.
Reason : n-factor of ferrous oxalate against dichromate is 6.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

10) The normality of 0.3 M phosphorus acid (H3PO3) is

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.9
(3) 0.3
(4) 0.6

11) Assertion: .
Reason: The n factor for and ions respectively are 3 and 8.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Reason is correct, but Assertion is incorrect.

12) Assertion: The change in oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 (acidic medium) is less than the
change in oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 in basic medium.
Reason: In acidic medium, oxidation state of Mn changes from +7 to +2, while in basic medium, it
changes from +7 to +4.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion and reason both are incorrect.

13) For the reaction,

.
What is [Link]. of ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

14) Which of the following molecules can act as an oxidizing as well as a reducing agent ?

(1) H2S
(2) SO3
(3) H2O2
(4) F2

15) Oxidation state of oxygen in F2O is

(1) +1
(2) –1
(3) +2
(4) –2

16)
In the above reaction:

(1) Iodine is reduced; is reduced

(2) Iodine is reduced; is oxidized
(3) Iodine is oxidized; is reduced
(4) Iodine is oxidized; is oxidized

17) Oxidation number of S in H2S2O8 is

(1) +2
(2) +4
(3) +3
(4) +6

18) For the redox reaction

The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are

H+

(1) 2 5 16

(2) 16 5 2

(3) 5 16 2

(4) 2 16 5
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
19) What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction ?

(1) +4 to +4
(2) 0 to +4
(3) –4 to +4
(4) 0 to –4

20) Which of the following reactions is the metal displacement reaction ? Choose the right option.

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

21)

Match the reactions in column-I with their respective characteristics given in column-II:

Column-I Column-II
(Name and Reaction) (Characteristics)

(p) Fractional oxidation

(a) number

(b) C3O2 (q) Redox reaction

(r) Natural redox

(c)
reaction

(d) (s) Zero oxidation

number

(e) Photosynthesis (t) Disproportionation

(u) Auto-redox
(1) a – t, u ; b – p ; c – s ; d – q ; e – r
(2) a – u, t ; b – p ; c – s ; d – q ; e – r
(3) a – t, u ; b – s ; c – p ; d – q ; e – r
(4) a – t, u ; b – p ; c – s ; d – r ; e – q

22) In the chemical reaction,

,
x, y and z are

(1) 1, 3, 1
(2) 4, 1, 4
(3) 3, 2, 3
(4) 2, 1, 2
 BOTANY

1) Furrow formation does not occur in plant cell during cytokinesis because of

(1) Extensible cell wall

(2) Inextensible cell wall
(3) Extensible plasma membrane
(4) Inextensible plasma membrane

2) The centriole undergoes duplication during:

(1) S-phase
(2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) G2 phase

3)

During telophase:
(i) Chromosome cluster at opposite spindle poles.
(ii) Two daughter nuclei formed.
(iii) Chromosomes lose their individuality.
(iv) It is reversal of prophase.
(v) Nucleolus is not reformed.
Choose the incorrect statement:

(1) (i) & (ii) only

(2) (iii) & (iv) only
(3) (v) Only
(4) (i), (ii), (iv) & (v) only

4)

How many of following structures are observed when cells are viewed under the microscope at end
of prophase
Golgi body, ER, Nucleolus, Nuclear envelope, Centrosome

(1) Zero
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) All of these

5) Mitotic division in plants can occur in –

(1) Diploid somatic cell

(2) Haploid cell
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Gametes

6)

Choose the correct statement with respect to G0 phase:

(1) Also known as quiescent stage and start after G2 phase

(2) Cell of this stage remain inactive and no longer proliferates.
Cell of this stage remain metabolically active but no longer proliferates unless called to do so
(3)
depending on the requirement of organism
(4) Cell of this stage remain active and proliferate till death without any condition.

7) Statement-I: During anaphase, centromere remains directed towards the pole while arms of the
chromosome trail behind.
Statement-II: Each chromosome moves away from the equatorial plate towards the two opposite
poles during anaphase.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

8) Kinetochores are –

(1) Precursors of microtubules

(2) Sites of attachment of spindle fibres on chromosome
(3) Site for origination of spindle fibres on chromosome
(4) Small disc shaped structure attached to centrosome

9)

Match the following events that occur in their respective phases of cell cycle and select the correct
option:

(i) Cell grows and most of the

(a) G1 phase
organelle duplication

(ii) DNA replication and

(b) S phase
chromosome duplication

(c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth

(d) Metaphase in (iv) Alignment of

M-phase chromosomes at equator
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
10)

Label the structure indicated by (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv):

(i) - Chromatid, (ii) - Centriole,

(1)
(iii) - Centromere, (iv) - Chromosome
(i) - Chromosome, (ii) - Centriole,
(2)
(iii) - Centromere, (iv) - Chromatid
(i) - Chromatid, (ii) - Centromere,
(3)
(iii) - Centriole, (iv) - Chromosome
(i) - Chromosome, (ii) - Centromere,
(4)
(iii) - Centriole, (iv) - Chromatid

11) The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesize the other constituent of
cells and eventually divides itself into two daughter cells is termed as

(1) Cytology
(2) Cell division
(3) Cell cycle
(4) Cell biology

12)

(I) The nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio in organism is restored by mitosis.

(II) The cells of the upper layer of the epidermis, cells of lining of gut, and blood cells are being
constantly replaced by Mitotic division.
Choose the correct option from following:

(1) Statement (I) is true, but (II) is false

(2) Statement (II) is true, but (I) is false
(3) Both statements (I) and (II) are true
(4) Both statements (I) and (II) are false

13) Equational division refer to

(1) Meiosis
(2) Mitosis
(3) Number of cell chromosome in parent & progeny cell is same
(4) Both (2) and (3)

14) Most dramatic period of cell cycle is

(1) Gap 1 only
(2) M-phase
(3) S-phase only
(4) Interphase

15)

Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Cell growth (in terms of cytoplasmic increase) is a discontinuous process which occur
during cell cycle.
Statement-II: DNA synthesis occur only during one specific stage in the cell cycle.
Statement-III: The event of cell cycle are under genetic control.

(1) Statement-I is false & statement-II and III are true

(2) Statement-I and II are false & statement-III are true
(3) All statement are true
(4) None of the above stated statement are true

16)

Assertion (A): Liquid endosperm in Coconut is multinucleated.

Reason (R): Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct

17)

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A): The growth of multicellular organism is due to mitosis.
Reason (R): Mitosis is also called as equational division and it offers genetic variability.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the not correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

18) What is the primary event marking the beginning of prophase ?

(1) Disintegration of the nuclear envelope

(2) Untangling of chromosomal material
(3) Decondensation of chromosomes
(4) Alignment of chromosomes at the equator
19)

The above graph shows the change in DNA content during various phases (A to D) in a typical
mitotic cell cycle. Identify the phases.

A B C D

(1) G1 G2 S M

(2) G0 S G2 M

(3) G1 S G2 M

(4) M G1 S G2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20)

Identify stage of given diagrams (i) and (ii) respectively.

(1) i – Early prophase; ii – metaphase

(2) i – Late prophase, ii – transition to metaphase
(3) i – Early prophase, ii – transition to metaphase
(4) i – Late prophase, ii – metaphase

21) Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

(A) M Phase (I) Proteins are synthesized

(B) G2 Phase (II) Inactive phase

(III) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA

(C) Quiescent stage
replication

(D) G1 Phase (IV) Equational division

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A - IV, B - II, C - I, D - III
(2) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(3) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
(4) A - III, B - II, C - IV, D - I

22) Which of the following is true about interphase ?

(1) It includes mitosis and cytokinesis

(2) DNA replication occurs in the G2 phase
(3) The cell is inactive during this phase
(4) It is the longest phase of the cell cycle

23) Identify the correct statement with respect to cell cycle duration.

(1) Yeast takes 24 hours, while human cells take 90 minutes

(2) Both take approximately the same time
(3) Yeast takes 90 minutes, while human cells take ~ 24 hours
(4) Yeast has no defined cell cycle

ZOOLOGY

1)

The type of body symmetry shown below can be found in :-

(1) All Sponges, Coelenterates and Ctenophores

(2) Platyhelminthes, Aschelminths and Annelids
(3) Coelenterates, Ctenophores and adult Echinoderms
(4) Arthropods, Molluscs, Hemichordates and Chordates

2)

Arrange the correct sequence of water canal system.

(1) Osculum → Ostia → Spongocoel
(2) Ostia → Osculum → Choanocytes
(3) Paragastric cavity → Osculum → Ostia
(4) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum

3) Assertion (A): Tentacles in hydra are locomotory organs.

Reason (R): Tentacles in hydra are used for swimming.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

4)

Identify the organisms X and Y given below.

Select the correct option w.r.t 'X' and 'Y'.

(1) ‘X’ lives in freshwater whereas ‘Y’ lives in ocean.

A central gastro-vascular cavity with a single opening (mouth) on hypostome is present in both
(2)
‘X’ and ‘Y’.
(3) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are sessile animals and ‘Y’ uses its tentacles for capturing the prey.
(4) Stinging capsule is present in ‘Y’ and ‘X’ contains flagellated collar cells.

5) Select the incorrect feature w.r.t comb jellies:

(1) Exclusively marine

(2) Only sexual reproduction
(3) Internal fertilisation
(4) Sexes are not separate

6)

Choose the correct match from the option given below:

Acoelomate, Fasciola and

(1)
triploblastic Ascaris

Alternation of Culex and

(2)
generation Pheretima
 Adamsia and
(3) Segmented body
Gorgonia

Tissue level of Obelia and

(4)
organisation Physalia
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Skeleton of sponges made up of spicules and spongin fibres present in which layer ?

(1) Mesoderm
(2) Choanoderm
(3) Mesoglea
(4) Mesohyl / Mesenchyme

8)

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II

(A) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata

(B) Canal System (ii) Ctenophora

(C) Comb plates (iii) Annelida

(D) Cnidoblast (iv) Porifera

Choose the CORRECT answers from the options given below:
(1) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
(2) A – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
(3) A – III, B – IV, C – II, D – I
(4) A – II, B – IV, C – II, D – I

9) What is the function of Cnidoblast ?

(1) Anchorage
(2) Defense and capture of prey
(3) Digestion and Grinding
(4) Both (1) and (2)

10) In Ctenophora, the body bears ______ external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in
locomotion.

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Eight

11)

Choose the correct option for animals possessing schizocoelom:

(1) Ascaris, Nereis, Hirudinaria, Prawn

(2) Taenia, Ascaris, Apis, Limulus
(3) Locusta, Pheretima, Hirudinaria, Periplaneta
(4) Pleurobrachia, Wuchereria, Scorpion

12)

Read the following four statements (A–D):

(A) Annelids possess only longitudinal muscles which help in locomotion.
(B) Nephridia helps only in excretion and not in osmoregulation.
(C) Closed type circulatory system is present in most of annelids.
(D) Members of phylum Annelida are triploblastic, metamerically segmented and acoelomate.
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

13)

Select the correct statement for phylum Arthropoda:

(1) Largest phylum which include only insects

(2) They are triploblastic, unsegmented and coelomate.
(3) Sensory organs like antennae, simple eyes, compound eyes, are present.
(4) They always show indirect development.

14)

Consider the following three statements (A–C) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only:
(A) The earthworm shows metameric segmentation.
(B) Platyhelminthes shows organ level of body organisation.
(C) In Aschelminthes, mesoglea is present between ectoderm and endoderm.

(1) Statement A, B and C

(2) Statements A and B
(3) Statements B and C
(4) Statements A and C

15) Cross section of animal body is given below :

Which of the following animal will satisfy the above cross-section ?

(1) Fasciola
(2) Pleurobrachia
(3) Ascaris
(4) Nereis

16)

Mark the most appropriate answer about the given diagram

(1) a- Porifera; b - Coelenterata

(2) a - Ctenophora; b - Annelida
(3) a - Coelenterata; b - Platyhelminthes
(4) a - Arthropoda; b - Hemichordata

17) When only one plane passing through the central axis of the body divides the organism into two
identical left and right halves, the organism is called

(1) Radially symmetrical

(2) Bilaterally symmetrical
(3) Asymmetrical
(4) Metamerically segmented

18)

Choose the incorrect option.

(1) In Aschelminthes, development may be direct & young ones resemble the adult.
(2) Larva of sponges is morphologically distinct from the adult.
(3) Portuguese man-of-war possesses bilateral symmetry.
(4) Well-marked property of sea walnuts is bioluminescence.

19) In phylum Porifera, the opening through which water leaves the spongocoel is called ?
(1) Ostia
(2) Ommatidia
(3) Osculum
(4) Choanocytes

20) Medusa is :-

(1) Sessile & cylindrical

(2) Free living & umbrella-shaped
(3) Free living & performs sexual reproduction
(4) Free swimming & umbrella-shaped

21) In which organism development is through many larval stages and fertilisation is internal ?

(1) Fasciola
(2) Ctenoplana
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Limulus

22)

Select the correct statement without any exception :

(1) Flat worms are endoparasites

(2) Mollusc have open circulatory system.
(3) All sponges & coelenterates are marine.
(4) Members of annelida have segmentation.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 2 1 2 3 3 2 3 3 4 4 3 1 3 1 2 2 1 4
Q. 21 22 23
A. 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43
A. 1 4 4 2 1 3 4 2 3 4 2 4 1 3 3 2 4 1 3 4
Q. 44 45
A. 1 1

BOTANY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 2 3 3 1 2 4 1 3 3 4 2 1 1 4 2 3 4
Q. 66 67 68
A. 2 4 3

ZOOLOGY

Q. 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88
A. 3 4 1 4 3 4 4 3 4 4 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 3 3 4
Q. 89 90
A. 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) From force diagram of 2 kg block:

10 − kx = 2a = 4
kx = 6
From force diagram of 3 kg block,
kx = 3a
or 6 = 3a

2) From force diagram of rope,

mg + 70 – 100 = ma
or 50 + 70 – 100 = 5a
or 20 = 5a

Let tension at middle point is T.

From force diagram of half lower portion :
25 + 70 – T = 2.5a or 95 – T = 10

3) From force diagram of wedge,

From force diagram of smaller block:

N = mg cos 37° ...(i)

Hence, reading is kx0 = 12 N.

4) The maximum value of friction is

Here N + 4 = mg = 10
N=6N

But applied force in horizontal direction is .

.
So, static friction comes into play.

5)

6)
When the block is released, it will move down the incline. Let its acceleration be a. As the
surface is frictionless, so the contact force will be normal to the plane.
Let it be N.
Here, for the block we can apply equation for motion along the plane and equation for
equilibrium perpendicular to the plane.
i.e.,
Also,

7)

Since string is pulled by 100 N force.

So tension in the string is 100 N.
F.B.D. of 10 kg block
100 − 10g = 10a
100 − 10 × 9.8 = 10a
a = 0.2 m/s2

8) Net acceleration of the block

9) Blocks A and C both move due to friction. But less friction is available to A as compared to C
because normal reaction between A and B is less. Maximum friction between A and B can be:

10) Maximum force that can be exerted on the man by the rope is 600 N.
F.B.D of man

11) Let the contact force on the block by the surface be Fc which makes an angle with the
vertical (shown figure).

The component of Fc perpendicular to the contact surface is the normal force N and the
component of F parallel to the surface is the friction f. As the surface is horizontal, N is
vertically upward. For vertical equilibrium,
N = Mg = (0.400 kg) (10 m/s2) = 4.0 N
The frictional force is f = 3.0 N
The magnituded of the contact force is

12) In the reference frame of the truck FBD of 40 kg block

This acceleration of the block in

reference frame of truck so time taken by box to fall down from truck
13)

14) Theory based.

15) Along perpendicular to wall F = N

Parallel to wall f = W
f = mg
= 5 × 9.8
= 49 N.

16)

Now F1 is removed then also is present = ma

17) From the given question after solving

18)
Refer to figure, in the journey over the upper half of incline, v2 – u2 = 2as

In the journey over the lower half of incline v2 – u2 = 2as

19) Given, mass = 2kg

 20) Up 'a'
Down 'a'
_____________________

21) Theory based.

22) Theory based.

23)

Theory based.

CHEMISTRY

24) The oxidation number of an overall molecule is zero.

Hence, the oxidation number of sulfur in S8 is zero because it is a complete molecule.
The oxidation state of fluorine is –1 due to high electronegativity
Hence, the oxidation number of sulfur in S2F2 is
[2x – 2 = 0]
[2x = 2]
x = +1
The oxidation state of hydrogen is +1 due to less electronegative than sulfur.
Hence, the oxidation number of sulfur in H2S is
2x × 1 + x = 0
x+2=0
x = –2
Therefore, the oxidation number of sulfur in S8, S2F2 and H2S is 0, +1 and –2 respectively.

25) Redox reaction is a chemical reaction that involves both oxidation and reduction half-
reactions simultaneously.
Given,
 is a redox reaction.
The oxidation state of fluorine is always –1 due to its high electronegativity.
The overall oxidation state of a molecule is zero.

Oxidation Oxidation
Element state in state in
reactants products

Xe +4 +6 (oxidation)

F –1 –1

O +2 .0 (reduction)

26) Given,
2K[Ag(CN)2] + Zn ⟶ 2Ag + K2[Zn(CN)4]
Redox reaction is a chemical reaction that involves both oxidation and reduction half-reactions
simultaneously.

27) Minimum oxidation state - Reducing agent

Maximum oxidation state - Oxidising agent
Intermediate oxidation state – both oxidising agent and reducing agent.

28)

For redox reaction, the valence factor is equal to the number of electron gain or loss by a
species.
The equivalent weight of redox species is written as,

Equivalent weight =

S2O32– acts as an oxidizing agent. It reduces I2 to I–.

The reaction of thiosulfates with iodine is represented as follows,
2S2O32– + I2 → S4O62– + 2I–
Here the oxidation state of S does not change.
Therefore, the valence factor for S2O32– is equal to 1.
The equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 is written as,

Equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 =

Therefore, the equivalent weight of Na2S2O3 is equal to molecular weight.

29) For redox reaction, the valence factor is equal to the number of electron gain or loss by a
species.
The equivalent weight of redox species is written as,

Equivalent weight =
Oxidation state of Cu changes from +1 to +2.
Oxidation state of S changes from –2 to +4.

Equivalent weight of Cu2S =

30)

The reaction is given as,

Hydrazine accepts electrons and oxidizes to nitrogen.

The reaction is,
N2H4 → N2 + 4H+ + 4e–
The oxidation reaction involves 4 electrons, thus valence factor for hydrazine oxidation is
equal to 4.

Equivalent weight of
Here, iodine in IIO3– accepts four electrons and is reduced to ICl.
The number of electrons involved in the reduction is equal to 4.
The reaction is,
IO3– + 6H+ + 5e– → ICl + 3H2O
Thus valence factor is equal to 4.
Equivalent weight for KIO3 is calculated as follows,

Equivalent weight of KIO3 =

So, the equivalent weight of hydrazine is 8 and KIO3 is 53.5.

31) Equivalent weight of a compound is defined as the ratio of molecular weight of compound
by the change in oxidation state.
The oxidation state of manganese (Mn) in MnSO4 is +2.

Therefore, Equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half of its molecular weight when it changes to
MnO2 as the change in the oxidation state of manganese is 2.

32)

Assertion is true but Reason is false.

33) Given,
The chemical formula of phosphorus acid is H3PO3
Molarity of phosphorous acid = 0.3 M
Normality = Molarity × Basicity of acid
Basicity of an acid is defined as the number of replaceable hydrogen ions present in the
structure

34)

The reaction is given as follows,

Here, Mn accepts three electrons and reduces to MnO2.

The oxidation state of Mn changes from +7 → +4.
A reduction reaction is,

Similarly, sulfur in oxidizes to .

The reaction involves 8 electrons.
The reaction is,

So the valence factor for and is equal to 3 and 8.

So both reason and assertion are correct but the reason is not a proper explanation of
assertion.

35)

In acidic medium, change in oxidation state of Mn = 7 − 2 = 5

In basic medium, change in oxidation state of Mn in KMnO4 = 7 − 6 = 1
n-factor of KMnO4 in acidic medium = 5
n-factor of KMnO4 in basic medium = 1
n-factor of KMnO4 in neutral medium = 3
Thus, assertion and reason both are incorrect.

36)

37)

Let us consider the oxidation states of central metal atom for each given option,
H2S → S(−2) Sulphur cannot be reduced further.
H2O2 → O(−1) Oxygen can undergo −2 to 0.
SO3 → S(+6)
Sulphur is present in high oxidation state.
F2 → F(0) Fluorine cannot oxidize, because it is most electronegative in nature.
Clearly, O can act as oxidizing as well as reducing agent in H2O2.

38) Here, central atom is oxygen and F is more electronegative.

Let us consider the oxidation states for oxygen in given compound to be x,
F2O → x − 2 = 0, x = +2

39)

The given reaction can be written as:

4S(+2) + 2e– → 4S
2I(0) + 2e⁻ → 2I(−1)
Oxidation state of sulfur has increased, but that of iodine is decreased.
Therefore, sulfur is oxidized and iodine is reduced.

40)

The structure of H2S2O8 is as follows:

It contains peroxide linkage due to which the oxidation number of these two oxygen atoms will
be −1 each.
Let the oxidation number of S in this compound be x and it is calculated below:
2 × (+1) + 2x + 6 × (−2) + 2 × (−1) = 0
2 + 2x − 12 − 2 = 0 or 2x = 12
∴ x = +6

41) Given,

Steps involved in balancing redox reaction (acidic medium)

Divide the chemical reaction into two half-reactions (oxidation and reduction half reaction)
Balance the atoms other than oxygen and hydrogen
Balance the oxygen adding water molecules (H2O)
 Balance the hydrogen adding hydrogen ions (H+)
Balance the charge by adding electrons
Balanced chemical reaction is

42) In CH4, oxidation number of carbon is –4 while in , oxidation number of carbon is +4.
Thus, the change in oxidation number of carbon in the given reaction is from –4 to +4.

43) Metal displacement reactions are the ones in which more reactive metal displaces a less
reactive metal from its compound.
Thus, out of the given reactions, the metal displacement reaction is

44)

(a – t, u) Disproportionation or auto-redox: one molecule of a reactant is oxidized and reduced

simultaneously.

45) ....(i)
....(ii)
Multiplying (i) by e and adding (ii),

Completing the reaction,

Here, x = 1, y = 3, z = 1.

BOTANY

46) NCERT Page no. 124

47) Allen module

48)

NCERT Page no. 124

49)

NCERT Page no. 124

50) NCERT Page no. 125

51)

NCERT Page no. 122

52)

NCERT Page no. 123

53) NCERT Page no. 123

54)

Allen module

55)

NCERT Page no. 123

56) NCERT Page no. 120

57)

NCERT Page no. 125

58) NCERT Page no. 122

59) NCERT Page no. 122

60)

NCERT Page no. 120

61)

NCERT Page no. 124

62)

NCERT Page no. 122

63) NCERT Page no. 122

 64)

NCERT Page no. 122

65)

NCERT Page no. 123

66) Allen module page 215.

67) Ncert page 121.

68) Ncert page 121.

ZOOLOGY

69)

Radial symmetry only present in sycon and Leucosolenia (Porifera).

NCERT Page no. 38
Edition = 2022

70)

NCERT Conceptual

71)

NCERT Conceptual.

72)

NCERT Page no. 40 & 41

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74)

NCERT Page no. 41 to 43

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76)

NCERT Page no. 40 to 43

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77) NCERT Page No. 41,

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78) NCERT Page No. 42,

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79)

Type of Eucoelom (NEET 2025)

80)

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90)

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